Q.No Question
1

Which of the following statements about glia is true?

2

A 45-year-old female office worker had been experiencing tingling in her index and middle fingers and thumb of her right hand. Recently, her wrist and hand had become weak. Her physician ordered a nerve conduction test to evaluate her for carpal tunnel syndrome. Which one of the following nerves has the slowest conduction velocity?

3

Which of the following is not correctly paired?

4

A 32-year-old female received an injection of a local anesthetic for a tooth extraction. Within 2 h, she noted palpitations, diaphoresis, and dizziness. Which of the following ionic changes is correctly matched with a component of the action potential?

5

Which of the following physiological processes is not correctly paired with a structure?

6

A 35-year-old woman sees her physician to report muscle weakness in the extraocular eye muscles and muscles of the extremities. She states that she feels fine when she gets up in the morning, but the weakness begins soon after she becomes active. The weakness is improved by rest. Sensation appears normal. The physician treats her with an anticholinesterase inhibitor, and she notes immediate return of muscle strength. Her physician diagnoses her with

7

A 47-year-old female was admitted to the hospital after reporting that she had been experiencing nausea and vomiting for about two days and then developed severe muscle weakness and neurological symptoms including ptosis and dysphagia. She indicated she had eaten at a restaurant the evening before the symptoms began. Lab tests were positive for Clostridium botulinum.Neurotoxins block the reuptake

8

Which of the following statements about neurotransmitters is true?

9

A 28-year-old male was seen by a neurologist because he had experienced prolonged episodes of tingling and numbness in his right arm. He underwent a neurological exam to evaluate his sensory nervous system. Which of the following receptors is correctly paired with the type of stimulus to which it is most apt to respond?

10

A 32-year-old female experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. Visceral pain

11

A 28-year-old male with severe myopia made an appointment to see his ophthalmologist when he began to notice flashing lights and floaters in his visual field. He was diagnosed with a retinal detachment. The retina

12

An 11-year-old male was having difficulty reading the graphs that his teacher was showing at the front of classroom. His teacher recommended he be seen by an ophthalmologist. Not only was he asked to look at a Snellen letter chart for visual acuity but he was also asked to identify numbers in an Ishihara chart. He responded that he merely saw a bunch of dots. Abnormal color vision is 20 times more common in men than women because most cases are caused by an abnormal

13

A 45-year-old woman visited her physician after experiencing sudden onset of vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss in her left ear, nausea, and vomiting. This was the second episode in the past few months. She was referred to an otolaryngologist to rule out Meniere disease. Which of the following statements correctly describe the functions of the external, middle, or inner ear?

14

A 40-year-old male, employed as a road construction worker for nearly 20 years, went to his physician to report that he recently began to notice difficulty hearing during normal conversations. A Weber test showed that sound from a vibrating tuning fork was localized to the right ear. A Schwabach test showed that bone conduction was below normal. A Rinne test showed that both air and bone conduction were abnormal, but air conduction lasted longer than bone conduction. The diagnosis was:

15

A young boy was diagnosed with congenital anosmia, a rare disorder in which an individual is born without the ability to smell. Odorant receptors are

16

While exercising, a 42-year-old female developed sudden onset of tingling in her right leg and an inability to control movement in that limb. A neurological exam showed a hyperactive knee jerk reflex and a positive Babinski sign. Which of the following is not characteristic of a reflex?

17

A 45-year-old male had a meal containing wild mushrooms that he picked in a field earlier in the day. Within a few hours after eating, he developed nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, sweating, and salivation. Which of the following statements about the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

18

In a healthy, alert adult sitting with their eyes closed, the dominant EEG rhythm observed with electrodes over the occipital lobes is

19

A 79-year-old woman has been experiencing difficulty finding her way back home after her morning walks. Her husband has also noted that she takes much longer to do routine chores around the home and often appears to be confused. He is hoping that this is just due to old age but fears it may be a sign of Alzheimer disease. Which of the following is the definitive sign of this disease?

20

The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is

21

In skeletal muscle, which of the following events occurs before depolarization of the T tubules in the mechanism of excitation– contraction coupling

22

Which of the following statements best describes the basilar membrane of the organ of Corti?

23

Cutting which structure on the left side causes total blindness in the left eye?

24

The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements is associated with lesions of the

25

Patients are enrolled in trials of a new atropine analog. Which of the following would be expected?

26

A 46-year-old woman has hirsutism, hyperglycemia, obesity, muscle wasting, and increased circulating levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The most likely cause of her symptoms is

27

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his

28

A key difference in the mechanism of excitation contraction coupling between the muscle of the pharynx and the muscle of the wall of the small intestine is that

29

A 30-year-old woman has the anterior lobe of her pituitary gland surgically removed because of a tumor. Without hormone replacement therapy, which of the following would occur after the operation?

30

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle contraction is most accurate?

31

In a normal, healthy muscle, what occurs as a result of propagation of an action potential to the terminal membrane of a motor neuron?

32

A cross-sectional view of a skeletal muscle fiber through the H zone would reveal the presence of what?

33

The delayed onset and prolonged duration of smooth muscle contraction, as well as the greater force generated by smooth muscle compared with skeletal muscle, are all consequences of which of the following?

34

A 17-year-old soccer player suffered a fracture to the left tibia. After her lower leg has been in a cast for 8 weeks, she is surprised to find that the left gastrocnemius muscle is significantly smaller in circumference than it was before the fracture. What is the most likely explanation?

35

Which of the following statements concerning the mechanoreceptive receptor potential is/are true?

36

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

37

Which disorder involves a loss of pain sensation on one side of the body coupled with the loss of proprioception, precise tactile localization, and vibratory sensations on the contralateral side of the body?

38

Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high-frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which of the following?

39

Which of the following regarding the attenuation reflex is correct?

40

Olfactory receptor cells belong to which of the following groups of cells?

41

Which of the following provides about two thirds of the 59 diopters of refractive power of the eye?

42

Which of the following items is the type of neuron whose axon forms synaptic junctions with the skeletal muscle cells (extrafusal fibers) that comprise the major part of a muscle?

43

Broca area is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to Broca area?

44

The withdrawal reflex is initiated by stimulation delivered to which of the following receptors?

45

Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15% of the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism?

46

After menopause, hormone replacement therapy with estrogen-like compounds is effective in preventing the progression of osteoporosis. What is the mechanism of their protective effect?

47

A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with a fracture in the neck of the femur. Radiographs reveal generalized demineralization of the bone in the area. Her plasma calcium ion concentration is significantly greater than normal: 12.2 mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is consistent with this presentation?

48

A man eats a low carbohydrate meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids that stimulate insulin secretion. Which of the following responses accounts for the absence of hypoglycemia?

49

Release of which of the following hormones is an example of neuroendocrine secretion?

50

All are properties of spinal cord reflex except:

51

A 22-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 25 U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?

52

A 20-year-old man presents with increasing daytime somnolence. A 24-hour sleep study showing a sudden onset of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep without previous slow-wave sleep confirms a diagnosis of narcolepsy. REM sleep decreases the secretion of growth hormone. The physiological secretion of growth hormone is increased by which of the following:

53

At a first-grade parent teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones?

54

The morning after a rock concert, a 20-year-old college student notices difficulty hearing his professor during lecture. The physician at the student health center suspects possible damage to his hair cells by the loud music. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of which of the following:

55

Olfactory receptor cells belong to which of the following groups of cells:

56

Accommodation for far vision (focusing on an object at a distance) requires which of the following processes?

57

Visual contrast is enhanced due to lateral inhibition by which retinal cells:

58

Wallerian degeneration refers to:

59

No matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along its course to the cortex, the conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor. This is:

60

Aphasia refers to:

61

Water is absorbed in the jejunum, ileum, and colon and excreted in the feces. Arrange these in order of the amount of water absorbed or excreted from greatest to smallest.

62

Following a natural disaster in Gujarat, there is an outbreak of cholera among displaced persons living in a tent encampment. The affected individuals display severe diarrheal symptoms because of which of the following changes in intestinal transport

63

Which of the following has the highest pH

64

A 60-year-old woman undergoes total pancreatectomy because of the presence of a tumor. Which of the following outcomes would not be expected after she recovers from the operation?

65

A decrease in which of the following would be expected in a child exhibiting a congenital absence of enterokinase?

66

Gastric pressures seldom rise above the levels that breach the lower esophageal sphincter, even when the stomach is filled with a meal, due to which of the following processes?

67

A 53-year-old woman with chronic lung disease was experiencing difficulty breathing. Her arterial Po 2 and Pco 2 were 50 and 60 mm Hg, respectively. Which one of the following statements about chemoreceptors is correct?

68

Which of the following is responsible for the movement of O2 from the alveoli into the blood in the pulmonary capillaries

69

In the presence of vasopressin, the greatest fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the

70

What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in the plasma is 10 mg/dL, its concentration in the urine is 100 mg/ dL, and urine flow is 2 mL/min

71

If the ejection fraction increases, there will be a decrease in

72

Blood flow to which organ is controlled primarily by the sympathetic nervous system rather than by local metabolites

73

The physiologic function of the relatively slow conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node is to allow sufficient time for

74

A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine (lying down), her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats/min (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate further increases to 120 beats/min. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing

75

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the patient's end-diastolic volume

76

An infant born prematurely in gestational week 25 has neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would be expected in this infant

77

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (Vt) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

78

In the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs, which of the following occurs in venous blood

79

A 42-year-old woman with severe pulmonary fibrosis is evaluated by her physician and has the following arterial blood gases: pH = 7.48, PaO2 = 55 mm Hg, and PaCO2 = 32 mm Hg. Which statement best explains the observed value of PaCO2

80

If an area of the lung is not ventilated because of bronchial obstruction, the pulmonary capillary blood serving that area will have a PO2 that is

81

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the

82

A woman has a plasma osmolarity of 300 mOsm/L and a urine osmolarity of 1200 mOsm/L. The correct diagnosis is

83

A man presents with hypertension and hypokalemia. Measurement of his arterial blood gases reveals a pH of 7.5 and a calculated HCO3- of 32 mEq/L. His serum cortisol and urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) are normal, his serum aldosterone is increased, and his plasma renin activity is decreased. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his hypertension

84

A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

85

A 24-year-old male graduate student participates in a clinical research study on intestinal motility. Peristalsis of the small intestine

86

A 44-year-old woman is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which of the following findings is consistent with the diagnosis

87

A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after being injured in an automobile accident and sustaining significant blood loss. He is given a transfusion of 3 units of blood to stabilize his blood pressure. Before the transfusion, which of the following was true about his condition

88

A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with Stokes-Adams syndrome. Two minutes after the syndrome starts to cause active blockade of the cardiac impulse, which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart

89

The diameter of a precapillary arteriole is increased in a muscle vascular bed. A decrease in which of the following would be expected

90

A healthy 22-year-old female medical student has an exercise stress test at a local health club. An increase in which of the following is most likely to occur in this woman’s skeletal muscles during exercise

91

A 65-year-old man is suffering from congestive heart failure. He has a cardiac output of 4 L/min, arterial pressure of 115/85 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Further tests by a cardiologist reveal that the patient has a right atrial pressure of 10 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected in this patient

92

A 60-year-old man had a heart attack 2 days ago, and his blood pressure has continued to decrease. He is now in cardiogenic shock. Which of the following therapies is most beneficial

93

A 30-year-old female enters the emergency room and has been experiencing severe vomiting. She has pale skin, tachycardia, and arterial pressure of 80/50, and has trouble walking. What therapy do you recommend to prevent shock

94

A 26-year-old man develops glomerulonephritis, and his GFR decreases by 50% and remains at that level. For which of the following substances would you expect to find the greatest increase in plasma concentration

95

If the average hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 50 mm Hg, the hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman space is 12 mm Hg, the average colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 30 mm Hg, and there is no protein in the glomerular ultrafiltrate, what is the net pressure driving glomerular filtration

96

Which of the following changes would you expect to find in a dehydrated person deprived of water for 24 hours

97

Which of the following is true of the tubular fluid that passes through the lumen of the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa

98

In a patient with very high levels of aldosterone and otherwise normal kidney function, approximately what percentage of the filtered load of sodium would be reabsorbed by the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

99

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58 percent, WBC 13,300/ul, and platelets 600,000/ul. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97 percent on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment

100

In a normal healthy person, which of the following blood components has the shortest life span

101

What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway

102

A 2-year-old boy bruises easily and has previously had bleeding gums. The maternal grandfather has a bleeding disorder. His physical examination shows several small bruises on the legs. Of which coagulation factor would you suspect this patient to be deficient

103

A 63-year-old woman returned to work following a vacation in New Zealand. Several days after returning home, she awoke with swelling and pain in her right leg and her leg was blue. She went immediately to the emergency room where an examination showed an extensive deep vein thrombosis involving the femoral and iliac veins on the right side. Following resolution of the clot, this patient will require which treatment in the future

104

A 67-year-old man is admitted as an emergency to University Hospital because of severe chest pain. A Swan-Ganz catheter is floated into the pulmonary artery, the balloon is inflated, and the pulmonary wedge pressure is measured. The pulmonary wedge pressure is used clinically to monitor which of the following pressures

105

When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, a special set of respiratory neurons that are inactive during normal quiet breathing then becomes active, contributing to the respiratory drive. These neurons are located in which of the following structures

106

At a party a 17-year-old male places a paper bag over his mouth and breathes in and out of the bag. As he continues to breathe into this bag, his rate of breathing continues to increase. Which of the following is responsible for the increased ventilation

107

The cephalic phase of gastric secretion accounts for about 30% of the acid response to a meal. Which of the following can totally eliminate the cephalic phase of gastric secretion

108

Mass movements constitute an important intestinal event that lead to bowel movements. Mass movements cause which of the following

109

A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe chest pain. Angiography demonstrates a severe coronary occlusion. A thrombolytic agent is administered to re-establish perfusion. Which of the following does the thrombolytic agent activate

110

Which of the following would best explain a prolonged bleeding time test

111

Which of the following is the result of an inward Na+ current

112

An 80-year-old man reports increasing dyspnea, which worsens with exertion. The cardiologist orders an echocardiogram, brain natriuretic peptide, and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to evaluate possible congestive heart failure. Which of the following is most likely with ANP

113

If a patient undergoing spinal anaesthesia experiences a large decrease in arterial pressure and goes into shock, which of the following would be the therapy of choice

114

Cardiac output is determined by all except

115

A new drug is developed that blocks the transporter for H+ secretion in gastric parietal cells. Which of the following transport processes is being inhibited

116

A 44-year-old woman is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which of the following findings is consistent with the diagnosis

117

A 48-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. She is not undergoing chemo-therapy currently. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum-ionized calcium. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are undetectable, but there is an increase in PTH-related peptide PTHrP. The increased flow of calcium into the cell is an important component of the upstroke phase of the action potential in which of the following

118

An infant born prematurely in gestational week 25 has neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would be expected in this infant

119

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (Vt) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

120

A couple presents at the fertility center with concerns that they have not been able to conceive a child. The reproductive endocrinologist evaluates the wife to be certain that she is ovulating. Which of the following is an indication that ovulation has taken place

121

Drug used to treat CHQ resistant malaria in a pregnant female during first trimester is:

122

All are used in systemic fungal infections except:

123

Locally used antifungal for corneal ulceration is:

124

Which of the following antileprotic drug causes skin ichthyosis:

125

All are true except in Isoniazid therapy:

126

Which of the following antibiotic not effective against kleibsella and pseudomonas:

127

Which of the following drug not used because of risk of prolongation of QT interval:

128

DOC for neurosyphilis is:

129

Which of the following drug is showing cross sensitivity wih isoniazid:

130

Resistance against INH is due to:

131

True about Amphotericin-B are all except:

132

Albendazole is not a DOC for which condition:

133

All of the following are used in leishmaniasis except:

134

Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is:

135

A patient having pneumonia due to ventilator treatment given ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture & sensitivity report showing pseudomonas growth, which is having extended spectrum beta lactamase activity. What is the next step of management

136

Antibiotic commonly associated with cause of pseudomembranous colitis is:

137

Gonorrhoea become resistant to all of the following antibiotics except:

138

All are true regarding Daptomycin except:

139

Antagonistic drug combination is:

140

Drug of choice for restless leg syndrome is:

141

Which of the following pair is correct side effect of drugs:

142

Levetiracetam used for:

143

Drug which does not act by inhibiting nucleic acid is:

144

Which of the following cephalosporin having anti-MRSA activity:

145

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis:

146

A-28-year-old intravenous drug user complains about severe epigastric pains, nausea and vomiting. He has upper GI endoscopy which shows small areas of ulceration and white plaques. Following is the best treatment option:

147

All are correct except:

148

True match for Antiemetics:

149

Cyproheptadine: All are true except

150

Which of the following drug can be used to treat acute gout:

151

Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation:

152

All of the following cox-inhibitors are highly hepatoxic except:

153

Which of the following is not a DMARD, which acts via TNF-alpha inhibition:

154

Which of the following drug used in treatment of irritable bowel syndrome associated diarrhea:

155

Leflunomide acts by inhibiting:

156

Drugs causing peptic ulcer is:

157

Thalidomide used in all of the following conditions except:

158

All are correctly matched except:

159

True regarding second generation antihistaminics are all except:

160

A young male patient was suffering from AML so Doxorubicin based regimen chemotherapy given for treated. After some time he is having swelling in lower limb and breathlessness on excretion and during night time. Which is the possible toxicity to this patient:

161

A patient having lung disorder, which of the following anticancer should not be given to this patient:

162

Cerebellar toxicity seen with:

163

Antidote for methotrexate poisoning is:

164

An old female having breast carcinoma was prescribed transtuzumab. What is true regarding this drug:

165

All are true regarding Imatinib except:

166

A patient brought to the causality with overdose of amitryptylline. What is not true:

167

What is the best time to start folic acid in a patient on antiepileptic:

168

Gender specific side effect of valproate is:

169

Which NMDA blocker used in epilepsy patients:

170

Drug contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria is:

171

Mechanism of action of Buprenorphine:

172

Which of the following non-BZD sedative drug acting on BZD receptor but not having muscle relaxant property is:

173

Which of the following is not a serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor:

174

A young male giving H/O excessive blinking of one eye since last 5-6 years. He is not able to control this and when he tried to control frequency increases. This is affecting his professional life decreasing his confidence level. What is the best drug for this patient

175

Which drug is given for depressive phase of BPD patients:

176

All are false about tegecycline except:

177

Which antiviral drug is use in both HIV and hep-B:

178

Drug which lacks intrinsic activity against anaerobes is:

179

Maximum increase in prolactin level is caused by

180

Most common agent associated with agranulocytosis is:

181

Testing of HLA-B5701 is recommended prior to initiation of this antiretroviral agent:

182

MOA of basiliximab is:

183

A bed ridden female patient with catheter related UTI by beta lactamase producing klebsiella pneumoniae; which of the following drug you choose:

184

A patient of biliary colic presented to hospital. Intern gave an injection and the pain worsened. Which is the most likely injection given?

185

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed blurring of vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this?

186

A boy is planning to travel by bus. Which of the following drug can be used to prevent motion sickness in this person?

187

Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis is:

188

A patient was recently started on Fluphenazine. Few weeks later, he developed tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia and excessive salivation. First line of management for this patient is:

189

Fluoroquinolone contraindicated in liver disease is:

190

Mechanism of resistance to penicillins via beta lactamase is:

191

A female patient was on lithium therapy for bipolar disorder for 6 months. She kept the fast for few days due to religious reasons and presented with seizures, coarse tremors, confusion and weakness of limbs. Which of the following done to diagnose her condition?

192

Which of the following drugs is used as nail lacquer for fungal infections

193

Pegloticase is used for treatment of:

194

Which of the following is not a prokinetic?

195

A 20-year-old man, riding pillion on a snowmobile, was involved in an accident. The machine was travelling at high speed when it hit a tree stump buried in snow. The man was thrown 12 ft. and landed on his right shoulder and the right side of his head. After 3 weeks of hospitalization, it was noticed that he kept his right arm internally rotated by his side with the forearm pronated. An area of anesthesia was present along the lateral side of the upper part of the arm. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which?

196

A 60-year-old woman fell down the stairs and was admitted to the emergency department with severe right shoulder pain. On examination, the patient was sitting up with her right arm by her side and her right elbow joint supported by the left hand. Inspection of the right shoulder showed loss of the normal rounded curvature and evidence of a slight swelling below the right clavicle. Any attempt at active or passive movement of the shoulder joint was stopped by severe pain in the shoulder. A diagnosis of dislocation of the right shoulder joint was made. The following statements concerning this patient are consistent with the diagnosis except which

197

A 45-year-old woman having her yearly physical examination was found to have a hard, painless lump in the upper lateral quadrant of the left breast. On examination with her arms at her sides, the left nipple was seen to be higher than the right, and a small dimple of skin was noted over the lump. On examination of the left axilla, three small, hard discrete nodules could be palpated below the lower border of the pectoralis major muscle. The right breast was normal. A diagnosis of carcinoma of the left breast was made, with secondary deposits in the axilla. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which

198

A young secretary, running from her office, had a glass door swing back in her face. To protect herself, she held out her left hand, which smashed through the glass. On admission to the hospital, she was bleeding profusely from a superficial laceration in front of her left wrist. She had sensory loss over the palmar aspect of the medial one and a half fingers but normal sensation of the back of these fingers over the middle and proximal phalanges. She had difficulty in grasping a piece of paper between her left index and middle fingers. All her long flexor tendons were intact.The following statements concerning this patient is correct except which

199

A 64-year-old man consulted his physician because he had noticed during the past 6 months a thickening of the skin at the base of his left ring finger. As he described it. There appears to be a band of tissue that is pulling my ring finger into the palm. On examination of the palms of both hands, a localized thickening of subcutaneous tissue could be felt at the base of the left ring and little fingers. The metacarpophalangeal joint of the ring finger could not be fully extended, either actively or passively. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which

200

A 54-year-old female marathon runner presents with pain in her right wrist that resulted when she fell with force on her outstretched hand. Radiographic studies indicate an anterior dislocation of a carpal bone (figure). Which of the following bones is most likely dislocated

201

A 69-year-old man has numbness in the middle three digits of his right hand and finds it difficult to grasp objects with that hand. He states that he retired 9 years earlier, after working as a carpenter for 50 years. He has atrophy of the thenar eminence (Figure). Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of the problems in his hand

202

A 22-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department in an unconscious state. The nurse takes a radial pulse to determine the heart rate of the patient. This pulse is felt lateral to which tendon

203

A 35-year-old patient has a small but painful tumor under the nail of the little finger. Which of the following nerves would have to be anesthetized for a painless removal of the tumor

204

A 22-year-old pregnant woman was admitted emergently to the hospital after the baby had begun to appear at the introitus. The baby had presented in the breech position, and it had been necessary to exert considerable traction to complete the delivery. The newborn is shown in Figure. Which of the following structures was most likely injured by the trauma of childbirth

205

A 22-year-old male medical student was seen in the emergency department with a complaint of pain in his hand. He confessed that he had hit a vending machine in the hospital when he did not receive his soft drink after inserting money twice. The medial side of the dorsum of the hand was quite swollen, and one of his knuckles could not be seen when he made a fist. The physician made a diagnosis of a fracture of boxers. What was the nature of the impatient student injury

206

A 17-year-old female student of martial arts entered the emergency department with a complaint of pain in her hand. Patient history reveals that she had been breaking concrete blocks with her hand. Examination reveals that the patient has weak abduction and adduction of her fingers but has no difficulty in flexing them. The patient also has decreased sensation over the palmar surfaces of the fourth and fifth digits. Which of the following best describes the nature of her

207

A 27-year-old male painter is admitted to the hospital after falling from a ladder. Physical examination reveals that the patient is unable to abduct his arm more than 15 degree and cannot rotate the arm laterally. A radiographic examination reveals an oblique fracture of the humerus. He has associated sensory loss over the shoulder area. Which of the following injuries will most likely correspond to the symptoms of the physical examination

208

While walking to his classroom building, a firstyear medical student slipped on the wet pavement and fell against the curb, injuring his right arm. Radiographic images showed a midshaft fracture of the humerus. Which pair of structures was most likely injured at the fracture site

209

A 55-year-old male fire-fighter is admitted to the hospital after blunt trauma to his right axilla. Examination reveals winging of the scapula and partial paralysis of the right side of the diaphragm. Which of the following parts of the brachial plexus have been injured

210

A45-year-old woman is being examined as a candidate for cosmetic breast surgery. The surgeon notes that both of her breasts sag considerably. Which structure has most likely become stretched to result in this condition

211

A 48-year-old female court stenographer is admitted to the orthopedic clinic with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, with which she has suffered for almost a year. Which muscles most typically become weakened in this condition

212

Laboratory studies in the outpatient clinic on a 24-year-old female included assessment of circulating blood chemistry. Which of the following arteries is most likely at risk during vein puncture at the cubital fossa

213

A 45-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with a painful arm after a strongest man in the world contest. Physical examination gives evidence of a rupture of the long tendon of the biceps brachii (Figure). Which of the following is the most likely location of the rupture

214

A 3-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with severe pain. History taking reveals that the girl was violently lifted by her raised arm by her mother to prevent the girl from walking in front of a moving car. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the pain

215

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after a car collision. Physical examination reveals a mallet finger. Which of the following conditions is expected to be present during radiographic examination

216

After a major abdominal operation, a patient was given a course of antibiotics by intramuscular injection. The nurse was instructed to give the injections into the right buttock. Later, when the patient left the hospital, he developed several symptoms and signs that suggested that the injections into the gluteus maximus muscle had been given over the course of the sciatic nerve and had caused a lesion of the common peroneal nerve. The symptoms and signs displayed by this patient included the following except which

217

A 25-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department after an automobile accident. Apart from other superficial injuries, he was found to have a fracture of the middle third of the right femur. The following statements concerning this patient are possible except which

218

A 27-year-old woman was found to have an unstable right knee joint following a severe automobile accident. On examination, it was possible to pull the tibia excessively forward on the femur. A diagnosis of ruptured anterior cruciate ligament was made. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which

219

A 17-year-old girl was dealing drugs on a street corner when she became involved in a fight. During the brawl she received a deep knife wound to the front of her right thigh. After a thorough examination in the emergency department of the local hospital, it was determined that the knife point had severed the trunk of the right femoral nerve just below the inguinal ligament. This patient had the following signs and symptoms except which

220

A 31-year-old woman has a history of poliomyelitis affecting the anterior horn cells of the lower thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord on the left side. On examination, she has severe right lateral flexion deformity of the vertebral column. The following statements are true about this case except which

221

A 20-year-old woman severely sprains her left ankle while playing tennis. When she tries to move the foot so that the sole faces medially, she experiences severe pain. What is the correct anatomic term for the movement of the foot that produces the pain

222

A 19-year-old boy was suspected of having leukemia. It was decided to confirm the diagnosis by performing a bone marrow biopsy. The following statements concerning this procedure are correct except which

223

A 37-year-old male is admitted to the hospital after an injury to his foot while playing flag football with friends on a Saturday morning. A series of radiographs demonstrates a fracture involving the talocrural (tibiotalar, ankle) joint. Which movements are the major ones to be affected by this injury

224

A 16-year-old male received a superficial cut on the lateral side of his foot while playing football and is admitted to the emergency department where the wound is sutured. Four days later the patient returns to the hospital with high fever and swollen lymph nodes. Which group of nodes will first receive lymph from the infected wound

225

A 49-year-old construction worker is admitted to the emergency department with a painful lump on the proximal medial aspect of his thigh. Radiographic and physical examinations reveal that the patient has a herniation of abdominal viscera beneath the inguinal ligament into the thigh. Through which of the following openings will a hernia of this type initially pass to extend from the abdomen into the thigh

226

A 45-year-old male presents at the local emergency clinic with the complaint of a painful knee and difficulty in walking. A CT scan examination reveals a very large cyst in the popliteal fossa compressing the tibial nerve. Which movement will most likely be affected

227

A 19-year-old football player was hit on the lateral side of his knee just as he put that foot on the ground. Unable to walk without assistance, he is taken to the hospital. An MRI examination reveals a torn medial collateral ligament. Which structure would most likely also be injured due to its attachment to this ligament

228

Upon removal of a leg cast, a 15-year-old boy complains of numbness of the dorsum of his right foot and inability to dorsiflex and everts his foot. Which is the most probable site of the nerve compression that resulted in these symptoms

229

A 75-year-old man is transported to the emergency department with severe pain of his right hip and thigh. A radiographic examination reveals avascular necrosis of the femoral head (Figure). Which of the following conditions most likely occurred to produce avascular necrosis in this patient

230

A 10-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a tree in which she was playing with her friends. Radiographic and physical examinations reveal Osgood-Schlatter disease (Figure). Which of the following bony structures is chiefly affected

231

A 58-year-old female employee of a housecleaning business visits the outpatient clinic with a complaint of constant, burning pain in her knees. Clinical examinations reveal a knee of housemaid condition (Figure). Which of the following structures is most likely affected

232

34-year-old woman has a direct blow to the patella by the dashboard of the vehicle during an automobile crash. The woman is admitted to the emergency department and radiographic examination reveals patella-femoral syndrome. This type of syndrome is characterized by lateral dislocation of the patella. Which of the following muscles requires strengthening by physical rehabilitation to prevent future dislocation of the patella

233

A 45-year-old male is treated at the hospital after he fell from his bicycle. Radiographic examination reveals fractures both of the tibia and the fibula. On physical examination the patient has a foot drop, but normal eversion (Figure). Which of the following nerves is most likely injured

234

A 32-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after an injury to his foot while playing football with his college friends. An MRI examination reveals multiple tendinous tears (Figure). Which of the following bones is associated with the muscle tears

235

In the radiographs of the knee of a male 28-yearold basketball player, who had apparently suffered a tear in a medial ligament of the knee, the tubercle on the superior aspect of the medial femoral condyle could be seen more clearly than in most individuals. What muscle attaches to this tubercle

236

A 49-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a cold and pale foot. Physical examination reveals that the patient suffers from peripheral vascular disease and his popliteal artery is occluded and no pulse is felt upon palpation. What is the landmark to feel the pulse of the femoral artery

237

A 50-year-old man with chronic alcoholism was told by his physician that he had cirrhosis of the liver with portal hypertension. The following statements explain why the patient recently vomited a cupful of blood except which

238

A 9-week-old boy was admitted to the hospital with a swelling in the right groin that extended down into the upper part of the scrotum. When he cried, the swelling enlarged. On careful palpation it was possible to reduce the size of the swelling, and this procedure was accompanied by a gurgling noise. The symptoms and signs displayed by this patient can be explained by the following statements except which

239

A 20-year-old soccer player was accidentally kicked on the left side of her chest. On returning to the locker room she said she felt faint and collapsed to the floor. On examination in the emergency department, she was found to be in hypovolemic shock. She had tenderness and muscle rigidity in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She also had extreme local tenderness over her left 10th rib in the midaxillary line. The symptoms and signs displayed by this patient can be explained by the following statements except which

240

A 63-year-old man with a long history of a duodenal ulcer was seen in the emergency department after vomiting blood-stained fluid and exhibiting all the signs and symptoms of severe hypovolemic shock. The following statements concerning duodenal ulcers could apply to the condition of patient except which

241

A 47-year-old woman was operated on for the treatment of a chronic gastric ulcer that had not responded to medical treatment. At operation for partial gastrectomy, it was found that the posterior wall of the stomach was stuck down to the posterior abdominal wall. The surgeon had to proceed with great care to avoid damaging important structures lying on the posterior abdominal wall. The following structures located on the posterior abdominal wall were possibly involved in the disease process except which

242

A 16-year-old boy received a severe kick in the right flank while playing football at school. On examination in the emergency department, his right flank was severely bruised, and his right costovertebral angle was extremely tender on palpation. A specimen of urine showed microscopic hematuria. A diagnosis of damage to the right kidney was made. The following statements concerning blunt trauma to the kidney are correct except which

243

A 17-year-old boy was involved in a gang fight. It started as an argument but quickly worsened into a street brawl with the use of knives. He was examined in the emergency department and found to have a bleeding stab wound in his left flank. A urine specimen revealed frank blood. Stab wounds of the kidneys involve other abdominal organs in a high percentage of cases. Of the organs listed, which one is least likely to be damaged in this patient

244

A 27-year-old woman was involved in a head-on automobile accident. When examined in a neighboring hospital, she was in a state of severe shock, with a rapid pulse and low blood pressure. Extensive bruising was seen on the lower part of the anterior abdominal wall. Further examination showed that the abdomen was becoming rapidly distended. Exploratory surgery revealed a ruptured abdominal aorta. The following statements concerning this case would explain her clinical condition except which

245

A heavily built, middle-aged man running down a flight of stone steps misjudged the position of one of the steps and fell suddenly onto his buttocks. Following the fall, he complained of severe bruising of the area of the cleft between the buttocks and persistent pain in this area. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which

246

A 28-year-old pregnant woman was very frightened by the thought of going through the pain of childbirth. She asked her obstetrician if it was possible to relieve the pain without having a general anesthetic. She was told that she could have a relatively simple procedure called caudal anesthesia. When performing caudal anesthesia, the syringe needle is inserted into the sacral canal by piercing the following anatomic structures except which

247

A 4-year-old male child is admitted to the hospital with severe vomiting. Radiographic examination and history taking reveals that the boy suffers from an annular pancreas. Which of the following structures is most typically obstructed by this condition

248

A 32-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with groin pain. Examination reveals that the patient has an indirect inguinal hernia. Which of the following nerves is compressed by the herniating structure in the inguinal canal to give the patent pain

249

A 24-year-old woman has a dull aching pain in the umbilical region, and flexion of the hip against resistance (psoas test) causes a sharp pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant. Which of the following structures is most likely inflamed to cause the pain

250

A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital from the emergency department because of excruciating pain in the back and left shoulder. A CT scan reveals an abscess in the upper part of the left kidney, but no abnormality is detected in the shoulder region. The shoulder pain may be caused by the spread of the inflammation to which of the following neighboring structures

251

A 63-year-old man with a history of alcoholism is brought to the emergency department with hematemesis (vomiting blood). Findings on endoscopic examination suggest bleeding from esophageal varices. The varices are most likely a result of the anastomoses between the left gastric vein and which other vessel or vessels

252

A 61-year-old woman had been scheduled for a cholecystectomy. During the operation the scissors of the surgical resident accidentally entered the tissues immediately posterior to the epiploic (omental) foramen (its posterior boundary). The surgical field was filled immediately by profuse bleeding. Which of the following vessels was the most likely source of bleeding

253

An obese 45-year-old female patient with an elevated temperature comes to the physician’s office complaining of nausea and intermittent, acute pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen during the past 2 days. She has a 24-hour history of jaundice. She has a history of gallstones. Which of the following structures has most likely been obstructed by a gallstone

254

A 67-year-old man has severe cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has enlarged anastomoses between which of the following pairs of veins

255

A 19-year-old male is admitted to the hospital after a violent automobile collision. An MRI examination reveals that the spinal cord has been transected at the L4 cord level. Which of the following portions of the intestine will most predictably lose parasympathetic innervation from the central nervous system

256

A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after her automobile left the highway in a rainstorm and hit a tree. She had been wearing a seat belt. On radiographic examination, it is observed that she has suffered fractures of the ninth and tenth rib on her left side and that she has intra-abdominal bleeding. Physical examination reveals hypovolemic shock and progressive hypotension. Which of the following organs is most likely injured to result in these clinical signs

257

A 15-year-old boy underwent an appendectomy procedure. Two weeks postoperatively the patient complains of numbness of the skin over the pubic region and anterior portion of his genitals. Which of the following nerves was most likely iatrogenically injured during the operation

258

A 12-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with massive rectal bleeding. Upon inspection, the color of the blood ranged from bright to dark red. The child appeared to be free of any pain. Radiographic examination revealed an ileal (Meckel) diverticulum. Which of the following is the underlying embryologic cause of this condition

259

A 23-year-old pregnant woman visits her gynecologist for her routine ultrasound check up. Ultrasonographic examination reveals unilateral renal agenesis and oligohydramnios. Which of the following conditions most likely occurred

260

During a routine gynecologic examination, a 22-year-old female complains of dyspareunia (pain during sexual intercourse). During a pelvic examination a mass of tissue is detected on the lateral wall of the vagina. An ultrasound examination reveals that the abnormal structure is a Gartner duct cyst. From which of the following embryonic structures does this cyst take origin

261

A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with rectal bleeding. Physical examination, including a rectal examination, reveals an abnormal mass of tissue protruding below the pectinate line. Biopsy reveals the presence of an adenocarcinoma. Which of the following groups of lymph nodes would first receive lymph from the area of pathology

262

A 2-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with testicular pain. Physical examination reveals an enlarged scrotum. An otoscope is placed beneath the lateral side of the scrotum and the testis is transilluminated through the scrotal sac (Figure). Which of the following best describes the signs observed in this patient

263

A 6-year-old boy has a large intraabdominal mass in the midline just above the pubic symphysis. During surgery a cystic mass is found attached to the umbilicus and to the apex of the bladder. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

264

A 26-year-old pregnant woman visits her gynecologist for a routine checkup. Ultrasound examination reveals that the patient has a normal pregnancy but that she also has two uteri. What is the most likely embryologic explanation of this condition

265

On digital examination of the vagina, the portion of the uterus that one anticipates palpating with the examining finger is the cervix and its external os. Which of the following is the most common position of the uterus

266

A 55-year-old man complains of pain at his anus. Examination reveals external hemorrhoids. Which of the following nerves carries pain sensation from the anus

267

Fusion of the caudal portions of the kidneys during embryonic development is most likely to result in which of the following congenital conditions

268

A 28-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant goes to the outpatient clinic for her prenatal checkup. Ultrasound examination of the fetus reveals gastroschisis, with herniation of the small bowel into the amniotic cavity. Failure of proper formation of which of the following structure(s) has resulted in this condition

269

A 54-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain. Gastroscopy reveals a tumor in the antrum of the stomach. A CT scan is ordered to evaluate lymphatic drainage of the stomach. Which of the following lymph nodes is most likely to be involved in a malignancy of the stomach

270

A 45-year-old male entered the emergency department with a complaint of severe abdominal pain. During physical examination it is observed that his cremasteric reflex is absent. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the efferent limb of the cremasteric reflex

271

A 42-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital after suffering a ruptured spleen in a skiing accident. Physical examination reveals intense pain that radiates to the region of the left shoulder, presumably due to irritation of the diaphragm. Which of the following signs best describes this condition

272

A 43-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of intense abdominal pain. Radiographic examination reveals a right subphrenic abscess that extends to the midline. Which of the following structures would most likely be in a position to retard the spread of the abscess across the midline

273

A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with severe pain radiating from her lower back toward her pubic symphysis. Ultrasound examination reveals that a renal calculus (kidney stone) is partially obstructing her right ureter. At which of the following locations is the calculus most likely to lodge

274

A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for the imminent birth of her baby. The decision is made to perform an emergency caesarean section. A Pfannenstiel incision is used to reach the uterus by making a transverse incision through the external sheath of the rectus muscles, about 2 cm above the pubic bones. It follows natural folds of the skin and curves superior to the mons pubis. Which of the following nerves is most at risk when this incision is made

275

A 68-year-old man is admitted to the hospital due to severe back pain. Radiographic examination reveals severe osteoporosis of the vertebral column, with crush fractures of vertebrae L4 and L5. Which of the following parts of the vertebrae are most likely to be fractured in this patient

276

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department after a car crash. Radiographic examination reveals a whiplash injury in addition to hyperextension of her cervical spine. Which of the following ligaments will most likely be injured

277

A 35-year-old woman had a partial thyroidectomy for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis. During the operation a ligature slipped off the right superior thyroid artery. To stop the hemorrhage, the surgeon blindly grabbed for the artery with artery forceps. The operation was completed without further incident. The following morning the patient spoke with a husky voice. The following statements about this patient would explain the husky voice except which

278

A 52-year-old man was eating his dinner in a seafood restaurant when he suddenly choked on a piece of fish. He gasped that he had a bone stuck in his throat. Assuming that the fish bone was stuck in the piriform fossa, the following statements are correct except which

279

Early closure of the fontanelles of the infant skull can result in compression of the brain, restricting brain growth. Which of the following fontanelles is located at the junction of sagittal and coronal sutures and at what age does this fontanelle typically close

280

A 2-day-old infant male has a noticeable gap in his upper lip. The diagnosis is a cleft lip (figure). Failure of fusion of which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this anomaly

281

A 3-day-old male has a noticeably small mandible. A CT scan and physical examinations reveal hypoplasia of the mandible, cleft palate, and defects of the eye and ear. Abnormal development of which of the following pharyngeal arches will most likely produce such symptoms

282

A 5-day-old infant is diagnosed with a non-communicating hydrocephalus (Figure). Which of the following is most likely to lead to such a condition?

283

A 68-year-old woman is suffering from excruciating, sudden bouts of pain over the area of her midface. Laboratory studies indicate that she has tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia). Which ganglion is the location of the neural cell bodies of the nerve mediating the pain

284

34-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe headaches, dizziness, and vomiting. Imaging studies reveal a tumor at the hypoglossal canal. Which of the following muscles will most likely be affected

285

A40-year-old unconscious man is admitted to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball. A CT scan examination reveals a fractured pterion and an epidural hematoma. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely to be injured

286

An unconscious 48-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital. CT scan reveals a tumor in her brain. When she regains consciousness, her right eye is directed laterally and downward, with complete ptosis of her upper eyelid, and her pupil is dilated. Which of the following structures was most likely affected by the tumor to result in these symptoms

287

A 22-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department and intubated. An endotracheal tube is passed through an opening between the vocal folds. What is the name of this opening

288

A 2-day-old infant was born with a cleft palate (figure). The major portion of the palate develops from which of the following embryonic structures

289

A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with high fever and pain over the parotid gland (Figure). A diagnosis of parotiditis (mumps) is established, and the boy is sent back home. Which of the following nerves is responsible for painful sensations from the region of the parotid gland

290

A 67-year-old man visits the outpatient clinic with hearing problems. During physical examination a Rinne test for hearing is performed by placing a tuning fork on his head to test for bone conduction. Upon what specific point should the tuning fork be placed to test conduction

291

A 55-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after an injury sustained at work in a factory. He presents with severe scalp lacerations, which were sutured. After three days the wound is inflammed, swollen, and painful. Between which tissue layers is the infection most likely located

292

54-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department after he was struck by an automobile. Radiographic examination revealed a fracture through the crista galli of the anterior cranial fossa, resulting in slow, local bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely source of bleeding

293

A 52-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of right-sided pleurisy with pneumonia. It was decided to remove a sample of pleural fluid from her pleural cavity. The resident inserted the needle close to the lower border of the eighth rib in the anterior axillary line. The next morning he was surprised to hear that the patient had complained of altered skin sensation extending from the point where the needle was inserted downward and forward to the midline of the abdominal wall above the umbilicus. The altered skin sensation in this patient after the needle thoracostomy could be explained by which of the following

294

A 65-year-old man and a 10-year-old boy were involved in a severe automobile accident. In both patients the thorax had been badly crushed. Radiographic examination revealed that the man had five fractured ribs but the boy had no fractures. What is the most likely explanation for this difference in medical findings

295

On examination of a posteroanterior chest radiograph of an 18-year-old woman, it was seen that the left dome of the diaphragm was higher than the right dome and reached to the upper border of the fourth rib. The position of the left dome of the diaphragm could be explained by one of the following conditions except which

296

A 15-year-old boy was rescued from a lake after falling through thin ice. The next day, he developed a severe cold, and 3 days later his general condition deteriorated. He became febrile and started to cough up blood-stained sputum. At first, he had no chest pain, but later, when he coughed, he experienced severe pain over the right fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. The following statements would explain the patient's signs and symptoms except which

297

A 2-year-old boy was playing with his toy car when his baby-sitter noticed that a small metal nut was missing from the car. Two days later the child developed a cough and became febrile. This child's illness could be explained by the following statements except which

298

A wife was told that her husband was suffering from cancer of the lower end of the esophagus. The physician told her that to save his life; the surgeon would have to remove the lower part of the esophagus, the stomach, the spleen, and the upper part of the duodenum. The wife could not understand why such a drastic operation was required to remove such a small tumor. The following statements explain this extensive operation except which

299

A 2-day-old newborn is diagnosed with transposition of the great arteries. Which structure is responsible for the division of the truncus arteriosus into the great arteries

300

A 3-year-old male patient presents with a clinically significant atrial septal defect (ASD). The ASD usually results from incomplete closure of which of the following structures

301

A premature infant has progressive difficulty in breathing and is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. Which cells are deficient in synthesizing surfactant in this syndrome

302

After a 2-day-old newborn male swallows milk he becomes cyanotic. After 3 days he develops pneumonia. A tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. Failure of development has occurred most specifically in which of the following structures

303

A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with difficulty in breathing. Radiographic examination reveals a tumor invading the lung surface anterior to the hilum. Which nerve is most likely compressed by the tumor to result in dyspnea

304

A 56-year-old male swimming coach is admitted to the hospital with dyspnea, cough, and high fever. A radiographic examination reveals lobar pneumonia (Figure). Which of the following lobes of the lung is affected as shown in the image

305

Postoperative examination of a 68-year-old male who underwent mitral valve replacement demonstrates significant cardiac hypertrophy (Figure). Which of the following structures would be most likely to be compressed

306

A 41-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath, dizziness, and sharp chest pain. The large arrow in his chest radiograph indicates the region of pathology (Fig.). What is this structure

307

A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with an inability to speak. The patient’s personal history reveals that she has experienced hoarseness for the past month. A chest radiograph reveals a mass at the aortopulmonary window. Which of the following nerves is most likely compressed

308

A 69-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with intense left chest pain. ECG reveals hypokinetic ventricular septal muscle, myocardial infarction in the anterior two thirds of the interventricular septum, and left anterior ventricular wall. The patient’s ECG also exhibited left bundle branch block. Which of the following arteries is most likely occluded

309

During cardiac catheterization of a 6-year-old child, the radiologist notes that the contrast medium released into the arch of the aorta is visible immediately in the left pulmonary artery. What is the most likely explanation for this finding

310

An unconscious 2-month-old infant is admitted to the emergency department after an automobile collision. An emergency tracheostomy is performed. Which of the following structures is most commonly at high risk of injury during this procedure

311

A 17-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital with severe dyspnea. Physical examination reveals that the patient is suffering from an asthma attack, with associated bronchospasm. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the innervation of the bronchial smooth muscle cells

312

A 43-year-old male hunter is admitted to emergency department after falling over a barbed wire fence, as a result of which he suffered several deep lacerations along the left midaxillary line. When the patient is examined in the outpatient clinic several days later, numbness and anhydrosis are observed anterior to the area of the cuts. Which structures were most likely damaged to result in these signs

313

A 3-year-old male who fell from a tree complains of severe pain over the right side of his chest because of a rib fracture at the midaxillary line. He is admitted to the hospital due to his difficulty breathing. Radiographic and physical examinations reveal atelectasis, resulting from the accumulation of blood in his pleural space and resulting hemothorax. What is the most likely the source of bleeding to cause the hemothorax

314

A 34-year-old male complains of hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds). Injury to which of the following cranial nerves is responsible

315

A 45-year-old man came to the outpatient clinic after stumbling and hitting his head on a table in a restaurant. During the neurologic examination photographs were taken of the eyes of patient as shown in Figure. Which of the following nerves to the left eye was most likely injured

316

A 40-year-old woman presents with severe headaches and dizziness. An MRI reveals a brain tumor, and a biopsy confirms it as a melanoma. She dies 2 months later. Pigmented lesions are not seen on her skin or scalp at the time of diagnosis or during postmortem examination. Which of the following is the most likely source of the malignant melanoma cells

317

A 45-year-old woman states that she has experienced moderate pain for 2 years over her left lower back, pain that radiates to her left lower limb. She states that after lifting a case of soft drinks, the pain became intense. She was admitted to the emergency department. Radiographic examination revealed disk herniation between vertebral levels L4 and L5. Which of the following nerves was most likely affected by the disk herniation

318

In spinal anesthesia the needle is often inserted between the spinous processes of the L4 and L5 vertebrae to ensure that the spinal cord is not injured. This level is safe because in the adult the spinal cord usually terminates at the disk between which of the following vertebral levels

319

Examination of a 3-day-old male infant reveals protrusion of his spinal cord and meninges from a defect in the lower back. Which of the following describes this congenital anomaly

320

A 32-year-old mother complains of serious pain in the coccygeal area some days after giving birth. To determine whether the coccyx is involved, a local anesthetic is first injected in the region of the coccyx and then dynamic MRI studies are performed. The MRI reveals coccydynia, which confirms that her coccyx dislocates upon sitting. The local anesthetic is used to interrupt which of the following nerve pathways

321

The following statements concerning the interior of the lower part of the medulla are correct except:

322

The following statements concerning a transverse section through the midbrain at the level of the superior colliculus are correct except:

323

The following statements concerning the cerebral aqueduct are correct except:

324

An 8-year-old boy was seen by a neurologist because of right-sided facial weakness and medial strabismus of the right eye. Examination also revealed slight weakness of the muscles of the left upper and lower limbs. An MRI revealed a tumor of the pons. The following facts concerning this patient are correct except:

325

Identify the anomaly:

326

Identify the central sulcus of Rolando:

327

Efferent fibers from basal ganglia arises from

328

Hydrocephalus has resulted in a patient in enlargement of one lateral ventridle. Which of the following is the most likely site of a blockage?

329

Your patient has lost the ability to discriminate between two points presented simultaneously to the skin of the left hand. Your neurological evaluation is most likely to reveal a lesion in the

330

In a section through the T10 segment of the spinal cord, which of the following will not be present

331

A 55-year-old overweight man was brought to the emergency room unconscious after he had collapsed while loading a truck. After he regained consciousness, an exam revealed a paresis of both right limbs with a Babinski sign on the right. The patient's tongue deviated to the left upon protrusion, and he had no vibratory sense on the right side of the body. These finds suggest

332

A transverse section through the brainstem contains the nucleus of Edinger Westphal. Which other structure are you most likely to see in the same section?

333

Your patient has a loss of general sensation and ageusia on the posterior one third of the tongue, and touching the lateral wall of the throat fails to elicit a gag reflex. The neural structure that is the most likely to have been lesioned is the

334

Neurons that send axons into the cerebellum in the middle cerebellar peduncle are con- trolled by which part of the brain

335

Your patient has a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and a tremor in the fingers at rest. Which part of the brain will show neuronal degeneration?

336

A patient has suffered a stroke caused by occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery. This patient is most likely to present with

337

A lesion of the posterior limb of the internal capsule on the right may result in

338

A lawyer suffers a bad fall that results in head trauma. His motor, sensory, and language skills are intact after the incident, and he has no visual problems. In the following weeks, he begins to lose interest in his work and doesn't seem to care much about his family. The trauma most likely affected the

339

Which of the following structures is not derived from the diencephalon?

340

Which of the following cells are found in the white matter of the spinal cord

341

A patient presents with muscle weakness, fasciculation, and suppressed reflexes. The most likely location of the lesion is in the

342

Your patient has a lesion that has resulted in a loss of touch sensations in the face. The patient still feels pain and temperature sensations, and there is no jaw weakness. The neural structure most likely affected is the

343

Your patient is having problems self-regulating their blood pressure. The cause of the problem seems to be in the carotid sinus and carotid body. Where in the brain do the nerve fibers that innervate these receptors synapse

344

The quadrangular space is bounded by the following structure except which?

345

All of the following statements concerning the brachial plexus are correct except which:

346

The labourer nerve is another name for:

347

Structure piercing the clavipectoral facia are all except:

348

The boundary of the triangle of auscultation is formed by all except which:

349

All the muscle attached to the bicipital groove of humerus except:

350

The carpal tunnel contains the following structure except which?

351

Select incorrect statement about the supraspinatus:

352

Which of the following bone does not have a medullary cavity?

353

Function of palmar interossei are all except:

354

Ape thumb deformity is seen in involvement of:

355

The radial nerve gives off the following branches in the posterior compartment of the arm except which?

356

All the following statements concerning the brachial plexus are correct except which?

357

The boundaries of anatomical snuffbox include the following except which?

358

Hyperextension of the proximal phalanges of the little & ring fingers (claw hand) can result from damage to the ........ nerve.

359

An inabilities to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to the ...... nerve.

360

All the muscles are attached to coracoid process of scapula except:

361

The sternoclavicular joint is a:

362

The content of lower triangular space in scapular region is:

363

The muscle which initiates shoulder abduction is:

364

True about latissimus dorsi:

365

Which of the following is not a branch of the axillary artery?

366

What stabilises the abducted shoulder joint?

367

The flexor retinaculum attaches to all bones except:

368

All are true about median nerve except:

369

The cubital tunnel syndrome is because of:

370

The deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies all the muscles of hand except:

371

Continuation of medial cord of brachial plexus is:

372

Sternoclavicular joint is a type of:

373

The medial wall of axilla is formed by:

374

Damage to radial nerve in spiral groove spares:

375

The dorsum of hand is supplied by:

376

In palsy of Erb which is not seen:

377

Supination and pronation occur at which joint:

378

The following pairs describe the muscles producing flexion of elbow joint and their respective nerve. Choose the wrong pair:

379

About deep palmar arch all are true except:

380

The nerve of Bell is:

381

Abduction of wrist is done by all except:

382

De Quervain disease classically affects:

383

The defect known as winged scapula is caused by damage to a nerve that arises from which of the following structures of the brachial plexus?

384

The content of upper triangular space is:

385

The point of Erb in brachial plexus is:

386

Paralysis of Klumpke is due to injury to:

387

Which of the following is not a content of the axilla?

388

The ligament which transfer the weight of arm to the trunk:

389

Lower angle of scapula corresponds to which vertebral level?

390

In a vehicular accident, the musculocutaneous nerve was completely severed, but the person was able to weekly flex the elbow joint. All of the following muscles are responsible for the action. Except:

391

Martin-Gruber connections are:

392

Artery of anatomical snuff box is:

393

The nerve damage due to lunate dislocation is:

394

The content of cubital fossa are all except:

395

Wrist drop is caused by:

396

Median nerve supplies all the muscle of the thumb except:

397

Root value of the radial nerve is:

398

Nerve lying in the spiral groove of humerus is:

399

Which nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?

400

Which of the following walls of the axilla is formed by the humerus?

401

The floor of triangle of auscultation is formed by:

402

The muscle attached to the lesser tubercle of humerus:

403

True about branchial plexus:

404

True about Latissimus dorsi:

405

The structure which does not pass under flexor retinaculum:

406

The pinch grip test is for:

407

The dinner fork deformity is seen in:

408

The median nerve supplies all of the thenar muscles except:

409

The muscle having dual nerve supply are all except:

410

All are true about radial nerve except:

411

Ape thumb deformity is because of which muscle:

412

The retraction of scapula is achieved by all except:

413

Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to which nerve injury:

414

The movements of supination & pronation occurs in all of the following joints except:

415

The content of first extensor compartment of wrist is:

416

The following are true about cephalic vein except:

417

The cutaneous innervation of the dorsum of hand is by:

418

In femoral triangle most Median structure seen is:

419

Femoral pulsation can be best felt at:

420

The Medial boundary of the femoral ring is formed by:

421

Muscle taking origin from ischial tuberosity are all except:

422

In walking the hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscle acting on the supported side of the body?

423

All are possible during contraction of tensor Fasciae Lata except:

424

Common peroneal nerve is related to which of the following structure:

425

Adductor Magnus is supplied by:

426

Bigelow ligament is at:

427

Inversion and eversion occurs at:

428

The length of Sartorius muscle is:

429

Which of the following nerve innervates at least one muscle that act on both the hip and knee joint?

430

A femoral Hernia descends through the femoral canal and the neck of the sae lies:

431

Unlocking of the knee joint to permit flexion is caused by action of the:

432

The following statements concerning the dorsalis pedis artery are correct except which?

433

The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except which?

434

The foot is inverted by the following muscle except which?

435

The vein which is used in bypass surgery:

436

Anterior cruciate ligament prevents:

437

Saphenous nerve is a branch of:

438

House maid knee is inflammation of:

439

Which of the following nerve is more commonly damaged in injury to the neck of fibula?

440

Pudendal nerve is related to:

441

A muscle known for tailor master:

442

Femoral hernia is more common in:

443

The muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg is supplied by:

444

Sustentaculum tali of calcaneum is located on:

445

Which structure does not enter the femoral sheath?

446

The medial boundary of femoral triangle is formed by:

447

The saphenous opening is situated 1.5 inch _____ pubic tubercle:

448

The floor of the acetabulum is non-articular called:

449

Oblique popliteal ligament is formed by:

450

Which of the muscle is partly paralyzed with the obturator nerve damage?

451

Greater sciatic foramen is formed by:

452

Iliotibial tract receives the insertion of:

453

The forward motion of leg  is caused by damage to which of the following ligaments:

454

In walking the hip bone of the suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscles acting on the supported side of the body?

455

The injury of the common peroneal nerve leads to:

456

The hamstring muscle include all except:

457

Which of the following does not take part in the formation of knee joint?

458

Which muscle acts as peripheral heart:

459

The sesamoid bone in the lower limb is:

460

It is the largest and longest bone of the body:

461

Clergyman bursitis is inflammation of:

462

All are the lateral branches of abdominal aorta except:

463

The right gastro-epiploic artery is a branch of:

464

In portal venous system, valves are present at:

465

The neck of pancreas is related on its posterior surface to:

466

Lesser Omentum has following content except:

467

Bruner gland is found in:

468

True about ureter is:

469

Regarding kidney, all of the following statements are true except:

470

True about uterus are all except:

471

Vaginal fornix is related to which of the following:

472

Uterine artery is a branch of:

473

In the females, the inguinal canal contains the following structures except which?

474

The deep inguinal ring is a defect in the:

475

Liver is divided in two halves by all except:

476

Renal angle lies between:

477

True about appendix:

478

Afferent to cremasteric reflex is:

479

Left testicular vein drain into:

480

All are contents of spermatic cord except:

481

Cystic artery arises from:

482

The external spermatic fascia arise from external oblique aponeurosis, so internal spermatic fascia arise from:

483

A patient comes to your clinic whom you operated for obstructed irreducible indirect left inguinal hernia one month ago. He says It has been over four weeks from the surgery and I still have much discomfort. Inside of my thigh is numb, burns or simply hurts when touched. When I move in certain ways I get a stabbing pain in that area accompanied with a sensation of being bit by a bunch of wasps (bees). Which nerve is most likely diagnosed?

484

Ligamentumtereshapatis is a remnant of:

485

External oblique arise from the outer surface of lower 8 ribs just adjacent to the origin of:

486

Which of these statements about the coeliac trunk is not corrected?

487

Which of these statements regarding Meckel diverticulum is correct?

488

True about stomach:

489

When compared with the ileum, the upper part of jejunum?

490

Regarding the common bile duct, one is incorrect:

491

Which of the following roots contribute to the sacral plexus:

492

The inferior mesenteric artery:

493

One of the following organs is not related to the visceral surface of the spleen:

494

All of the following veins drain into the IVC except:

495

The taenia coli are in the large intestine are consist of ______ bands of smooth muscles arranged in distinct stribs:

496

Pouches in the intestinal wall that gives the intestine a segmental appearance are called:

497

Which of the following regarding appendix is false:

498

Regarding the anal canal all of the following statements are true except:

499

The lymphatic drainage of the terminal portion of the GIT may flow initially into either superficial inguinal nodes or the pararectal nodes, depending upon weather the lymph is formed above or below the:

500

The expanded region of the lower rectum, where the fecal matter is retained, is known as the:

501

All are true about inguinal canal except:

502

All of the following structure from the stomach bed except:

503

Downward displacement of enlarged spleen is prevented by:

504

The superior suprarenal artery is a branch of:

505

Fascia of Gerota is:

506

Commonest position of appendix:

507

Motor supply to muscles of tongue is by:

508

Safety muscle of tongue is:

509

All of the following structures are within the parotid gland except:

510

False about facial muscle:

511

Muscle involve in congenital torticollis:

512

Which is a direct content of cavernous sinus?

513

Depressor of mandible:

514

The carotid canal is located in the:

515

A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar placed on the anterior part of tongue. Which cranial nerve is likely to have a lesion?

516

Oral diaphragm is formed by:

517

The level of branching of common carotid artery is:

518

Not a branch of external carotid artery:

519

All are the ligament of TM joint except:

520

Superior oblique muscle is supplied by:

521

The genioglossus muscle _______ the tongue.

522

Blood supply to little area are all except:

523

Waldeyer lymphatic chain is formed by all except:

524

Larynx extends from:

525

Retraction of protected mandible is done by:

526

Stensons duct open at the:

527

Secretomotor fibres of parotid gland pass through all except:

528

Sensory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through:

529

All of the following structures are related to cavernous sinus except:

530

All of the following are true about diploic vein except:

531

The oculomotor nerve supplies the muscle of the eye except:

532

Which of the following nerve carries taste sensation from posterior one-third of the tongue?

533

Parotid duct passes through all the following structures except:

534

The muscle which is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve is:

535

Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube while sneezing:

536

Isthmus of the thyroid gland is across tracheal ring:

537

Trachea bifurcates at:

538

Ligamentum arteriosum is derived from:

539

Abductor of vocal cord is:

540

All are the opening in middle cranial fossa except:

541

Name of the parotid duct:

542

All of the following characteristic differentiates a typical cervical vertebra from a thoracic vertebra except:

543

Smallest muscle in the body is:

544

The action of intrinsic muscle of tongue is/are:

545

The superior orbital fissure transmit all of the following structures except:

546

The floor and medial wall of cavernous sinus is formed by:

547

Inferior oblique is supplied by the _____ cranial nerve:

548

The medial branch of external carotid artery is:

549

The Kiesselbach area has been damaged in a  fist fight. The main artery to the area is:

550

Nerve carrying the taste sensation from circumvallate papillae placed on the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue is:

551

The stylopharyngeaus muscle is derived from:

552

The nerve supply of the mucosa of larynx above the vocal cord is:

553

The sinus of morgagni is seen:

554

The most characteristic feature of cervical vertebra is:

555

The occipital condyles articulate with which bone:

556

The normal curvature found in the young adult cervical vertebra column is:

557

The spinal nerve emerges between this part of adjacent vertebra:

558

The muscle receives its motor supply by two cranial nerves:

559

The pterygopalatine ganglion is suspended from which of the following nerve:

560

The vein that form a plexus in the spongy bone of skull are:

561

In breast, cooper ligament extends from subcutaneous tissue to:

562

The following statement concerning structure in the intercostal space is correct except which?

563

The oesophageal opening in the diaphragm lies at the level of the _______ thoracic vertebra:

564

All the structures are seen in transvers section at T4 vertebral level except:

565

Level of lower border of lung at mid-clavicular line is:

566

Lung abscess secondary to aspiration is most often seen in:

567

Muscle involved in quiet expiration:

568

All of the following are characteristic of a bronchopulmonary segment except:

569

The anterior surface of the heart is formed by the following structure except which?

570

Base of the heart is formed mainly by:

571

A drug that binds to receptor at a site distinct from the active site and alter the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand is:

572

All of the following are false regarding prasugrel except:

573

MOA of apixaban is:

574

QT prolongation caused by:

575

What is the MOA of sacubitril :

576

A person was given a muscle relaxant that competitively blocks nicotinic receptors. Which of the following drug is used for reversal of muscle relaxation after surgery?

577

Anti-glaucoma drug that acts by increasing uveoscleral outlflow is:

578

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug is contraindicated in a patient with interstitial lung disease?

579

Which of the following is a late inward sodium channel blocker?

580

Which of the following antihypertensive drug is avoided in patients with high serum uric acid levels?

581

Which of the following antimicrobials should not be given to a chronic asthmatic patient managed on theophylline therapy?

582

At a high altitude of 3000 m, a person complains of breathlessnes. All of the following can be used for management of this person except:

583

True about non-competitive inhibition is:

584

Theophylline causes diuresis because of

585

Drug acting via tyrosine kinase receptor is:

586

A patient on lithium therapy developed hypertension. He was started on thiazides for hypertension. After few days, he developed coarse tremors and other symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity. Explain the likely mechanism of this interaction.

587

Which of the following is an example of placebo?

588

A patient of septic shock was given intravenous nor-epinephrine. The response to this drug is best checked by:

589

Which of the following instructions should be given to lactating mother regarding drug usage?

590

Which of the following drug can decrease the size of prostate?

591

A diabetic and hypertensive patient talking several drugs presented with septicaemia. Serum creatinine levels are 5.0 mg/dL. Which of the following drug should be stropped?

592

A 27-year-old female presented to OPD of infertility clinic. She was prescribed bromocriptine. What could be the possible reason?

593

A patient requires ceftriaxone 180mg. You have a 2mL syringe with 10 divisions per mL. The vial contains 500mg/5 mL of ceftriaxone. How many divisions in the 2 mL syringe will you fill to give 180 mg ceftriaxone:

594

All are given in post-partum hemorrhage except:

595

53 year old is found to be hypertensive stage 2 without any co morbidities. Which diuretic out of these will you start in this:

596

Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin:

597

Correct match in the following drugs with their antidote:

598

Match the following drugs with side-effects:

599

SGLT-2 inhibitors are recently used for type 2 diabetes mellitus. All of the following are the rare but serious side effects except:

600

All of the following are used to decrease IOP in glaucoma except?

601

Nonpulsatile dose of GNRH agonist is used in all except:

602

Route of administration of LMWH for prophylaxis in a patient who had undergone surgery few hours back:

603

Which of the following is a category X drug as per teratogenicity risk by FDA:

604

Which of the following antiplatelet drug is a prodrug?

605

Metabolism of a drug primarily results in

606

Which of the following drug acts as microsomal enzyme inhibitor

607

All of the following drugs cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

608

Pharmacovigilance means

609

Which of the following does not cross blood brain barrier

610

Tekchand, a farmer comes to you in the emergency in comatose state. Patient had profuse sweating and lacrimation diarrhea and urination were apparent. On examination pupil was constricted and BP of the farmer was 80/60 mmHg. You make a diagnosis of anticholinesterase poisoning you decided to administer him atropine. All of the following actions will be reversed by atropine EXCEPT:

611

Which is the shortest acting mydriatic

612

Dopamine is preferred in treatment of shock because of

613

Dobutamine increases

614

Short elimination half-life (8-10 min) of esmolol (Beta adrenergic blocker) is due to

615

All of the following statements about nesiritide are true except

616

Which of the following is not given in acute severe digitalis toxicity

617

Which of the following is NOT first antihypertensive agent

618

Mechanism of action of sodium nitrate in cyanide poisoning

619

Calcium channel blockers are useful in all except

620

Which of the following anti-arrhythmic agents does not belong to class Ic

621

All are causing hypothyroidism except

622

Anti-diabetic effect of sulfonylureas is by reducing

623

Oral contraceptive failure can occur with

624

All are types of tocoytics except –

625

All statements true about carbimazole in comparison to PTU except?

626

Atropine is used in all except

627

Which antihypertensive is not safe in elderly patients because of risk of precipitation of asthma, bradycardia and heart failure:

628

Rate limiting step in noradrenaline synthesis is:

629

Drug of choice for ventricular premature beats (VPC) due to digitalis toxicity is

630

All of the following are indications for the use of ACE inhibitors except

631

The right coronary artery supplies all of the following parts of conducting system in the heart except:

632

If circumflex artery gives off the posterior inter ventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:

633

Right common carotid artery arises from:

634

Which of these does not form the right border of the heart on X-ray?

635

The middle cardiac vein is located at the:

636

The mammary gland in the young adult female overlies:

637

The caval opening in the diaphragm lies at the level of the ______ thoracic vertebra:

638

Which of the following does not drain into coronary sinus?

639

Azygous vein drains into:

640

True regarding broncho pulmonary segment is:

641

All of the following structure passes through the superior aperture of thorax except:

642

The hilum of the right lung is arched by:

643

Pleural tapping in midaxillary line, muscle not pierced is:

644

Shape of tracheal cartilage:

645

Normal fluid level in the pericardial cavity:

646

The great cardiac vein is located at the:

647

Oesophagus commences at the following level:

648

The distance of gastroesophageal junction from upper incisor is:

649

The following events take part in the sternal angle except:

650

Which of the following statements concerning a typical intercostal nerve is incorrect?

651

True about internal thoracic (internal mammary) artery:

652

What travels through the diaphragm with oesophagus:

653

All are true regarding bronchopulmonary segment except:

654

True about diaphragm is:

655

True about mammary gland is:

656

SA node is supplied usually by:

657

Which bronchopulmonary segment is missing from left lung?

658

True about interatrial septum:

659

Triangle of Koch houses:

660

The most fixed part of heart is:

661

All are true about thoracic splanchnic nerve except:

662

Lower border of pleura at mid clavicular line lies at:

663

Superior most structure at right hilum is:

664

In the lungs bronchial arteries supply the bronchopulmonary tree:

665

All are true about trachea except:

666

The Sibson fascia is attached laterally to:

667

The oesophagus is narrowest at:

668

Pulmonary valve lies at:

669

Structures passing through diaphragm through aortic hiatus are all except:

670

Lower limit of the left crus of diaphragm:

671

True about of aorta are all of the following except:

672

All are the attachment on first rib except:

673

The false ribs are:

674

The sensory supply of the peripheral part of diaphragm is:

675

The structures passing posterior to diaphragm are all except:

676

Superior intercostal artery is a branch of:

677

Left superior intercostal vein drains into:

678

The arch of aorta lies in the ____ mediastinum:

679

Oesophagus begins at which level?

680

All are true about thoracic duct except:

681

SVC opens into right atrium at the level of:

682

Which of the following is not a tributary of Azygous vein?

683

The right costo-phrenic line extends upto the level of which rib in the mid-axillary line?

684

The pulmonary segments in middle lobe of right lung are:

685

The upper most structure seen at the hilum of the left lung is:

686

The hyaline cartilage of respiratory tree extends up to:

687

Fibrous pericardium is attached to:

688

The boundary of Koch triangle is formed by all except:

689

The AV node lies at:

690

All of the following openings in the right atrium are guarded valve except:

691

The base of heart is formed by:

692

Which of the following structures constitute part of ventricle of heart:

693

Direct opening in the right atrium with:

694

Which of the following accompanies the anterior interventricular artery?

695

All are true about intercostal space except:

696

All are the structures are seen in transvers section at T5 vertebral level except:

697

The lung abscess secondary to aspiration is most often seen in which bronchopulmonary segment:

698

All of the following structures pass through the oesophageal opening of diaphragm except:

699

The structures pass through the superior aperture of thorax are all except:

700

The uppermost structure in right lung hilum:

701

The Nerve supply of mediastinal pleura is:

702

The content of middle mediastinum are all except:

703

The level of lower border of lung at mid-clavicular line is:

704

The pulmonary segments in lingula of left lung are:

705

The sternocostal surface of heart is not contributed by:

706

The posterior surface of heart is formed mainly by:

707

All are true about right atrium except:

708

The thickest wall of heart is:

709

The SA node is situated at:

710

All of the following are true about thoracic sympathetic trunk except:

711

All the veins open in to coronary sinus except:

712

True about Sibson fascia is:

713

The length of adult trachea is:

714

All are true about thoracic duct except:

715

Solutions A and B are separated by a membrane that is permeable to urea. Solution A is 10 mM urea, and solution B is 5 mM urea. If the concentration of urea in solution A is doubled, the flux of urea across the membrane will

716

Which of the following transport processes is involved if transport of glucose from the intestinal lumen into a small intestinal cell is inhibited by abolishing the usual Na+ gradient across the cell membrane?

717

A new drug is developed that blocks the transporter for H+ secretion in gastric parietal cells. Which of the following transport processes is being inhibited?

718

A young man was found after wandering the Sahara desert for several hours under a hot sun with no source of drinking water. Which of the following solutions given intravenously would best return the individual intracellular volume toward normal

719

A 60-kg patient has a hematocrit reading of 40 and a plasma volume of 3 liters. What is his total blood volume?

720

A 14-year-old adolescent girl reports blood in her urine 2 weeks after she had a sore throat. She has uremia and a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg with peripheral edema, suggestive of volume expansion secondary to salt and water retention. Which of the following is the approximate extracellular fluid volume of a normal individual?

721

Which of the following characteristics of a biological membrane is most influenced by its cholesterol content?

722

A 42-year-old man with myasthenia gravis notes increased muscle strength when he is treated with an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor. The basis for his improvement is increased

723

A newly developed local anesthetic blocks Na+ channels in nerves. Which of the following effects on the action potential would it be expected to produce

724

Which of the following temporal sequences is correct for excitation– contraction coupling in skeletal muscle

725

A 56-year-old woman with severe muscle weakness is hospitalized. The only abnormality in her laboratory values is an elevated serum K+ concentration. The elevated serum K+ causes muscle weakness because

726

In contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle, which of the following events occurs after binding of Ca2+ to calmodulin?

727

A newly discovered toxin incapacitated skeletal muscle by preventing the binding of ATP to the myosin cross-bridges. Which of the following would be expected in the affected muscle

728

You are charged with the responsibility of developing a new drug to treat muscle spasticity following spinal cord injury. Which of the following characteristics would be most useful in treating this condition

729

A key difference in the mechanism of excitation–contraction coupling between the muscle of the pharynx and the muscle of the wall of the small intestine is that

730

Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal genetic disorder characterized by a hyperresponsiveness to inhaled anesthetics and results in elevated body temperature, skeletal muscle rigidity, and lactic acidosis. Which of the following molecular changes could account for these clinical manifestations?

731

The delayed onset and prolonged duration of smooth muscle contraction, as well as the greater force generated by smooth muscle compared with skeletal muscle, are all consequences of which of the following

732

A 17-year-old soccer player suffered a fracture to the left tibia. After her lower leg has been in a cast for 8 weeks, she is surprised to find that the left gastrocnemius muscle is significantly smaller in circumference than it was before the fracture. What is the most likely explanation?

733

You are charged with the development of a new drug, which increased the absolute refractory period of the ventricular muscle. Which of the following left ventricular characteristics of this drug would most likely produce the desired effect?

734

A 2-day-old infant starts having brief tonic–clonic seizures throughout the day. His neurological function in between seizures is normal, and he has no other medical or neurological problems. The history reveals no readily apparent causes for the seizures, though the mother recalled that her first baby also developed seizures shortly after birth that only lasted for 2 weeks, with no subsequent episodes or developmental problems. Genetic analysis revealed a mutation of voltage-gated K+ channels consistent with a diagnosis of benign familial neonatal seizures. Which of the following would cause an immediate reduction in the amount of potassium leaking out of a cell

735

A 5-year-old boy presents with abnormal running, jumping, and hopping. His parents have observed that he uses his arms to climb up his legs when rising from the floor. The pediatrician suspects Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and electromyography confirms a myopathy. The amount of force produced by a skeletal muscle can be increased by which of the following

736

During a demonstration for medical students, a neurologist uses magnetic cortical stimulation to trigger firing of the ulnar nerve in a volunteer. At relatively low-amplitude stimulation, action potentials are recorded only from muscle fibers in the index finger. As the amplitude of the stimulation is increased, action potentials are recorded from muscle fibers in both the index finger and the biceps muscle. What is the fundamental principle underlying this amplitude-dependent response

737

The delayed onset and prolonged duration of smooth muscle contraction, as well as the greater force generated by smooth muscle compared with skeletal muscle, are all consequences of which of the following

738

A 18-year-old soccer player suffered a fracture to the left tibia. After her lower leg has been in a cast for 8 weeks, she is surprised to find that the left gastrocnemius muscle is significantly smaller in circumference than it was before the fracture. What is the most likely explanation

739

A 53-year-old woman is found, by arteriography, to have 50% narrowing of her left renal artery. What is the expected change in blood flow through the stenotic artery?

740

When a person moves from a supine position to a standing position, which of the following compensatory changes occurs?

741

A person electrocardiogram (ECG) has no P wave, but has a normal QRS complex and a normal T wave. Therefore, his pacemaker is located in the

742

A 30-year-old female patient electrocardiogram (ECG) shows two P waves preceding each QRS complex. The interpretation of this pattern is

743

The following measurements were obtained in a male patient:

Central venous pressure: 10 mm Hg

Heart rate: 70 beats/min

Systemic arterial [O2] = 0.24 mL O2/mL

Mixed venous [O2] = 0.16 mL O2/mL

Whole body O2 consumption: 500 mL/min

What is this cardiac output of patient?

744

Which of the following is the result of an inward Na+ current?

745

A healthy 35-year-old man is running a marathon. During the run, there is a increase in his splanchnic vascular resistance. Which receptor is responsible for the increased resistance?

746

A 72-year-old woman, who is being treated with propranolol, finds that she cannot maintain her previous exercise routine. Her physician explains that the drug has reduced her cardiac output. Blockade of which receptor is responsible for the decrease in cardiac output?

747

A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine (lying down), her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats/min (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate further increases to 120 beats/min. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing?

748

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the end-diastolic volume of patient?

749

A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after being injured in an automobile accident and sustaining significant blood loss. He is given a transfusion of 3 units of blood to stabilize his blood pressure. Before the transfusion, which of the following was true about his condition?

750

A patient electrocardiogram (ECG) shows periodic QRS complexes that are not preceded by P waves and that have a bizarre shape. These QRS complexes originated in the

751

An 80-year-old man had an EKG taken at his local office of doctor, and the diagnosis was atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements are likely conditions in someone with atrial fibrillation

752

A 75-year-old man goes to the hospital emergency department and faints. Five minutes later he is alert. An EKG shows 75 P waves per minute and 35 QRS waves per minute with a normal QRS width. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis

753

An 80-year-old man reports increasing dyspnea, which worsens with exertion. The cardiologist orders an echocardiogram, brain natriuretic peptide, and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to evaluate possible congestive heart failure. Which of the following is most likely with ANP

754

A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with Stokes-Adams syndrome. Two minutes after the syndrome starts to cause active blockade of the cardiac impulse, which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart

755

A 72-year-old man had surgery to remove an abdominal tumor. Pathohistologic studies reveal that the tumor mass contains a large number of blood vessels. An increase in which of the following is the most likely stimulus for the growth of vessels in a solid tumor

756

A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior vena cava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure?

757

A healthy 22-year-old female medical student has an exercise stress test at a local health club. An increase in which of the following is most likely to occur in this woman skeletal muscles during exercise?

758

A 65-year-old man is suffering from congestive heart failure. He has a cardiac output of 4 L/min, arterial pressure of 115/85 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Further tests by a cardiologist reveal that the patient has a right atrial pressure of 10 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected in this patient?

759

An angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor is administered to a 65-year-old man with a 20-year history of hypertension. The drug lowers arterial pressure and increases plasma levels of renin and bradykinin. Which of the following would best explain the elevation in plasma bradykinin?

760

During mild exertion, a 70-year-old man experiences an ischemia-induced myocardial infarction and dies from ventricular fibrillation. In this patient, what factor was most likely to increase the tendency of the heart to fibrillate after the infarction

761

A 70-year-old man with a weight of 100 kg and a blood pressure of 160/90 has been told by his doctor that he has angina pain caused by myocardial ischemia. Which of the following treatments would be beneficial to this man

762

A 60-year-old man had a heart attack 2 days ago, and his blood pressure has continued to decrease. He is now in cardiogenic shock. Which of the following therapies is most beneficial?

763

If a 21-year-old male patient has a cardiac reserve of 300 percent and a maximum cardiac output of 16L/min, what is his resting cardiac output?

764

A 29-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with a heart murmur. The mean QRS axis of his EKG is 165 degree. The arterial blood oxygen content is normal. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis

765

Which of the following conditions often occurs in compensated hemorrhagic shock? Assume systolic pressure is 48 mm Hg.

766

If a patient undergoing spinal anaesthesia experiences a large decrease in arterial pressure and goes into shock, which of the following would be the therapy of choice?

767

A 10-year-old girl in the hospital had an intestinal obstruction and arterial pressure decreased to 70/40. Heart rate is 120 and the respiratory rate is 30/min. Which of the following therapies would the physician recommend

768

A 32-year-old male was found to have an enlarged right atrium. All other chambers were of normal dimensions. This would be best explained by

769

A 50-year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/85 and weighs 100 kg. He reports that he is not feeling well, his EKG has no P-waves, he has a heart rate of 46, and the QRS complexes occur regularly. What is his likely condition?

770

A 60-year-old woman has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements best describe this condition?

771

A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior vena cava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure?

772

A 70-year-old man with a weight of 100 kg and a blood pressure of 160/90 has been told by his doctor that he has angina pain caused by myocardial ischemia. Which of the following treatments would be beneficial to this man?

773

A 66-year-old man, who has had a sympathectomy, experiences a greater than-normal fall in arterial pressure upon standing up. The explanation for this occurrence is

774

All are true regarding SA node except

775

Spuriously high BP is seen in all except

776

Cardiac output is determined by all except

777

During exercise, blood supply in splanchnic area is decreased due to

778

Adequacy of replacement of fluid in case of shock is best assessed by

779

Local control of blood flow is seen in all of the following except

780

Parasympathetic stimulation would decrease the following except

781

The basis of Korotkoff sounds is due to

782

Not true for jugular venous pulse pressure

783

Which one structural feature is common to all blood capillaries

784

Carotid baroreceptor is most sensitive to

785

In cerebral ischemia, systemic blood pressure rise due to

786

Before antibiotic therapy is initiated, the patient is given aspirin to reduce his fever. The mechanism of fever reduction by aspirin is

787

A man suffers from a disease that destroyed only the motor neurons of the spinal cord below the thoracic region. Which aspect of sexual function would not be possible?

788

Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high-frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which of the following?

789

Horner syndrome occurs when sympathetic nerve fibers to the eye are interrupted, leading to which of the following symptoms on the affected side of the face?

790

Area of Broca is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to area of Broca?

791

A 72-year-old man visits his physician because he finds it difficult to hold his hand steady when painting. Examination reveals a resting tremor and rigidity. The symptoms are relieved by a single dose of levodopa. This neurological signs of patient are most likely related to a lesion within which of the following?

792

A person who has had a traumatic brain injury seems to be able to understand the written and spoken word but cannot create the correct sounds to be able to speak a word that is recognizable. This person most likely has damage to which area of the brain

793

All are properties of spinal cord reflex except

794

In man, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is

795

In Fight or Flight reaction, increase in local blood flow is caused by

796

The EEG waves are called

797

Frequency of alpha waves in EEG is

798

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential is due to

799

Arousal response is mediated by

800

Synaptic potential can be recorded by

801

Increased gamma-efferent discharge is seen in all except

802

Person with eyes closed and mind wandering will show in EEG

803

A 41-year-old woman has hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and decreased urinary phosphate excretion. Injection of parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes an increase in urinary cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). The most likely diagnosis is

804

A 38-year-old man who has galactorrhea is found to have a prolactinoma. His physician treats him with bromocriptine, which eliminates the galactorrhea. The basis for the therapeutic action of bromocriptine is that it

805

Which of the following explains the suppression of lactation during pregnancy?

806

A 46-year-old woman has hirsutism, hyperglycemia, obesity, muscle wasting, and increased circulating levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The most likely cause of her symptoms is

807

A 61-year-old woman with hyperthyroidism is treated with propylthiouracil. The drug reduces the synthesis of thyroid hormones because it inhibits oxidation of

808

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his

809

A 30-year-old woman has the anterior lobe of her pituitary gland surgically removed because of a tumor. Without hormone replacement therapy, which of the following would occur after the operation?

810

Which of the following is the first step in the biosynthetic pathway for thyroid hormones that is inhibited by propylthiouracil?

811

A 36-old-woman with galactorrhea is treated with bromocriptine. The basis for bromocriptine action is by acting as an agonist for

812

A 49-year-old male patient with AIDS and declining CD4 counts has an increased frequency of systemic infections and develops sick euthyroid syndrome. Which of the following would be expected with normal thyroid function

813

Following neck surgery, a patient develops circumoral paresthesia and a long QT interval on the electrocardiogram consistent with hypocalcemia resulting from injury to the parathyroid glands. Which of the following best describes parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

814

A 39-year-old man with an enlarged head, hands, and feet; osteoarthritic vertebral changes; and hirsutism presents with a complaint of gynecomastia and lactation. The patient is most likely suffering from a tumor in which of the following locations?

815

A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of vision changes, frequent pressure-like headaches, polyuria, and polydipsia. An MRI of the brain showed a tumor at the posterior pituitary stalk. Which hormone abnormality would be expected

816

A 22-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 25 U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?

817

A 15-year-old girl presents with loss of the outer one-third of her eyebrows. Physical examination demonstrates slight enlargement of the thyroid gland and delayed relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes. Blood work shows an elevation in creatine phosphokinase and TSH. Thyroid hormone therapy is ordered. Physiologically active thyroxine exists in which of the following forms

818

A 20-year-old man presents with increasing daytime somnolence. A 24-hour sleep study showing a sudden onset of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep without previous slow-wave sleep confirms a diagnosis of narcolepsy. REM sleep decreases the secretion of growth hormone. The physiological secretion of growth hormone is increased by which of the following

819

A 47-year-old woman with an anterior pituitary tumor presents with poor wound healing and hypertension. The endogenous secretion of ACTH is correctly described in which of the following statements?

820

An abdominal computed tomography (CT) in a 50-year-old patient with Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) shows multiple small adrenocortical masses. Which of the following clinical findings are most likely present

821

A 36-year-old male computer programmer works for a company that has just been acquired in a corporate takeover. He experiences symptoms of tachycardia, palpitations, and an irregular heartbeat, particularly at night. His plasma catecholamine levels are found to be increased, which may result from which of the following

822

A 34-year-old patient with chronic asthma is started glucocorticoid therapy. The treatment may result in bone loss because glucocorticoids do which of the following?

823

A 46-year-old woman on lithium therapy for her bipolar disorder presents with complaints of weakness, arthralgia, and constipation. Blood work reveals hypercholesterolemia, increased levels of TSH, and decreased free T4 levels. Which of the following is also likely to be associated with her hypothyroid state

824

A 37-year-old woman presents with exophthalmus and an enlarged thyroid gland. The levels of free thyroxine in her blood are elevated. Other clinical findings of Graves disease include which of the following

825

A 75-year-old woman with primary hyperparathyroidism presents at her physician’s office with dehydration and malaise. Which of the following plasma levels are most likely to be decreased

826

If a radioimmunoassay is properly conducted and the amount of radioactive hormone bound to antibody is low, this would indicate which of the following?

827

A patient has an elevated plasma thyroxine (T4) concentration, a low plasma thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentration, and a thyroid gland that is smaller than normal. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?

828

A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with a fracture in the neck of the femur. Radiographs reveal generalized demineralization of the bone in the area. Her plasma calcium ion concentration is significantly greater than normal: 12.2 mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is consistent with this presentation

829

A man eats a low carbohydrate meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids that stimulate insulin secretion. Which of the following responses accounts for the absence of hypoglycemia

830

A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected

831

A 40-year-old woman is placed on a high-potassium diet for several weeks. Which of the following hormonal changes is most likely to occur

832

A 30-year-old woman reports to the clinic for a routine physical examination. The examination reveals that she is pregnant. Plasma levels of TSH are high but total T4 concentration (protein bound and free) is normal. Which of the following best reflects this patient clinical state?

833

A 43-year-old man develops a brain tumor that impinges on the supraoptic nucleus in the hypothalamus. As a result, the secretion of which of the following hormones is affected

834

A 39-year-old man with an enlarged head, hands, and feet; osteoarthritic vertebral changes; and hirsutism presents with a complaint of gynecomastia and lactation. The patient is most likely suffering from a tumor in which of the following locations

835

A 41-year-old woman has hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and decreased urinary phosphate excretion. Injection of parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes an increase in urinary cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). The most likely diagnosis is

836

A 59-year-old woman has osteoporosis, hypertension, hirsutism, and hyperpigmentation. Magnetic resonance imaging indicates that the pituitary gland is not enlarged. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with these findings

837

A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

838

A 24-year-old male graduate student participates in a clinical research study on intestinal motility. Peristalsis of the small intestine

839

A 38-year-old male patient with a duodenal ulcer is treated successfully with the drug cimetidine. The basis for cimetidine's inhibition of gastric H+ secretion is that it

840

A 44-year-old woman is diagnosed with Zollinger–Ellison syndrome. Which of the following findings is consistent with the diagnosis?

841

A 40-year-old woman has an arterial pH of 7.25, an arterial Pco2 of 30 mm Hg, and serum [K+] of 2.8 mEq/L. Her blood pressure is 100/80 mm Hg when supine and 80/50 mm Hg when standing. What is the cause of her abnormal blood values?

842

Which of the following hormones is released by the presence of fat and protein in the small intestine and has a major effect to decrease gastric emptying?

843

A 65-year-old man has a 25-year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician because of swelling in his legs. A decrease in which of the following is likely to contribute to the development of edema in his legs

844

A 48-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. She is not undergoing chemo-therapy currently. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum-ionized calcium. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are undetectable, but there is an increase in PTH-related peptide PTHrP. The increased flow of calcium into the cell is an important component of the upstroke phase of the action potential in which of the following

845

A 37-year-old man with AIDS presents with a fever, anorexia, weight loss, and GI bleeding. Physical examination reveals a palpable abdominal mass. Endoscopy and biopsy reveal a proximal small-bowel malignancy requiring surgical resection. Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine would most likely result in a decrease in which of the following

846

A 35-year-old male smoker presents with burning epigastric pain that is most pronounced on an empty stomach. In addition to peptic ulcer disease and gastric acid hypersecretion, the patient has a paroxysmal rise in serum gastrin in response to intravenous (IV) secretin. Normally, basal acid output is increased by which of the following

847

A 40-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of fatigue. She had recently been treated for an infection. Her laboratory values are RBC 1.8 × 106/μl, Hb 5.2 g/dL, hematocrit (Hct) 15, WBC 7.6 × 103/μl, platelet count 320,000/μl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fL, and reticulocyte count 24 percent. What is the most likely explanation for this presentation?

848

A neonate develops a jaundice condition with a bilirubin concentration of 10 mg/dL on day 2 (normal is 3 mg/dL at 2 days old). The neonatologist can be confident that the condition is not erythroblastosis fetalis if which of the following is true

849

Red blood cells, originally equilibrated in isotonic saline, are suspended in a solution containing 250 mOsm/L of sodium chloride in water. Ignoring transient changes, intracellular red cell volume will

850

A 62-year-old female arrives for her annual physical. She complains of itching in her hands along with headaches and vertigo. A routine complete blood count (CBC) shows red blood cells (RBCs) of 8.2 million/μl, white blood cells (WBCs) 37,000/μl, and platelets 640,000/μl. Her erythropoietin levels are lower than normal. The primary diagnosis would be

851

A 65-year-old alcoholic developed chest pain and cough with an expectoration of sputum. A blood sample revealed that his white blood cell count was 42,000/μl. What is the origin of these WBCs

852

A mother of blood type A+ who has always been perfectly healthy just delivered her second child. The father is of blood group O−. Knowing that the child is of blood group O− (O, Rh−), what would you expect to find in this child?

853

A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe chest pain. Angiography demonstrates a severe coronary occlusion. A thrombolytic agent is administered to reestablish perfusion. Which of the following does the thrombolytic agent activate

854

A teenaged boy with numerous nosebleeds was referred to a physician for evaluation prior to a minor surgery. His prothrombin time (PT) was 11 sec (11–15 sec normal), partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 58 sec (25–40 sec normal), and bleeding time was 6.5 min (2–7 min normal). Which of the following is most likely abnormal in this young man?

855

Following a blood donation, red cell production begins to increase in

856

Adhesion of white blood cells to the endothelium is

857

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a 2-week history of diarrhea that has gotten progressively worse over the last several days. He has minimal urine output and is admitted to the hospital for dehydration. His stool specimen is positive for parasitic eggs. Which type of WBCs would have an elevated number?

858

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58 percent, WBC 13,300/μl, and platelets 600,000/μl. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97 percent on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?

859

A 65-year-old alcoholic developed chest pain and cough with an expectoration of sputum. A blood sample revealed that his white blood cell count was 42,000/μl. What is the origin of these WBCs?

860

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is an important molecule in the immune response. What is the function of IL-2

861

What occurs following activation of basophils

862

Which of the following would best explain a prolonged bleeding time test?

863

Which of the following would be appropriate therapy for massive pulmonary embolism?

864

Which of the following transfusions will result in an immediate transfusion reaction?

865

An infant born prematurely in gestational week 25 has neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following would be expected in this infant?

866

A 12-year-old boy has a severe asthmatic attack with wheezing. He experiences rapid breathing and becomes cyanotic. His arterial Po2 is 60 mm Hg and his Pco2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following statements about this patient is most likely to be true?

867

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (Vt) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

868

A 49-year-old man has a pulmonary embolism that completely blocks blood flow to his left lung. As a result, which of the following will occur?

869

A healthy 65-year-old man with a tidal volume (Vt) of 0.45 L has a breathing frequency of 16 breaths/min. His arterial Pco2 is 41 mm Hg, and the Pco2 of his expired air is 35 mm Hg. What is his alveolar ventilation?

870

A 42-year-old woman with severe pulmonary fibrosis is evaluated by her physician and has the following arterial blood gases: pH = 7.48, PaO2 = 55 mm Hg, and PaCO2 = 32 mm Hg. Which statement best explains the observed value of PaCO2?

871

A person with a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) defect has hypoxemia and is treated with supplemental O2. The supplemental O2 will be most helpful if the person predominant V/Q defect is

872

The diffusing capacity of a gas is the volume of gas that will diffuse through a membrane each minute for a pressure difference of 1 mm Hg. Which of the following gases is often used to estimate the oxygen diffusing capacity of the lungs?

873

A 64-year-old patient with COPD develops jugular venous distention, ascites, and peripheral edema. A chest X-ray reveals cardiomegaly with marked enlargement of the right ventricle. A decrease in which of the following variables is the major cause of cor pulmonale in COPD

874

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (TV) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

875

A 12-year-old boy has a severe asthmatic attack with wheezing. He experiences rapid breathing and becomes cyanotic. His arterial Po2 is 60 mm Hg and his Pco2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following statements about this patient is most likely to be true

876

When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, a special set of respiratory neurons that are inactive during normal quiet breathing then becomes active, contributing to the respiratory drive. These neurons are located in which of the following structures

877

When oxygen moves through the thin side of the blood-gas barrier from the alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell, it passes the following layers in order

878

In sportsman, the smoking of tobacco causes which of the following effects on the respiratory system

879

Out of the following which one is the most important stimulus controlling the resting ventilation

880

Pulmonary function changes seen in emphysema are

881

A person has normal lung compliance and increased airway resistance. The most economical way of breathing for him is

882

Mouth to mouth respiration provides an O2 concentration of

883

Decompression sickness occurs due to

884

J receptors are present in

885

Myoglobin binds with

886

A 45-year-old woman develops severe diarrhea while on vacation. She has the following arterial blood values: pH = 7.25, Pco2 = 24 mm Hg, [HCO3-] = 10 mEq/L. Venous blood samples show decreased blood [K+] and a normal anion gap. The correct diagnosis for this patient is

887

Use the values below to answer the following question. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure =47 mm Hg Bowman space hydrostatic pressure =10 mm Hg Bowman space oncotic pressure = 0 mm Hg. At what value of glomerular capillary oncotic pressure would glomerular filtration stop?

888

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the

889

Which of the following would best distinguish an otherwise healthy person with severe water deprivation from a person with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

890

A man presents with hypertension and hypokalemia. Measurement of his arterial blood gases reveals a pH of 7.5 and a calculated HCO3− of 32 mEq/L. His serum cortisol and urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) are normal, his serum aldosterone is increased, and his plasma renin activity is decreased. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his hypertension?

891

A 53-year-old man with multiple myeloma is hospitalized after 2 days of polyuria, polydipsia, and increasing confusion. Laboratory tests show an elevated serum [Ca2+] of 15 mg/dL, and treatment is initiated to decrease it. The patient’s serum osmolarity is 310 mOsm/L. The most likely reason for polyuria in this man is

892

A 37-year-old woman suffers a severe head injury in a skiing accident. Shortly thereafter, she becomes polydipsic and polyuric. Her urine osmolarity is 75 mOsm/L, and her serum osmolarity is 305 mOsm/L. Treatment with 1-deamino-8-d-arginine vasopressin (dDAVP) causes an increase in her urine osmolarity to 450 mOsm/L. Which diagnosis is correct?

893

A 54-year-old man with a lung tumor has high circulating levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), a serum osmolarity of 260 mOsm/L, and a negative free-water clearance . Which diagnosis is correct?

894

A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a new diuretic targeted to act on the Na+ reabsorption site from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the following transport processes is the new drug affecting?

895

An 85-year-old woman presents with a fever and hypovolemic hypotension. To assess her renal function, the filtration fraction is determined using a freely filterable substance that is neither reabsorbed nor secreted. The infusate yields a renal artery concentration of 12 mg/mL and a renal vein concentration of 9 mg/mL. Which of the following is her filtration fraction?

896

A 54-year-old man with small cell lung cancer presents with lethargy, confusion, and muscle cramps. Blood work shows an increase in plasma levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). In patients with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which of the following will increase

897

A 52-year-old man presents to his internist for a 6-month checkup following diuretic therapy and recommended diet changes for his essential hypertension. His blood pressure is 145/95 mm Hg and serum aldosterone levels are increased. Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a decrease in the plasma concentration of which of the following?

898

A 92-year-old man presents with dehydration following 4 days of persistent diarrhea. Under this circumstance, hypotonic fluid would be expected in which of the following

899

A 48-year-old woman complains of severe polyuria (producing about 0.5 L of urine each hour) and polydipsia (drinking two to three glasses of water every hour). Her urine contains no glucose, and she is placed on overnight water restriction for further evaluation. The next morning, she is weak and confused, her sodium concentration is 160 mEq/L, and her urine osmolarity is 80 mOsm/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

900

A healthy 29-year-old man runs a 10-km race on a hot day and becomes very dehydrated. Assuming that his antidiuretic hormone levels are very high, in which part of the renal tubule is the most water reabsorbed?

901

An 83-year-old woman with sepsis develops multiorgan failure. Based on her blood urea nitrogen of >100 mg/dL, she is placed on continuous venovenous hemodialysis. Which of the following factors will increase the diffusive clearance of solutes across the semipermeable dialysis membrane

902

A 78-year-old woman recovering from a stroke is observed to have altered mental status. She is taken from the nursing home to the emergency department, where physical examination shows signs of dehydration and laboratory test results show a blood glucose concentration of 600 mg/dL and plasma osmolarity of 340 mOsm/L. Which of the following physiological variables is likely increased in this patient

903

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the

904

The clinical laboratory returned the following values for arterial blood taken from a patient: plasma pH = 7.28, plasma HCO3− = 32 mEq/L, and plasma Pco2 = 70 mm Hg. What is this patient’s acid–base disorder

905

Tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by

906

All of the following increase renin secretion except

907

True regarding nephron function

908

The urge for micturition is felt when the bladder is filled with

909

Which of the following does not protect body surfaces:

910

A polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN):

911

Complement component C3 is cleaved by:

912

Which of the following is true about C3b:

913

Interferons:

914

Plasma cells is:

915

Identify the structure A shown in picture

916

B-cells and T-cells are two types of cells involved in ____

917

Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for most allergic and hypersensitivity reactions?

918

The presence of IgM indicates

919

Immunological unresponsiveness to self-antigens is called:

920

Identify the cell, shown in picture

921

Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in which of the following?

922

A positive tuberculin test is an example of

923

All of the following are example of peripheral or secondary lymphoid organ, except:

924

A 32 years old male suffering from gunshot injury in his thigh then after few days of this blackening of skin on thigh noted (shown in picture). What is the diagnosis?

925

A young male patient presented to OPD with urethral discharge. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organism. Which method would be the best for culture

926

Group A streptococci is best diagnosed by

927

A girl from shimla presented to OPD with fever, hypotension, malaise and axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy. Culture in glucose broth shows stalactite growth. Most  likely causative organism is

928

Culture of lepra bacilli done in

929

Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synthesis

930

A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to S. aureus, which was found to be methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. Which of the following antibiotics will be drug of choice

931

Which of the following Gram positive organism is most common cause of UTI among sexually active women

932

A patient of rheumatic heart disease developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely organism causing this is

933

Which component of Strep. pyogens has cross reactivity with synovium of human

934

Risk of pneumococcal meningitis is maximum in

935

Conjugate polysaccharide vaccine are available for the prevention of invasive disease caused by all of the following bacteria except

936

Which of the following is true regarding N. meningitidis infection

937

All are true about N. gonorrhoea except

938

Gonococcus ferments

939

Meningococci differ from gonococci in that they

940

Nagler reaction is shown by

941

Swarming growth is seen in which Gram positive bacilli

942

True about cholera bacilli is

943

True about Corynebacterium diphtheriae are all except

944

A child with fever and pharyngitis which of the following investigation should not be done

945

A patient comes with h/o unresponsive fever and cough. X-ray revealed pneumonia. Sputum examination showed Gram positive, partially acid fast bacteria with branching filaments that grows on blood agar. The most likely etiologic agents is

946

A 28 year old lady presented with headache, kernigs sign positive, culture showed Gram positive bacilli, most probable organism is

947

Collection of urine sample of a patient of TB kidney is done

948

Mycobacteria can be diagnosed on microscopy when counts are

949

A 20yr old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grow E.coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E.coli is likely to be the causative agent

950

With reference to infection with E. coli the following are true except

951

A 24 year cook in a hostel is suffering from enteric fever 2 year back. The chronic carrier state in patient is diagnosed by

952

Maximum urease is produced by

953

All of the following are serotype of V. cholera except

954

All are true about T. pallidium except

955

Atypical pneumonia can be caused by all except

956

All are true about brucella except

957

8 years old boy suffering from pharyngitis having pseudomembrane over post. Pharyngeal wall. Throat swab is taken for identification of bacteria. A staining is done form swab then identify the method of staining (as per picture)

958

5 years old boy is suffering from meningitis, CSF sample is sent to laboratory for culture (shown in picture). What is the infective agent?

959

Malta fever is also called as:

960

All are true about Coxiella burnetii, except:

961

Positive tunica reaction is produced by all, except:

962

All of the following are true except:

963

Which is not a property of Mycoplasma?

964

Weil disease is caused by:

965

Mercury drop appearance colony of B. pertussis is seen on which of the following culture media?

966

Drugs used in Pseudomonas treatment:

967

Sereny test is used for the diagnosis of

968

A 9 years old school going boy suffering from infection of larynx. A swab is taken from throat and shows Chinese letter arrangement of bacteria on gram stain. Which of the following is a causative agent

969

Passive immunization done for

970

J chain is/are present in

971

A bacteria is obtained from cow and that is grow on glatin stab, on gelatin stab it shows inverted fir tree appearance then the organism is

972

All of the following are true about montaux test except

973

All of the following are true about antibodies, EXCEPT which one?

974

A 16-year-old, seemingly normal female is diagnosed with androgen insensitivity disorder. She has never had a menstrual cycle and is found to have a blind-ending vagina; no uterus, cervix, or ovaries; a 46 XY genotype; and intra-abdominal testes. Her serum testosterone is elevated. Which of the following characteristics is caused by lack of androgen receptors?

975

A 19-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with significant weight loss and secondary amenorrhea. She has a high-intensity exercise regimen, is preoccupied with food, and seems to have an irrational fear of gaining weight. Decreased production of which of the following hormones leads to amenorrhea in anorexia nervosa

976

A 22-year-old woman presents to the obstetrician-gynecologist’s office with complaints of painful menstruation accompanied by profuse menstrual flow. The doctor prescribes ibuprofen and an oral contraceptive. Biological actions of estrogens include a decrease in which of the following

977

A 55-year-old woman is experiencing the signs and symptoms of menopause. Her gynecologist discusses with her the possibility of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). Which of the following are effects of postmenopausal HRT

978

A couple presents at the fertility center with concerns that they have not been able to conceive a child. The reproductive endocrinologist evaluates the wife to be certain that she is ovulating. Which of the following is an indication that ovulation has taken place

979

After menopause, hormone replacement therapy with estrogen-like compounds is effective in preventing the progression of osteoporosis. What is the mechanism of their protective effect

980

One treatment for erectile dysfunction requires the injection of a substance into the corpora cavernosa of the penis. The injection of which of the following causes an erection

981

A young woman is given daily injections of a substance beginning on the 16th day of her normal menstrual cycle and continuing for 3 weeks. As long as the injections continue, she does not menstruate. The injected substance could be which of the following?

982

Spermatogenesis is regulated by a negative feedback control system in which follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the steps in sperm cell formation. What is the negative feedback signal associated with sperm cell production that inhibits pituitary formation of FSH?

983

In order for male differentiation to occur during embryonic development, testosterone must be secreted from the testes. What stimulates the secretion of testosterone during embryonic development?

984

A man is taking a number of medications, one of which appears to be interfering with the emission phase of the sexual act. Which of the following medications could cause this problem?

985

During the first few years after menopause, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are normally extremely high. A 56-year-old woman completed menopause 3 years ago. However, she is found to have low levels of FSH in her blood. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding?

986

Why is milk produced only after delivery, not before?

987

Very early in embryonic development, testosterone is formed within the male embryo. What is the function of this hormone at this stage of development

988

A 30-year-old woman is breast-feeding her infant. During suckling, which of the following hormonal responses is expected?

989

During pregnancy, the uterine smooth muscle is quiescent. During the 9th month of gestation the uterine muscle becomes progressively more excitable. What factors contribute to the increase in excitability

990

Before intercourse, a woman irrigates her vagina with a solution that lowers the pH of the vaginal fluid to 4.5. What will be the effect on sperm cells in the vagina

991

Infants of mothers who had adequate nutrition during pregnancy do not require iron supplements or a diet rich in iron until about 3 months of age. Why is this?

992

Two days before the onset of menstruation, secretions of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) reach their lowest levels. What is the cause of this low level of secretion?

993

Birth control pills containing combinations of synthetic estrogen and progesterone compounds given for the first 21 days of the menstrual cycle are effective in preventing pregnancy. What is the explanation for their efficacy?

994

A professional athlete in her mid-20s has not had a menstrual cycle for 5 years, although a bone density scan revealed normal skeletal mineralization. Which of the following facts elicited during the taking of her medical history may explain these observations?

995

A 16-year-old, seemingly normal female is diagnosed with androgen insensitivity disorder. She has never had a menstrual cycle and is found to have a blind-ending vagina; no uterus, cervix, or ovaries; a 46 XY genotype; and intra-abdominal testes. Her serum testosterone is elevated. Which of the following characteristics is caused by lack of androgen receptors?

996

Which of the following actions occurs when light strikes a photoreceptor cell of the retina?

997

At a first-grade parent–teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones

998

The morning after a rock concert, a 20-year-old college student notices difficulty hearing his professor during lecture. The physician at the student health center suspects possible damage to his hair cells by the loud music. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of which of the following

999

A 58-year-old woman goes to her physician because she is having difficulty threading needles. An eye examination leads to the diagnosis of presbyopia (old eyes). Her condition is most likely caused by which of the following

1000

Most of the refraction that occurs in the eye at the

1001

Stapes rests in

1002

Relative color and luminosity of photoreceptive input under changing light conditions are regulated and maintained by

1003

Raised ECF potassium levels are seen in

1004

Which of the following is the middle ear ossicle that is attached to the tympanic membrane

1005

Under low or reduced light conditions, which of the following chemical compounds is responsible for the inward-directed sodium current in the outer segments of the photoreceptors

1006

Olfactory receptor cells belong to which of the following groups of cells

1007

Accommodation for far vision (focusing on an object at a distance) requires which of the following processes

1008

During photoreception, all of the following increase except

1009

The stereocilia of hair cells are embedded in which membrane?

1010

After olfactory receptor cells bind odor molecules, a sequence of intracellular events occurs that culminates in the entrance of specific ions that depolarize the olfactory receptor cell. Which of the following ions are involved?

1011

The condition of myopia is usually corrected by which of the following types of lens?

1012

Which of the following events prompts the auditory system to interpret a sound as loud?

1013

The function of the round window can best be described by which of the following?

1014

Which of the following muscles is contracted as part of the pupillary light reflex?

1015

Which of the following provides about two thirds of the 59 diopters of refractive power of the eye?

1016

Of the photoreceptors listed below which one responds to the broadest spectrum of wavelengths of light

1017

Which of the following structures secretes the intraocular fluid of the eye

1018

Which type of papillae is located in the posterior part of the tongue?

1019

Visual contrast is enhanced due to lateral inhibition by which retinal cells

1020

Which of the following is the most common cause of glaucoma

1021

Na+ - Ca++ exchanger in cardiac cell is an example of

1022

Transcytosis occurs in which of the following

1023

Identify the procedure shown

1024

Identify the transport process

1025

Identify the structure

1026

Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult

1027

Major contribution to plasma osmolality is by which ion

1028

Most abundant ion in intracellular fluid is

1029

Plasma makes

1030

BMI of underweight individual

1031

The movement of solvent from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration through semipermeable membrane is

1032

The system of fibers maintaining the structure of the cell is

1033

Release of contents of vesicles outside the cell with the membrane kept intact is termed

1034

The movement of a substance along its concentration gradient with the help of carrier protein is

1035

The second messenger systems are the following except

1036

Which of the following characteristics of a biological membrane is most influenced by its cholesterol content?

1037

Gibbs-Donnan effect states that the presence of non-diffusible ions on one side of semipermeable membrane

1038

Centriole is absent in

1039

Nernst potential for Na+ is

1040

Resting membrane potential of the neuron is close to Nernst potential of

1041

Examples of isotonic solution are

1042

Which of the following is not mediated through negative feedback mechanism:

1043

Cell shape and motility are provided by

1044

The correct sequence of cell cycle is:

1045

Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling

1046

Sodium channels are specifically blocked by

1047

Most important intracellular anion is

1048

The lipid bilayer of cell membrane exists as

1049

Molecular logic of living state states all except

1050

True statement regarding Nitric oxide is

1051

All of the following transport process follow saturation kinetics except

1052

Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on

1053

Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion share which of the following characteristics

1054

Synovial, intraocular and pericardial fluids are examples of

1055

Transition temperature of lipid bilayer of cell membrane is raised by

1056

Na+ - K+ pump is an example of

1057

Addition of PUFA in plasma membrane causes

1058

Membrane fluidity is increase by

1059

True statements about Ca2+ transport across cell membrane

1060

In cell membrane all of the following are true except

1061

Glycophorin is present in

1062

Clathrin is used in

1063

Molecular motors are

1064

Fusion of part of a cell membrane occurs in

1065

Aggrecan is

1066

Plasma osmolartiy is contributed by all except

1067

Regarding gap junction, which of the following is true

1068

In which cell centriole is absent

1069

Out of the various phases of the action potential (recorded with one electrode inside the cell), which one has the longest duration

1070

Which of the statements regarding the T tubules is correct

1071

Which of the following words or phrases is most closely associated with an endplate potential at the neuromuscular junction

1072

Dihydropyridine receptor is

1073

All the following are true of type II muscle except

1074

Gap junctions are seen in all except

1075

Excitability of a nerve fiber is maximum during

1076

All of the following are true about action potential except

1077

Area within A band contains all except

1078

Decrease in extracellular Na+ conc. will cause

1079

The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except

1080

Excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle involves all of the following events except

1081

A single contraction of skeletal muscle is most likely to be terminated by which of the following actions

1082

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle contraction is most accurate

1083

Which of the following best describes an attribute of visceral smooth muscle not shared by skeletal muscle

1084

Which of the following is a consequence of myelination in large nerve fibers

1085

Similarities between smooth and cardiac muscle include which of the following

1086

A cross-sectional view of a skeletal muscle fiber through the H zone would reveal the presence of what

1087

Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal genetic disorder characterized by a hyper-responsiveness to inhaled anesthetics and results in elevated body temperature, skeletal muscle rigidity, and lactic acidosis. Which of the following molecular changes could account for these clinical manifestations

1088

A 12-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of diminished vision and diplopia. He also experiences tiredness toward the end of the day. There are no other symptoms. On examination, the patient has ptosis of the left eye that improves after a period of sleep. Clinical examination is otherwise normal. There is no evidence of weakness of any other muscles. Additional testing indicates the presence of anti-acetylcholine antibodies in the plasma, a normal thyroid function test, and a normal CT scan of the brain and orbit. What is the initial diagnosis

1089

The correct order of susceptibility of the different types of nerve fibres to local aneasthetics is

1090

Action potential is

1091

A travelling nerve impulse does not depolarize the area immediately behind it, because

1092

Orthodromic conduction is

1093

Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because

1094

Spontaneous release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction produces

1095

Calcium ions triggers muscle contraction by binding to

1096

Rheobase is

1097

Based on sliding-filament theory which of the following changes would you expect in the sarcomere during contraction

1098

Which ion helps in resting membrane potential in neurons

1099

Magnitude of action potential is mainly affected by

1100

Repolarization of a nerve is due to

1101

Maximum number of sodium channels per square micrometer is present in

1102

Influx of which of the following ion is responsible for IPSP

1103

All or none law is obeyed by

1104

Sensory fiber with least conduction velocity

1105

Acetylcholine receptors are decreased in

1106

All are neuroglial cells in the CNS except

1107

A 30-year-old has an ejection fraction of 0.25 and an end systolic volume of 150 ml. What is his end diastolic volume?

1108

Which of the following is most likely to cause the heart to go into spastic contraction

1109

Which of the following events is associated with the first heart sound?

1110

Which of the following conditions at the A-V node will cause a decrease in heart rate?

1111

When recording lead I on an  EKG, the right arm is the negative electrode, and the positive electrode is the

1112

Cardiac output in L/min divided by heart rate equals:

1113

A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovascular adjustments. Which of the following is NOT true in this context

1114

The blood pressure measured by a sphygmomanometer:

1115

Pressure on carotid sinus cause:

1116

Shape of the arterial pulse is influenced by:

1117

Which of the following in NOT correct regarding capillaries

1118

Distribution of blood flow in mainly regulated by the

1119

Protein filtration across cerebral capillaries is limited by:

1120

CVP denotes pressure of

1121

QRS complex is due to

1122

Mean pulmonary artery pressure is

1123

Mean arterial pressure is

1124

Blood flow in the vessels supplying the subendocardial portion of left ventricle occurs during

1125

Coronary vasodilation is caused by

1126

Negative waves in jugular venous pulse

1127

ECG changes seen in hypocalcemia

1128

Left ventricular failure is said to be present if pulmonary capillary wedge pressure exceeds

1129

Increased preload is seen in all of the following except

1130

Normal portal vein pressure is

1131

ECG changes in atrial fibrillation do not include

1132

Swan Ganz catheter is used to measure

1133

ST segment elevation is seen in

1134

Vagal stimulation of the heart causes

1135

Baroreceptors stimulation produces

1136

During Diastole, the arterial pressure is maintained by

1137

The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle

1138

If cardiac output is 5 l/min and body surface area is 1.7 m2, cardiac index is

1139

All are true regarding SA node except

1140

Spuriously high BP is seen in all except

1141

Cardiac output is determined by all except

1142

During exercise, blood supply in splanchnic area is decreased due to

1143

Adequacy of replacement of fluid in case of shock is best assessed by

1144

Local control of blood flow is seen in all of the following except

1145

Parasympathetic stimulation would decrease the following except

1146

The basis of Korotkoff sounds is due to

1147

Not true for jugular venous pulse pressure

1148

Which one structural feature is common to all blood capillaries

1149

Carotid baroreceptor is most sensitive to

1150

In cerebral ischemia, systemic blood pressure rise due to

1151

Weightlessness results in

1152

Bradycardia in athletes is due to

1153

In which of the following, change of blood flow during exercise is least

1154

Heart rate is maximum in normal

1155

The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in

1156

Area of Broca is concerned with:

1157

Motor aphasia refers to defect in:

1158

The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon

1159

Blood brain barrier is present at all of the following sites except

1160

Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell

1161

Location of osmoreceptors is the

1162

All of the following are known functions of hypothalamus except:

1163

Nonshivering thermogenesis in adults is due to

1164

The hormone associated with cold adaption is

1165

The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is

1166

The inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS neurons is

1167

CSF pressure (lumbar)-

1168

The most important physiological factor which maintains CSF pressure is

1169

Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is:

1170

Beta waveforms in electroencephalogram designate which of the following states of the patient:

1171

Modality that is lost on the ipsilateral side in Brown sequard syndrome is:

1172

Salivation by dog seen when food is given along with ringing of bell is

1173

The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is

1174

Perception of normal sensory stimuli as painful is called

1175

Parasympathetic stimulation causes

1176

Function of a muscle spindle is

1177

Stretch reflex of urinary bladder is integrated at

1178

Clasp knife rigidity is also known as

1179

All are carried through anterolateral system except

1180

Which of the following sensation are not transmitted by the Dorsal tract

1181

Sweating is mediated by

1182

All of the following effects can occur if vagus is stimulated except

1183

Vomiting centre is situated in the

1184

Temperature regulation is chiefly under the control of

1185

Dreaming is common in which stage of sleep

1186

Neurotransmitter depleted in Parkinson disease

1187

Function of neocerebellum is

1188

Function of floccunodular lobe of cerebellum is

1189

Primary auditory area is

1190

Which of the following nucleus controls the circadian rhythm

1191

Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human eye

1192

TRUE about Renshaw cell inhibition is:

1193

Intensity of sensory stimulation is directly related to

1194

All are properties of spinal cord reflex except

1195

In man, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is

1196

In Fight or Flight reaction, increase in local blood flow is caused by

1197

The EEG waves are called

1198

Frequency of alpha waves in EEG is

1199

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential is due to

1200

Arousal response is mediated by

1201

Synaptic potential can be recorded by

1202

Increased gamma-efferent discharge is seen in all except

1203

The following hormone does not have any intracellular receptor

1204

Osteoclast has specific receptor for

1205

Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with

1206

Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis

1207

Secretion of Prolactin is affected by

1208

Regarding thyroid hormone all are true except

1209

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the kidney

1210

Experimental diabetes in caused by

1211

In the adrenal gland, androgens are produced by the cells in the

1212

Transection of pituitary stalk leads to increase in

1213

Anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following except

1214

Which of the following is not related to the calcium metabolism

1215

At what time of the day GH levels are highest

1216

Which of the following causes hypocalcemia

1217

The hormone which helps in milk secretion

1218

Features like hypogonadism, dwarfism, loss of hair, pigmentation and ulcers of skin and decreased immunity are associated with deficiency of

1219

Long term status of blood sugar is explained by

1220

Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in which hormone deficiency:

1221

Procedure of glucose tolerance test is:

1222

Corticosteroids suppress:

1223

Aldosterone action is on

1224

Calcium absorption is from:

1225

Insulin does not facilitate glucose uptake in the following except

1226

Which of the following will occur in a patient whose diet has been low in calcium for 4 months

1227

Release of which of the following hormone is an example of Neuroendocrine secretion

1228

Complete atrophy of anterior piuitary gland will cause

1229

Thyroid hormone is transported in blood bound to

1230

Glucose- mediated insulin release is mediated through

1231

Carbohydrate free diet causes

1232

Stress induced rise in cortisol causes

1233

Calcium is absorbed from

1234

Synthesis of aldosterone is inhibited by

1235

Seen in disease of Addison

1236

BMR is lowered in

1237

All are features of panhypopituitarism except

1238

Which of the following is not caused by oxytocin

1239

Androgens are produced in adrenal glands from

1240

Most powerful vasopressor is

1241

Hyperexcitability in tetany is due to

1242

This hormone acts on the intestines and causes increased calcium absorption

1243

Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect

1244

Which one of the following hormones is modified amino acid

1245

Thyroid hormone binds to which type of receptor

1246

Which of the following does not have a corresponding releasing hormone from the hypothalamus

1247

Hormones thyroxine, adrenaline and the pigment melanin are formed from

1248

Adrenal insufficiency leads to

1249

GI tract muscle wall

1250

Deglutition apnea during pharyngeal phase is caused by

1251

HCl secretion by stomach

1252

Bile salts

1253

Following is a choleretic agent

1254

Pepsinogen s activated by:

1255

Chymotrypsinogen in activated into chymotrypsin by

1256

Following are gastrointestinal hormones except;

1257

Cephalic phase of gastric secretion is mediated by

1258

Major regulator of interdigestive myoelectric complexes

1259

Bile acid has a detergent action due to

1260

The amount of water absorbed in the intestine in a day is

1261

Colonic bacteria, on digestion of dietary fibres would give

1262

Largest reserve of energy in body stored as

1263

The role of chromium in the body is

1264

Intrinsic factor, which helps in absorption of Vit. B12 is produced by:

1265

Cholagogues are the substances, which cause

1266

Gallbladder contraction is controlled primarily by the following hormone:

1267

Faecal mass is mainly derived from

1268

Rapidly absorbed in the stomach is

1269

Which of the following is not produced by hepatocytes

1270

Ion which promotes glucose absorption in the gut region

1271

Kupffer cells in the liver are

1272

Causes of vitamin B12 deficiency is

1273

Salivary amylase is activated by

1274

Mass action contraction is seen in which of the following

1275

Major regulator of interdigestive myoelectric complexes

1276

Most potent stimulus for secretin is

1277

Following constitute dietary fibres except

1278

Migrating motility complxes occur about every 90 min between meals and are thought to be stimulated by the gastrointestinal hormone, motilin. An absence of MMCs causes an increase in which of the following

1279

Which of the following is the site of Na+ - bile acid cotransport

1280

Slow waves in small intestinal smooth cells are

1281

All are factors causing post-vagotomy diarrhea except

1282

In which of the following areas, the vomiting centre is located

1283

All stimulate enterogastric reflex except

1284

Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

1285

Chyme in small intestine is propelled forward by

1286

In GIT, longest transit time is seen in

1287

Which of the following is true regarding Brunner gland

1288

Which of the following is not present in pancreatic juice

1289

Regarding the complement system, which is true

1290

Identify the cell shown by the arrow

1291

The clotting of blood in normal intact vascular segment is prevented by all of the following except

1292

The fluid component of plasma present in the blood constitutes about

1293

Most of the plasma proteins are synthesized by

1294

The most common type of anemia found in our country is

1295

The most abundant plasma protein present in the blood is

1296

The least numerous of WBCs are

1297

The largest WBC is

1298

Platelets are formed from

1299

The most important ton required for clotting is

1300

Kernicterus is caused due to accumulation of bilirubin in

1301

Metabolic needs of an RBC are met by

1302

During breakdown of Hb, heme is broken down into iron and

1303

Abnormal condition caused due to decreased production of alpha and beta chains of Hb is called

1304

The relative percentage of Hb in a single RBC is called

1305

All the following are autoimmune diseases except

1306

Immunoglobulins are produced by

1307

Blood is stored at

1308

Dead neutrophils, necrotic tissue, dead bacteria all combine to form

1309

Packed cell volume is increased in

1310

Albumin

1311

Normally RBCs are hemolyzed when suspended in

1312

Arneth count is

1313

Monocytes remain in the circulation for

1314

Most common hemoglobin in normal adult is

1315

Carbon dioxide is transported in plasma as

1316

Most useful method of estimating total iron content of blood

1317

Vitamin K dependent clotting factors of hepatic origin are all of the following except

1318

In sickle cell disease

1319

1 gm of Hb binds with

1320

Hemophilia B is deficiency of which factor

1321

Extrinsic system of blood coagulation is triggered by the release of

1322

Hagemann factor is involved in

1323

Erythropoietin is secreted by

1324

Plasma makes

1325

Factor required for erythrocyte stability

1326

Extrinsic system of coagulation is checked by

1327

Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of

1328

During the second trimester of pregnancy, where is the predominant site of red blood cell production

1329

Which of the following would be appropriate therapy for massive pulmonary embolism

1330

The first reactionary change to occur after vessel injury and haemorrhage is

1331

Chediak-Higashi syndrome is associated with defect in

1332

Thrombosthenin is a

1333

Blood group antigens are

1334

Compared to fresh blood, stored blood has

1335

Biconcave shape of RBC is helpful because

1336

The sigmoid nature of Hb-O2 dissociation curve is because of

1337

All of the following factor influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except

1338

True about inspiration; the intrapleural pressure become

1339

Inflation of lungs induces further inflation is explained by:

1340

Nitrogen washout method is used for estimating:

1341

Ventilation perfusion ratio is maximum at

1342

Which of the following variants of hypoxia does not stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors:

1343

Which is the best parameter for analysis of Hypoxic hypoxia

1344

Which of the following conditions leads to tissue hypoxia without alteration of oxygen content of blood

1345

The neurons may get irreversibly damaged if exposed to significant hypoxia for:

1346

True regarding respiratory center is

1347

Which of the following is the best-known metabolic function of the lung:

1348

A person goes to the mountains. When he reaches about 5000ft. he develops dyspnea. Which of following correctly explains for the symptoms

1349

The Alveolar ventilation in an individual with Tidal volume 600ml dead space 150 ml and Respiratory rate of 15/minute is

1350

The diffusing capacity for carbon dioxide compared to that for oxygen is

1351

Oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right in all except

1352

Smoking causes

1353

The most common form of hypoxia is

1354

The state of iron responsible for O2 transport

1355

Most potent respiratory stimulant is

1356

Hypoxia is characterized by

1357

Hyperbaric oxygen is useful in all, EXCEPT

1358

Cyanosis or bluish coloration of skin and mucus membrane depends upon

1359

Limitation of inspiration by vagal lung inflation signals is called the:

1360

Kussmaul respiration occurs in response to

1361

The Respiratory zone consists of all the following except

1362

During binding of the 4 molecules of O2 by Hb, the affinity for the binding of one of the following is the greatest

1363

Haldane effect is

1364

Surfactant is produced by

1365

1 gm of Hb binds with

1366

Gas used to measure diffusion In lung

1367

During exercise increase in O2 delivery to muscles is because of all except

1368

Total lung capacity depends upon

1369

When oxygen moves through the thin side of the blood-gas barrier from the alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell , it passes the following layers in order

1370

The metabolic function of the lungs include

1371

In sportsman, the smoking of tobacco causes which of the following effects on the respiratory system

1372

Out of the following which one is the most important stimulus controlling the resting ventilation

1373

Pulmonary function changes seen in emphysema are

1374

A person has normal lung compliance and increased airway resistance. The most economical way of breathing for him is

1375

Mouth to mouth respiration provides an O2 concentration of

1376

Irreversible damage to neurons occurs if exposed to significant hypoxia for

1377

Decompression sickness occurs due to

1378

J receptors are present in

1379

Myoglobin binds with

1380

Which of the following describes in vitro fertilization:

1381

Ovulation is due to surge of:

1382

Separation of first polar body occurs at the time of:

1383

All of the following are indicators of ovulation except:

1384

Fertilization occurs in which part of the fallopian tube

1385

Sperm becomes mobile in:

1386

Asthenospermia means:

1387

Ovulation occurs:

1388

Term period for embryonic period:

1389

Impotency may be seen in

1390

Testosterone production is mainly contributed by

1391

Interstitial cells of Leydig in testes secrete which of the following

1392

Levels of which of the following hormones are increased in post menopausal women

1393

Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing luteininzing hormone surge is associated with which of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:

1394

The laboratory report shows value of gonadotropin and ovarian hormones of the blood sample taken, on day 20 of the menstrual cycle of a young woman. Whether her cycle was ovulatory or not may be validity assessed by the reported serum level of:

1395

The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen  to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is

1396

Elasticity of cervical mucous is seen in–

1397

Braxton-Hicks contractions

1398

The role of human placental lactogen is

1399

Estrogen in the post menopausal women is metabolized mostly into

1400

Corpus luteum is maintained by:

1401

The enzyme associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is

1402

Capacitance of sperms takes place in:

1403

The possible reason for the amenorrhea and infertility during lactation is

1404

Sertoli have receptors for

1405

Which of the following is not produced by testis

1406

About 60% of total volume of semen is secreted by

1407

All are effects of testosterone except

1408

Attenuation reflex

1409

Most important constituent of endolymph is

1410

Almost equal stimulation of all the three primary colors makes a person to see

1411

Lateral geniculate body is concerned with

1412

Receptor which is a dendrite of a neuron is in following

1413

Bipolar cells are seen in

1414

All are primary colours except

1415

True about colour blindness

1416

Blind spot of mariotte

1417

White colour vision/perception of white light is due to

1418

Electrical response due to the effect of light on photosensitive compounds of rods and cones

1419

Features of occipital lobe of brain are all except

1420

True about semicircular canals is

1421

All of the following are concerned with spatial orientation

1422

The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with:

1423

During the dark phase of visual cycle, which form of vitamin A combines with opsin to make Rhodopsin:

1424

Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human eye

1425

Which of the following retinal cells have action potentials

1426

Olfactory receptor cells belong to which of the following type of cells

1427

Out of the following, which taste sensation has got the lowest stimulation threshold

1428

The stereocilia of hair cells are embedded in which membrane

1429

Which of the following ions moves from the endolymph into the stereocilia and causes the depoarization of the hair cell

1430

Most of the refraction that occurs in the eye at the

1431

Intraocular fluid

1432

If red and green cones are stimulated equally, colour observed is

1433

Atonic bladder

1434

Sodium is actively transported by all parts of renal tubules, except

1435

Atonic bladder

1436

In diabetes mellitus urinary osmolarity is

1437

Cutting of pituitary stalk causes all, EXCEPT

1438

Actual tubular maximum is always lesser than calculated tubular maximum for any substance reabsorbed actively by kidney because

1439

GFR is increased when

1440

Following cells are responsible for acid secretion in kidney

1441

Which of the following does NOT form a filtration barrier in nephrons:

1442

In renal glycosuria, the renal threshold for glucose

1443

Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from

1444

The urge for micturition is felt when the bladder is filled with

1445

JG cells (Juxta glomerular apparatus) are

1446

Normal levels of creatinine in serum is

1447

Addis test is used for

1448

Diuresis is caused by

1449

In clinical practice Glomerular Fittration Rate (GFR) is estimated using the plasma clearance value of

1450

Clearance of which of the following substances is normally the maximum

1451

Regarding the counter current mechanism all the following are true EXCEPT

1452

Normal glomerular capillary pressure

1453

Reabsorption of water is maximum in

1454

Substance used to measure renal plasma flow

1455

True regarding water absorption in tubules

1456

Site of action of ADH is

1457

What is glomerular filtration rate

1458

PCT absorbs all except

1459

Glucose is reabsorbed at

1460

GFR decreases with the following

1461

Which is not a component of juxtaglomerular complex

1462

With glucose which of the following is transported

1463

A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a diuretic targeted to act on the sodium reabsorption site from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the following transport processes is the drug affecting

1464

If clearance of a drug is more than GFR, it means that

1465

Anion gap is largely due to

1466

True regarding nephron function

1467

Changes seen in metabolic acidosis

1468

Minimal amount of urine required for elimination of waste product is

1469

Normal daily protein excretion

1470

Most sensitive index for renal tubular function

1471

Which of the following is not responsible for urine concentration

1472

Tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by

1473

Effective renal plasma flow in humans is

1474

Juxtamedullary nephrons constitute what percentage of total nephrons

1475

The graph is representing which kind of inhibition:

1476

Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

1477

A 35-year-old woman has had weight loss for the past 6 months. She is diagnosed with cancer, and methotraxate is prescribed. During treatment, what is the most likely effect of pyridostigmine on the reaction catalyzed by folateredcutase?

1478

Selenium is an essential component of:

1479

Which of the following enzyme typically elevated in alcoholism:

1480

The chemotherapy drug fluorouracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in vivo that result in a covalent complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate synthase and methylene-tetrahydrofolate. The inhibition of deoxythymidylate formation and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to which of the following?

1481

The following graph shows a linear relationship between reaction rate and ______

1482

True about isoenzymesis:

1483

Consider the section of the TCA cycle in which isocitrate is converted to fumarate. This segment of the TCA cycle can be best described by which one of the following?

1484

Decreased glucose concentration in hepatic cells triggers all of the following except

1485

The reaction inhibited in thiamine deficiency is

1486

A 16-month-old girl was found to have ingested approimately 30 mL of an acetonitrile-based cosmetic nail remover when she vomited 15 minutes postingestion. The poison control center was contacted, but no treatment was recommended because it was confused with an acetone-based nail polish remover. The child was put to bed at her normal time, which was 2 hours postingestion. Respiratory distress developed sometime after the child was put to bed, and she was found dead the next morning. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes was the most likely cause of this child death?

1487

A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that was found, after extensive laboratory analysis, to inhibit phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase. The patient would have very little glucose produced from which one of the following gluconeogenic precursors?

1488

In the TCA cycle, a role for thiamine pyrophosphate is which one of the following?

1489

Which of the following statements correctly describes insulin?

1490

Which one of the following is a property of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

1491

A liver biopsy from an infant with hepatomegaly, stunted growth, hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, hyperlipidaemia revealed accumulation of glycogen having normal structure. A possible diagnosis would be:

1492

Which one of the following statement is correct regarding the well fed state?

1493

A 54-yrs old man with type I diabetes is suffered to an ophthalmologist for evaluation of developing cataract. Which of the following enzymes is most strongly associated with cataract formation in this patient?

1494

Which one of the following components of the electron transport chain only accepts electrons, and does not donate them?

1495

Which compound is recycled in the citric acid cycle and thus serves a catalytic role?

1496

Which one of the following tissues of the eye relies almost solely on anaerobic metabolism instead of the TCA/electron transport cycle?

1497

A 43-year-old female has been on a grapefruit and potatoes diet for several months in an effort to lose weight. She now complains of a rash covering most of her body, a large, beefy tongue, nausea and diarrhea, and some confusion. Which one of the following cofactors or enzyme complexes would be most affected by this condition?

1498

An alcoholic presents with swelling and fissuring of the lips, cracking at the angles of the mouth, red eyes, and an oily, scaly rash of his scrotum. Which one of the following cofactors of enzyme complexes would be most affected by this condition?

1499

A firefighter is brought to the emergency room (ER) from the scene of a fire complaining of headaches, weakness, confusion, and difficulty in breathing. His skin and mucous membranes appear very pink/red. The causative agent of these symptoms inhibits electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation by which one of the following mechanisms?

1500

Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase depends on the presence of which of the following substances?

1501

A patient is in septic shock and his tissues are poorly perfused and oxygenated. The major end product of glucose metabolism in these tissues will be an accumulation of which one of the following?

1502

A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic enters the hospital because of a variety of symptoms, including loss of feeling in his hands and feet, nystagmus, and difficulty with his balance when walking. This patient would have difficulty catalyzing which one of the following reactions?

1503

A man presents to the ER with an elevated temperature, sweats, and increased rate of breathing. He had been spraying insecticide and accidentally inhaled some of the poison. Using the insecticide on cultured cells, it was demonstrated that the rate of oxygen consumption by the cells was much greater than in the absence of the compound. This drug is acting most like which one of the following?

1504

A man presents to the ER after ingesting an insecticide. His respiration rate is very low. Information from the Poison Control Center indicates that this particular insecticide binds to and completely inhibits cytochrome c. Therefore, which one of the following would occur in this man mitochondria?

1505

Two weeks after an episode of the flu, an 8-year-old boy with IDDM is brought to the emergency room in a coma. His breathing is rapid and deep, and his breath has a fruity odor. His blood glucose is 36.5 mM (normal: 4–6 mM [70–110 mg/dL]). The physician administers IV fluids, insulin, and potassium chloride. A rapid effect of insulin in this situation is to stimulate

1506

An alcoholic has been on a 2-week drinking binge during which time she has eaten little and has become severely hypoglycemic. Which additional condition may develop in response to chronic, severe hypoglycemia?

1507

A breast-fed infant begins to vomit frequently and lose weight. Several days later she is jaundiced, her liver is enlarged, and cataracts are noticed in her lenses. These symptoms are most likely caused by a deficiency of

1508

Following an early-morning run, a 29-year-old man consumes an all-American breakfast consisting of cereal, eggs, bacon, sausage, pancakes with maple syrup, doughnuts, and coffee with cream and sugar. Which of the following proteins will most likely be activated in his liver after breakfast?

1509

After digestion of a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as its primary ingredients, the major carbohydrate products entering the blood are which one of the following? Choose the one best answer

1510

A man goes on a hunger strike and confines himself to a liquid diet with minimal calories. Which of the following would occur after 4 to 5 hours?

1511

After a meal, blood glucose enters cells and is stored as glycogen, particularly in the liver. Which of the following is the donor of new glucose molecules in glycogen?

1512

Glycogenolysis in muscle does not contribute directly to blood glucose concentration because muscle lacks the enzyme

1513

The immediate degradation of glycogen under normal conditions gives rise to which one of the following?

1514

A new born begins vomiting after feeding, becomes severely jaundiced, and has liver disease. Treatment for possible sepsis is initiated, and the urine is found to have reducing substances. A blood screen for galactosemia is positive, and lactose-containing substances are removed from the diet. Lactose is toxic in this case because of which of the following?

1515

In an embryo with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, how many net moles of ATP are generated in the conversion of 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate?

1516

Which of the following is helpful in transport of fructose in Sperm?

1517

Which one of the following occurs during the conversion of pyruvate to glucose during gluconeogenesis?

1518

Which of the following hormones can cause hyperglycemia without known effects on glycogen or gluconeogenesis?

1519

A common intermediate in the conversion of glycerol and lactate to glucose is which one of the following?

1520

The pentose phosphate pathway generates which one of the following?

1521

Which one of the following metabolites is used by all cells for glycolysis, glycogen synthesis, and the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway?

1522

A chronic alcoholic has recently had trouble with their ability to balance, becomes easily confused, and displays nystagmus. An assay of which of the following enzymes can determine a biochemical reason for these symptoms?

1523

A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that was found, after extensive laboratory analysis, to inhibit phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase The patient would have very little glucose produced from which one of the following gluconeogenic precursors?

1524

A woman undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer has developed bloating, diarrhea, and excess gas whenever she drinks milk. She never had this problem before. Which one of the following best describes the mechanism causing the symptoms in the above-mentioned patient?

1525

Patients with diabetes frequently report changing visual acuities when their glucose levels are chronically high. Which of the following could explain the fluctuating acuity with high blood glucose levels?

1526

During a myocardial infarction, the oxygen supply to an area of the heart is dramatically reduced, forcing the cardiac myocytes to switch to anaerobic metabolism. Under these conditions, which of the following enzymes would be activated by increasing intracellular AMP?

1527

When nitroprusside is given in higher than usual doses, it may be accompanied by the administration of thiosulfate to reduce potential toxic side effects. Which complex associated with electron transport or oxidative phosphorylation is most sensitive to the toxic byproduct that may accumulate with high doses of nitroprusside?

1528

A patient has been exposed to a toxic compound that increases the permeability of mitochondrial membranes for protons. Which of the following events in liver cells would you expect to occur?

1529

Most of the reducing equivalents utilized for synthesis of fatty acids can be generated from:

1530

A liver biopsy is done on a child with hepatomegaly and mild fasting hypoglycemia. Hepatocytes show accumulation of glycogen granules with single glucose residues remaining at the branch points near the periphery of the granule. The most likely genetic defect is in the gene encoding a(n):

1531

Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is correct?

1532

Which of the following statements is true?

1533

A child stops making developmental progress at age 2 years and develops coarse facial features with thick mucous drainage. Skeletal deformities appear over the next year, and the child regresses to a vegetative state by age 10 years. The child’s urine tests positive for glycosaminoglycans that include which of the following molecules?

1534

When fatty acid Beta-oxidation predominates in the liver, mitochondrial pyruvate is most likely to be

1535

The peptide ala-arg-his-gly-glu is treated with peptidases to release all of the amino acids. The solution is adjusted to pH 7, and electrophoresis is performed. In the electrophoretogram depicted below, the amino acid indicated by the arrow is most likely to be

1536

Several complexes in the mitochondrial electron transport chain contain non-heme iron. The iron in these complexes is bound tightly to the thiol group of which amino acid?

1537

In a 55- year-old man, who has been diagnosed with cirrhosis of liver, Ammonia is not getting detoxified and can damage brain. Which of the following amino acids can covalently bind ammonia, transport and store in a non- toxic form?

1538

An amino acid that yields acetoacetyl CoA during the catabolism of its carbon skeleton will be considered

1539

Which of the following is most likely in an untreated child with PKU?

1540

Which of the following statements is true about affinity chromatography?

1541

Pyrrole rings of hemoglobin molecule is attached to iron by:

1542

Which of the following is not inborn error of aromatic amino acid metabolism

1543

Newborn with severe acidosis and vomiting has elevated serum levels of lactate and alanine. This suggests a deficiency in which enzyme?

1544

Which enzymes are responsible for producing the direct donors of nitrogen into the pathway producing urea?

1545

Two days after a full-term normal delivery, a neonate begins to hyperventilate, develops hypothermia and cerebral edema, and becomes comatose. Urinalysis reveals high levels of glutamine and orotic acid. The BUN is below normal. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient in this child?

1546

In which of the following disease patient is not photosensitive?

1547

A 49-year-old man with a rare recessive condition is at high risk for deep vein thrombosis and stroke and has had replacement of ectopic lenses. He has a normal hematocrit and no evidence of megaloblasticanemia.A mutation in the gene encoding which of the following is most likely to cause this disease?

1548

Blood is drawn from a child with severe anemia and the haemoglobin protein is degraded for peptide and amino acid analysis. Of the results below, which change in hemoglobin primary structure is most likely to correlate with the clinical phenotype of anemia?

1549

Parents bring in their 2-week-old child fearful that he has ingested a poison. They had delayed disposing one of the child diapers, and noted ablack discoloration where the urine had collected. Later, they realized that all of the child’s diapers would turn black if stored as waste for a day or so. Knowing that phenol groups can complex to form colors, which amino acid pathways are implicated in this phenomenon?

1550

The oxygen carrier of muscle is the globular protein myoglobin. Which one of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of the molecule?

1551

Which of the following amino acids is most responsible for the buffering capacity of hemoglobin and other proteins?

1552

The biochemical structure of all the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary, and pancreas can best be described as which of the following?

1553

The substitution of valine for glutamate at position 6 on the two Beta-chains in sickle cell hemoglobin causes which of the following?

1554

A 56-year-old man with a history of genetic disease undergoes hip replacement surgery for arthritis. During the operation the surgeon notes a dark pigmentation (ochronosis) in the man cartilage. His ochronotic arthritis is most likely caused by oxidation and polymerization of excess tissue

1555

A 64-year-old woman is seen by a hematologist for evaluation of a macrocytic anemia. The woman was severely malnourished. Both homocysteine and methylmalonate were elevated in her blood and urine, and the transketolase level in her erythrocytes was below normal.What is the best evidence cited that the anemia is due to a primary deficiency of cyanocobalamin (B12)?

1556

Which one of the following products of protein metabolism is decreased below normal levels during the early stages of starvation?

1557

What is the most positive activator of the process shown below?

8 Acetyl-CoA + n ATP + 14 NADPH → palmitate + 8 CoASH + nADP + nPi + 14 NADP

1558

When adipose tissue stores triglyceride arriving from the liver or intestine, glycolysis must also occur in the adipocyte. Which of the following products or intermediates of glycolysis is required for fat storage?

1559

Which one of the following cofactors must be utilized during the conversion of acetyl-CoA to manloyl-CoA ?

1560

Which of the following structures is common to all sphingolipids?

1561

A patient with a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas, and increased plasma triglyceride levels (2,000 mg/dL) associated with chylomicrons, most likely has a deficiency in

1562

Uncontrolled phagocytosis of oxidized LDL particles is a major stimulus for the development of foam cells and fatty streaks in the vascular subendothelium. This process may be inhibited by increased dietary intake of

1563

Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:

1564

Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophorsis?

1565

Rothera test used for detection of

1566

Which of the following is the 3-carbon end-product of fatty acid metabolism?

1567

Which of the following Hyperlipoproteinemia do not increase the risk of coronary atherosclerosis?

1568

The anticholesterolemic action of simvastatin is based on its effectiveness as a competitive inhibitor of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis. The reaction product normally produced by this enzyme is

1569

In which of the following type of hyperlipoproteinemias, both LDL and VLDL is raised.

1570

Tay-Sachs disease involves the metabolism of gangliosides. Gangliosides are composed of a ceramide backbone with at least which one of the following?

1571

During starvation, which of the following shows the most marked increase in plasma concentration?

1572

A 40-year-old woman with a history of bleeding and pancytopenia now presents with leg pain. She describes a deep, dull pain of increasing severity that required pain medication. Computed tomography examination reveals erosion and thinning of the femoral head. A bone marrow biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of Gaucher disease. What material would be found abnormally accumulating in the lysosomes of her cells?

1573

A 22-year-old woman with poorly controlled gestational diabetes delivers a large-for-gestational-age infant at 24 weeks. Within 6hours afterbirth, the newborn has respiratory difficulties associated with tachypnea and cyanosis. What substance is most likely deficient in this newborn?

1574

A 30-year-old man has been fasting for several days. His blood glucose level is now about 60% of its normal value, but he does not feel lightheaded because his brain has reduced its need for serum glucose by using which of the following substances as an alternate energy source?

1575

Which of the following substances can be converted to glucose to supply the needs of the brain during starvation?

1576

A lipoprotein inversely related to the incidence of coronary artherosclerosis is

1577

A 3-month-old boy has rapidly progressive central nervous system (CNS) deterioration, spasticity, and failure to thrive. Physical examination is significant for marked hepatosplenomegaly. Liver biopsy shows an increase of sphingomyelin in the lysosomes. What enzyme is most likely deficient in this infant?

1578

Which of the following inhibits the activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

1579

A patient has been on a self-imposed starvation diet for four months, and has lost 60 pounds while consuming only water and vitamin pills. If extensive blood studies were performed, which of the following would be expected to be elevated?

1580

Which of the following is the action of dietary fiber?

1581

A double-stranded RNA genome isolated from a virus in the stool of a child with gastroenteritis was found to contain 15% uracil. What is the percentage of guanine in this genome?

1582

What is the structure indicated below?

1583

Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is true?

1584

A sample of human DNA is subjected to increasing temperature until the major fraction exhibits optical density changes due to disruption of its helix (melting or denaturation). A smaller fraction is atypical in that it requires a much higher temperature for melting. This smaller, atypical fraction of DNA must contain a higher content of

1585

The first drug to be effective against AIDS, including the reduction of maternal-to-child AIDS transmission by 30%, was AIDS drug azidothymidine (AZT). Which of the following describes its mechanism of action?

1586

Erythromycin is the antibiotic of choice when treating respiratory tract infections in legionnaire disease, whooping cough, and Mycoplasma-based pneumonia because of its ability to inhibit protein synthesis in certain bacteria by

1587

It is now believed that a substantial proportion of the single nucleotide substitutions causing human genetic disease are due to misincorporation of bases during DNA replication. Which proofreading activity is critical in determining the accuracy of nuclear DNA replication and thus the base substitution mutation rate in human chromosomes?

1588

A male child presents with delayed development and scarring of the lips and hands. His parent have restrained him because he obsessively chews on his lips and fingers which of the following is likely to occur in this child?

1589

Which of the following statements is true?

1590

Which of the following coding sequence produces a stable hairpin of RNA?

1591

The hydrolytic step leading to the release of a polypeptide chain from a ribosome is catalyzed by which of the following?

1592

Binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to promoter site is inhibited by

1593

The deficiency of an excision endonuclease may produce an exquisite sensitivity to ultraviolet radiation in xerodermapigmentosum. Which of the following functions would be absent in a patient deficient in this endonuclease?

1594

Which of the following statements regarding splicing in eukaryotes is correct?

1595

The anti-Pseudomonas action of norfloxacin is related to its ability to inhibit chromosome duplication in rapidly dividing cells. Which of the following enzymes participates in bacterial DNA replication and is directly inhibited by this antibiotic?

1596

Single-strand breaks in DNA comprise the single most frequent type of DNA damage. These breaks are frequently due to reactive oxygen species damaging the deoxyribose residues of the sugar phosphate backbone. This type of break is repaired by a series of enzymes that reconstruct the sugarand ultimately reform the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. Which class of enzyme catalyses the formation of the phosphodiesterbond in DNA repair?

1597

A nasopharyngeal swab obtained from a 4-month-old infant with rhinitis and paroxysmal coughing tested positive upon culture for Bordetella pertussis. He was admitted to the hospital for therapy with an antibiotic that inhibits the translocation of the 70S ribosomes on the mRNA. This patient was most likely treated with

1598

Collagen, the most abundant protein in the human body, is present in varying amounts in many tissues. If one wished to compare the collagen content of several tissues, one could measure their content of

1599

Enhancers are transcriptional regulatory sequences that function by enhancing the activity of

1600

A 6-month-old boy becomes progressively lethargic and pale and shows delayed motor development. Laboratory evaluation reveals normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN), low serum iron, hemoglobin 4.6 g/dL, and leukopenia. His bone marrow shows marked megaloblastosis, which did not respond to treatment with iron, folic acid, vitamin B12, or pyridoxine. His urine developed abundant white precipitate identified as orotic acid. The underlying defect causing the megaloblasticanemia in this child is most likely in which of the following pathways?

1601

Patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome have hyperuricemia, indicating an increased biosynthesis of purine nucleotides, and markedly decreased levels of hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase (HPRT). The hyperuricemia can be explained on the basis of a decrease in which regulator of purine biosynthesis?

1602

The severe form of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is the result of a single nucleotide substitution that produces a single amino acid substitution. This is best described as a

1603

A family, while on a picnic, picked some wild mushrooms to add to their picnic salad. Shortly thereafter, all the members of the family became ill, with the youngest child showing the most severe symptoms. The family is suffering these effects owing to a primary inability to accomplish which one of the following in their cells and tissues?

1604

A 15-year-old boy was diagnosed with skin cancer. He had always been sensitive to sunlight, and had remained indoors for most of his life. An analysis of his DNA, from isolated fibroblasts, indicated an increased level of thymine dimers when the cells were exposed to UV light. The boy developed a skin tumor owing to an increased mutation rate, which was caused by which one of the following?

1605

A thin, emaciated 25-year-old male presents with purple plaques and nodules on his face and arms, coughing, and shortness of breath. In order to diagnose the cause of his problems most efficiently, you would order which one of the following types of tests?

1606

All are true about translation in eukaryotes except

1607

A 17-year-old male has large, prominent ears, elongated face, large testicles, hand flapping, low muscle tone, and mild mental retardation. Which type of mutation does his diagnosis represent?

1608

A young black man was brought to the emergency room (ER) due to severe pain throughout his body. He had been exercising vigorously when the pain started. He has had such episodes about twice a year for the past 10 years. An analysis of the blood shows a reduced blood cell count (anemia), and odd- looking red blood cells that were no longer concave and looked like an elongated sausage. The type of mutation leading to this disorder is best described as which one of the following?

1609

A woman has been complaining of a burning sensation when urinating, and a urine culture demonstrated a bacterial infection. The physician placed the woman on ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin will be effective in eliminating the bacteria because it interferes with which one of the following processes?

1610

A child develops skin tumour with blisters on exposure to sunlight. He very likely has a defect in which of the following mechanisms?

1611

A promoter site on DNA:

1612

Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) is required by which of the following steps in protein synthesis?

1613

A 27-year-old woman with epilepsy has been taking phenytoin to control her seizures. She is now pregnant, and her physician is considering changing her medication to prevent potential bleeding episodes in the infant. What biochemical activity might be deficient in the infant if her medication is continued?

1614

A 75-year-old woman is seen in the emergency room with a fractured arm. Physical examination revealed multiple bruises and perifollicularhemorrhages, periodontitis, and painful gums. Her diet consists predominately of weak coffee, bouillon, rolls, and plain pasta. Lab results indicated mild microcyticanemia. Which of the following enzymes should be less active than normal in this patient?

1615

Which of the following vitamins becomes a major electron acceptor, aiding in the oxidation of numerous substrates?

1616

Dopamine hydroxylase converts dopamine to norepinephrine. The vitamin used as a cofactor in this reaction is:

1617

Which of the following vitamins can act without phosphorylation?

1618

Folate trap is because if the deficiency of

1619

Vitamin B12 help in DNA synthesis by catalysing

1620

A child is noted to be severely retarded. Physical examination reveals a pot-bellied, pale child with a puffy face. The child's tongue is enlarged. Dietary deficiency of which of the following substances can produce this pattern?

1621

Megaloblasticanemia with folate deficiency is linked to an inability to perform which type of enzymatic process?

1622

Megaloblasticanemia, due to folate deficiency from dietary causes, is linked to which dietary problem?

1623

A complete blood count with differential for a pregnant woman reveals a hematocrit of 30%, with hypersegmented neutrophils and large, hypochromic red cells. Deficiency of which of the following would be most likely to produce these findings?

1624

A recent immigrant complains of fatigue, weight gain, constipation, and cold intolerance. Physical examination demonstrates a diffuse mass in the anterior aspect of the neck. Dietary deficiency of which of the following nutrients is most likely to have contributed to the patient problem?

1625

Which of the following statements about redox potential is false?

1626

Which out of the following is not a flavoprotein?

1627

Which out of the following has the highest redox potential?

1628

Which one out of the following is not a NAD+ requiring enzyme?

1629

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the irreversible steps of glycolysis?

1630

Decreased glucose concentration in hepatic cells triggers all of the following except–

1631

Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl co A and Co2: True statement is:

1632

The activity of pyruvate carboxylase is dependent upon the positive allosteric effector

1633

Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is used in gluconeogenesis:

1634

Which of the following enzyme does not catalyse decarboxylation reaction:

1635

A patient with Von Gierke disease can produce excess of ketone bodies due to all of the following except–

1636

Product produced by action of aldolase on sustrate formed from fructose are

1637

Which of the following is a debranching enzyme:

1638

All of the following are true about NADPH except

1639

Inhibitor of electron transport which inhibits transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria

1640

False about insulin action

1641

Which of the following enzyme catalyses the direct transfer and incorporation of O2 into a substrate molecule is

1642

Which of the following statements is incorrect about oxidase?

1643

Loss of electrons can be termed as

1644

Gain of electrons can be termed as

1645

Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the first step in the catabolism of ethanol?

1646

Which out of the following enzymes can utilize both NAD+ and NADP+ as a coenzyme?

1647

Excess of glucose is stored as:

1648

N glycosidic bond is found in all EXCEPT:

1649

How many high energy phosphates are utilized in synthesis of glucose from lactate?

1650

Which of the following is optically active?

1651

Glucose alanine cycle plays role in:

1652

Benedict test is positive in all EXCEPT:

1653

The refilling of TCA cycle intermediates is frequently dependent upon which of the following cofactors?

1654

A newborn begins vomiting after feeding, becomes severely jaundiced, has liver disease, and cloudy lenses of the eyes suggestive of cataracts. Treatment for possible sepsis is initiated, and the urine is found to have reducing substances. A blood screen for galactosemia is positive, and lactose-containing substances are removed from the diet. Lactose is toxic in this case because of which of the following?

1655

Glycogenolysis in muscle does not contribute directly to blood glucose concentration because muscle lacks the enzyme

1656

Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis?

1657

The general term used for the anaerobic degradation of glucose to obtain energy is

1658

Whenever the cell ATP supply is depleted, which of the following enzyme activity is increased?

1659

Cleavage of Fructose 1, 6-biophosphate yields

1660

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate is rapidly and reversibly converted to

1661

The first step in the payoff phase of glycolysis is

1662

The substrate used in the last step of glycolysis is

1663

High concentration of glucose 6-phosphate is inhibitory to

1664

The product formed in the first substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis is

1665

Having a low capacity of TCA cycle is advantageous in liver in:

1666

Following are tissues with active HMP shunt except:

1667

In anaerobic glycolysis 1 mole of glucose gives

1668

During gluconeogenesis reducing equivalents from mitochondria to the Cytosol are transported by:

1669

Glycolysis converts

1670

The deficiency of which of the following enzyme leads to galactosemia?

1671

The conversion of which of the following involves two nucleotide derivatives?

1672

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the conversion of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate?

1673

The product formed in the isomerization of mannose 6-phosphate

1674

Which of the following enzyme is present in saliva?

1675

Which of the following conversions is not catalyzed by hexokinase?

1676

Hydrolysis of lactose yields

1677

Hydrolysis of sucrose yields

1678

Maltose hydrolysis yields

1679

Dextrin hydrolysis yields

1680

Which of the following is true about the enzyme producing NADH from a triose phosphate in the glycolytic pathway?

1681

The major factor(s) determining whether glucose is oxidized by aerobic or anaerobic glycolysis is/are

1682

When glucose is converted to lactate by anaerobic glycolysis, equivalent number of ATPs derived is?

1683

When one molecule of glucose is oxidized to two molecules of lactate during anaerobic glycolysis, which of the following statements is false?

1684

In the reduction of pyruvate to lactate, which of the following is regenerated?

1685

For its activity, pyruvate decarboxylase requires

1686

TPP (thiamine pyrophosphate) is derived from

1687

The end products in ethanol fermentation are

1688

Enzyme involved in the pathway of ethanol fermentation?

1689

Which of the following is not an important precursor of glucose in animals?

1690

Which of the following statements is false about gluconeogenesis?

1691

The enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate

1692

Oxaloacetate is reduced to malate by

1693

Gluconeogenesis involves conversion of

1694

Which of the following organisms cannot covert acetyl-coA derived from fatty acids into glucose?

1695

Formation of one molecule of glucose from pyruvate requires

1696

Ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde in the liver cytoplasm by

1697

The main source of glucose carbons for gluconeogenesis is

1698

Which of the following statements about gluconeogenesis is correct?

1699

In the pentose phosphate pathway, the major products are

1700

The first reaction of the pentose phosphate pathway is

1701

Which of the following statements is correct about oxidative pentose phosphate pathway?

1702

Which one out of the following enzymes acts in pentose phosphate pathway?

1703

Oxidation of 3 molecules of glucose by pentose phosphate pathway results in the production of

1704

The main function of pentose phosphate pathway is

1705

One of the following statements is correct about pentose phosphate pathway

1706

Which of the following statements is correct about reductive pentose phosphate pathway?

1707

The use of NADPH generated from pentose phosphate pathway cannot be

1708

Conversion of xylulose 5-phosphate to ribulose 5-phosphate is catalyzed by

1709

Which out of the following statements is true about regulation of metabolic pathway?

1710

The rate of breakdown of metabolites is termed as

1711

Diminished delivery of oxygen to tissues is termed as

1712

Diminished flow of blood to tissues is termed as

1713

Which of the following statements is true about the control of muscle glycogen phosphorylase?

1714

Which of the following is not a factor determining the activity of an enzyme?

1715

Which of the following statements is true?

1716

Which of the following type of metabolite is used for generating glucose under severe starvation conditions?

1717

Which of the following statements is true about brain metabolism in starvation?

1718

One of the following statements about the control of enzyme activity by phosphorylation is correct

1719

Gluconeogenesis responds to which of the following?

1720

When blood sugar levels fall, glycolysis is halted in liver to allow

1721

How many steps are catalyzed by same enzymes in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?

1722

How many steps are catalyzed by different enzymes in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?

1723

When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate concentration, which of the following is obtained?

1724

Which of the following statements is true about competitive inhibitors?

1725

Which of the following statements is true about uncompetitive inhibitors?

1726

The rate determining step of Michaelis-Menten kinetics is

1727

The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is

1728

Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor?

1729

Which of the following is an example of reversible inhibitor?

1730

Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition?

1731

Which of the following catalyzes the reversible degradation of 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate?

1732

Which of the following catalyzes the reversible reaction of β-D-Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate?

1733

The allosteric inhibitor of an enzyme

1734

Which of the following is false about allosteric feedback inhibition?

1735

FAD is a coenzyme in a reaction catalysed by which of the following enzymes?

1736

The active transport of Ca is regulated by _____, which is synthesised in kidneys:

1737

The biological activity of vit E has been attributed, in part, to its action as:

1738

Studies of the actions of two anticoagulants—dicumarol and warfarin (the latter also a hemorrhagic rat poison) have revealed that

1739

Which of the following statements regarding vitamin A is true?

1740

Whole wheat is an excellent source of:

1741

Feeding of raw white of egg in the diet may result in deficiency of:

1742

A deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1) would most likely lead to which of the following clinical manifestations?

1743

Increased carbohydrate consumption increases the dietary requirement for:

1744

The xanthurenic index can be used to measure pyridoxine deficiency, it involves the metabolism of:

1745

Which of the following coenzyme is involved in the formation of hydorxy-proline during collagen synthesis?

1746

Which of the following characteristic would be seen in a patient with severe deficiency of thiamine?

1747

To prevent rickets in case of chronic renal disorders, which of the following substances should be administered?

1748

Which of the following vitamins would most likely become deficient whose staple diet is maize?

1749

Which of the following vitamins is the precursor of CoA?

1750

Both acyl carrier protein (ACP) of fatty acid synthetase and coenzyme A (CoA)

1751

Which one of the following cofactors must be utilized during the conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA?

1752

Which of the following is a coenzyme?

1753

Which of the following statements describing vitamin K is true?

1754

Which of the following statements regarding vitamin A is true?

1755

Which of the following conditions most likely a cause of functional deficiency of vitamin K?

1756

A 27-year-old woman with epilepsy has been taking phenytoin to control her seizures. She is now pregnant, and her physician is considering changing her medication to prevent potential bleeding episodes in the infant. What biochemical activity might be deficient in the infant if her medication is continued?

1757

Fully activated pyruvate carboxylase depends upon the presence of

1758

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?

1759

Which of the following is a polar derivative of cholesterol?

1760

Which of the following fatty acid has the least melting point?

1761

Out of the following which is not a source of glycerol?

1762

Which of the following is false about fatty acids?

1763

Which of the following fatty acid has 16 carbon atoms?

1764

Which of the following is a hydroxyl fatty acid?

1765

Out of the following, which is not an essential amino acid?

1766

The number of milligrams of KOH required to neutralize the free and combined fatty acid in one gram of a given fat is called

1767

Which of the following is a storage form of lipid?

1768

Out of the following, cholesterol does not serve as a precursor for which compounds?

1769

Which of the following is a sphingophospholipid?

1770

Which of the following glycerophospholid acts as a lipotropic agent?

1771

Which of the following phospholipids is a component of inner mitochondrial membrane?

1772

In which of the following glycerophospholipids two phosphatidic acids share a single glycerol?

1773

Platelet activating factor stimulates the release of which of the following compounds?

1774

Which of the following group of membrane lipids predominate in plant cells?

1775

Which of the following membrane lipids have a direct glycosidic linkage between the head-group sugar and the backbone glycerol?

1776

The backbone of phospholipids is

1777

What is the head-group alcohol in plasmolegen and platelet-activating factor?

1778

Phosphorylation of phosphatidylinositol yields

1779

Which of the following vitamin is derived from cholesterol?

1780

What leads to the activation of protein kinase C?

1781

Fatty Acid Synthase complex does not include

1782

All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are true, except:

1783

Chylomicrons core is formed by?

1784

Insulin causes lipogenesis by ALL except

1785

In human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglyserol by weight of is

1786

Which of the following has highest electrophoretic mobility and least lipid content:

1787

Cholesterol present in LDL

1788

All are true about LDL receptor except

1789

Which receptor is present on the liver for the uptake of LDL

1790

Type II hyperlipidemia is due to

1791

Rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis is

1792

Most important source of reducing equivalents for fatty acid synthesis in liver is:

1793

First step in fatty acid synthesis involve

1794

Which one of these has the least density

1795

If choline moiety is replaced by ethanolamine, the net product is

1796

Which of the following is not a phospholipid?

1797

A membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is

1798

Acetyl CoA can be converted into all of the following except

1799

Diet containing large amount of cholesterol reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver by inhibiting the conversion of

1800

Which of the following serves as a specific binding site for the proteins involved in membrane fusion during exocytosis?

1801

Which of the following hormone is responsible for the activation of phospholipase C?

1802

An example of glycerophospholipid involved in cell signaling is

1803

Which of the following type structure contains all the three glycosphingolipids?

1804

The lipids with potent bio activities derived from isoprenoid precursors are common in

1805

Which of the following vitamin is responsible for Ca+2 and phosphate metabolism?

1806

How many products are obtained by the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol by phospholipase C?

1807

Which of the following is false about lipids?

1808

Which would move faster in thin layer chromatography?

1809

HDL protects from atherosclerosis due to all the following reasons EXCEPT:

1810

Trans fatty acids have all the following unwanted effects EXCEPT:

1811

Which of the following prevents rancidity

1812

Number of ATPs formed from complete oxidation of one mole of palmitic acid is

1813

Which of the following explains why individuals with hyperlipidemia and/or gout should minimize their intake of sucrose and high fructose syrups?

1814

Insulin causes lipogensesis by inducing all of the following EXCEPT:

1815

The primary biochemical lesion in homozygotes with familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) is

1816

In which type of chromatography, solvents of increasing polarity are passed through a column of silica gel?

1817

Phosphatidylinositol, phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylserine are easily separated by

1818

For the determination of fatty acid composition, transesterification is done in a warm aqueous solution of

1819

A mixture of fatty acyl methyl esters are separated based on

1820

Which technique is preferred in the separation of fatty acyl methyl esters from a mixture?

1821

The dye used in TLC for detecting separated lipids by spraying the plate is

1822

Which of the following is not a phospholipase?

1823

In which type of chromatography lipids are carried up a silica gel coated pate by a rising solvent front, less polar travels farther than the more polar ones?

1824

Which of the following acts as a passive electrical insulator?

1825

Which of the following membranes contain low cholesterol and high cardiolipin?

1826

Which of the following is important in signal transduction triggered by hormones?

1827

Which of the following are the major component of chloroplast membrane of plants and are absent from animal cells?

1828

How many types of lipid aggregates are formed when amphipathic lipids are mixed with water?

1829

When cross sectional area of the head group and acyl side chain is similar, which of the following lipid aggregates formation is favored?

1830

When cross sectional area of the head group is greater than that of the acyl side chain, which of the following lipid aggregates formation is favored?

1831

Which of the following is a choline containing lipid?

1832

A platelet is able to play its role in the formation of blood clot when one of the glycerophospholipids in the plasma membrane moves into the outer leaflet

1833

Which of the following glycerophospholipids is not common in inner leaflet (cytoplasmic)?

1834

Which of the following has high lipid content?

1835

Erythrocyte glucose transporter is an example of

1836

Which out of the following is not a mediated transport?

1837

Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following

1838

Which of the following are not the components of RNA?

1839

Which of the following statements is true?

1840

What is the composition of nucleoside?

1841

What is the composition of nucleotide?

1842

Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by

1843

The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is

1844

Which of the following is true about phosphodiester linkage?

1845

Which of the following is false about purine and pyrimidine bases?

1846

Building blocks of nucleic acids are

1847

Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?

1848

Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?

1849

Which ratio is constant for DNA?

1850

According to Chargaff rule, in a DNA molecule

1851

Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen by

1852

Which of the following leads to disruption of nucleosomal structure?

1853

One of the following nucleic acids has a left handed helix

1854

Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?

1855

Which of the following is true about Z-DNA helix?

1856

Which of the following statements is true?

1857

The common form of DNA is B-DNA which is right handed. What happens in hypochromicity?

1858

Which of the following is true about tm?

1859

Which of the following is false?

1860

DNA denaturation is measured by absorbance at

1861

Which of the following is false about denaturation?

1862

Which of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA?

1863

Which of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA?

1864

Which of the following is false?

1865

Which of the following involves in carrying genetic information from DNA for protein synthesis?

1866

Apo B48, B100 belongs to same RNA, difference between them is due to 

1867

Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively

1868

True about bacterial transcription termination process:

1869

Following is true regarding histone acetylation

1870

A palindrome is a sequence of nucleotide in DNA that

1871

Age related deterioration of cognitive function is due to increase in following?

1872

DNA polymerase Ι  have

1873

Okazaki fragment are synthesized in

1874

Following enzymes are used in DNA synthesis are all except

1875

Which of the following enzymes is DNA dependent RNA polymerase:

1876

Introns are excised by

1877

Splicing phenomenon , which occurs in primary transcript for mRNA synthesis takes place in

1878

True about enhancer is:

1879

Part of mRNA removed during protein synthesis is

1880

Which arm of the tRNA is responsible for maintaining the fiedility of protein synthesis:

1881

Reading of codon on mRNA is

1882

Translocation is necessary for

1883

Microarray is the technique

1884

Which of the following techniques is used for detection of variations in DNA sequences and Gene expression:

1885

Silent mutation is due to which  phenomenon

1886

In FISH technique which phase of the cell is used for analysis

1887

Correct statement regarding restriction endonuclease are

1888

Which of the following statement describing restriction endonuclease is true

1889

Restriction enzymes–

1890

During PCR the DNA strands are seprated using

1891

SYBR Green dye is used for

1892

A child develops skin tumour with blisters on exposure to sunlight. He very likely has a defect in which of the following mechanisms?

1893

A potent inhibitor of protein synthesis that acts as an analogue of aminoacyl t RNA synthesis

1894

Splicing activity is a function of

1895

7- methylguanosine capping is the

1896

3 end of histone mRNA is protected via

1897

Which of the following does not act as a restriction enzyme?

1898

Which of the following enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy from RNA?

1899

Which of the following statements is true?

1900

Which of the following can be termed as a restriction modification system?

1901

Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases?

1902

Which of the following enzymes combined action leads to the generation of sticky ends in plasmid vector?

1903

Generally a plasmid vector contains how many elements?

1904

To make the recombinant plasmid permeable to DNA molecules, which of the chemicals is added?

1905

Which of the following statements is false?

1906

The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, double stranded and circular DNA molecule is generally termed as

1907

E. cor1 is a

1908

In which stage of genetic engineering a probe is used?

1909

In hybridization method, which of the following is pressed onto agar?

1910

All are true about cloning EXCEPT:

1911

All are true about transcription EXCEPT:

1912

Gold standard test for identification of COVID-19 infection is

1913

Identify the virus

1914

Identify the method of staining and organism

1915

What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?

1916

Gram positive cells

1917

Prophase refers to

1918

Which of the following media is used for culturing Salmonella?

1919

An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the organism?

1920

PCR basically consists of

1921

Which of the following bacteria lack cell wall and therefore resistant to penicillin

1922

The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is

1923

Techoic acid are typically found in

1924

Which of the following bacteria can grow in acidic pH

1925

Mac conkey agar media is example of

1926

When a substance is added to a liquid media which inhibits the  growth of unwanted organism and favours the growth of wanted organism, it is known as

1927

Acqusition of new gene in a bacteria through a segment of DNA with one or more gene in a center and two ends carrying inverted repeated sequence of nucleotides?

1928

All are a characteristic feature of stationary phase of growth curve except

1929

What is the order of reagent used in gram stain

1930

Which of the following substance act as sterilizing substance

1931

Media containing spores and thermolabile constituents is sterilized by

1932

The commonest mode of transmission of HIV is/are

1933

Shift and drift both is a feature of

1934

Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct except:

1935

Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct except:

1936

Each of the following parasite is transmitted by mosquitoes except:

1937

Which of the following agent is used to prevent Malaria

1938

A girl who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule that progresses to an ulcer. Several nodules then develop along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely agent is

1939

Each of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans are correct EXCEPT

1940

Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is correct except

1941

Triple vaccine for the prevention of virus infections protects against all except

1942

Characteristic of bacterial capsule is

1943

The following viruses are associated with congenital infection except

1944

Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except?

1945

Which is true about Hepatitis C virus

1946

Hook worm infection leads to deficiency of

1947

Each of the following statements concerning Malaria is correct except

1948

Which one of the following viral diseases has the shortest incubation period?

1949

Below image showing growth curve of bacteria in which T is time and L is no. of bacteria. Part B of growth curve indicates

1950

A 16 yrs old girl suffering from burn wound infection. Pus is taken from the wound and cultured on blood agar and incubated for overnight at 37 degree C. Biochemical test is performed for identification of bacteria from blood agar then identify the test (shown in picture) and bacteria

1951

A 12 yrs old boy suffering from fever. Blood sample was taken from the patients for rapid identification of malaria parasite. Rapid antibody test is performed for malaria (shown in pic) then patient is suffering from

1952

This media is used for cultivation of

1953

Wet mount of stool having eggs (shown in fig). This egg is

1954

38 year old male belong to Jharkhand and his hydrocele is enlarged and examination has been done and from thin slides. In thin film this microfilaria are identified (shown in figure). What is the organism

1955

This gram stain shows which bacteria

1956

10 yrs old boy suffering from diarrhea and he is malnourished. Stool is send to laboratory for suspecting parasite  infestation then on stool examination “ stool is having only these types of eggs (showing in figure) then which one is correct statement

1957

Which of the following is true about Japanese encephalitis?

1958

Marker of acute Hepatitis B is

1959

A CSF of a 2 years old child has been seen to the laboratory to detect the presence of capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is

1960

Microscopic examination of a pus sample shows a filamentous organism which is acid fast with 1% sulphuric acid. Which of the following organisms could it be?

1961

The most commonly used fluorescent dye in the detection of tubercle bacilli

1962

Dark ground microscopy is useful to identify

1963

Fungus capable of forming fungal ball is

1964

All are dimorphic fungus except

1965

Kuru disease in Humans is caused by

1966

Hydatid disease is identified by

1967

Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the

1968

Tinea versicolor is caused by

1969

Quartan malaria is caused by plasmodium

1970

Causes of pseudomembrane are all except

1971

Vaccines available in India against covid-19

1972

Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups

1973

The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are

1974

If pK1=2.34 and pK2=9.60, then the isoelectric point pI is

1975

Which of the following is a true statement?

1976

Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?

1977

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

1978

Which of the following is an imino acid?

1979

Which among the following is both glucogenic and ketogenic?

1980

An amino acid that yields acetoacetyl CoA during the catabolism of its carbon skeleton will be considered

1981

Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is

1982

During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?

1983

Peptide bond is a

1984

A tripeptide has

1985

The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is

1986

Which of the following is a 39-residue hormone of the anterior pituitary gland?

1987

The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about

1988

Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?

1989

Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?

1990

Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a protein?

1991

Unfolding of a protein can be termed as

1992

The salt which produces salting out effect during extraction of proteins is

1993

Mobile phase can be

1994

The pattern on paper in chromatography is called

1995

Which of the following statements about column chromatography is correct?

1996

Which of the following statements is true about size-exclusion chromatography?

1997

Which of the following statements is true about affinity chromatography?

1998

Which of the following statements is true about ion-exchange chromatography?

1999

Isoenzymes differ in all of the following aspects except:

2000

Which of the following amino acids get rid of their amino group by combination of transaminase and glutamate dehydrogenase

2001

Which of the following peptide sequence is likely to form alpha Helix?

2002

Which of the following statements regarding branched chain amino acids is INCORRECT?

2003

Alpha-helix and beta pleated sheets are seen in

2004

Folate trap is because if the deficiency of

2005

Which of the following R group is responsible for buffering in proteins:

2006

The protein albumin is a major buffer of the Ph in the blood, which is normally kept between 7.2 and 7.4. Which of the following is an amino acid side chain of albumin that participates in this buffering range?

2007

Proteins can be separated on the basis of charge by:

2008

Which of the following statements is true about SDS polyacrylamide chromatography?

2009

Which of the following statements is true about two-dimensional electrophoresis?

2010

Which of the following statements is false?

2011

Which of the following statements is false?

2012

Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?

2013

Two chains of amino acids in an insulin molecule are held together by

2014

Folatetrap:it means

2015

Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and

2016

Hemoglobin is a

2017

Which of the following is false?

2018

Native state of a protein can be disrupted by

2019

Which of the following is true?

2020

Identify the wrong statement

2021

In 3 degree structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by

2022

Amino acids sequence in DNA can be determined by the order of their

2023

Which of the following is a Sanger reagent?

2024

The amino acid sequences of thousands of different proteins from many species have been determined using principles first developed by

2025

Glycine is present in

2026

Which of the following combination is wrong:

2027

Cystenine is formed from?

2028

Phenylalanine metabolism produces all except:

2029

Dopamine beta hydroxylase catalyses:

2030

Catecholamines:

2031

Maple syrup urine disease the amino acids excreted in the urine are

2032

Kynurenine is formed from

2033

Which of the following compound is not involved in Edman degradation?

2034

Which of the following statements is false?

2035

Cleaving of peptide chain is done by

2036

Which of the following is the correct order of sequencing?

2037

Edman degradation is used for

2038

Which of the following is Edman reagent?

2039

Which of the following does not affect the stability of a α-helix?

2040

Which of the following is not true about secondary protein structure?

2041

Beta-pleated sheets are the examples of

2042

A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same chain is

2043

A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is

2044

Which of the following are known as helix breakers?

2045

Which of the following is false about NMR spectroscopy?

2046

Which of the statements is false about multiple sequence alignment?

2047

Xantheurenic acid in the urine is suggestive of deficiency of which vitamin

2048

Xantheurenic acid is metabolic end product in the metabolism of

2049

VMA is excreted excessively in the urine . What may be the diagnosis?

2050

Secondary structure is defined by

2051

Which of the following is false statement?

2052

Fibroin is rich in

2053

Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary type of protein structure?

2054

Which of the following does not possess a quaternary structure?

2055

Which of the following is abundantly found in collagen?

2056

Which of the following is first determined as oligomer?

2057

Which of the following is false?

2058

Which of the following enzyme is secreted by the pancreas?

2059

Which of the following is a component of mitochondria?

2060

Derivative of costocoracoid ligament is pierced by  all except:

2061

Largest muscle forming the floor of cubital fossa is pierced by

2062

Which of the following bone does not have a medullary cavity?

2063

Identify the type of muscle shown in the image below.

2064

Identify the vein in shown image

2065

Indicated deformity is seen in involvement of:

2066

The radial nerve gives off the following branches in the posterior compartment of the arm except which?

2067

An inabilities to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to the ______nerve.

2068

All the muscles are attached to coracoid process of scapula except:

2069

Indicated structure is modified

2070

Identify the damage part in given clinical situation

2071

True about latissimus dorsi:

2072

Which of the following is not a branch of the axillary artery?

2073

The cubital tunnel syndrome is because of:

2074

The deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies all the muscles of hand except:

2075

Sutures are type of _____ joint

2076

The nerve of Bell is:

2077

Abduction of wrist is done by all except:

2078

The defect shown  in image is caused by damage to a nerve that arises from which of the following structures of the brachial plexus?

2079

The content of upper triangular space is:

2080

Klumpke paralysis is due to injury to:

2081

In a vehicular accident, the musculocutaneous nerve was completely severed, but the person was able to weekly flex the elbow joint. All of the following muscles are responsible for the action. Except:

2082

The dinner fork deformity is seen in:

2083

The median nerve supplies all of the thenar muscles except:

2084

The muscle having dual nerve supply are all except:

2085

Shown image is related with which of the following clinical condition

2086

If shown nerve is compressed then this clinical scenario is known as

2087

Neurovascular bundle is absent in which compartment of leg?

2088

Indicated muscle helps in

2089

Identify the clinical scenario

2090

Hand to Knee gait in polio paralysis in poliomyelitis is due to weakness of

2091

Talocalcaneonavicular joint is which type of joint

2092

Ligament shown in image is attached to all except

2093

Ligaments not attached to talus

2094

Ligament below head of talus

2095

Ligament supporting head of talus

2096

Shown muscle is supplied by

2097

Identify the anterior boundary of indicated space

2098

Anterior boundary of shown image is formed by

2099

Function of muscle inserted on the marked point

2100

Muscle involved in quiet expiration:

2101

If circumflex artery gives off the posterior inter ventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:

2102

Which of these does not form the right border of the heart on X-ray?

2103

Which of the following does not drain into coronary sinus?

2104

Azygous vein drains into:

2105

Shape of tracheal cartilage:

2106

Identify the Widow artery

2107

Shown image is

2108

The great cardiac vein is located at the:

2109

The distance of gastroesophageal junction from upper incisor is:

2110

True about internal thoracic (internal mammary) artery:

2111

SA node is supplied usually by:

2112

The oesophagus is narrowest at:

2113

The thickest wall of heart is:

2114

The SA node is situated at:

2115

True about Sibson fascia is:

2116

The hilum of the right lung is arched by:

2117

Normal fluid level in the pericardial cavity:

2118

The arch of aorta lies in the _____ mediastinum:

2119

3rd coronary artery is

2120

A 33 year old patient with fever, cough and respiratory distress reported to OPD. On suspicion of a viral illness, the following sample was being taken, Identify the sample and the probable viral etiology.

2121

Two 12 year old children with cervical lymphadenopathy were investigated and microbiology lab produced the following. Identify the medium and the colonies

2122

A third term MBBS student was struggling to understand the diagram and asked you being an intern. Identify

2123

This instrument is sterilized by

2124

A 45 year old lab technician handling community samples presented with a painless ulcer on the fingers. His multiple samples were processed and the following bacteria were found by multiple techniques. Iidentify the bacteria by the shape and disease caused

2125

The following equipment was removed after a revision surgery for hydroureteronephrosis. Identify the equipment. How will you dispose it?

2126

A 7 year old child with fever and multiple abscesses was sampled for pus culture which revealed beta hemolytic colonies which were subjected to the following test. Identify test and medium

2127

This instrument is sterilized by

2128

A basic scientist was trying to understand the dynamics of this diagram and asked you. All are correct except

2129

A virology lab technician was trying to learn the following. All are possible options except

2130

A new batch of Gram stain was standardized in a new lab and internal quality control revealed the following. Identify the appearance

2131

The nursing station was using the following disinfectant for sterilization of ward instruments. Which bacteria can grow in this disinfectant? What is the selective medium?

2132

Two bacteria failed to grow in routine agar media. You have an option of xenodiagnosis. Identify the animals and organ of the body where the bacteria may be cultured.

2133

This is sterilized by ________ and disposed in _______ bags

2134

What is the magnification and resolution in both equipments?

2135

A diagnostic procedure was done using this instrument. How will it be sterilized

2136

A 17 year old girl with Potts spine was operated and pus stain revealed the following. What is the interpretation, decolorizer and counterstain?

2137

What is mechanism of action of the following method used for hand hygiene?

2138

The toxicology laboratory is planning to demonstrate effect of toxins in vivo. Which toxins are usually tested in these animals?

2139

This agar gives a different colour for different bacteria. Identify the agar

2140

A research associate was struggling to understand the diagram and asked you being an intern. Identify

2141

Collection of urine sample by this technique is indicated for all except

2142

Identify the media routinely used in cultures from left to right

2143

This is sterilized by?

2144

Hand sanitizers based on alcohol are not effective against all except

2145

A 33 year old male was brought in a comatose state following road traffic injury. The following method of urine sampling is contraindicated in

2146

A third term nursing student was struggling to understand the diagram and asked you being the ward duty doctor. Identify

2147

This is sterilized by

2148

A 34 year old with crush injury pelvis had a full bladder on presentation. Catheterization was not possible. What is this procedure for urine sample collection?

2149

A new lab technician noticed transparent zone around bacterial colonies. Identify the phenomenon and agar

2150

Vaccines of anthrax, rabies and chicken cholera were discovered by

2151

All are transport media for Vibrio cholera except

2152

All are correct selective media except

2153

All are selective media for Salmonella except

2154

Selective media for Corynebacterium diphtheria is

2155

All are correct about cell wall except

2156

All are correct about motility except

2157

Bacteria divide rapidly in

2158

Infective dose is low in all except

2159

All are true about endotoxins except

2160

All temperatures are correct except

2161

All are correct except

2162

Steam sterilizer, hot air oven and autoclave were discovered by

2163

Concentration of chlorine at user end

2164

Spores of Geobacillus stearothermophilus are used as sterilization controls for

2165

All are correct except

2166

All are correct except

2167

Which of the following is wrong

2168

The following sample is taken for diagnosis of the following virus

2169

The symbol stands for

2170

Identify the cell walls

2171

Which of the following is wrong about fathers

2172

All are correct stains except

2173

All are selective media for Vibrio cholera except

2174

Wrong microscopic appearance

2175

Enrichment media for Salmonella are all except

2176

RNTCP recommended sputum sample for TB is

2177

All are correct generation times except

2178

All are correct colony types except

2179

All are neurotoxins except

2180

All conditions increase susceptibility to infections except

2181

The picture is depicting

2182

Identify the cell wall

2183

Identify the test on Mueller Hinton agar

2184

A 28 year old male presented with chancre on external genitalia, the smear stained by Fontana stain revealed thin spirally coiled bacilli. How will you screen, confirm and treat?

2185

All are correct except

2186

All are correct controls except

2187

Dettol and savlon contain

2188

Sea gull appearance is seen in

2189

All are vector borne infections except.

2190

All are toxin mediated infections except

2191

All are biofilm infections except

2192

Which of the following is an immunogenic infection in which tissue damage occurs due to antibodies against pathogens

2193

All are capsular vaccines except

2194

All are correct except

2195

Darting motility is due to polar flagella in

2196

Precautions followed before sample collection

2197

Which of the following is an unacceptable sample

2198

Identify

2199

For uniform staining and reactions, bacteria should be studied in

2200

All are correct transport media except

2201

Exotoxins and endotoxins are produced in

2202

All are correct except

2203

All are correct about HEPA filters except

2204

Most difficult to kill are

2205

Phenol is an

2206

Phenol coefficient indicates

2207

All are sporicidal agents except

2208

Most suitable disinfectant for HIV contaminated endoscope is

2209

All are correct media except

2210

All are correct selective media except

2211

Identify

2212

Identify

2213

Identify the medium and the colonies

2214

This instrument is sterilized by

2215

Which organism is cultured in this animal, what is the generation time, and what is the treatment?

2216

A 12 year old child presented with trismus and risussardonicus. Cultures revealed the following. Identify the microbe. Which toxin is produced? What is the colony appearance?

2217

A 23 year old G3P2A1L2 presented with premature rupture of membranes. A genital sample revealed Gram positive bacteria which gave this test. Identify the microbe and the test. Which sample is preferred?

2218

A 12 year old unimmunized child presented with myocarditis and nerve damage. History of throat problem was elicited. Identify thetest and the microbe. Which is the most severe biotype?

2219

A suspicious letter containing white powder was investigated in microbiology lab. Microscopy revealed the following. Identify. What is the capsule composition and reaction known as?

2220

A 5 year old child with a whitish area in throat was found to have the following. Identify the bacteria. What is this appearance? What is the enrichment medium for culture?

2221

Two patients in acute medical ward presented with fever, jaundice, hypotension, hemolytic uremic syndrome and renal shutdown. One was a rice farmer and another was a sewer worker. Microscopy revealed the following. All are correct combinations except?

2222

A 35 year old female patient having sexual contact with a new partner reported with a 15 day history of severe purulent vaginal discharge, burning micturition and abdominal pain, had disseminated infection and acute adrenal insufficiency. Likely diagnosis and etiology?

2223

Identify? Which strain is used for vaccine?

2224

A 38 year old female presented with punched out ulcer which was found to have Gram positive bacilli. Which toxin is involved? What is the treatment of choice?

2225

A 33 year old chronic smoker presented with low grade evening fever, weight loss and night sweats, not responding to standard treatment since five months. Chest X ray showed the following features. What can be the most probable diagnosis and treatment protocol?

2226

A 27 year old female presented with a venereal disease with painful ulcer and painful lymphademopathy. Gram stain revealed the following. Identify the organism, appearance and treatment.

2227

A 48 year old male presented a week after road traffic accident with a penetrated wood in his sole. Identify the condition, toxin and toxin test used to diagnose?

2228

A 46 year old female presented with a skin infection from which the culture revealed the following colony (left) and stain revealed Gram positive filamentous bacilli. What is the colony known as? What is the appearance in smear known as?

2229

A 12 year old girl presented with fever, lymphadeopathy and eschar after trekking wherein she came in contact with wild vegetation. Probable etiology, vector and treatment?

2230

All are correct related to the following organism except?

2231

A 19 year old male was brought in a paralyzed state 96 hours after road traffic accident in a rural area. Toxin and mechanism of action?

2232

Culture on blood agar from gunshot wound revealed target hemolysis and reverse CAMP test. Most appropriate treatment of the following condition is

2233

A 9 year old child presented with custard like ear discharge, swollen ear, itching, hearing loss and tinnitus after after swimming in a new pool for 7 days. Diagnosis and etiology

2234

A 6 month healthy infant was brought in a motionless state. Vitals were normal. History of pacifier containing honey from a local beehive was elicited.  Identify the condition, etiology and treatment.

2235

A 12 year old refugee Rohingya child presented with bull neck, fever, chills, hoarseness, cough and stridor. Throat revealed the following. What is the treatment of choice, likely complications and selective medium?

2236

Identify the pneumonia

2237

A 23 year old male with urethritis was found to have the following in Gram stain. All are complications of the following bacteria except

2238

A wool sorter presented with haemorrhagic pneumonia. Gram stain revealed the following. What is the selective media? What is type of colony seen? Which component of toxin is most effective?

2239

A young child presented with spastic paralysis which started as trismus. Identify the condition, disease and year of elimination in India?

2240

Identify the phenomenon, microbe exhibiting this, and method of inhibition of the phenomenon?

2241

Identify the phenomenon marked with black arrow, microbe exhibiting the phenomenon and the factor responsible?

2242

All are correct about these drugs except

2243

The following drug is used for all except

2244

All are components of the following image except

2245

Associate the image with a disease. Which of the following is a correct combination?

2246

A 30 year old porter carrying animal hides presented with multiple necrotic lesions. Identify the lesion and treatment.

2247

This patient presented with a cervicofacial ulcer without any associated contributory history. He responded to a course of Welsch regimen. What is your impression?

2248

Stool from a patient of diarrhea exhibited shooting star motility and the following picture on Gram stain. What are the probable bacteria and antisera used to differentiate?

2249

A 60 year old male infected 4 years ago presented with multiple bilateral skin lesions on face and body. Immunological state, immunological marker and treatment duration?

2250

Identify the reaction. Which bacteria exhibitsthe reaction.

2251

A 37 year old male presented with a red beefy lesion after unprotected sexual intercourse. Diagnosis, etiology and treatment?

2252

A 5 year old un-immunized child presented with a respiratory illness with a different type of cough. Gram stain of sputum revealed Gram negative bacilli in finger print appearance.Ocular examination revealed the following. Identify the condition, etiology and treatment.

2253

A 23 year old HIV positive patient was found to have the following from pus. What is the fluorescent stain, liquid media and molecular test done initially?

2254

A 43 year old splenectomized patient presented with meningitis. CSF Gram stain revealed the following. What is the probable microbe, colony type and treatment of resistant strain?

2255

Staph aureus is the most common cause of all except

2256

Drugs of choice for MRSA for empirical therapy, in skin-soft tissue infections and serious infections are

2257

Which of the following reduces toxin synthesis in bacteria

2258

Most common causes are all except

2259

All are bacteriophage encoded toxins except

2260

All are non suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes except

2261

All are true about Streptococcus agalactiae except

2262

All of the following are included in Jones major criteria except

2263

All toxins reduce protein synthesis except

2264

All are capsular vaccines except

2265

All are correct about Babes-Ernst granules except

2266

Gas gangrene is caused by

2267

Tetanus toxin acts by preventing release of

2268

All stains are correct except

2269

Botulinum toxin acts by preventing release of

2270

All drugs can be used for VRSA except

2271

All of the following are included in Jones minor criteria except

2272

All are correct Pneumococcal vaccines except

2273

Which is novobiocin resistant

2274

All the following Streptococcus pyogenes antigens are cross reactive except

2275

All of the following are indications of Pneumococcal vaccine except

2276

McFadyeans reaction is seen in

2277

All are toxin-antitoxin neutralization tests except

2278

All are related to Bacillus anthracis except

2279

Quellung reaction is seen in all except

2280

Quinsy is caused by

2281

Flesh eating bacteria is

2282

Gravis, Intermedius and Mitis are biotypes of

2283

Lecithinase test is seen in

2284

Medusa head colonies are seen in

2285

Fecal transplant is indicated in

2286

Pike medium is a

2287

All are correct about Enterococcus except

2288

Most common cause of endocarditis is

2289

Ludwigs angina is caused by

2290

All are correct except

2291

All are catalase positive except

2292

Plague is transmitted by

2293

All are correct drugs of choice except

2294

Biotypes of Vibrio cholera O1 are

2295

All are correct cholera pandemics except

2296

All are features of El Tor except

2297

All are correct about Vibrio parahemolyticus except

2298

All are correct about Hemophilus influenza except

2299

All are correct except

2300

OX K in Weil Felix test is seen in

2301

All of the following are correct except

2302

Vietnam Time Bomb is related to

2303

All are correct except

2304

Elementary and reticulate bodies seen in

2305

All are non treponemal tests except

2306

All are louse borne diseases except

2307

Humans are the only reservoir in all except

2308

1 percent silver nitrate is used for

2309

ONPG test is for

2310

Bacteria lacking cell wall

2311

Diene phenomenon is seen in

2312

All cause enteric fever except

2313

Milk ring test and Whey agglutination tests are done for

2314

Darting motility is shown by

2315

Lyme disease is caused by

2316

Shanghai fever is caused by

2317

All are louse borne diseases except

2318

Oroya fever is caused by

2319

Seafood poisoning is caused by

2320

All are bacterial diseases except

2321

All are recent outbreak except

2322

All are non treponemal tests except

2323

Disease not caused by Hemophilus

2324

Most common infection in burns is caused by

2325

Smear from fungal ball accessed through fibreoptic bronchoscopy from a 67 year old farmer presenting with respiratory distress revealed the following. What is your impression?

2326

Smears from three patients presenting with tinea infections revealed the following. Identify macroconidia from left to right

2327

A 26 year old HIV positive patient presenting with odynophagia was found to have the following structures in samples obtained after upper gastrointestinal endoscopy of oesophagus. Identify the structures and make a probable diagnosis.

2328

A rose gardener presented with multiple vesicles on the hand and multiple eruptions along lymphatics. Culture revealed yeasts at 37 degrees C andflower like pattern at 22 degrees. Diagnosis?

2329

A 45 year old farmer reported with multiple sinuses in the right foot oozing pus. Gram positive filamentous bacteria in sunray appearance were seen. Diagnosis?

2330

A 12 year old child presented with the following 2 weeks after playing in the forest. Diagnosis, etiology and treatment?

2331

Copper penny/sclerotic/medlar bodies or muriform cells are characteristic of

2332

A 27 year old presented with recurrent friable polyps in nose starting after swimming in a pond. Spherules were seen on mucicarmine stain. Diagnosis and treatment?

2333

A 95 year old paralyzed patient under home care was found to have curdy white growth under the diapers. Germ tube test (Reynold’sBraude test) was positive. Clinical condition, etiology and treatment?

2334

A 35 year old HIV positive lady was brought with history of altered sensoirum and projectile vomiting. On examination neck rigidity, Kernigs sign was elicited. Lumbar puncture revealed budding capsulated yeasts in India Ink stain. Diagnosis, treatment and long term prophylaxis?

2335

A 55 year old HIV-AIDS patient presented with fever, dyspnoea and was found to have cysts resembling crushed ping pong ball appearance on Grocott Gomorimethenamine silver fungal stain. X-ray showed ground glass opacities. Diagnosis, etiology and treatment?

2336

A 13 year old girl presented with the following condition. Diagnosis, etiology and duration of treatment?

2337

A 20 year old girl presented with pain in the web space of fingers but no itching. Identify the clinical condition and causative organism

2338

A 24 year old man presented with the following annular lesion. Spot diagnosis?

2339

A 28 year old 4 X100 meters relay race Olympic champion presented with the following condition. Identify the clinical condition and causative organism

2340

Ringworm is caused by

2341

All are caused by dimorphic fungi except

2342

Fungus related to pigeon droppings is

2343

All are correct except

2344

All are correct except

2345

The following organism causes

2346

Identify the dermatophyte

2347

All are fungal stains except

2348

Wood lamp examination is based on

2349

A rose gardener presented with multiple vesicles on the hand and multiple eruptions along lymphatics. Diagnosis?

2350

Salt and pepper appearance and lid lifters are characteristics of

2351

Only pathogenic true yeast is

2352

Mickey mouse appearance is seen in

2353

Life threatening fungal infection in diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by

2354

Desert rheumatism is caused by

2355

Most medically important fungi belong to

2356

Spherules are seen in

2357

Identify macroconidia from left to right

2358

Identify the structures

2359

A 27 year old female presented with thin homogenous vaginal discharge without fever or pruritus for past 8 months. Vaginal smear revealed the following. Identify the structure, disease and diagnostic criteria.

2360

ENT surgeon found the following in a 50 year old male patient presenting with hoarse and weak voice, sore throat and dry cough. Diagnosis and etiology?

2361

Identify the symbols clockwise from top. Biohazard (bio), radiation hazard (rad), chemical hazard (chem).

2362

The housekeeping manager asked you for guidance on disposal of the following. What will you advise?

2363

An unidentified bag was found in the hospital premises. What contents are expected?

2364

A new nursing professional was confused about the disposal of these two. What will you advise?

2365

This is a biosafety level III lab. Which organism can be handled in a routine virology lab?

2366

A 7 year old girl came drying to the eye OPD with the following. Diagnosis, etiology and treatment?

2367

A 15 year old presented with itching between webspaces of fingers for past 7 days. Diagnosis, causative agent and treatment?

2368

You are asked to audit the vaccination centre for biomedical waste disposal. Where should this be disposed?

2369

This set of instruments was fiund contaminated in stores. How is it supposed to be disposed?

2370

A 12 year old presented with the following for past 6 days. All of the following can be differential diagnosis except

2371

A 45 year old HIV positive patient not on regular medication since 15 years presented to dermatology with the following condition. Clinical intuition was of a cancerous etiology. Diagnosis and etiology?

2372

A second year MBBS student asked you for advice on disposal of the following. What will you advise?

2373

A 27 year old presented with fever, severe sore throat, dysphagia, odynophagia, dysphonia, dyspnoea, drooling saliva and barking sounds. ENT surgeon noticed stridor, toxicity, prostration and cyanosis. Most likely cause is of right sided condition is

2374

A 46 year old man presented with the following. Diagnosis, etiology and treatment?

2375

A 17 year old underwent spontaneous abortion. How will the abortus be discarded?

2376

A 60 year old female presented with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps and low grade fever after eating raw oysters harvested from warm-water estuaries at a cold seafood buffet in United States. Gram negative bacilli grew in high salt concentration from stool cultures. Diagnosis?

2377

Local dental centre was not having a license for biomedical waste disposal and asked the district hospital for advice on disposal of the following. Whats your idea on it?

2378

A 7 year old child presented with centripetally distributed centrifugally spreading rash followed by fever on 2nd day of rash. Which branch of which ganglia is involved in latency?

2379

A 36 year old cachexic patient underwent hemoptysis and fell unconscious. Code blue was activated and patient was revived by the critical care team. This blood spill is managed by

2380

Two unidentified bags were found in the hospital premises. What contents are expected?

2381

A 38 year old presented with fever, sore throat, dysphagia, odynophagia, drooling saliva, bad breath, difficulty in mouth opening, earache and dehydration. Most likely cause is

2382

A revision surgery was done for a fracture neck of femur wherein the implant was changed. What should the removed implant be disposed?

2383

An ENT surgeon visualized the following in a 12 year old presenting with fever, sore throat, dysphagia, lymphadenopathy and bad breath. Most common cause is

2384

A device broke spilling mercury on the floor during routine nursing procedures. How will you handle the spill?

2385

A 42 year old diabetic reported with pain in the ear since two weeks. What is the ear condition? What is the probable etiology?

2386

An intern came out of the emergency room after attending a patient of head injury with scalp bleeding. How shall she discard her gloves?

2387

All are causes of flaccid paralysis except

2388

A floppy infant was brought after being given honey by pacifier. Vitals were WNL. Hand holding and tone in extremities were absent. Probable diagnosis

2389

All are most common cause of meningitis except

2390

All are associated with endocarditis except

2391

Treatment of sexual partner is required for all except

2392

Most effective way of preventing hospital infection is

2393

All are true except

2394

Ludwig angina is caused by

2395

All are correct about food poisoning except

2396

All are correct about bioterrorism except

2397

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in all except

2398

MC cause of encephalitis in India is

2399

All infections are correct except

2400

All are associate with dental caries except

2401

MC cause of endocarditis are all except

2402

Food poisoning by preformed toxins is caused by all except

2403

All are correct except

2404

Whiff amine test is positive in

2405

Mandatory screening of blood and blood products in India includes all except

2406

Which of the following is wrong

2407

All of the following act on 50s ribososmes except

2408

All of the following act on 30s ribososmes except

2409

Identify the wrong statement about HAI

2410

All are correct post exposure prophylaxis except

2411

Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice for all except

2412

All are correct empirical therapy except

2413

National vector borne disease control program oversees all except

2414

DOTS plus is for

2415

All Transplacental infections are routinely screened in India except

2416

MC bacteria causing stitch abscess is

2417

Amsel criteria and Nugent score used in

2418

All are correct except

2419

Type of diarhoea in cholera is

2420

Most common causes of meningitis are all except

2421

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in all except

2422

Most common cause of encephalitis in India is

2423

Causes of aseptic meningitis are all except

2424

A child was brought with bulging fontanelle, neck rigidity, relative bradycardia and vomiting. On lumbar puncture, pressure was moderately increased, lymphocyte predominance (500 leucocytes), decreased glucose, and proteins 400 mg% were seen. Diagnosis?

2425

All infections are correct except

2426

All infections are correct except

2427

All are infectious except

2428

MC cause of endocarditis are all except

2429

All can cause walking atypical interstitial pneumonia except

2430

Most common cause of bronchiolitis is

2431

Most common cause of endocarditis in intravenous drug abuse is

2432

Food poisoning by preformed toxins is caused by all except

2433

All are correct sources of food poisoning except

2434

A patient presented with bloody diarrhoea one day after consuming raw milk. All of the following can be implicated except

2435

All of the following can cause invasive colitis except

2436

All are associated with dental caries except

2437

All are methods of presumptive diagnosis of UTI except

2438

All are correct except

2439

Most common cause of UTI is

2440

All are correct except

2441

Most common cause of non gonococcal urethritis is

2442

A 34 year old man presented with urethritis and urethral discharge. Gram stain shows pus cells but no organisms. Culture is negative on routine media. Likely causative agent?

2443

Identify

2444

All are correct except

2445

Whiff amine test is positive in

2446

Painful ulcer and painful lymph node is seen in

2447

Treatment of sexual partner is required in all except

2448

All are device associated infections except

2449

Hand disinfection with alcohol is ineffective for all except

2450

Best method to prevent cross infection in post-operative ICU is

2451

Reverse barrier nursing is required when

2452

All diseases require isolation except

2453

All are transmitted intrapartum except

2454

Mandatory screening of blood and blood products in India includes all except

2455

All Transplacental infections are routinely screened in India except

2456

SOFA and quick SOFA is for

2457

All are category A bioterrorism except

2458

All toxins are agents of bioterrorism except

2459

Biosafety cabinet is fitted with

2460

Pasteurized milk is tested by

2461

Environmental microbial contamination in water is tested by

2462

Which is an indicator of recent fecal pollution

2463

Presumptive coliform count is done by

2464

All are included in the definition of HAI except

2465

Quinolones act on

2466

All are inhibitors of cell membrane except

2467

All are cell wall inhibitors except

2468

A resident doctor changed the dressing of an HIV positive patient which was soaked in blood. Method of disposal?

2469

Identify the test. Which strategy is used for blood donor screening? Which test is a confirmatory test for this disease?

2470

Which portion of this molecule binds to cells? Which portion determines the isotype? What is the valency in dimeric state?

2471

Identify the type of test, antigen used and utility.

2472

All are correct about the following combined B and T lymphocyte deficiency except?

2473

The illustration depicts

2474

The following combination is obtained after antibody molecule is treated with?

2475

Which serotype is not included in this vaccine?

2476

Which of the following cannot be produced by this technique?

2477

Identify

2478

A 7 year old hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipient presented with the following lesions. What is your impression?

2479

The following sequence is related to ______ and is present on _______

2480

The following components are obtained after digestion with

2481

Which of the following functions will be preserved in the absence of C3?

2482

The following components are obtained after digestion with

2483

The following type of test represents

2484

All are correct except

2485

Herd immunity is seen in all except

2486

Precipitation and agglutination are caused by

2487

All are correct except

2488

All are correct except

2489

Which of the following is wrong

2490

Pentavalent includes all except

2491

All are passive immunity except

2492

All are heterophile agglutination except

2493

All are capsular vaccines except

2494

No vaccine is yet available for

2495

Which unapproved vaccine has been given by WHO in Congo against Ebola?

2496

Incorrect about acquired immunity

2497

Opsonization and classical complement binding are mediated by

2498

All are correct about antibody valency except

2499

All are correct except

2500

All are agglutination tests except

2501

All are Type 2 hypersensitivity except

2502

Interleukine therapy is given in all except

2503

All are Type 1 hypersensitivity except

2504

All are monoclonal antibodies except

2505

All are Type 3 hypersensitivity except

2506

Meningococcal vaccine given to Hajj travelers includes the following serotypes of Neisseria meningitides

2507

All are Type 4 hypersensitivity except

2508

Principle cytokine in Gram negative sepsis

2509

All are correct about newly introduced vaccine for malaria in 2019

2510

Superantigen toxins are produced by all except

2511

23 valent Pneumococcal vaccine is indicated in all except

2512

Diagnostic ASO titres in Todd units adults and children are

2513

Vaccine that should not be given after 5-6 years of age

2514

Which vaccine is given as capsules

2515

Tuberculin test is analogous to

2516

Standard agglutination test is for

2517

MHC I, II and III function for

2518

Which serotype is not included in Dengvaxia

2519

True about interferon is

2520

All are complications of BCG except

2521

All of the strains are correct except

2522

All are correct antigens except

2523

All are live vaccines except

2524

Universal donor and universal recipient are

2525

Animal model for xenotransplantation is

2526

Iatrogenic immunosuppression occurs after

2527

Absolute contraindication of live vaccine is

2528

All are mediated by circulating Ab except

2529

All are correct about antigens except

2530

All are acute phase reactants except

2531

Which of the following can predict an infection

2532

Father of immunology and vaccinology are

2533

Rapid tests for HIV, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, malaria, syphilis, Salmonella, urine pregnancy test, Cryptococcal antigen etc are

2534

Identify the given figure and mark the incorrect

2535

Identify the plant and its fruit shown in figure and choose the incorrect statement about it:

2536

Which of the following is not correct about Chronic As poisoning?

2537

Which of the following is not correct about court of enquiry?

2538

Voluntarily causing grievious hurt by dangerous weapon is ______ and punishable under ______.

2539

Sec 354(5) CrPC is:

2540

A person abuses his wife sometimes even beats her asking for money from her parents. A police complaint (FIR) is filed against him. Which of the following sections of IPCs are relevant for the above?

2541

Match the characteristic smell with its probable poison:

2542

Which of the following statement is not true about sign/symptom of its poisoning?

2543

Match the poison with its physiological antidote:

2544

Which of the following statement is incorrect about phosphorus?

2545

Match the columns:

2546

Which of the following is not correct about snakes?

2547

In the given figure there was no smell felt near the person. Identify the cause

2548

Mark the correct answer about the given X-ray and answer the correct one:

2549

Which of the following is relevant about the figure below?

2550

Blue colour of bruise is due to:

2551

Grease collar is associated with:

2552

Which of the following is a grievous injury:

2553

An artificial contusion can be produced using juice of:

2554

Puppe Rule is related with determination of:

2555

Bevelling of the outer table of the skull is seen in:

2556

Whiplash injury is related with:

2557

The most frequently damaged abdominal organ in blunt force injury is:

2558

Punchdrunk syndrome is associated with:

2559

Joule burn is seen in:

2560

All are true about Filigree burns except:

2561

Paradoxical undressing is seen in:

2562

Pugilistic attitude is seen in:

2563

Cafe coronary is due to:

2564

In a typical hanging, the knot of ligature is placed:

2565

La facies sympathique is suggestive of:

2566

If the ligature is found intact during the autopsy, it should always be preserved by:

2567

When any 2 objects come into contact, there is always transference of material from each object on to other. This rule is known as:

2568

Ballooning of lung is seen in:

2569

Lucid interval is related with:

2570

McNaughten rule is accepted in India and included in section:

2571

Testamentary capacity means:

2572

Lucid interval is seen in:

2573

Kleptomania is a type of:

2574

McNaughten is related with:

2575

Pyromania is a type of impulsive disorder for:

2576

Person greater than 18 yrs of age can give valid consent to suffer any harm which may result from an act done and not known to cause death/grievious hurt is stated under section

2577

Doctor is bound by law to maintain medical record of in-patients for

2578

Which of the following is/are examples of Res Ipsa Loquitor

2579

Which of the following inquest has never been conducted in India

2580

Gettler test is done to

2581

Perjury is:

2582

After post-mortem examination, body has to be handed over to:

2583

A cognizable offence signifies:

2584

Subpoena is a kind of:

2585

Oral testimony is exempted in the following conditions except:

2586

Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because it is:

2587

Punishment of imprisonment upto 3 years and fine upto Rs. 5000 can be awarded by:

2588

Exhumation is usually done in:

2589

The Professional Death sentence is:

2590

All of the following are Infamous Conduct except:

2591

All of the following conditions are defence available for a doctor against allegation of negligence except:

2592

A 23 year old G1P1 was diagnosed for antibodies for the following virus due routine antenatal screening. Primary receptor, macrophage receptor and its antagonist for this virus are

2593

A 34 year old renal transplant recipient was found to have a viral infection. Identify the inclusion, type of inclusion body, and the virus

2594

There was an outbreak of respiratory febrile illness wherein 12 toddlers were found to have white-bluish ulcer spots in buccal cavity. Identify the correct combination

2595

A 12 year old child in Gorakhpur was transferred to a tertiary care hospital for oxygen support during coma. What is the reservoir, amplifier host, vaccine and vector for this disease?

2596

Identify the intracellular inclusion body from suckling mouse brain for post-mortem diagnosis of a fatal zoonosis seen in a 45 yearold patient in India. Which stain is used? Where it is most commonly found?

2597

A 50 year old drug addicted female presented with dementia, cognitive impairment, memory loss, poor concentration, motor dysfunction, speech problems, diminished emotional responses, and behavioural change. Which marker can be detected consistently throughout the entire course of disease?

2598

Skin scraping from suspected Kaposi varicelliform eruption was found to have multinucleated giant cells on Giemsa stain. What is your impression and probable etiological differential diagnosis?

2599

Identify the virus. The structural genes gag, env and pol code for

2600

A 70 year old patient admitted with CKD and Type II diabetes mellitus gave a history of fever with centrifugally distributed and centripetally spreading rash. What is the correct combination for the disease?

2601

A 7 year old child caught this insect from a public park. All are correct combinations except

2602

Identify the virus. All are correct except

2603

A 16 year old presented with rash, high continuous fever, hepatomegaly, retro-orbital pain, arthralgia, myagia and bone pain. What is your probable diagnosis?

2604

A 9 year old boy found sitting in the playground with a history of sudden onset paralysis of one limb was brought to the hospital.Identify the sign, probable disease and treatment

2605

Identify the diagram. All can be cultured in egg except

2606

Identify the clinical entity, etiology, treatment and vaccine

2607

Identify the wrong combination in the following to the febrile exanthemwith outbreak potential in schools, jails and hospitals

2608

Identify the test, diagnostic criteria and etiological applicability

2609

A 34 year old presented with the following condition. Diagnosis? What is the likely etiology?

2610

CD4 count (per cu mm): What is normal, what is the count in AIDS and at what count HAART is started?

2611

A 48 year old resident of Shimoga district of Karnataka was brought in a comatose state. He was apparently health and used to visit the forest for lumber regularly. The relatives mentioned that a similar illness was seen in another man in the village who had a bite by the following vector. Whats your provisional diagnosis and what would you advise to the relatives?

2612

Identify the lesion and causative agent

2613

WHO administered an unpproved vaccine to 100000 people in Congo in 2018-2019 as outbreak preparedness/response for the following filamentous virus. Name of the virus, disease manifestation and vaccine?

2614

Etiology of condylomaacuminata and focal epithelial hyperplasia (Heck disease) is

2615

The following geographical distribution is applicable to all except

2616

The symbol stands for prevention of

2617

A 9 year old child presented with severely dermatomal eruptions on face. There was a history of varicella zoster 2 years earlier. Diagnosis, treatment and vaccine?

2618

A 49 year old homosexual presented with the following symptoms over a follow up period of 5 years. Diagnosis?

2619

The following microbe is relevant for all except

2620

A toddler presented with fever with rash. Slapped cheek appearance was reported. What is the most probable causative agent?

2621

A 33 year old presented with the following condition. Most likely etiology, diagnostic test and treatment?

2622

Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are all except

2623

All are correct inclusion bodies except

2624

All are correct except

2625

All are correct except

2626

All are EBV associated malignancies except

2627

All are correct except

2628

Haemagglutinin and neuraminidase are found in

2629

Post exposure prophylaxis is applicable in all except

2630

Which of the following is wrong about rabies

2631

All the antigens are found in blood except

2632

All are correct about year of eradication except

2633

All are correct except

2634

Which of the following is incorrect

2635

All are true about Japanese encephalitis except

2636

Which strategy for HIV testing is followed for antenatal screening

2637

Drugs used for Post Exposure Prophylaxis of HIV are

2638

Average incubation period of HIV is

2639

All are correct except

2640

Treatment of HIV is started at CD4 count

2641

HBsAg+, IgM Anti HBc+, HbeAg+. What is your diagnosis

2642

All are viral haemorrhagic fever except

2643

All of the following have occurred as a pandemic except

2644

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by

2645

Acyclovir is used for all except

2646

All are related to Influenza A except

2647

H1N1 testing is recommended for

2648

All are true about pathogenesis of Dengue except

2649

Test of choice for diagnosis of HIV in infants is

2650

All are correct disease-etiology pairs except

2651

All are neurotropic viruses except

2652

Highest chances of transmission for HIV

2653

Commonst modes of transmission of HIV

2654

All cause hepatocellular carcinoma except

2655

All cause respiratory disease except

2656

All are correct except

2657

Worldwide prevalence of this virus is

2658

All are correct most common except

2659

All are correct except

2660

Varicella zoster virus becomes latent in

2661

All are correct except

2662

All are correct except

2663

Warthin Finkeledy giant cells are seen in

2664

All are correct except

2665

All are correct except

2666

All are correct except

2667

Pre exposure prophylaxis is applicable in all except

2668

Which strategy for HIV testing is followed for blood banking

2669

Most common opportunistic infection in HIV in India is

2670

Japanese encephalitis transmission involves all except

2671

All are clinical features of dengue except

2672

All are clinical features of polio except

2673

All are clinical features of congenital rubella except

2674

All have high mortality rates except

2675

Chronic hepatitis is not seen in

2676

All have fever with rash except

2677

All are correct vaccines except

2678

All are correct outbreaks except

2679

Most common acute hepatitis and epidemic hepatitis are

2680

SA 14-14-2 vaccine is used for

2681

Skin scraping from Herpes simplex lesion was found to have multinucleated giant cells on Giemsa stain. What is the smear known as? Which intranuclear body is seen?

2682

The structural genes gag, env and pol code for

2683

A 20 year old patient admitted with Type I diabetes mellitus gave a history of fever with centripetally distributed and centrifugally spreading rash. Diagnosis?

2684

Drug acting on CD4 receptor is

2685

Correct regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV is

2686

IRIS is seen in

2687

Hepatitis D is a

2688

Most common clinical feature of Covid-19

2689

Covid-19 acts on which receptor

2690

All are pathogenic coronaviruses except

2691

All coronaviruses epidemics started in respective years and places except

2692

Covid-19 precautions for the community include all except

2693

Higher comparative mortality in Covid-19 is seen in all except

2694

R0 or R-naught is highest in

2695

Period of quarantine in Covid-19 is

2696

Which drug is approved for treatment of Covid-19 coronavirus in India

2697

Outbreaks of Covid-19 have occurred in all countries except

2698

Covid-19 can present as all except

2699

Confirmed case of Covid-19 is

2700

Quarantine for Covid-19 will be done for all except

2701

Covid-19 is diagnosed by

2702

Correct sampling for Covid-19 and H1N1 is

2703

Aerosol generating procedures while nursing Covid-19 patients where doctors have to extra careful are all except

2704

Fuid resuscitation in septic shock in Covid-19 is monitored by target _____ except

2705

Which of the following herbal products have been found to be effective against Covid-19 coronavirus through randomized control clinical trials?

2706

Close contact is defined as

2707

A 12 year old child presented with gastrointestinal symptoms after day care surgery. Stool examination revealed the following. Clinical features, diagnosis, treatment?

2708

A 60 year old businessman reported increased somnolence during day and insomnia at night after travelling to Africa. Peripheral blood smear showed the following, Diagnosis, vector, causative agent?

2709

A village head reported the presence of the following insect to district administration. A team of epidemiologists and microbiologists sent for investigation found long hind legs adapted for jumping and no feathers. Diseases trasmmitted?

2710

Peripheral blood smear of a 30 year olf female presenting with fever, chills and rigors showed the following. Drug of choice for treatment and chemoprophylaxis in India is

2711

A 3 year old child was bitten by this insect in a park. The following diseases are transmitted by the following insect

2712

A 6 year old child presented liver trauma. Partial lobectomy was done which accidentally revealed the following on biopsy. Drug of choice? Which type of host is man in this disease?

2713

A 7 year old girl found the following vector in her backyard. It transmits all except

2714

A 54 year old male presenting with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and poor cell mediated immunity was found to have the following from bone marrow aspirate. Identification and treatment

2715

A 12 year old child presented with anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly and dark pigmented skin. He belonged to an endemic area where the following vector is frequently found. Identification, disease transmitted and testing?

2716

A 23 year old with diarrhoea, malabsorption and lactose intolerance was found to have the following in stools. Type of motility, diagnosis and treatment?

2717

A young doctor found many adults with swollen legs in a remote tropical village.Clinical condition, identification and treatment?

2718

A 14 year old presented with fever with chills and rigors. Peripheral blood smear shows the following. Identify the stage. Which forms are exclusively seen in P. falciparum and P.vivax?

2719

A 55 year old patient with urinary infection was negative for bacterial culture. Ova of the following wormwere found in urine. Identification, infective stage and treatment?

2720

A 63 year old lady with elephantiasis was correlated with a mosquito bite on epidemiological investigation. Diseases transmitted?

2721

A 53 year old female with dark pigmented skin and poor cell mediated immunity was found to have the following forms in bone marrow biopsy examination. Infective stage, diagnostic stage and clinical feature?

2722

Interpret the following lifecycle. Which species infects all types of RBCs? Which is a gametocidal drug?

2723

An epidemiologist found the following in a stagnant pond water. Diseases transmitted (larva has a siphon tube)

2724

Interpret and Identify the ova from left to right.

2725

A 26 year old presented with a lesion in posterosuperior lobe of right liverlobe.Identify the sign seen in ultrasonography?

2726

The peripheral blood smear from a child with fever and acute dermatolymphadenitis (ADLA) revealed a slender sheathed rhabditiform larva with terminal nuclei. Identification, clinical presentation and treatment?

2727

A 28 year old female presented with dysentery, iron deficiency anemia, rectal prolapse, and growth retardation. Stool examination revealed the following. Diagnosis?

2728

A 50yr old female who recently ate raw crayfish presents with fever, chest pain, cough, urticaria andeosinophilia. Diagnosed as endemic hemoptysis, sputum revealed the following ova. Diagnosis and treatment?

2729

A 42 year old HIV positive person suspected to have hyperinfection syndrome was found to have L1 rhabditiform larva in stool examination. Diagnosis and treatment?

2730

A 56 year oldfarmer habituated to walk barefoot for farming and nature calls reported with ground itch. Stool examination revealed the following ova. Diagnosis?

2731

Peripheral blood smear from a 12 year old revealed the following. Stages causing infection, relapse and release of merozoites are

2732

Skin scraping from a 5 year old child presenting with itching revealed an arthropod. Scientific name and treatment?

2733

A 7 year old child brought in a coma was found to have the following in peripheral blood smear. Diagnosis, treatment and vaccine?

2734

A 40 year old male presenting with non-gonococcal urethritis, discharge revealed the following. All clinical features are expected in the female partner except

2735

Identification of nematode, site of laying ova and clinical feature.

2736

A 56 year old male presented with megloblasticanaemia three months after swimming in a step well. Operculated ova seen in stools. Identify the vector from picture, what is the treatment?

2737

Man is the intermediate host in all except

2738

Eggs that float in saturated salt solution are all except

2739

All are correct intestinal ulcers except

2740

Which of the following is incorrect

2741

Splenomegaly is seen in all except

2742

All are correct except

2743

All are correct diagnostic stages except

2744

Relapse in malaria is seen in ______ due to _______ and treated by _________

2745

Black fever and black water fever are seen in

2746

Accole forms are seen in

2747

Peripheral smear can detect all except

2748

Louse transmit all except

2749

Ticks transmit all except

2750

Aedes transmits all except

2751

Non bile stained eggs are all except

2752

Anchovy sauce pus is seen in

2753

All are correct media except

2754

All are correct except

2755

All are correct except

2756

All are correct about Plasmodium except

2757

Treatment of malaria in first trimester

2758

Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in India is

2759

All are correct except

2760

All have operculated ova except

2761

All are correct except

2762

All parasites are carcinogenic except

2763

All parasites cause anaemia except

2764

Mosquito control can be done by all except

2765

Praziquantel is the drug of choice except

2766

Albendazole is the drug of choice except

2767

Metronidazole is the drug of choice except

2768

DEC provocation test is done in

2769

Identify the wrong infective stage in malaria

2770

Anchovy sauce pus is seen in

2771

River blindness is caused by

2772

L3 filariform larva from soil penetrates the skin while walking barefoot in all except

2773

All are correct about hydatid cyst except

2774

A 32 year old male with no known history of any diseases suddenly presents with generalized tonic clonic seizure. What would be the most common cause

2775

All are correct except

2776

Diagnostic stage in Toxoplasma are

2777

All are protozoa except

2778

Cotrimoxazole is used for all except

2779

Schizont is not seen in

2780

Infective and diagnostic stages in Leishmania are

2781

Drug of choice for treatment of Leishmaniasis is

2782

All of the following is correct except

2783

All are features of Trichomoniasis except

2784

Glossina palpalis transmits

2785

Peripheral smear can detect all except

2786

Types of intestinal ulcers seen in tuberculosis, typhoid and amoebiasis are

2787

Lyre sign in seen in

2788

The incision used in endomeatal approach to the ear is?

2789

Hitzelberger sign is?

2790

Orbital apex syndrome involves?

2791

All are true regarding mucocele of frontal sinus except?

2792

Prussak space is bounded below by?

2793

Pain in tonsillar fossa and upper neck is characteristic of?

2794

Ipsilateral immobility of soft palate is seen in?

2795

The following is true for Gradenigo syndrome?

2796

All are true regarding Reinke oedema except?

2797

All are true regarding the use of sodium fluoride in otosclerosis except?

2798

Secondary haemorrhage after tonsillectomy is most commonly seen?

2799

Most common site of origin of vestibular schwannoma is?

2800

Pain pathway from ethmoid sinus is via?

2801

Endolymphatic hydrops is characteristic of:

2802

Orbital apex syndrome involves?

2803

All are true regarding mucocele of frontal sinus except?

2804

Pain in tonsillar fossa and upper neck is characteristic of?

2805

Ipsilateral immobility of soft palate is seen in?

2806

All are true regarding the use of sodium fluoride in otosclerosis except?

2807

Secondary haemorrhage after tonsillectomy is most commonly seen?

2808

Most common laser used in laryngeal surgery is?

2809

Otoacoustic emissions arise from?

2810

Structure not seen in bronchoscopy?

2811

Gold standard test for laryngopharyngeal reflux is?

2812

Androphonia can be corrected by doing:

2813

The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is:

2814

The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:

2815

Use of seigel speculum during examination of the ear provides all except:

2816

A 5-year-old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery, he had running nose, temperature 37.5 degree C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?

2817

During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through:

2818

Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all, except:

2819

Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss?

2820

Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?

2821

A 30-year-old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice?

2822

Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa?

2823

Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere disease?

2824

A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is true for the managements of this case?

2825

Hyperacusis in Bell palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:

2826

Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?

2827

Treatment of choice in a 6-year-old child with recurrent URTI with mouth breathing and failure to grow with high arched palate and impaired hearing is:

2828

Treatment of choice for glue ear is

2829

A lady has bilateral hearing loss for 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedance audiometry graph will be:

2830

Rhinophyma is associated with:

2831

Rhinolalia clausa is associated with all of the following except?

2832

Tympanic membrane develops from:

2833

The cough response caused while cleaning the ear canal is mediated by Stimulation of:

2834

Which of the following is a cause of sensorineural hearing loss:

2835

In right middle ear pathology, Weber test will be

2836

Decreased bone conduction in an audiogram indicates:

2837

Traumatic perforation differ from infective perforation of the ear drum in the:

2838

Treatment of dry traumatic rupture of tympanic membrane is:

2839

Type B tympanogram is found in:

2840

Aim of mastoid surgery in CSOM which should receive first priority is:

2841

Most common cause for bilateral conductive deafness in a child is:

2842

A child aged 3 years presented with severe sensorineural deafness, he was prescribed hearing aids but showed no improvement. What is the next line of management?

2843

A fifty-year-old male diabetic patient has developed itching in his ears. On otoscopy there is debris with black specks in external auditory canal. The treatment of choice in this case is

2844

Adenoidectomy is indicated in all of the following conditions except:

2845

Complications of mumps include all except:

2846

All of the following regarding pure tone audiometry is true except:

2847

Tympanic membrane moves with respiration in:

2848

Loss of stapedial reflex indicates all of the following except:

2849

A 50-year-old male patient presented with otalgia, on examination both external auditory canal and tympanic membrane are normal, all of the following might be the sites of origin of his pain except:

2850

A nine months old baby has put a plastic bead in his ear. On otoscopy, it is present in deeper portion of meatus and totally occluding the meatus. The best way to remove this bead is:

2851

A two-year child is very slow in developing language. On otoscopy he has dull ear drum. Investigation of choice is:

2852

A 10-year-old boy has had ear problems for many years. He has a fever and you also notice that his mastoid bone is warm and tender to touch. Which of the following is the best course of action?

2853

If the patient can hear a whispered voice 30 cm away from the ear, the patient has:

2854

Fistula test is positive in:

2855

Before bone conduction audiometry masking is done:

2856

A blue drum is seen in:

2857

The cone of light in the tympanic membrane points:

2858

Ear syringing is contraindicated in patients with:

2859

Keratosis obturans is commonly associated with

2860

A 66-year-old Chinese man presents with a two-month history of neck swelling in the right posterior triangle. On further questioning he tells you that his hearing has also declined in the right ear. He also has a blocked nose. What is the likely diagnosis?

2861

A 21-year-old woman presents with two-day history of sore throat and dysphagia. On examination she is pyrexial with halitosis and cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the likely causative organism for her condition?

2862

Juvenile angiofibroma:

2863

A 55-year-old man presents with a three-month history of swelling on the right side of the neck, which has gradually increased in size. He has also been having earache and throat pain for the last two weeks. He tells you that the pain in his ear is so severe that he cannot sleep at night. He has no other symptoms. He is otherwise, fit and well. He smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks 15 units of alcohol per week. Examination of the neck reveals a 4 cm x 4 cm firm, mobile, non-fluctuant, and non-pulsatile swelling on the right side of the neck. The overlying skin is normal and the mass is not attached to the skin. ENT examination is normal.

2864

A 27-year-old female patient presented with painful and difficulty swallowing, on indirect laryngoscopy, there is pooling of saliva in right pyriform sinus with swollen right arytenoid, the most likely diagnosis is:

2865

The first postoperative day, tonsillectomy fossa is:

2866

Stage ІІІ squamous cell carcinoma of oropharynx is:

2867

Palliative treatment of advanced head and neck malignant tumours involves all of the following except:

2868

Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for:

2869

Commando operation may be used for the treatment of:

2870

Early post-tonsillectomy complications include all of the following except:

2871

During a hunting trip a bullet affect one of the hunters in his neck by accident, he developed neck swelling and hoarsed voice, what could be the cause of his voice change:

2872

A new born baby presented with weak cry and hoarseness, the most probable diagnosis:

2873

A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 5 cm solitary lymph node in the upper right cervical region and an abnormal-looking right tonsil. Assuming this is a squamous cell carcinoma nodal metastasis, what is the N classification?

2874

A 70- year-old smokers present to the ENT clinic with a 3-month history of dysphagia and weight loss. Flexible nasoendoscopy shows pooling of saliva in the pyriform fossae, with restricted mobility of the right hemi-larynx. Malignancy is suspected. You proceed to general anaesthetic endoscopy. At surgery, you find that he has a 3 cm tumour affecting the right pyriform fossa and extending into post-cricoid region. According to the TMN staging, what T- stage is this malignancy?

2875

 A 20-year-old man presents to the ENT clinic with sudden onset high fever of one day duration, on examination: both tonsils are congested with whitish membrane over the right tonsil with petichae over the palate and palpable both jugulodiagastric lymph nodes. What is the most possible diagnosis?

2876

A 15-year-old has unilateral nasal obstruction, mass in the cheek and recurrent epistaxis, the diagnosis is:

2877

A three-year-old mongol boy get high fever then associated with difficult swallowing and strider, the child was sitting, cannot sleep and drooling saliva, the resident pediatrician sent for lateral cervical X-ray then he asked your opinion about what was looking as a thumb in front of the hypopharynx, your diagnosis was:

2878

A ten-year-old girl presented with pain between the eyes, frontal headache, discharge from the nose, post nasal drip and high fever; what is the provisional diagnosis?

2879

Nasal septal hematoma:

2880

Regarding deviated nasal septum, which of the following is false?

2881

A healthy 15 years male patient presented to the ENT department with right sided nasal obstruction, foul-smelling and blood-stained discharge. The most likely diagnosis is:

2882

Pain due to acute sinusitis:

2883

Regarding the management of sinusitis, which of the following is false?

2884

Definite diagnosis of acute maxillary sinusitis:

2885

The most common cause of epistaxis is:

2886

All are true about anosmia except:

2887

A complication of common cold:

2888

Symptoms of acute staphylococcus infection of nasal vibrissae include all but:

2889

The antrochoanal polyp:

2890

Best radiological test for maxillary sinus is:

2891

In seasonal rhinitis, the early symptom will be:

2892

Identify the biological transmission exhibited by the organism depicted by arrow in the following image

2893

Match the following

2894

Carrier is

2895

An epidemiologist is conducting an investigation of epidemic in a given area. The correct definition of Index case for his research would be

2896

The term Random in Randomization implies

2897

Denominator of case fatality rate is

2898

All of the following are correct about propagated epidemic except

2899

All of the statements about quarantine are true except

2900

A primary health center in Tripura reports 10 – 20 cases of malaria in a week. In the last week there were 12 cases. Based on previous records, this can be called as

2901

A study found odds ratio between passive smoking and low birth weight babies to be 3.5. What is interpretation?

2902

A study began in 2010 with a group of 1000 adults in the age group of 40–50 years in Hyderabad. Data was collected periodically from this group about their physical activity. The occurrence of coronary artery disease was studied in this group in 2020. This study design is

2903

Hyper endemic means

2904

In a village, there is an epidemic of acute watery diarrhea. All the cases were found to be using drinking water from a common source. This type of epidemic is an example for

2905

Which among the following is best epidemiological study design to identify causality of a disease

2906

An investigator conducting a research study has instructed all the health workers to allot equal interview time to all study subjects. The investigator was aiming to reduce which of the following bias?

2907

Prevalence of a disease, is a

2908

A study was found to have Confounding factors. A confounding factor is a factor which is associated with

2909

In conducting research study for cancers, if the investigator selects hospitals with variable rates of cancer admission to hospitals. The investigator is most likely to allow _____ bias in his study

2910

A clinical trial is being conducted for a new drug for the treatment of Psoriasis. Efficacy of new drug A should be compared with an existing drug B in

2911

Most common seen in epidemiology is

2912

In a population of 10000, number of new cases of TB is 500; old cases in the same population are 200. What is the prevalence of TB?

2913

A patient with pancreatic cancer has secondary malignancies of lung and dies of respiratory failure due to viral pneumonia. The line I(a) of death certificate would be

2914

The correct hierarchy of epidemiological study designs is

2915

A new drug was found to be effective in the treatment of breast cancer in a clinical trial. If this drug is released into the market for the treatment of breast cancer, which of the following is most likely to happen?

2916

The study design which helps in formulating a hypothesis is

2917

A study was conducted on a group of 1000 patients having liver cancer and another 2000 subjects were selected from general population. Both the groups were questioned about history of Hepatitis infection. The type of study is

2918

Which of the following is not a method of direct transmission of communicable diseases?

2919

Cause preceding the effect is an example of

2920

You are working as Medical and Health officer and in the last week a total of 150 cases of convulsions have been reported from your Primary Health center. The District Medical and Health Officer has instructed you to carry out a detailed investigation and submit the report in a week. The First step in your investigation will be

2921

Which of the following diseases are spread by airborne transmission? Select correct code from the given below:

2922

The diluent used for vaccine which is administered immediately after birth is

2923

The strain used in Mumps vaccine is

2924

Identify the incorrect combination with relation to delayed immunization

2925

All are true about BCG vaccine except

2926

A child reports to PHC for first time at 15 months of age. Which vaccines can be given?

2927

After administering a vaccine, ANM should advise the mother to remain in PHC for _______ of time for observation of AEFI following immunization

2928

Open vial policy is applicable to which of the following vaccine

2929

Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is

2930

Match the following AEFIs with their most commonly associated vaccines

2931

You are working as District Immunization officer. In a training programme for medical officers and health workers about cold chain, you will train the health workers to return the  Vaccine carrier with unused or partially used vaccine vials from outreach session to Primary Health center within a maximum time of

2932

The risk of cold chain failure is greatest at

2933

Which among the following vaccine vials are usable?

2934

The role of adjuvant in a DPT vaccine is

2935

Mission Indradhanush includes all vaccines except

2936

Neomycin is used in which of the following vaccines to prevent bacterial contamination?

2937

A two year old unimmunized child presents to primary health center with fever since 5 days. Mother also gives a history of rash starting behind ear pinna a day before coming to OPD. On examination, child is having running nose and congested eyes. To prevent the spread of disease to a 3 month old sibling , the child must be isolated for a period of

2938

Which among the following is a measure of communicability of infection?

2939

Which set of diseases have same incubation period?

2940

A 10 month old child can be classified as suffering with severe pneumonia based on following signs except

2941

As a researcher to estimate the prevalence of tuberculosis mantoux test needs to be done in a village. The ideal dose of Tuberculin administered in Mantoux test is

2942

A sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis patient if untreated can add ________ new infections

2943

Pick the incorrect combination of low osmolarity ORS

2944

An antenatal women attending a primary health center has been diagnosed to be suffering with Hepatitis B. Identify the correct statement regarding transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus

2945

Select incorrect statement regarding cholera

2946

A patient presents to the OPD with a history of fever, vomiting and yellowish discoloration of body. On examination, the liver is palpable and there is yellowish discoloration of skin and sclera. Laboratory investigations revealed deranged liver profile and serum bilirubin level 11mg/dL. The following serological status was noted in a patient: HBsAg positive and HBeAg positive. The most probable diagnosis is

2947

Under AFP surveillance, follow–up examination is done after

2948

Which of the following is incorrect after AFP surveillance?

2949

A mother brought her 8 month old baby to PHC centre with complaints of loose watery stools and vomiting. On examination child was dehydrated and had fever. There was no history of rash. Which of the following can be the most common cause of child condition?

2950

A 5 year old child presents with following skin condition. The incorrect statement about the given condition is

2951

The indigenous test kits developed by collaboration of ICMR, Delhi and NIV, Pine COVID 19 antibody detection is known as

2952

Which of the following statements is true regarding Arbo viruses?

2953

During the first week of infection, Dengue can be best detected by

2954

A patient presents with symptoms of high grade fever with chills and rigor. On examination the temperature was found to be 104 degree F. On examination following was noted. The incorrect statement about this condition is

2955

Name the disease which is caused by virus with an incubation period of 14 – 21 days with high secondary attack rate, and clinical features of salivary glands enlargement

2956

All are true regarding Lymphatic Filariasis except

2957

Select false statement regarding Rabies

2958

Drug of choice for control of Trachoma in India is

2959

Vector in the image can transmit all of the following diseases except

2960

Rocky mountain spotted fever cause and vector are

2961

Which dengue serotype has higher risk of causing Dengue hemorrhagic fever as secondary infection?

2962

WHO declared COVID 19 as Global pandemic on

2963

Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS worldwide is

2964

Least efficient mode of HIV transmission is

2965

Drugs given under multidrug regimen under National Leprosy Eradication Program for treatment of Multibacillary leprosy would be

2966

In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for

2967

Under National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme, a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis at a private practitioner clinic or hospital should be informed within how many days to district health officer to avoid a fine of Rs. 50,000?

2968

Which among the following is an RNTCP software online to monitor the data of TB patients and to control program?

2969

Diagnostic tests included in RNTCP

2970

Identify the incorrect statement about Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK)

2971

New born care corner should be always present at the level of

2972

Which is the programme that involves screening of developmental delays, deficiency and neonatal genetic defects

2973

Improving quality of Labour room is covered under which program

2974

Match the following STI kits

2975

Vision 2020 – Right to Sight aims to

2976

Vision–2020 does not include

2977

A 50 year old patient presents to OPD with complaints of diminished vision. His Visual acuity was found to be 6/60 in right eye and 1/60 in left eye. As per NPCB he will be classified as

2978

Diseases covered under Indian Vision 2020 include all except

2979

The Insecticides present in the following image are

2980

Drug of choice for treatment of Kala Azar under National Vector borne disease control programme is

2981

Which of the following statements regarding objectives of National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India is false?

2982

Identify the National Health program symbol as given in the image

2983

In Integrated Disease Surveillance Project in India, which of the following type of diagnosis is done by PHC medical officer?

2984

Which of the following is the nodal ministry for the logo of given National Health Programme?

2985

Which of the following statements is true regarding Anemia Mukt Bharat campaign is

2986

According to India Newborn Action Plan–Neonatal mortality rate target for 2030 is

2987

NPCDCS covers all except

2988

True about PMSMA are all except

2989

Which of the following is not true?

2990

Trafficking of women and children is prevented under

2991

Provision of sanitary napkins to adolescent girls by ASHA worker is under which national health programme?

2992

Which of the following variable is measured on the ordinal scale?

2993

Which among the following is a true statement?

2994

Central tendency which is best to represent the following data 28,30,25,29,22,27 and 26 is

2995

Marks scored by 5 students in class test are 40, 10, 30, 30 and 45. Which of the following is correct regarding central tendency?

2996

A researcher measures weight of 100 adult males and finds that their mean weight is 82 kg with a standard deviation of 1.5. 95 percent of weight of males shall be between

2997

The mean height of the 25 adolescent girl is 125 cms Standard deviation is 0.25. Calculate standard error

2998

Select the true statement about the distribution given in figure

2999

The mean hemoglobin level of 100 pregnant women was 12.5 gm/dl and standard deviation is 1.5. Calculate variance

3000

Bimodal distribution is represented by

3001

Identify the correct statement about normal distribution curve

3002

Rejection of Null hypothesis when it is true, is known as

3003

If confidence limit is decreased, then

3004

If we conclude that there is no significant association between two variables when in reality an association exists. Then it is called

3005

p value is significant at

3006

In a group of 100 children, the mean hemoglobin level is 15 gm/dL. The standard deviation is 1.5 g/dL. Which one of the following is true?

3007

A researcher has measured TSH levels of 10 patients before pregnancy and after pregnancy. Which of the following statistical test will be most appropriate to compare the TSH levels among this group of study subjects?

3008

Which of the following parametric test can be used for comparing means in more than two different group of individuals

3009

Study is done on a group of adults to check literacy levels with utilization of antenatal services. Which test is used to compare the data?

3010

Number of COVID 19 cases in Delhi from April 2020 – Dec 2020 is best represented by

3011

Identify the statistical diagram

3012

Quantitative data of a group of patients can be best represented by

3013

Which among the following non random sampling techniques takes help of research participants to increase the number of participants in the study?

3014

In a study every 15th house in a village is selected while sampling. The type of sampling is

3015

Which of the following is true about simple random sampling?

3016

WHO recommended sampling method for immunization coverage evaluation

3017

The demographic goal of NRR = 1 can be achieved only if the CPR exceeds

3018

Which among the following is a vital statistics?

3019

In India, currently Crude birth rate is decreasing and crude death rate has already declined. India belongs to whichphase of demographic cycle?

3020

Average no of girls that would be born to a women if she experiences the current fertility pattern throughout her reproductive span, assuming no mortality is known as

3021

Numerator of dependency ratio is

3022

Which of the following is incorrect about the demographic gap?

3023

Eligible couple is

3024

The maximum gestational age until which medical termination of pregnancy can be practiced in India is

3025

Contraceptive of choice for a newly married couple is

3026

Spermicide used in contraceptive TODAY

3027

MC side effect of IUCD insertion requiring removal

3028

Ectopic pregnancy is maximum with

3029

Oral contraceptives may provide protection against the following malignancies

3030

Single pill of MALA–N contains

3031

Identify the contraceptive shown in the image

3032

MC side effect of DMPA is

3033

Most common cause of blindness in India is

3034

Drug of choice for prophylactic treatment of Rheumatic heart disease is?

3035

Body mass index of pre obese is

3036

Early warning signs of cancer include all except

3037

Which of the following trials are related to CHD?

3038

MCC of cervical cancer in India is

3039

STEPS is done for

3040

WHO global target for prevention and control of Non- communicable diseases by 2025 is to decrease hypertension by

3041

Under vision 2020, screening for refractive errors is done at

3042

Under the National Program for Control of Blindness, cut off for blindness in India is

3043

Project MONICA is related to

3044

All of the following are modifiable risk factors in the development of coronary heart disease except

3045

Tracking of blood pressure is

3046

Most common cancer in Indian women

3047

World Cancer awareness day is observed on

3048

The principle involved in biomedical waste disposal technique Incineration is

3049

As per Biomedical waste management guidelines, the appropriate color bag for disposal of Cytotoxic drug is

3050

You are working as an intern in Gynec ward. The attending gynecologists during rounds has instructed you to remove foley catheter and the urine bag in postoperative ward of 5 patients. After removal, both catheter and bag should be disposed in

3051

Autoclaving and Microwaving are best disposal methods for which of the following wastes?

3052

You are assisting a surgery in the operation theater. After completion of surgery, you will dispose used scalpel in

3053

Metallic body implants should be disposed in

3054

Blood bag is to be disposed in

3055

Incineration is not contraindicated for

3056

The process of combining Biomedical waste with cement and lime is known as

3057

Blood spills should be treated with

3058

Face shield from PPE kit should be disposed in

3059

Appendix tissue after appendectomy should be discarded in

3060

In the post disaster phase all of the following vaccines are mandatory for doctors except

3061

Arrange the following phases of disaster cycle in a logical sequence

3062

The given image comes under which ministry

3063

Nodal centre for Disaster management in India is created at the level of

3064

Ambulatory patients after a disaster categorized into ______ color of triage

3065

During disaster, rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of likelihood of their survival and need for intervention is

3066

Which of the following is true about triage?

3067

Most common disease reported post floods in India is

3068

Most common Vitamin deficiency reported post floods

3069

The chairperson of National Disaster Management Authority is

3070

World Disaster risk reduction Day is observed in the month of

3071

Patients requiring immediate transfer should be given _____ color tag during disaster

3072

The best supplementary indicator for remote contamination of water

3073

Major disinfecting action in process of chlorination of water is

3074

Presence of ______ in drinking water indicates bacteriological contamination

3075

In India, sanitary well should be away from any source of contamination by _______ meters

3076

Minimum recommended level of residual chlorine in swimming pools is

3077

Recommended level of residual chlorine for disinfection of water is

3078

Match the following vectors with the diseases spread

3079

Which one of the following methods is used for estimation of chlorine demand of water?

3080

Depth of water seal in RCA sanitary latrine of India

3081

The following instrument is used to measure

3082

Which among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

3083

Which of the following is correct for a mosquito net?

3084

All of the following diseases are spread by given organism except

3085

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by vector, given in the image?

3086

All are true about DDT except

3087

As per factories act, the maximum number of work hours/week including overtime is

3088

A patient present to emergency department with complaints of Nausea and vomiting. He gives a history of working in paint industry and on examination blue lines on gums, wrist/foot drop and pallor are also noted. The most probable diagnosis is

3089

Ergonomics means

3090

Contribution to ESI by employer and Employee are _____ and ______ respectively

3091

Under ESI act 1948, an employee can avail sickness benefit at 70% of wages for a period of

3092

A person suffering with Chronic obstructive Pulmonary disease can avail extended sickness benefit under ESI act 1948 for a period of

3093

MC occupational cancer in India is

3094

Recommended minimum per capita space for every worker under the factory act 1948 is

3095

Ministry covering ESI is

3096

Match the following

3097

Chairman of ESI corporation is

3098

Pneumoconiosis seen among workers of sugar factory is

3099

Particle size which is responsible for pneumoconiosis

3100

The screening test to identify lead poisoning is

3101

A 12 week old pregnant women attends an Antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre. On routine investigations, her Hemoglobin level was found to be 12 g/dl. The best approach regarding IFA supplementation in this case would be

3102

If birth rate of sub center of population 3000 is 20/1000 then expected no. of pregnancies in a year will be

3103

You are working as resident medical officer in a tertiary care hospital. A women was brought to the casualty with history of delivery of live fetus 6 hours ago at PHC. On admission the patient had increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, cold and clammy skin and thread pulse. After few hours of medical management the women expired. The most likely condition for the death would be

3104

Which is the sensitive indicator to evaluate obstetric and neonatal care given at around the time of birth?

3105

A researcher wants to estimate perinatal mortality in Uttar Pradesh. The appropriate denominator to calculate perinatal mortality would be

3106

The additional recommended calorie intake for a pregnant women in the third trimester, would be

3107

Ideal number of antenatal visits in India as per recommendations of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare are

3108

Which of the following is not considered as a factor for high risk pregnancy?

3109

The minimum duration for which prophylactic iron supplementation is recommended according to Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) for pregnant women is

3110

A women attending antenatal clinic should be motivated to exclusively breast feed her child for _______ months

3111

Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is

3112

Which among the following is not a component of Essential obstetric care

3113

You are working as a PHC medical officer, and a maternal death audit needs to be done. During training of health workers, you will ask them to include which deaths for the audit?

3114

Which among the following cannot be a cause of post neonatal mortality in India currently

3115

The best indicator of health in community is

3116

In a given population, total births in a year are 5000. There are 50 still births. 50 neonates die within first 7 days of life whereas the number of deaths within 8–28 days of life is 150. What is the neonatal mortality rate in the population?

3117

The incorrect statement about given image is

3118

In a town of 10,000 population, total 228 births were there in a year out of which 28 were dead born. The total deaths were 124 out of which 56 deaths were within the first 28 days of life and another 34 had died after 28 days and before completing the first birthday. Calculate the infant mortality rate of this town

3119

As per Bhore committee recommendations, for a healthful school environment the recommended doors + windows area (% of floor area) in a school class must be

3120

Which of the following indicator is used for growth monitoring at Anganwadi center?

3121

In the given image what is the reading of MAC on yellow color?

3122

An Anganwadi worker, finds a child from her center, lying in yellow area in ICDS growth chart. The next appropriate step by the field worker should be

3123

Baby Friendly Hospital Initiative was created and promoted by WHO and

3124

After a normal vaginal delivery, Breast feeding must be initiated within

3125

The most common neonatal disorder screened in India at every Primary health center or delivery point is

3126

Law of Population genetics is known as

3127

Eugenics is

3128

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy Weinberg law?

3129

MCC of DALYs lost among Mental Health disorders is

3130

Objectives of National Mental Health Program include all except

3131

A group of health experts discuss about COVID-19 in front of medical students with no specific order of speeches. This method of communication is

3132

All are Socratic methods of Health communication except

3133

A 30 years old male is diagnosed with Testicular cancer. The technique to be used by the consulting doctor has to explain diagnosis and prognosis to patient is

3134

A cook working in Nutritional Rehabilitation Center has to teach mother of Severe Acute malnourished child how to prepare low cost nutritious food. The best method will be

3135

A 28 years old female came to PHC for family planning services. Technique to be used for provision of family planning services is

3136

A management technique in which comparison of two or more cost effective alternatives of a health program is done is known as

3137

Study the image given below. Critical path in the given image is

3138

Which among the following are the recommendations given by Srivastava committee

3139

The health committee which formulated the concept of Multipurpose workers in India is

3140

3 million plan was the proposal given by

3141

As per Chadah committee recommendations, one basic health worker was advocated for how much population?

3142

NITI Aayog stands for

3143

Which of the following is a set point framed for long term plans but is yet something that cannot be measured or quantified

3144

Economic benefits of any programme are compared with the costs incurred in

3145

Measurement of output in terms of results achieved is

3146

Kangaroo Mother care is an example of

3147

ASHA worker is an example ______ principles of primary health care

3148

Which among the following is not an element of primary health care?

3149

Which of the following is not a principle of primary health care?

3150

All are incorrect statements regarding PHC except

3151

What is the incorrect statement about Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) given below?

3152

A trained birth attendant is for a population of

3153

Which of the following is not a grass root level worker?

3154

First referral unit is

3155

Urban Primary Health Centre (UPHCs) are established for a population of

3156

Urban Social Health Activist (USHA) workers are proposed to work for a population of

3157

1 Health Assistant in tribal areas caters ______ population

3158

Population covered under one community health center is

3159

Anganwadi worker is periodically assessed by?

3160

Total beds at PHC and CHC respectively is

3161

Type B sub center is characterized by

3162

A sub center in a hilly area is for _______ population

3163

One PHC is established per _______ population in rural areas

3164

Identify the logo shown in the photograph

3165

All of the following are Type A bioterrorism agents except

3166

International health regulations covers all of the following diseases except

3167

Surveillance Reporting System used by the WHO is

3168

The following diseases are under international surveillance by WHO except

3169

Which among the following does not require isolation and Quarantine

3170

In UNICEFs GOBI FFF strategy B stands for

3171

The given image describes

3172

A researcher advises a group of a population to adopt healthy lifestyles to prevent coronary artery disease, by health education. This is referred to as

3173

If COVID–19 achieves Control state of a disease, which of the following parameters will reduce?

3174

Which of the following is not a component of Human Development Index?

3175

Measures involved in sentinel surveillance include all of the following except

3176

The best indicator of availability, utilization and effectiveness of health services is

3177

Complete interruption of transmission of disease from large geographical areas is known as

3178

A 25 year old male residing in North East region using mosquito nets for protection against mosquito bite is

3179

Which indicator denotes number of years added to a person life due to quality medical intervention?

3180

Which among the following is an example of tertiary prevention?

3181

Which among the following is a mortality indicator?

3182

Primordial prevention is defined as

3183

The biomedical concept of disease is based on

3184

All of the following are examples of health promotion except

3185

All of the following are morbidity indicators except

3186

Immobilization of limb after fracture is an example of

3187

All of the following are components of Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except

3188

Surveillance is

3189

All of the following diseases are eliminated from India except

3190

Secondary level of prevention include all of the following except

3191

Which food is the richest source of polyunsaturated fatty acids

3192

Which among the following food source is rich in Linoleic acid

3193

Poor man iron source is

3194

Amino acid deficient in Maize is

3195

The target in Prudent diet for total cholesterol : HDL ratio is

3196

Daily total requirement of Iodine by a pregnant women is

3197

Match the following nutrients and their recommended daily requirements

3198

A 9 month old child presents to PHC for immunization. After giving measles and Japanese Encephalitis vaccine, the dose of Vitamin A to be administered to child is

3199

Xerophthalmia is considered a problem in community if

3200

The most sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency is

3201

Which of the following is matched correctly?

3202

Presence of Beta oxalo amino alanine in diet causes

3203

Dental fluorosis is best seen in

3204

Which one of the following is not used in testing for adequate pasteurization of milk?

3205

True about Reference Indian male is

3206

Which of the following is false regarding a reference Indian adult woman?

3207

The additional iron requirement per day for a pregnant woman in India is

3208

Food standards for the international food market are

3209

Low glycemic index is seen in

3210

Screening of passengers arriving at international airports for COVID–19  to protect the home population is an example of

3211

Survival rate increases maximum, post screening for which of the following disease?

3212

Screening time is time gap between

3213

Lead time refers to the time between

3214

If the cut off value of disease is lowered, then

3215

Match the following

3216

Calculate sensitivity and specificity of Rapid Antigen Test (RAT) in a population screened for COVID-19 for given data

3217

A clinician advises a patient with suspicion of prostate cancer to undergo Digital rectal examination followed by Prostate Specific antigen test. The results are more likely to have

3218

Probability that a person out of those tested positive on a screening test has disease is known as

3219

The correct formula for sensitivity is?

3220

Blood Hemoglobin levels of Mr. Sachin is 15 g/dl. Different (I, II, III, and IV) researchers measured his hemoglobin levels with 3 readings each. Based on their readings, match the accuracy and precision of researchers

3221

The denominator for positive predictive value is

3222

As the false negative value of a test increases _______ decreases

3223

In a population of 10,000, the prevalence of a disease is 20%. The sensitivity of a screening test is 95% and specificity is 80%. The positive predictive value of the test would be

3224

Which is the best screening method?

3225

The term Vaccination was coined by

3226

A researcher has proposed that incidence of Lung cancer increases when a smoker works in asbestosis industry and is also exposed to air pollution. This concept of disease causation correlates with the concept given by

3227

Who is known as father of Evidence based Medicine

3228

Study of role of social, economical, environmental, cultural, psychological and genetic factors in health and disease is known as

3229

WHO declared that Smallpox has been eradicated in

3230

Which of the Sustainable Developmental Goals is directly health related–

3231

Which sub goal of SDG aims to reduce maternal mortality ratio?

3232

Adoption of values from others and making them part of your life is known as

3233

Learned behavior which is socially acquired is known as

3234

Match the following types of learning

3235

The intelligence quotient of a child with mild mental retardation will be

3236

Consider the following as stages in a family cycle. Arrange the stages in correct chronological sequence

3237

A Family, which lags behind rest of the community in terms of economic status and education is known as

3238

The criteria which is not a part of Modified Kuppuswami Socio economic Scale is

3239

Non-contributory benefit given to vulnerable groups

3240

Severe wasting is:

3241

The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control programme is:

3242

Paris green is a

3243

In an area with API greater than 2 the dose of pyrethrenoids to be spread (in mg) per sq. meter is:

3244

Roll back malaria programme is:

3245

Which of the following is Nuisance mosquito?

3246

The ORS (oral rehydration solution) requirement for first 4 hours for an 8 months child with moderate dehydration is:

3247

Under National Rural Health Mission ASHA stands for

3248

National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) includes

3249

Which is not a duty of TBA?

3250

At PHC level, a women who complains of spotting following IUCD insertion. Should be advised:

3251

Duration of treatment for multibacillary leprosy is:

3252

The National Population Policy-2000 has the medium tern objective of

3253

The national health policy-2002 puts emphasis on–

3254

Unlinked and Anonymous HIV testing strategy is used for

3255

The approach followed under RCH programme is

3256

Delinking of malaria activity from family planning was done by-

3257

The national rural health mission was launched on

3258

WHO theme for year 2007 is:

3259

According to colour code system of Triage, green colour indicates

3260

MTP can be done for (According to MTP Act. 1971) all except:

3261

The term Tracking of blood pressure refers to

3262

Essential obstetric care includes the following, except:

3263

The best available index of the size of the tuberculosis problem in a community is:

3264

According to International Health Regulations (IHR) Act, a pregnant woman with the following duration of pregnancy (in ¬weeks) cannot travel by air to other country:

3265

All the following are method of presentation of statistical data except:

3266

Best way to study relationship between two variables is

3267

Central value of a series is termed as

3268

The probability of a reading, falling outside 95% confidence limit is

3269

Standard error is due to

3270

Chi-square test, to a table of 6 Rows and 4 columns, the degree of freedom would be

3271

In order to find out whether there is significant association or not between two variable, we calculate

3272

For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children among three socio-economic groups, the most appropriate statistical test is:

3273

All of the following are examples of random sampling method except:

3274

The mean B.P. of a group of persons was determined and after an interventional trial, the mean BP was estimated again. The test to be applied to determine the significance of intervention is

3275

If the sample size is increased 4 times, precision will:

3276

A number of cases of malaria are collected over 10 years with extreme variation in data; best to calculate average is:

3277

In a village based study, it is divided with 5 lines and then at random chooses one of the groups. The type of sampling is:

3278

Which does not measure association?

3279

All are true about cluster sampling except:

3280

In a drug trial one group showed 40% response and the group with the test drug showed 60% response. The two results can be statistically compared for significance by:

3281

If prevalence of diabetes is 10%, the probability that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:

3282

Coefficient of correlation between height and weight is 2.6, it signifies that:

3283

In respect of type I error in the field of medical statistics, which one of the following is not correct?

3284

All of the following methods can show relationship between two variables except

3285

What does standard deviation measure?

3286

If a 95% CI for prevalence of TB infection in a particular community is 32 to 45%. What is the chance that the prevalence could be lower than 32%?

3287

An investigator finds out that 5 independent factors influence the occurrence of a disease. Comparison of multiple factors responsible for a disease can be assessed by?

3288

People were separated into 5 sub-groups. People were selected randomly from these sub groups. What type of sampling was done?

3289

Which of the following statement is not true?

3290

For a 60 kg Indian male, the minimum daily protein requirement has been calculated to be 40g (mean) and SD is 10g. The recommended daily allowance of protein would be:

3291

Which of the following is true about regression analysis?

3292

The median weight of 100 children was 12 kgs. The SD was 3 kg. Calculate the coefficient of variance.

3293

Probability sampling may be attributed to

3294

In a heterogeneous population, to draw a random sample one should go in for:

3295

The following can be classified under independent events

3296

The response which is graded by an observer on the agree to disagree continuum is based on:

3297

Chi square test is used to measure the degree of:

3298

For calculation of a sample size for a prevalence study all of the following is necessary except:

3299

The probability of two mutually exclusive events is given by:

3300

Mean bone density amongst 2 groups of 50 people each is compared with each other. The test of significance which should be used is:

3301

L-J Chart is used for large number of tests done at a centre to standardize the values. What can be commonly calculated from an L-J chart?

3302

Likert scale is used for rating

3303

In a study if the coefficient of variation of systolic blood pressure and creatinine clearance is 20 and 15 respectively it means

3304

A chest physician observed that the distribution of forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 300 smokers had a median of 2.5 litres with the first and third quartiles being 1.5 and 4.5 litres respectively. Based on this data how many persons in the sample are expected to have a FEV between 1.5 and 4.5 litres?

3305

The distribution of IOP in 100 sample subjects of glaucoma patients has an average of 30 mm of Hg with a population SD of 10 mm of Hg. What is the lower limit of average that can be expected 95% of times?

3306

If the sample size is bigger in random sampling which of the following is true?

3307

The utility of regression is determined by all of the following except

3308

P value indicates which of the following?

3309

What is the difference between α (level of significance) and p value?

3310

In a normal distribution with mean 55 and standard deviation 10, the area to the right of 55 within 1 SD is approximately equal to:

3311

After applying a statistical test, an investigator gets the p value as 0.01. It means that

3312

In a population of 100 females the mean Hb conc. was found to be 10 g/dL, the SD was found to be 1 g/dL. The standard error will be

3313

A trial was conducted on 35 chronic HBV patients with Adefovir and another 15 with L-carnitine. The difference found was 20% in efficacy, but was not found to be statistically significant. This can happen due to all of the following except:

3314

In a typical casualty of a large hospital, various cases come on a daily basis. Which would be the best distribution to study the daily admission of head injury patients in such settings?

3315

Which of the following statement is not true in relation to National Population Policy 2000?

3316

Denominator of maternal mortality ratio is

3317

If the CBR of a sub-center having a population of 5,000 is 30/1000 pop. and IMR is 80/1000 LBs. then population of infants will be:

3318

Number of fertile female (15-44 years) in a sub-center will be approximately–

3319

Diagrams of different types of age pyramids are shown below. Which of them depict stable population?

3320

If an eligible couple on an average has 3 children than the birth rate will be:

3321

Transverse cervical/superficial Cervical artery is a branch of

3322

Superior, inferior and facial colliculus are indicated respectively as?

3323

Motor supply to muscles of tongue is by:

3324

Safety muscle of tongue is:

3325

All of the following structures are within the parotid gland except:

3326

Identify the fornix in following image?

3327

Ptosis is caused by lesion of cranial nerve

3328

Axial skeleton consists of all except

3329

Shown image is section of spinal cord at which region

3330

A patient is unable to taste a piece of sugar placed on the anterior part of tongue. Which cranial nerve is likely to have a lesion?

3331

In following image, deficient synthesis of neurotransmitter may lead to paralytic agitans?

3332

Sound box extends from:

3333

Identify the epithelium

3334

Arrow mark present between condyle and coronoid, what is that pointed area?

3335

Sensory nerve supply to shaving area is through:

3336

Identify the cartilage

3337

What structure forms superior boundary of marked foramen

3338

Structures which passes through the internal auditory meatus are all EXCEPT

3339

Isthmus of the thyroid gland is across tracheal ring:

3340

Which of the following structures do not pass through the marked foramen in the diagram?

3341

Abductor of vocal cord is:

3342

The stylopharyngeaus muscle is derived from:

3343

Transverse section of spinal cord in the cervical region of human embryo early in 6th week is shown in image. Identify the notochord?

3344

Identify the A, B and C in given 3D computer reformatted volumetric T2 weighted MRI display?

3345

Which of the following is the action of indicated muscle:

3346

Identify the correct options with indicated structures?

3347

Which of these statements regarding Meckel diverticulum is incorrect?

3348

The spiral valve is located in which of the following structures?

3349

All are the lateral branches of abdominal aorta except:

3350

In portal venous system, valves pare present at:

3351

Which of the following is seen in lumbar spine

3352

Which of the following structure is not the extension of External oblique

3353

Correct regarding given muscle in image

3354

Uterine artery is a branch of:

3355

Cholecystocaval line is in between

3356

Identify the procedure

3357

Direction of indicated muscle is

3358

True about indicated muscle except

3359

False about indicated muscle

3360

True about inguinal canal except

3361

The deep inguinal ring is a defect in the:

3362

Renal angle lies between:

3363

All are true about indicated structure except

3364

Identify the structure

3365

True about indicated structure:

3366

Efferent of cremasteric reflex is:

3367

Smallest cranial nerve is

3368

Left testicular vein drain into:

3369

Cystic artery arises from:

3370

A patient comes to your clinic whom you operated for obstructed irreducible indirect left inguinal hernia one month ago. He says It has been over four weeks from the surgery and I still have much discomfort. Inside of my thigh is numb, burns or simply hurts when touched. When I move in certain ways I get a stabbing pain in that area accompanied with a sensation of being bit by a bunch of wasps (bees). Which nerve is most likely diagnosed?

3371

All are true about shown structure exc

3372

All are true regarding shown structure except

3373

Which of these statements about the coeliac trunk is not corrected?

3374

Identify the nerve

3375

Correct sequence of structures from posterior to anterior side is

3376

Which nerve runs in Fallopian canal

3377

Which of the following is not the cell inside cerebellum

3378

The taenia coli are in the large intestine are consist of _____ bands of smooth muscles arranged in distinct stribs:

3379

Pouches in the intestinal wall that gives the intestine a segmental appearance are called:

3380

All are true about indicated taste buds except

3381

For easier intubation, the distance depicted in the image presented below should be

3382

While performing tracheostomy is a 6 year old child , the surgeon is concerned about injury to all of the following structures except

3383

A 53-year-old taxi driver is admitted to the intensive care unit after a high speed collision. MRI scan was done which shows evidence of diffuse axonal injury. Attending clinicians noticed coffee ground material coming from ryles tube aspiration. What is the best intervention to prevent this complication?

3384

Appendicitis: Pick correct

3385

A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, the abdomen is distended and tympanic. He tells you that for the last 6 months he has been having episodes of cramping right-sided abdominal pain with intermittent episodes of blood in his stools. Which of the following complications has resulted in his presentation today?

3386

A 64-year-old woman presents to the surgery OPD complaining of pain and difficulty in swallowing. It is becoming progressively worse and now she complains it is even hard to drink water. Further she complains of general ill health and history of losing weight over last one year. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3387

A 1-day-old baby girl is having repeated bile-stained vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals gas in the stomach and first part of the duodenum, but nowhere else in the abdomen. The likely complication which her mother must have suffered during pregnancy might have been

3388

Analyse the image presented below. Chief disadvantage of the procedure is

3389

The following image shows a graphical representation of an upcoming weight loss procedure. Common ill effect(s) experienced with the procedure is

3390

Relatives of a patient suffering from Familial adenomatous popyposis are being screened for APC gene mutation. One of the relatives is confirmed as positive for APC gene mutation. The patient should be advised to undergo

3391

A 35 year old male presents to surgery OPD with complaints of sharp fleeting pain in the anal region that recurs over weeks. Further the pain is localized to the anus or lower rectum only, and last from seconds to several minutes with no pain between episodes. Digital rectal examination was done which shows no evidence of an ulcer. Treatment of this condition should include

3392

The following treatment method is aimed at reducing which of the complication

3393

The pathology arising from the area marked with an arrow in the below presented picture is

3394

Optimum management of the following condition noticed on endoscopy is

3395

Analyse the below mentioned image obtained from a barium swallow film. The presenting complaint in the condition would be

3396

A 6-month-old baby is brought into the emergency department by his parents with complaints of incessant crying since morning. The parents got further worried when the child passed blood mixed mucous in this stools, once in the evening. On further detailed history taking the parents reveal episodes of crying to be present along with drawing of his legs up to the abdomen. The child was found to be clinically afebrile. Which of the following would be the best treatment option in the first instance?

3397

A 54-year-old man is brought to surgery emergency with complaints of vomiting fresh blood since morning. Detailed history revealed that the patient has been an alcoholic. General physical examination revealed the following finding. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

3398

A 37-year-old male patient presents to surgery OPD with complaints of diarrhea and pain abdomen for 2 months, together with fever and weight loss. The blood tests revealed iron deficiency anaemia. MRI abdomen revealed dilatation and rigidity of the entire colon to the rectum, as well as deformed folds. Colonoscopy returned the following image, with changes starting 20cm from the anal margin up to the hepatic flexure. Biopsy revealed altered glandular architecture and increased inflammatory infiltrate.  What is the most likely morphology of the polyps?

3399

An alcoholic male presented to a tertiary care centre with a diagnosed severe pancreatitis. He was transfused with 2 litres of saline at a peripheral hospital, as he was suspected to be suffering from hypovolemia, consequent to suspected third space fluid loss due to pancreatitis. Upon admission, he is afebrile, has a Blood Pressure of 124/60 mmHg. His abdomen is tense and full. Folleys catheter was placed which shows minimal urine output. Further the patient developed anuria over next 6 hours. Definitive, management of this patient is

3400

A 26 year old struggling TV artist presents to surgery OPD with complaints of a non-healing ulcer over the trunk. She is otherwise healthy and general physical examination reveals a BMI of 27.5. Which of the diagnosis is more likely

3401

According to CEAP classification of varicose veins, which of the following term would indicate an active veinous ulcer

3402

All of the following nerves run the risk of injury in the following surgical position except

3403

Identify the following surgical device

3404

Identify the following instrument

3405

The following incision is useful for

3406

A 55 year old female presented to surgery opd with complaints of a non-healing ulcer over her right leg. Detailed history revealed that she is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis and not talking any treatment for her condition. Local examination revealed that local temperature is mildly raised. Optimum treatment option for the condition include

3407

A 42 year old dental hygienist while being evaluated for his pain abdomen in surgery OPD with noticed to be suffering from the following condition. Treatment advise for the above mentioned condition

3408

A 54 year old chronic smoker presented to surgery emergency with complaints of fever and leg swelling for 5 days. He also complains of excruciating pain in the affected leg. He was being treated at home with oral antibiotics, but his condition worsened and his blood glucose levels were found to be consistently raised. On examination, mild crepitus was also noticed in the wound. Optimum treatment of the condition is

3409

Analyse the image presented below. The complication more likely to occur in the case is

3410

An 11-year-old girl is brought to surgery OPD after her mother noticed a painless swelling on the left side of her neck. She has a recent history of acute respiratory tract infection. On examination, a smooth, fluctuant, non-tender swelling anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3411

A 9-month old girl is brought to the surgery OPD by her mother with a large mass in the right side of her neck which has been growing slowly for a few weeks. On examination, the mass is fleshy and compressible, and lies posterior to the right sternocleidomastoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3412

A 40-year-old office employee is brought to the emergency department by her colleagues. She complains of difficulty in breathing and facial flushing which began soon after having a few drinks at the office party. She can recall atleast 2 such similar episodes in the recent past. General physical examination is found to be unremarkable. Her heart rate is 82/min and blood pressure 122/86 mmHg. Which investigation will most likely confirm the underlying diagnosis?

3413

A 62 year old female presents to the surgery OPD after having noticed a dark brown lesion on her left feet about 2 months back. She had initially thought it was a bruise but it has been slowly enlarging. Besides she cannot recall any history of sustaining any injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3414

An obese patient underwent a lengthy bariatric surgery. Subsequently the patient was placed in ICU. 8 hours after the procedure the clinicians noticed decreased urine output and change of colour of urine to dark brown. Optimum management of the patient would be

3415

The following flap is based on

3416

A patient suffered from a road side accident involving a high speed crash. While being evaluated, he was noticed to have Tenderness and separation at front ozygomatic suture, lengthening of face, depression of ocular levels (enophthalmos), hooding of eyes, and tilting of occlusal plane. The patient in the question is suffering from

3417

The patient in the below presented image suffers from

3418

Jackson safety triangle is used while performing

3419

A 48 year old man was brought to surgery emergency after a road traffic accident. He appears anxious, and suddenly faints. He is found to have a heart rate of 44/min and a blood pressure of 82/46 mmHg. Primary examination is unremarkable and the patient has warm peripheries. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

3420

A 45 year old male, a diagnosed case of crohn disease is being managed on oral predinisolone, 40 mg dose once a day. However after having a meal at the party, the patient developed abdominal discomfort.  A contrast enhanced CT scan showed evidence of acute colitis. He underwent surgery and colectomy was performed.  After adequate hemostasis was obtained, abdomen was closed in layers and patient was sent to ICU. The patient developed fever and oliguria during post-operative period. His blood pressure was noticed to be low (80/50 mm Hg). He was transfused 500 ml of normal saline. However the blood pressure or urine output did not improve adequately. Next line management should include

3421

A patient requiring blood transfusion was given blood which was stored in CPD solution for 14 days. Which of the following bacteria which has high chances of transmission with such blood transfusion

3422

A 42 year old patient sustained road side accident and is being resuscitated in surgery emergency. The patient has multiple injuries and veinous access is limited. While still awaiting a central veinous cannulation, blood transfusion was started from a peripherally inserted central catheter. Which of the following fluids can be transfused through the same catheter?

3423

Bombay blood group. Which of the following antigen may be present

3424

While performing thyroidectomy, the surgeon is aware and extremely careful in the area described as triangle of concern. The area is primarily known  for high incidence of

3425

The following histological picture can be seen in

3426

Lindsay tumour primarily affects

3427

A 42-year-old woman presents to the surgery OPD with a 1-week history of feeling tired, muscle aches, neck pain and restlessness. On examination, she has a smooth enlarged thyroid gland is noticed. Her heart rate is 120/min and blood pressure 128/88 mmHg, with a temperature of 37.3 degree C. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3428

A 72-year-old woman presents to the surgery OPD with complaint of a rapidly-growing lump in her neck. The lump has been causing difficulty in swallowing for a few days now. Examination reveals a 4 cm hard mass in the front of the neck that is fixed to the overlying skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3429

Identify the characteristic appearance

3430

Identify the pathology

3431

In a patient suffering from buerger disease, sympathectomy may not be effective in treating

3432

A 24 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaints of burning sensation in her hands on exposure to cold. Further she notices that both her hands develop colour changes too which are limited to certain areas only. All is true about the condition she is suffering from except

3433

A 21-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a collapse that was preceded by dizziness and right arm pain. He was sanding a table at home when the event happened. On examination, he has a bony lump palpable in the right side of the neck. Neurological and vascular examinations are otherwise normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3434

The following image depicts which of the named surgeries

3435

After the pandemic began, alcohol based handgels are being widely used by clinicians and non-clinicians. However they have limited utility when working  towards eradication of

3436

A young male is seriously injured in a road side accident and following discussion with his family, is being considered as an organ donor.Which of the following is a precondition for the diagnosis of brainstem death?

3437

A 64 year old patient underwent injection sclerotherapy for 1st degree hemorrhoids in surgery OPD. The procedure was uneventful. But one week after the procedure, he developed spiky fever and chills. He was prescribed amoxicillin, but he was not relieved from his symptoms. His condition deteriorated and he was brought to surgery emergency. On examination, it was noticed that patient was clinically febrile;there was mild nausea but no rectal bleeding or discharge. There was mild localized tenderness over the right flank and the right upper abdominal quadrant. Examination of the head and neck was normal and chest X-ray was normal. Abnormal laboratory findings on admission included: leukocytosis, elevated C-reactive protein (171 mg/L, normal 0–8), and increased sedimentation rate (86 mm/hour, normal 0–20). Abdominal ultrasound demonstrated at least three intrahepatic hypoechoic non-homogenous lesions surrounded by a hyperechoic rim. Optimum treatment of the condition is 

3438

The upper border of liver dullness is defined by:

3439

A 68-year-old woman, a known case of cholangiocarcinoma underwent palliative therapy about one month ago. Shw now presents to surgery emergency with fever, right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and cough for 1 day. She is clinically febrile. Heart rate is 90 beats/min, blood pressure 110/70mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Her abdomen is not distended, but tenderness is noticed in the right upper quadrant. On deeper palpation, hepatomegaly was also noticed. Her TLC came out to be 14,000/mm3. Further her alkaline phosphatase values are mildly raised. Chest x-ray shows an elevated right hemidiaphragm and right lower lobe atelectasis. Ultrasound shows a round hypoechoic lesion within the liver, with internal echoes, mildlydilated intrahepatic bile ducts, and no cholelithiasis orpericholecystic fluid. Appropriate management of the patient is

3440

A 27-year-old woman with no significant medical history presented with fever, chills, generalized weakness, diffuse myalgias and anorexia for 3 weeks. She also complains of rare bouts of self-limited diarrhea. Approximately 1 week prior to presentation. Abdominal ultrasound showed a 5.6 x 5.3 cm hypoechoic mass in the liver. The patient underwent image guided drainage that yielded 20cc of purulent material. All cultures remained negative even after 48 hours of incubation. Further investigations which can lead to a correct diagnosis include:

3441

A middle aged woman presents to surgery OPD with complaint of right upper quadrant painand jaundice. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable soft mass along her liveredge. Liver enzymes were found to be mildly elevated, further viral markers were negative. Ultrasound shows evidence of a 4-cm extra hepatic cystic structure. ERCP is performed and demonstrates a biliary diverticulum obstructing the commonbile duct.Optimum management of the condition is

3442

A 68 year old male, known cirrhotic presents to surgery OPD for his annual checkup. He is being managed on a medical regimen and is currently stable with no new complaints during last one year. His check-up should include

3443

Identify the following device

3444

Analsyse the image below and pick correct statement

3445

In which of the following patients, laparoscopic choleycystectomy is best avoided

3446

A 56-year-old woman who underwent hemicolectomy 10 years ago for colorectal carcinoma presents to surgery OPD with vague abdominal pain. Further, she had undergone requisite chemotherapy cycles too, and there has been no evidence of any residual disease ever since. Her blood tests were not informative and results were actually within normal ranges. A CT scan was performed, which returned the following findings. Preferred treatment of the condition is

3447

A 44 year old male patient is being evaluated for pain abdomen. He has been known alcoholic for a while now, and has been hospitalized twice in last one year. Further, on abdominal examination, pain is elicited with deep palpation of the left subcostal and epigastric region. The clinical sign so elicted is called

3448

The following surgical procedure is performed for

3449

Which of the following are correctly matched

3450

Pancreatic ascites management includes:

3451

Pancreatitis: vascular complications: Pick correct

3452

Investigation of choice to diagnose the below mentioned condition is

3453

Paget disease:

3454

BRCA 1 cancers:

3455

Her 2 neu is a

3456

A 14-year-old girl is brought to the surgery by her motherbecause of asymmetry her mother noticed on chest of the patient. Likely diagnosis

3457

Analyse the following typical finding obtained on a mammography. The patient in question suffers from

3458

A 38-year-old woman undergoes a mammogram which is reported as showing acircumscribed area made-up of soft and lipomatous tissue, surrounded by a thinradiolucent zone.What is the most likely diagnosis?

3459

A 42-year-old woman presents to surgery OPD complaining ofpersistent nipple discharge for last 4 months. Breast examination reveals no lump in either breastbut blood stained discharge from a single duct on her right breast. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

3460

A 50 year-old woman has a 2 cm breast cyst aspirated and then 3 months laterdevelops a swelling occurs at the same site.Local examination reveals a palpable, tender2 cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. She undergoes a repeatultrasound which shows a smooth outline and no internal echoes or posteriorenhancement.What is the most appropriate management?

3461

A 42 year old bank employee, mother of two presented to surgery OPD with complaint of a swelling in her right breast. On examination the swelling was found to be mobile and not adherent to any other structure. Considering her age and positive family history (mother of patient had died from carcinoma breast at 66 years of age), the doctor advised her to undergo triple assessment. The FNAC report read as C2.She should be advised to

3462

A 55-year-old woman undergoes breast-conserving surgery (a lumpectomy) fora small T1 tumour. The axillary lymph nodes are negative. Which of the followingis the next step in therapy?

3463

Which of the following nerves runs the risk of injury in the following procedure

3464

A 53-year-old woman undergoes a modified radical mastectomyfor a T2N2M0 infiltrating ductal carcinoma breast.During follow up she complains of hypoesthesia ofthe upper posteromedial aspect of the ipsilateral arm. Likely cause of the above mentioned condition is

3465

A 42 year old woman, mother of 2 presented to surgery OPD with complaint of a lump in her; left breast which she noticed about a month back. Mammography and ultrasound breast were not informative. FNAC was done which yielded following result. Optimum management of the condition is

3466

Pick correct:Axillary dissection at the time of surgery, in a case of cystosarcomaphyllodes should:

3467

Ultrsasound breast: pick correct

3468

A 57-year-old woman presented to surgery OPD with a T1N0MO infiltrating ductal carcinoma.She underwent breast conservation surgery. The surgical pathology reveals negative margins with a close lateral margin of 1mm. What is the next step in management?

3469

All of the following are suitable candidates for therapy described below, except

3470

A 44-year-old female presents with the complaint of a singleduct, spontaneous bloody nipple discharge. Further, mammographyand ultrasound findings were not informative. Next step in the management should be

3471

A 43 year old male presents to surgery emergency with alleged history of sustaining multiple injuries in a road side accident. At the time of presentation in emergency, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg, and his heart rate is 120 per minute. The attending clinicians decide to insert a central veinous catheter. all of the following veinous routes can be used, except

3472

In the question mentioned above, the clinician decides to use subclavian vein. With regard to subclavian vein cannulation the following statements are true

3473

A twenty three-year old male patient sustained blunt trauma abdomen due to fall from a 3-meter height. Initial vital signs were: blood pressure136/80 mmHg, heart rate 64 BPM, respiratory rate 20 per minute, oxygen saturation of 100% on room air, and temperature of 36.9 degree C. Patient was fully conscious with neither external bleeding nor neurological deficits. Abdominal examination showed mild generalized tenderness and voluntary guarding at epigastric and suprapubic regions. Pelvic, genitourinary and rectal examinations revealed no abnormality. Folley catheter was inserted which showed evidence of hematuria. FAST was unremarkable. A cystogram was done which returned the following picture. Appropriate management of the patient is

3474

Following crystals are noticed in the urine of a patient who presented to surgery emergency with complaints of renal colic, nausea and vomiting preferred management includes all except:

3475

Hernia repair: which statement(s) are correctly matched

3476

Space of BOGROS is related to which of the following hernia

3477

A 55 year old, otherwise healthy, male presented to surgical emergency with complaint of acute retention of urine.He was catheterized. The procedure was uneventful. In due course USG KUB was performed which revealed an enlarged prostate, management of the case would involve (choose the most appropriate answer)

3478

A 58 year old patient underwent TURP and recovered well. 3 year after the surgery, the patient is due to visit his urologist yet again for follow up. He explains to the attending doctor that he is uncomfortable with Digital Rectal examination. The urologist should

3479

A 21 year male presented to emergency room with complaints of severe pain right testis radiating to lower abdomen, upon examination right testis was hanging at a level lower than left testis.Most suitable Management option is

3480

A 52 year old female is being examined for pain abdomen and pain lower back. She underwent A CT scan which shows presence of a 16 mm calculi in the right renal pelvis. Further the following clinical finding was also noticed. The stones can be managed by all of the following except:

3481

Identify the surgery being performed

3482

A 42 year old pedestrian presented to surgery OPD with history of sustaining multiple injuries in a road side accident. He is suspected to have a pelvic fracture. which of the following should be avoided in management of the patient:

3483

Analyze the following image. Pick correct statement(s)

3484

A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery OPD because he has had a life-long problem of day and night urine incontinence. He reports that he can't pee across the bathroom like some of the other boys at school.When he feels the urge to void, he has little warning before urine starts to drain through his urethra. Ultrasound shows evidence of mild hydronephrosis bilaterally. A voiding cystourethrogram shows a dilated posterior (proximal) urethra.Preferred treatment of the condition is

3485

Varicocoele : indication of surgery include

3486

Angiomyolipoma is commonly associated with

3487

False about the picture shown below?

3488

The picture is suggestive of?

3489

Lembert sutures, refer to

3490

Identify the following device

3491

Type IIIA in Nyhus classification of hernia:

3492

An 80-year-old woman with a known history of femoral hernia is admitted to the hospital because of strangulation of the hernia. There is a tender swelling in the right femoral region immediately below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. She has had multiple bowel movements without relief of symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3493

Most common organ to be involved in retroperitoneal fibrosis is:

3494

Pathologies in which of the organ can be assessed by per cussing over traube space:

3495

Numerator of Pearl Index is

3496

The number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to

3497

Probability of accepting a null hypothesis when actually it is false is

3498

The age group in which acute flaccid paralysis surveillance is done is

3499

Arrange the following phases of disaster cycle in logical sequence

3500

One PHC is established per ______ population in Tribal areas

3501

Which statement about National Tuberculosis elimination Programme is correct?

3502

In a study the median value was found to be 200 and Standard deviation was 20.68 percent of observations will have value between

3503

A study began in 2000 with a group of 2000 individuals who were asked about dietary fat consumption. The occurrence of coronary heart disease was studied in this group from 2010–2015. This is an example of

3504

Which of the following study design have only people who are initially free of disease?

3505

Extended sickness benefit under ESI act is for

3506

The disease spread by the following vector

3507

Identify the correct match of the dust particle with the disease

3508

ROME Scheme was the recommendation of

3509

Sullivan index

3510

Man power at subcenter includes

3511

Human Development Index does not include

3512

Most common vitamin deficiency seen post disaster is

3513

Odds ratio between oral contraceptive pills and thromboembolism can be

3514

TNM staging of cancer is _________ data and can be measured on _________ scale

3515

Identify the contraceptive given in image

3516

SUMAN is

3517

Incorrect statement about scrub typhus is

3518

Vaccine associated Paralytic Poliomyelitis is mostly observed due to which of the following isolate type strain?

3519

Which one of the following oil/fat contains high mono-unsaturated fatty acid and moderatelinoleic acid?

3520

Which of the following is a contraindication for BCG vaccination in a newborn?

3521

RashtriyaBalSwasthyaKaryakram (RBSK) attempts to identify all of the following deficienciesin children in the age group 0–18 years EXCEPT:

3522

A woman delivers a healthy baby with weight 2.2 kg at the time of birth. What measures are tobe taken?

3523

Open vial policy applies to which one of the following vaccines?

3524

The following is true about prevalence and incidence

3525

Following statement is true in relation to given image

3526

Birth rate is high and death rate is high. Population is in which stage?

3527

Sanitary napkin launched at subsidized rate in August 2019 is

3528

Among a 100 women with average Hb of 10 gm%, the standard deviation was 1, what is the standard error?

3529

The fat content in toned milk is

3530

Gown from Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) is discarded in

3531

New born Stabilization unit are established at the level of

3532

Gestational Hypertension is coded as ______ color under Pradhan MantriSurakshitMatritvaYojana

3533

Maximum tolerated dose of a new drug is evaluated in

3534

Complete interruption of transmission of a disease in a geographical area though organism still persists in the environment is known as

3535

Patient is on psychotherapy, what is the level of prevention?

3536

A 3 year old child presents to OPD with history of complete vaccination till 1 year of age. Last year due to implementation of lockdown the child could not receive the due immunization. The correct step in management of this child is

3537

Which of the following is true for the following type of distribution?

3538

Kishori Shakti Yojana has been designed to improve nutritional status of

3539

The test done to determine rifampicin resistance in National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme is

3540

A young male presents to PHC with painful multiple genital ulcers. He has no other complaints like burning micturition, discharge or inguinal swelling. Which color kit under Suraksha clinic should be administered to him?

3541

Which of the following vaccine is made up of OKA strain?

3542

Calculate the dependency ratio for a community, where 30% of the population is below 15 years of age and 10% of population is over 65 years of age

3543

A group of 6 experts discussing and interacting about COVID–19 for public awareness is

3544

Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan is for

3545

The following is app logo of which national health programme?

3546

Which of the following is not a feature for vector of malaria

3547

The reference weight of male and female as per recent guidelines is

3548

Which among the following is the most common cause for blindness in the age group of 0–49 years?

3549

Theme for World Health Day 2021 is

3550

According to Factories Act, 1948, a safety officer should be employed if the workers are more than

3551

Elimination of leprosy is defined as the prevalence of

3552

The organism which is least likely to be associated with malignancies is

3553

Indicator for pregnancy wastage is

3554

Which among the following disease has been recently added to national health programme for prevention and control of cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases and stroke (NPCDCS)?

3555

The recommended dietary folate per day for lactating women is

3556

The family which lags behind as compared to other families is

3557

6x6x6 strategy is for prevention and treatment of

3558

PANKH abhiyan is component of

3559

In a tribal subcenter the crude birth rate was recorded as 30/1000 population. The total number of still births/abortions recorded would be

3560

Global vision 2020 does not include

3561

Elimination of mother to child transmission of HIV/AIDS is by

3562

The correct statement among the following is

3563

Study the following figure and identify A and B respectively

3564

The best parameter to measure air pollution is

3565

Kangaroo mother care helps in preventing

3566

All of the following facilities are provided under Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram except

3567

All are primordial prevention strategies against Coronary Heart disease except

3568

If a study shows that among smokers, 80% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking, it is indicative of

3569

According to IMNCI, a 6 month old child is said to have pneumonia if the child has fast breathing with a respiratory rate

3570

Free and combined chlorines in water are separately identified by

3571

Time lag between first possible detection and usual time of diagnosis is

3572

Sensitivity measures

3573

Beneficiaries in India can register for Covid vaccination through

3574

The most insanitary method of waste disposal is

3575

Match the scientists with their discoveries and select the correct option

3576

Sustainable development Goal-3 is

3577

The following are provided for free in NRHM under which brand name

3578

Which of the following is the route for administration for the Japanese Encephalitis vaccine

3579

ABSULS is

3580

Sampling technique used to evaluate immunization coverage in India is

3581

Which among the following is not correct about ASHA?

3582

The age group covered for annual deworming in India is

3583

WHO global target for prevention of non-communicable disease by 2025, is to decrease insufficient physical activity by

3584

Village Health Nutrition Day is observed

3585

Manual Vaccuum Aspiration (MVA) that has been introduced recently in primary health center helps in reducing which of the following indices?

3586

Which of the following screening methods for disease is least useful?

3587

Global hunger index combines three equally weighted indicators except

3588

SAANS is an inititative to reduce the deaths due to

3589

Disability Limitation is mode of intervention for

3590

Infant mortality does not include:

3591

Restriction of movement of healthy contact of an infectious disease is

3592

A study was undertaken to assess the anemia among adolescent girls. A sample of 200 girls from rural areas and 300 girls from urban areas was selected. Out of these, 80 girls from rural and 150 girls from urban areas were found to be anemic. The statistical test used to compare the data is?

3593

The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called

3594

Prevalence of Leprosy at one point of time can be known by

3595

The most common sequelae following traumatic shoulder dislocation in an 18-year-old man is:

3596

Posterior translation of the humeral head is associated with which of the following arthritic etiologies:

3597

A goalkeepr of football team suffered injury in a dive, his team members noticed that he was clutching his right shoulder and appeared to be in pain. He refused to let anyone move his right arm from its current position of slight abduction and external rotation, also the front of his shoulder appears full and that the acromion is prominent in comparison with the contralateral side. He has a strong radial pulse, and sensation to light touch is intact throughout the whole extremity. An antero-posterior (AP) radiograph of the shoulder is obtained. Ideal treatment of the patient is

3598

On a busy day in orthopaedics emergency unit of a tertiary care hospital, 3 patients are received with shoulder joint dislocation; one is a college student, 17 years of age, other a shopkeeper 45 years of age, a habitual smoker and occasional drinker, while the third patient is a 62 years old monk. All of them were managed by closed reduction and discharged promptly. All other factors remaining constant, which of the following has maximum chances of sustaining a recurrent dislocation of the shoulder?

3599

A 33-year-old male patient is brought to the causality department after a sustained axial loading on a flexed knee joint in a high-speed car crash.  On examination, his right lower extremity is slightly flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. He should undergo closed reduction within 6 hours to prevent

3600

A 10-year-old boy has been brought to orthopaedic emergency after he developed a swollen and painful right knee. The boy describes recurrent episodes of pain and swelling in his knees and shoulders over the last year or so. He cannot remember any history of trauma. The boy has painful, tensely swollen, warm and diffusely tender knee and shoulder joints. He also has multiple bruises over his legs and arms. Likely cause of the condition is

3601

A teenage boy presents to orthopaedics OPD with a swelling around the mid shaft of his femur. His also complaints of tiredness and intermittent fevers over the last few weeks. On examination, a tender mass is noticed in mid-thigh. The mass is firm and appears to be well fixed to the underlying muscle. There are no neurological or vascular deficits to the leg. Initial investigations reveal elevated white blood cells (WBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anaemia. Likely diagnosis

3602

Analyse the image presented below. A 66 year old female sustained the fracture as described below. most common complication would be

3603

Analyse the image presented below: The surgery is performed for correcting which of the following condition

3604

65 year old presented to orthopaedics opd with chronic knee pain. He has not been able to seek medical attention for a while now. X-rays were taken which returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis

3605

The following typical deformity is present in which condition

3606

Analyse the image presented below. The following typical finding is seen in which condition

3607

The following test detects inflammation of

3608

Sausage fingers are seen in

3609

Analyse the image below, the typical finding is seen in

3610

The following test being performed is

3611

The following patients requires

3612

The following patient suffers from

3613

Typical radiological changes of scurvy are seen at

3614

Common sites of nonunion are

3615

Myositis ossifcans: most common joint to be affected is

3616

Fat embolism is more common in

3617

Crush injury: management includes all of the following except:

3618

Earliest reliable sign in case of compartment syndrome is

3619

Most common cause of psedo-arthosis is

3620

Tuberculosis: which of the following type is commonest

3621

The following image shows a typical finding, which is seen in

3622

Which of the following collagen is predominatly defective in osteogenesis imperfect

3623

Pancytopenia may occur in

3624

Osteoporosis: fractures most commonly involve

3625

Infantile cortical hyperostosis is known as

3626

Ankylosing spondylitis : pick incorrect

3627

Serious complications of ankylosing spondylitis is

3628

Most common benign bone tumour is

3629

A 71-year-old man presented with a 6-month history of bony hard swelling and pain in his right hand, after minor direct trauma to the hand. X-ray revealed a lytic lesion of 4th metacarpal. Histology was ordered, which revealed adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Most likely site for primary tumour can be:

3630

Amongst the following metastasis are least common in

3631

Most common and 2nd most common complication of colles fracture is

3632

The following long term complication may be seen in

3633

The following mechanism of injury can damage

3634

Identify the following long standing cystic swelling, present at its most commonly found location

3635

Investigation of choice for perthes disease

3636

A 61 year old woman complained of pain and stiffness in right hip and visited a general practitioner, who ordered x-ray pelvis, which was found essentially normal, a diagnosis of hip sprain was made and patient advised NSAIDS and some exercises. Her condition deteriorated and she visited orthopedician, x-rays depicted marked destruction of femoral head and acetabulum. Aspiration revealed staphylococcus aureus. Definitive management for this patient would be:

3637

A 63 year old man fell from his bicycle and presented to emergency room with complaint of painful right shoulder. His general physical examination revealed no external injuries or neurological deficit. However his clavicle was found to be medially elevated and patient had some difficulty in abduction of the affected limb. The line of management shall be:

3638

A 17-year-old male presented with increasing pain in the left upper arm of approximately 3 months duration and a recent onset of low-grade fever. On physical examination, there was some local tenderness and soft tissue swelling over the proximal and mid thirds of the left humerus. Plain radiograph shows a large ill-defined, destructive, diaphyseal intramedullary lesion. Most likely diagnosis is:

3639

A 39-year-old female gave a 2-month history of increasing pain in her knee. There was no evidence of joint effusion. Laboratory work-up showed normal serum levels of calcium, phosphate and alkaline phosphatase. Plain radiograph demonstrated a well-defined, lytic lesion eccentrically located in the distal femoral epiphysis. Most likely diagnosis is

3640

A 27-year-old male presented with chronic, dull pain and some soft tissue swelling along the antero-lateral surface of the left lower leg. Plain film shows a large, cortically based, radiolucent lesion partially surrounded by a rim of sclerotic bone, and two smaller lesions of similar appearance. Most liley diagnosis is:

3641

A sportsman fell from directly on his thumb leading to forceful palmer and radial abduction:  on examination, the patient had tenderness over ulnar aspect of joint. X-ray were promptly performed, which were found to be normal. Likely diagnosis is

3642

A 17 year old rickshaw puller presented in orthopaedics OPD with complaint of persistent back ache. Patient also reports history of loss of weight over last one year. His general physical examination revealed asthenic built and anaemia. Local examination revealed the spine being held in rigid posture and coin test was found to be positive. Investigations were performed and a probable diagnosis was reached at. Most appropriate management offered by the attending clinicians would be:

3643

A 34 year old domestic help was brought to orthopaedics OPD by her employers with complaints of persistent back pain. Here general physical examination was unremarkable except for iron deficiency anaemia. Blood tests were performed which revealed a significantly high ESR of around 40 mm first hour WG. X-rays were performed which revealed loss of curvature of spine and reduction of intervertebral disc spaces. Likely diagnosis is:

3644

A teenager in a remote Indian village suffers a fall from his cycle and sustains a fracture, which is promptly attended by a general practitioner posted at dispensary. He however is advised to visit an orthopedician. The boy is later diagnosed to be suffering from a fracture of the humerus in its distal third. He now complains that he is unable to extend the wrist. Which of the following structures was most likely damaged?

3645

A 30-year-old man while attempting to ward off a robber sustains a stab injury in the arm. Upon examination, his vitals are stable, there is no evidence suggesting a vascular injury. He is stabilized, given pain killers and reexamined after 2 hours, when it was noticed that he cannot flex his three lateral (radial) digits. Most likely injury sustained is by

3646

A college student presents to orthopedician’s clinic with complaints of dull, aching pain in his right thigh after jogging during the past nine months. He visited college dispensary where he was advised diclofenac, which relieves the pain but it reoccurs after a while. Any history suggestive of direct trauma could not be elicited. Physical examination too did not show any abnormalities of the right lower extremity. X-ray were ordered, which showed cortical thickening of the distal one-third of the shaft of femur with a central nidus.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3647

A 62 year old patient complains of recent onset hip pain for which he visits a general practitioner. A detailed general physical examination is carried out whereby he also is diagnosed to be suffering from hearing loss. He is advised blood investigations which reveal threefold rise of serum alkaline phosphatase and a normal serum calcium and serum phosphorus. Most probable diagnosis in this case would be:

3648

DDH: femoral osteotomhy may be required in patients presenting between

3649

Developmental dysplasia of hip is commoner in

3650

Clinical feature of anorexia nervosa may include

3651

Active Principle in cannabis is

3652

A 42-year-old man says that his roommates in his hostel are spying on him by listening to him through television sets. For this reason he has changed room number of times in past 4 years. He also believes that a few of them want to kill him. He dresses strangely, has poor grooming and talks to himself. He says he was not able to talk to the doctor as he was listening to Modi ji talking to him in his head. The symptoms indicate that the patient is most likely suffering from:

3653

A 34-year-old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past 10 years. On evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty. On examination he had shallow breathing, constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?

3654

Mania is characterized by all of the following except

3655

A 21 year Mr. Pankaj complaining since last 3 months that his neighbours are plotting to kill him. He hears voices discussing about him. He had been repeatedly assured by family members that there is no such problem but he strongly believes all these things. Most likely diagnosis is:

3656

Morbid jealousy is most often seen in patients taking

3657

Cataplexy is characterized by

3658

Pseodologia fantastica is characteristically seen in

3659

Sonu, a 5-year-old boy was referred for psychiatric evaluation by a school teacher who reported that Sonu was unable to follow direction, did not communicate well with his classmate and was hyperactive, aggressive. On psychiatric evaluation, it was found that his language skills were poor for his age, I.Q. was 105. His social skills were marked by deficits-in responding facially to the effect of examiner or playing in reciprocally. He appeared to be preoccupied with pendulum clock hanging in the office. The most likely diagnosis is

3660

A 45-year-old woman believed she had no brain, nerves, chest and intestine, that neither God nor the devil exists and she is eternal. This is

3661

A 60 year old man presented to emergency with severe alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the form of tremulousness of body parts, nausea, transient tactile, auditory hallucinations and anxiety. There is no time to carry out investigations even liver function tests. The most appropriate Rx is

3662

A 19-year-old man is brought to emergency by volunteer by homeless shelter. The man claims that he cannot remember who he is. He says that he found himself in Lucknow but he cannot remember where he comes from, the circumstance of his trip, or any other information about his trip. He has neither identification nor money but he has but ticket from Delhi. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

3663

Forgetting whatever was once part of our conscious mind but no longer is: which defense mechanism?

3664

Attachment of a female child sexual interest primarily to her father, accompanied by aggressive feelings towards her mother is called

3665

All of the following are impulse control disorder EXCEPT

3666

Bright Light therapy is used in Treatment of

3667

A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with a temperature of 101 degree F and a large suppurating ulcer on her left shoulder. This is the third such episode for this woman. Her physical exam is otherwise normal, other than the presence of multiple scars on her abdomen. The woman is admitted to the hospital and is observed to be holding her thermometer next to the light bulb to heat it up. When confronted, she angrily denies any such behaviour and signs out of the hospital against medical advice. The patient most likely has which of the following diagnosis?

3668

Child not eating vegetable. His mother starts giving chocolate each time he finishes vegetables in the diet. The condition is

3669

A medical student finds it hard to follow a patient train of thought because he gives very long, complicated explanations and much unnecessary detail before finally answering the original questions. In his report, the medical student writes that the patient displayed:

3670

A female of lower socioeconomic status believes that film actor Shahrukh Khan is in love with her. Whenever she watches his movie, she feels that he is inclined towards her and keeps sending love messages. The diagnosis is

3671

All of the following are features of hallucination, except

3672

Which of the following features differentiates dependence from other forms of substance abuse

3673

A 24-year-old women come to you with C/O that my stomach is rotting out from the inside. She states that for the last 6 months she has been crying on a daily and she also report sadness of mood, lack of interest and that she has lost 10 kg during that time. She is wakes up early in the morning. For the past weeks, she has become convinced that she is dying of cancer and is rotting on the inside of her body. She also complaints of hearing voice calling her name for past 2 weeks when no one is around. Diagnosis is

3674

A 20-year-old boy was all right 2 days back. Since then he feels that people are abusing him and he c/o hearing of faint voices when no one around, aggressive behaviour since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. He has no past history of any such episode. Family members also reported that he has been muttering to self. Likely diagnosis is

3675

Pseudodementia is commonly seen in

3676

Which part of brain is involved in narcolepsy

3677

After witnessing a violent argument between her parents, a young woman develops sudden blindness, but does not appear as distraught as would be expected by this development. Her pupils react normally to light, and she manages to somehow avoid obstacles when walking. Her parents, who are in middle of bitter divorce, put aside their difference to focus on their daughter illness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3678

A schizophrenic patient has a history of multiple relapses caused by non-compliance with his antipsychotic medication. Which is the best option for treating this type of patient?

3679

Which medication is used for treatment of nicotine dependence

3680

Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) of brain is used in treatment of

3681

Following are positive features of Schizophrenia except

3682

A 17 year old boy is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the risk that one of his siblings will develop the disease?

3683

A 30-year-old man for last 6 months believes that his wife and boss have an affair; he also thinks that his friend is also involved in this and he provides them support. Otherwise he is wearing good clothes and shining shoes and his interaction with the people is normal

3684

A man feels that his nose is too long; friends feel otherwise. He is consulted 3 plastic surgeons but all have refused to treat him. He suffers from what conditions?

3685

The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioural symptoms

3686

Best drug to treat depression is

3687

A patient c/o sadness of mood, lack of interest, crying spells, pessimistic view of future, lethargy, sleep disturbances and feels that he has committed sins though out life, he contemplated about suicide but has not thought how to do it, he also consulted his spiritual guru. What is the best treatment to this patient

3688

Early morning awakening is seen characteristically in:

3689

A 28-year-old taxi driver is chronically consumed by fears of having accidentally run over a pedestrian. Although he tries to convince himself that his worries are silly, his anxiety continues to mount until he drives back to the scene of the accident and proves to himself that nobody lies hurt in the street. This behaviour is an example of which of the following?

3690

Best treatment for obsessive compulsive neurosis is

3691

Flooding is type of behaviour therapy used in treatment of

3692

A 56-year-old man is brought to the physician clinic by his wife because she has noted a personality change in the past 3 months. While the patient is being interviewed, he answers every questions with the same three words. Which of the following symptoms best fits this patient behaviour?

3693

A 25-year-old female was brought to the casualty after she allegedly attempted suicide, her wrists are slashed. She has a past h/o difficulty in maintaining interpersonal relationships and also recurrent mood function episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3694

An attractive and well–dressed 22-year-old woman is arrested for prostitution, but on being booked at the jail, she is found to actually be a male. The patient tells the consulting physician that he is a female trapped in a male body and he has felt that way since he was a child. He has been taking female hormones and is attempting to find a surgeon who would remove his male genitals and create a vagina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3695

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the psychiatrist because he has difficulty paying attention in school. He fidgets and squirms and will not stay seated in class. At home he is noted to talk excessively and has difficulty waiting for his turn. His language and motor skills are appropriate for his age. Which of the following is most likely this child diagnosis?

3696

A young male is started on high-potency anti-psychotics medication (i.e. injectable Haloperidol of 5 mg twice a day), patient develops tongue protrusion and impaired swallowing, Rx is

3697

First ranks symptoms of Schneider for schizophrenia include all except:

3698

Cause of premature death in schizophrenia?

3699

Vidaan, a 45-year-old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaining of continuous, dull, non-progressive headache for the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerus neurologists in the belief that he has a brain tumor even though all his investigations have been normal. The patient insisted that he had brain tumor and requested yet another workup. Psychiatry evaluation reveals disease conviction in the background of normal investigations. The most probable diagnosis is

3700

A 20 years old athlete develops acute onset chest pain. There is history of sudden cardiac death in his young sibling. A transthoracic echocardiography suggests left ventricular hypertrophy with preserved ejection fraction. Which of the features listed is a recognised risk factor for sudden cardiac death?

3701

A 16-year-old male presents with acute severe asthma. On examination his peripheral pulse volume fell during inspiration. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this clinical sign?

3702

A 58-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia on thioridazine is found to have episodes of Torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia (VT). His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

3703

On physical examination of a 42-year-old man you find a jerky pulse. Which of the following conditions is most associated with a jerky pulse?

3704

What is troponin?

3705

A 54-year-old male re-develops chest pain 72 hours after treatment for an anterior myocardial infarction. Which of the following markers will be the most sensitive in detecting reinfarction?

3706

A 57-year-old man develops deep venous thrombosis during a hospitalisation for prostatectomy. He exhibits decreased mental status with right hemiplegia, and a CT scan of the head suggests an acute cerebral infarction in the distribution of the left middle cerebral artery. A chest x ray reveals cardiac enlargement and prominence of the main pulmonary arteries that suggests pulmonary hypertension. His serum troponin I is less than 0.4 ng/ml. Which of the following lesions is most likely to be present on echocardiography?

3707

A 57-year-old male is admitted with acute dyspnoea and chest pain. A pulmonary embolism (PE) is confirmed. Which of the following is a recognised feature of a significant pulmonary embolism?

3708

In Down syndrome, which is the most common congenital heart defect?

3709

A 52-year-old man attends a well man clinic. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His investigations reveal that he has a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 7.8 percent or 62 mmol/mol (range 3.8-6.4 percent; 18-46 mmol/mol) and his cholesterol concentration is 5.5 mmol/L (less than 5.2). Which of the following would be expected to be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular risk?

3710

A 70-year-old known hypertensive and diabetic patient presents with dyspnoea on moderate exertion. On examination he is pale, pulse rate is 98/min regular, BP is 160/70 mmHg and there are fine basal crepitations in the lungs. ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy and renal functions were slightly deranged. What is the most appropriate treatment for cardiac failure in this patient?

3711

A 36-year-old patient with hypertension presents following an unplanned pregnancy. Her blood pressure has been modestly controlled on amlodipine 5 mg and ramipril 2.5 mg over the past five years, with the diagnosis of essential hypertension following a thorough screen for secondary causes. She wishes to proceed with the pregnancy. Her current blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. What next step would you take?

3712

A 55-year-old man presents with severe dyspnoea with tachycardia and clinical examination raises the possibility that pericardial disease may be the cause. Which of the following clinical features would favour cardiac tamponade rather than constrictive pericarditis?

3713

A 35-year-old lady at 14 weeks gestation is found to have a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. Her father is known to have hypertension. Electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates features of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the most likely diagnosis?

3714

A 16-year-old male is brought to emergency admissions with alcohol intoxication. An initial electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals atrial fibrillation (AF) but a repeat ECG after 12 hours when he has sobered up, shows sinus rhythm. An echocardiogram is normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

3715

A 16-year-old boy is admitted after a blackout at the dentist. His mother describes how he blacked out as the dentist began performing a filling and that he jerked his arms a few times and was then incontinent. He awoke after a minute or so and was oriented but nauseous. There were no similar episodes in the past and he is totally unaware of what happened. Examination was normal and his ECG was normal. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3716

A 69-year-old woman presented with an ulcer over the left ankle, which had developed over the previous nine months. She had a history of right deep vein thrombosis (DVT) five years previously. On examination she had a superficial slough-based ulcer, 6 cm in diameter, over the medial malleolus with no evidence of cellulitis. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next investigation?

3717

A 68-year-old man has been very ill for months following the onset of chronic liver disease with hepatitis C infection. He experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and then exhibits hemiplegia on the right. A cerebral angiogram reveals lack of perfusion in the left middle cerebral artery distribution. What is the most likely cardiac lesion to be associated with this finding?

3718

A 35-year-old healthy woman has a faint systolic murmur on physical examination. An echocardiogram is performed, and she is found to have a bicuspid aortic valve. In explaining the meaning of this finding to her, which is the most appropriate statement?

3719

An elderly man with a history of asthma, congestive heart failure, and peptic ulcer disease is admitted with bronchospasm and rapid atrial fibrillation. He is given nebulised salbutamol frequently, a loading dose of oral digoxin, and oral prednisolone. His regular medications are continued. 24 hours after admission his plasma potassium is noted to be 2.8 mmol/l. Which of his medications is most likely to have caused this abnormality?

3720

Which of the following mechanisms best explains the action of fibrates?

3721

Which of the following mechanisms best explains the action of simvastatin?

3722

A 70-year-old man is admitted to the cardiology ward with a diagnosis of Streptococcus bovis infective endocarditis. Which of the following investigations would be indicated?

3723

A 62-year-old male is admitted with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and receives thrombolysis, aspirin, atenolol, simvastatin and lisinopril. His ECG shows good ST segment resolution. The following day he develops some pain in the legs and a dusky discolouration of the lower limbs. On closer examination there is a diffuse petechial rash over the lower legs, particularly the feet, but all peripheral pulses are palpable. Investigations reveal: Which of the following is the most likely cause for his current problems?

3724

A 67-year-old male is admitted with central chest pain of sudden onset which radiates through to his back. His blood pressure is 160/70 mmHg in his right arm and 140/60 mmHg in his left arm. He has electrocardiographic (ECG) changes in leads II, III and AVF showing ST elevation of 2 mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3725

A 52-year-old man attends a well man clinic. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His investigations reveal that he has a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 7.8 percent or 62 mmol/mol (range 3.8-6.4 percent; 18-46 mmol/mol) and his cholesterol concentration is 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2). Which of the following would be expected to be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular risk?

3726

An 80-year-old male presented with palpitations of five hours duration. One month previously he suffered weakness of the right arm and problems with his speech which resolved within four hours. He was taking no medication. On examination, he was stable with a pulse of 135 beats per minute which was confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on ECG. He had a blood pressure of 112/80 mmHg and appeared clinically euthyroid. Within one hour he reverted to sinus rhythm spontaneously. Echocardiogram was normal but a 24-hour ECG revealed three episodes of atrial fibrillation each lasting around ten minutes. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

3727

A 63-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with a three-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. Her family tell you she has been virtually unable to eat or drink, but has managed to take her tablets during that time. Her past medical history includes essential hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her current medication consists aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 5 mg daily, simvastatin 40 mg daily. Her admission bloods demonstrate:

3728

A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic having problems controlling his blood pressure, despite taking three anti-hypertensive agents, ramipril 10 mg, indapamide 2.5 mg, and amlodipine 5 mg. Over the past few weeks he has been monitoring his BP at home and it is rarely below 155/90 mmHg. On examination in the clinic his BP is 160/95 mmHg, his pulse is 85 and regular. He has a left carotid bruit. Respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Investigation shown given below: Renal ultrasound scan showed significant size discrepancy, with the left kidney 2 cm smaller than the right. Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation?

3729

A 72-year-old man with a history of oesophageal carcinoma is recovering on the surgical ward after oesophagogastrectomy. You are asked to see him because he has developed worsening central chest pain, looks pale and sweaty and has dropped his blood pressure to 100/55 mmHg with a pulse of 92. He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of the chest. Investigations show:

3730

Which of the following mechanisms best explains the action of OMACOR (omega-3-acid ethyl esters)?

3731

A 60-year-old man has left ventricular failure and clinically he is classified as NYHA Class III. He takes furosemide, aspirin and ramipril. The addition of which one of the following betablockers would be expected further to improve his prognosis?

3732

A 48-year-old man presents with acute coronary syndrome. On examination he has palmar crease xanthoma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of his lipid abnormalities?

3733

A 62-year-old male who is being treated for stable angina presents with muscle aches and pains. He has been taking simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily together with aspirin 75 mg daily for approximately two years. Recently he was admitted for an episode of acute coronary syndrome and a number of other therapies were added. You suspect a statin-related myopathy and a CPK concentration is 820 iu/l (50-200). Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for the precipitation of his statin-related myopathy?

3734

A 72-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presented following the sudden onset of palpitations. An ECG revealed rapid atrial fibrillation. He was commenced on amiodarone but the atrial fibrillation persisted. Which of the following has been shown to be of greatest benefit in reducing his future risk of vascular events?

3735

A 40 year-old bank manager underwent an antrectomy and vagotomy for a bleeding ulcer. He was advised a diet plan which contained instructions to increase more dietary fibres. The purpose of such a diet plan is to

3736

As a part of management of bleeding gastric ulcer, a 42 year old male underwent subtotal gastrectomy. After a few years, he developed microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Optimum management to treat this condition is

3737

A 44 year old female suffered from peptic ulcer, which was confirmed by endoscopy. She was treated with proton pump inhibitors. However after initial relief, her symptoms returned. Thereafter she was reassessed. Her gastrin levels were mildly raised. Further assessment may require stimulation with

3738

An elderly male is referred to surgery emergency from a smaller health facility. The patient has a bleeding duodenal ulcer which could not be managed by medical measures in the referring health facility. Next best step in the management of the patient is

3739

An elderly female is referred from medicine OPD with complaints of paresthesias in the limbs. Apart from dyspepsia, she denies any specific gastric symptoms. On Examination, there is loss of vibratory sense, positional sense, and sense of light touch in the lower limbs. Her vitamin B12 levels are 120picograms/ml .Further her upper GI endoscopy reveals an ulcer in stomach. She has been selective COX 2 inhibitors off and on for her knee pain for last 6 months. Likely diagnosis

3740

A 66-year-old retired bus conductor presents with dysphagia, which has become progress sively worse during the last 5 years. He also complains of a lump on the left side of his neck and occasional gurgling sounds during swallowing. He sometimes regurgitates food during eating. He is advised surgery, because apart from risk of acute events there is increased risk of which one of the following in due course of disease

3741

A middle aged male was being evaluated for dysphagia and chest pain. A barium swallow study was done which returned the following picture. Condition commonly associated with this pathology is?

3742

A 54 year old, nonsmoker, nonalcoholic male presents to surgery OPD with history of intermittent dysphagia. He is a strict vegetarian denies and also denies any history of weight loss. On barium follow through study a stricture is noticed at lower end of oesophagus. Lilkely treatment to be offered to this patient?

3743

A 62-year-old man presents with excruciating chest pain. The pain follows an episode of forceful vomiting that occurred after a bout of alcohol and a heavy meal. Examination shows subcutaneous emphysema. Which set of finding can be commonly noticed on X-ray chest

3744

The following surgical equipment is useful for

3745

A 48 year old male suffering from HIV presents to surgery OPD with complaints of severe odynophagia. He also claims to have lost 7 kgs of weight over last 4 months. Barium swallow study was done which returned the following picture. Preferred treatment of the condition is?

3746

After Laparoscopic surgery for hiatus hernia, patient developed pneumothorax. His post operative recovery though was uneventful. Appropriate management is

3747

A 53-year-old male has typical symptoms of GERD refractory to medical management and is referred to your clinic to discuss surgical options. He has previously had a distal pancreatectomy/splenectomy from a gunshot wound and three subsequent laparotomies for adhesive bowel obstruction. What surgical option is preferable here?

3748

A 62-year-old female presents with a 5-day history of right lower quadrant abdominal pain and nausea. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen and pelvis shows perforated appendicitis with a 4-cm abscess. She was started on broad-spectrum antibiotics and underwent percutaneous drainage of the abscess. In 72 h she was afebrile, and her leukocytosis and symptoms had resolved. What should the next treatment step be?

3749

A 27-year-old man is suspected of having acute appendicitis. On physical examination his abdomen is soft and non-distended. He does not have pain with coughing or reproduction of tenderness in the right lower quadrant when palpated in the left lower quadrant. He experiences pain with passive rotation of his right hip in a flexed position. Where do you suspect the location of the tip of his appendix to be?

3750

A 40 year old man presented to surgery emergency room with complaint of severe pain abdomen. After initial resuscitation and detailed history taking, it was revealed that patient had been diagnosed with crohn disease a few years back. He however did not follow the medication regimen. X-ray abdomen erect view revealed air under the diaphragm. Exploratory laparotomy was done. Ileal perforation was noticed. Ileal resection was done in view of fibrosis. However following surgery the patient developed persistent fever and abdominal pain. CT scan revealed heterogenous fluid collection in pelvis. preferred management of the condition is

3751

Intra abdominal Swelling shown in the following picture shows

3752

A middle aged male developed atrial fibrillation and severe pain abdomen. The pain worsened and warranted further investigation. X ray abdomen revealed free air under diaphragm. During surgery large segment of gangrenous bowel was noticed which had to be resected. In the post-operative period which of the following may be helpful

3753

A 60 year old man is wheeled in to surgery emergency by rescue workers after his car met a severe accident.  On arrival the patient was found to be conscious, but very anxious. His blood pressure was found to be 90/60 mmHg, Heart rate 110 per minute. Patient also had tachypnoea. His neck veins were found engorged. Further his heart sound was muffled. The structure most likely to be injured is

3754

A 67 year old smoker and chronic alcoholic male, developed carcinoma rectum. After all the necessary investigations, He was operated upon and a low anterior resection was performed. Surgery was uneventful. During the night the ward nurse noticed patient developing hypotension and tachycardia. The likely cause could be any of the following except

3755

A 23-year-old asthenically built inmate of a de addiction centre is being evaluated for symptoms of postprandial epigastric pain, fullness, nausea, and vomiting. His physical examination is unremarkable except for thin physique/stature. Barium upper GI series showed a dilated duodenum and stomach with minimal flow of barium into the jejunum. Which of the following is the operative management of choice for this patient condition?

3756

A 35 year old insurance agent noticed bleeding per rectum which started at the time of straining. He described it as splash in the pan. H e was diagnosed to be suffering from internal haemorrhoids and was provided the following treatment on OPD basis. Most likely the grade of his haemorrhoids would be?

3757

A 30-year-old office clerk with a history of Crohn disease is noted to have several extra intestinal manifestations. He presented to surgery OPD with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. During evaluation he is found to have a segment of thickened ileum causing obstruction. Surgery was performed and the affected segment of bowel had to be removed. Which of the extra intestinal manifestations are likely to improve after surgery

3758

A 5 year old child was brought to surgery emergency with complaints of bleeding per rectum. Technetium scan was done which confirmed the presence of meckel diverticulum. Management is

3759

A 55-year-old shopkeeper presents to surgery OPD with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and significant weight loss.  As a part of evaluation, a barium meal study was done with small bowel follow-through, which identified a mass in his mid-ileum.  Later the mass was confirmed as carcinoid by frozen section, intra operatively. Which statement is true regarding his condition?

3760

Management of the following condition is all except:

3761

A 40 year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain of 6 hour duration. She is conscious but anxious. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 116 beats per minute, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute. On examination board-like rigidity, guarding, and rebound tenderness of abdomen are noticed. Initiation of fluid resuscitation was done. What diagnostic study is most optimal to precede and establish a working diagnosis

3762

A 52-year-old government employee underwent surgery for duodenal ulcer disease. Hospital stay was uneventful. However shortly after starting normal diet, the patient developed severe diarrhea with as much as 15 bowel movements a day. Medications offered little relief. What surgical procedure was most likely performed?

3763

A 42-year-old woman presents to surgery OPD with 2 months history of dyspepsia, early satiety and weight loss. She has been unsuccessfully treated by proton pump inhibitors for 2 weeks. An endoscopy was advised which revealed an inconspicuous oesophagus. Giant folds in the whole stomach were also noticed which show no signs of tumor growth. Further, the duodenum is normal. The stomach cannot be unfolded after insufflation during endoscopy. Likely diagnosis

3764

A 62 year old man suffering from achalasia cardia, was being managed on medications. He later chose to undergo pneumatic dilatation for longer lasting relief. As per operative surgeon, the procedure went uneventful. However 6 hours later the patient developed acute chest pain, fever and tachycardia. Next investigation should be

3765

A 44 year old male presents to causality with complaints of pain abdomen and obstipation for one day. As a part of his workup, a CT scan was done which returned the following picture. Likely cause is

3766

A 39 year old male presents to surgery emergency with complaints of severe abdominal pain, fulminant diarrhea and tensemus. He was resuscitated using IV fluids. Management options include all of the following except

3767

A 54-year-old man is being assessed for colicky abdominal pain and occasional no bilious emesis. There is no history of fever. There is past history of melanoma that was resected from his arm a few years ago. His TLC is not raised. X-ray abdomen is performed which reveals an elongated soft tissue mass. What is the next best step in this patient management?

3768

A mother notices that her newborn baby boy is drooling excessively; on feeding him, he swallows normally, but moments later starts to cough and appears to choke on the milk, which is brought up through his nose. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3769

A 62 year old retired bank officer, non-alcoholic, non-smoker, presents to surgery OPD with complaints of gastroesophageal reflux. She is being treated with cap omeprazole once a day for 6 weeks, but her regurgitation has been ever increasing. She is a diabetic and being treated on oral hypoglycemic agents for last 15 years. Her BMI is 38. Likely diagnosis

3770

A 37-year-old male was admitted with a perforated duodenal ulcer. At laparotomy he was found to have a perforation at the posterior part of the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following anatomical structures lies just posterior to this?

3771

A 42 year old railway station announcement clerk, presents to surgical OPD with complaints of difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. He is maintaining normal weight and no other abnormality are noticed. Initial investigation in this case should be

3772

A 65 year old male presents with complaints of pain epigastrium and generalized weakness.  The pain subsides transiently with antacids and NSAIDs, but reappears later. Investigations were done which revealed patient having microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Patient reports having no long term relief with proton pump inhibitor therapy. Appropriate Next investigation should be

3773

For the patient in the above mentioned question, as and when the endoscopy was planned, it showed an ulcerated 3 cm lesion with irregular borders about 5cms distal to gastro-oeosphageal junction. Next treatment should be

3774

A 50 year old policeman reports to your OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heartburn after meals. His weight has increased considerably during last few years. His medical history and family history are unremarkable. However personal history reveals that he has been drinking about 60gms equivalent of alcoholic drinks every day. Preferred treatment for this patient would be

3775

A motorcyclist sustained blunt trauma abdomen in a road side accident and was brought to causality by passerbyes. FAST was done and splenic injury was confirmed, followed by immediate laparotomy. The surgeon however decides to put in a drain. Best place to place the drain in such cases would be

3776

The following radiological sign is seen in which condition

3777

Typical age of presentation of the below mentioned condition is

3778

45 year old rickshaw puller presents to surgery OPD with complaints of low grade fever associated with loss of appetite and weight loss. Barium enema was done which shows the following picture. Identify the typical appearance

3779

Most common type of fistula in ano is

3780

Tumours present in the mentioned triangular area are_____

3781

Most common clinical feature of the this condition is

3782

A 65 years old patient, on treatment for bipolar disorders develops obstipation, vomiting. His blood pressure is 146/90 mm hg, HR is 104/minute. Clinician also notices massive abdominal distention. Likely cause is

3783

A 55 year old patient presents with dysphagia, both to solids and liquids. Barium swallow was done which shows the following findings. Preferred next step in management is

3784

A 69-year-old woman is awaiting surgery for a total hip replacement. She reports severe abdominal pain and nausea. She is currently taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication for pain relief. Select the single best diagnosis?

3785

While evaluating a middle aged patient for dysphagia, as a part of complete examination, the patient is asked to protrude tongue out. Characteristic appearance is noted as below. Likely disease which the patient is suffering from?

3786

A patient suffering from a systemic disease presented with pain abdomen. As a part of management, Barium meal study was sone Analyse the following typical appearance. Amongst the following, most likely the patient is suffering from

3787

Identify CT findings in patient presenting with recurrent diarrhea

3788

An elderly patient presents with complaint of bleeding per rectum. PR examination revealed a mass in rectum. Patient reports no other symptom at the moment. Next the patient should be advised

 

3789

A 38 year old female with history of laparoscopic gastric banding positioning five years earlier, presented to surgery OPD with complaints of decreased food intake, vomiting and sudden weight loss since 3 weeks. Laboratory values show evidence of dehydration and malnutrition, specifically hypokalemia (2.5 mmol/L). X ray was taken which returned with following picture. The complication which the patient is suffering from

3790

The following clinical investigation has

3791

A 38 year old shopkeeper, a chronic smoker was diagnosed to be suffering from buerger disease. He was advised lumbar sympathectomy. The surgery went uneventful. However after surgery patient complains of groin pain, paresthesias, and burning sensation spreading from the lower abdomen to the medial aspect of the thigh. Which of the structures may have been damaged?

3792

A 46 year old traffic constable presented to surgical OPD with complaints of constant dull ache in both his calf muscles, which gets worse by evening. He was found to be suffering from varicose veins and dilated veins similar to the veins being shown in following image were noticed. For documentation purpose,  what is the correct code of the condition according to CEAP classification of varicose veins.

3793

A 24 year old female presents to surgery OPD with history of low grade fever, myalgia and upper limb claudication. Off the following most likely she is suffering from

3794

During ongoing covid 19 pandemic, an obese 41 year old alcoholic male suffered a bout of pancreatitis and had to be hospitalized. He however tested negative for covid 19 on 2 different occasions. Upon admission, his condition gradually improved and he was shifted out of ICU after 2 days. Later while being nursed in general ward, he complained of pain in his calf muscles which precluded his ambulation. On examination both his lower limbs were found to be edematous and mild tenderness was also noticed in his calf muscles. which of the following investigations may act as a screening investigation before other relevant investigations can be carried out

3795

Identify the following muscle. This muscle plays an important role in pathogenesis of a neurovascular syndrome. Which is a feature of this muscle?

3796

Analyse the angiography appearance in a 4year old male (Aorta and its branches). Choose the likely clinical features present in the patient

3797

Which of the clinical investigation is being performed in the following image

3798

A 12-year-old girl presents with bilateral lower limb swelling. There is pitting oedema to the knee bilaterally. There is no history of trauma and the parents describe her legs as being quite puffy for the last few years. Likely diagnosis

3799

A 40 year old woman is brought to causality in shock. She complains of continous abdominal pain radiating to back. Physical examination reveals a rigid abdomen and an expansile abdominal mass. Likely diagnosis

3800

A 61-year-old male smoker presents to your clinic with complaints of posterior calf pain consistently appearing after walking two blocks. This prevents him from performing many of his activities of daily living, as walking is hisprimary form of transport. Ankle-brachial indices (ABIs) were obtained and were found to be greater than 0.9 bilaterally. What is the most appropriate next step?

3801

A 64-year-old woman complains of right calf pain and swelling. She recently underwent an uncomplicated left hemicolectomy for diverticular disease. A duplex ultrasound confirms the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the calf. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

3802

A 50-years-old male presented in the emergency with high BP (160/100) and heart rate of 120. A CECT is done which is given below. What is the management of the given below:

3803

False about the test being demonstrated below?

3804

The catheter shown in the picture is used for:

3805

Which of the following surgery is not done for the treatment of this condition

3806

A 72-year-old man complains of bilateral thigh and buttock claudication of several months duration. He was told by his physician that the angiogram revealed findings indicating that he has Leriche syndrome. What does this patient have?

3807

The CEAP classification is a formal system for classifying venous disease based on the Clinical picture, Etiology of the disease, Anatomic distribution, and Pathophysiology of venous disease. A patient with telangiectasias on physical examination of the lower extremity would be classified with which clinical stage?

3808

You are told by your colleague that a 44-year-old woman, who underwent elective right hip replacement, is suspected of having deep vein thrombosis of the left calf. You are asked to carry out a pretest clinical probability score (Wellsscore) and a D-dimer test. Which is the most likely scenario where deep veinthrombosis can be excluded from your list of differential diagnoses?

3809

A 36-year-old multiparous woman, 20-weeks pregnant, presents to surgery OPD with complaint of a persistent, tender left breast mass for last 3 weeks. There is no past history of breast problems and no family history of breast or ovarian cancer, and she previously successfully breast-fed her other children. Physical examination discloses a firm but not hard, slightly tender, discrete 3 x 2 cm mass without any overlying skin changes. The patient came with a recent bilateral mammogram, which showed only dense breast tissue with Out any obvious abnormalities, read as BIRADS 1 Further management should be

3810

The following image is that of ductography performed on a 32 year old female. Most common clinical feature of the condition she is suffering from

3811

A 36 year of female presented to surgery OPD with complaints of breast lump in her left breast. On examination a firm 4 x 5 cms lesion was noticed in her left breast outer upper quadrant. Bilateral axilla was found to be normal. USG breast was advised which returned the following picture. Next step in management should be

3812

A 46 year old woman presents with history of chronic non healing rash involving her left nipple. Rest of the general physical examination and local examination were found to be unremarkable. Mammography was advised, which did not turn out to be informative. Next step in management shall be

3813

A 52 year old male presents to surgery OPD with complaints of neck swelling and stridor. The preferred treatment modality of the condition is

3814

A 52 year old female patient suffering from carcinoma breast has clinical involvement of both level 1 and level II axillary nodes. However both are mobile. Contralateral breast and axilla are found to be normal. Highest possible stage of the disease is

3815

A 43 year old female is operated upon for carcinoma breast affecting her left breast and a modified radical mastectomy was performed. Subsequently she is started on Tamoxifen 20 mg twice a day. She should be explained about the possible side effects of tamoxifen therapy, which include

3816

A 62 year old male theatre actor was diagnosed to be suffering from stage III invasive ductal carcinoma of breast. He underwent modified radical mastectomy. Subsequently Breast reconstruction was done using autologus tissue. Preferred Flap used in such reconstruction is

3817

A 48 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaint of persistent redness involving almost half of her left breast. She took broad spectrum antibiotics for 10 days, but the redness did not reduce.  On, she is clinically afebrile. On Breast examination raised local temperature was found to be raised. However No lump could be noticed on clinical breast examination. Axillary Lymph nodes were found to be enlarged but mobile. Optimum next investigation to confirm the diagnosis

3818

A 46-year-old woman presented to surgery OPD with complaints of a breast lump which she noticed about 4 months back. On clinical examination the lump was freely mobile. Further, no axillary lymph nodes were noticed. A presumptive diagnosis of fibroadenoma was made and the lump was excised. The pathology report shows that the entire lesion consists of glands with very little intervening stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3819

A 36-year-old was advised a mammogram which shows a circumscribed area made-up of soft and lipomatous tissue, surrounded by a thin radiolucent zone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

3820

A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed to be having a 2.5 cm breast cyst. It was aspirated. 3 months later she develops a swelling at the same site. Examination reveals a palpable, tender 2 cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Breast ultrasound shows a smooth outline and no internal echoes or posterior enhancement. What is the most appropriate management in this patient?

3821

A 32 year old female complains chest pain and mastalgia. The pain does not show any relation with menstrual cycle. She also does not report any history of thoracic trauma. On examination a non-supportive, tender swelling of the anterior chest wall is noticed. Management of the condition would include

3822

A 34 year old female underwent breast augmentation surgery. About a year later she presents to surgery OPD with complaints of change in her breast shape and size, and increasing pain, firmness, and swelling over a period of weeks. USG was done which shows snow storm appearance. The likely condition is

3823

A 60-year-old lady comes with blood stained discharge from the nipple with family history of breast cancer. Next best step for her will be:

3824

A 39-year-old patient presents to your office with a left 3.5-cm breast tumor, which on core needle biopsy, is shown to be an invasive ductal cancer. On left axillary examination, she has a hard non fixed lymph node. A biopsy of a left supraclavicular node is positive for malignancy. Her stage is currently classified as?

3825

A 65-year-old woman presents with a large (5-cm) mass in her right breast. On physical exam, there is overlying ulceration of the skin and concern for fixation to the underlying pectoralis muscle. She is noted to have several enlarged, matted axillary lymph nodes on examination. Core biopsy reveals ER-negative, progesterone receptor (PR)-negative, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-negative invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. After staging scans demonstrate no evidence of distant metastatic disease, her management should begin with

3826

A patient operated for direct inguinal hernia developed anesthesia at the root of the penis and adjacent part of the scrotum, the nerve likely to be injured is:

3827

During repair of indirect inguinal hernia, while releasing the constriction at the deep inguinal ring, the surgeon takes care not to damage one of the following structures:

3828

All of the following structures pass through the inguinal canal in females except:

3829

All are true about inguinal canal except:

3830

The inguinal canal is not bounded posteriorly by:

3831

Type IIIA in Nyhus classification of hernia:

3832

Type 7 Gilbert hernia is:

3833

Femoral hernia in Nyhus classification:

3834

Most common type of hernia in females is:

3835

For differentiating inguinal hernia and femoral hernia the landmark will be:

3836

All of the following statements are true about repair of groin hernias except:

3837

The treatment of choice for inguinal hernia in infants is:

3838

On examination of the patient for a hernia, it is useful to realize that:

3839

Which one of the following is not performed in Lichtenstein tension free hernioplasty?

3840

Content of epilocele is:

3841

Triangle of Doom is bounded by all of the following except:

3842

Which of the following statements is false regarding the iliopubic tract?

3843

Least recurrence rate in incisional hernia repair is following:

3844

Hasselbach triangle is bounded by the following, except:

3845

Ilioinguinal nerve is damaged while incising:

3846

Shouldice repair is:

3847

During surgery of hernia, the sac of a strangulated inguinal hernia should be opened at the:

3848

Which is the 1st sign of strangulation of inguinal hernia?

3849

During laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair a tacker was accidently placed below and lateral to the iliopubic tract. Postoperatively the patient complained of pain and soreness in the thigh. This is due to the involvement of:

3850

Most common nerve injured during hernia surgery:

3851

Which structures live immediately lateral to femoral hernia?

3852

Location of the femoral hernia in relation to the public tubercle:

3853

In the treatment of femoral hernia, Lockwood operation refers to:

3854

Medial boundary of femoral ring is formed by:

3855

In Laugier hernia opening is in the:

3856

A patient with femoral hernia can be managed by:

3857

Hernia that lies under the fascia of pectineus muscle is:

3858

Spigelian hernia is:

3859

Spigelian hernia is a defect within the following muscle:

3860

Most common content in Hernia en glissade is:

3861

Most useful investigation in sliding diaphragmatic hernia:

3862

If caecum is involved as a part of the wall of hernia sac and is not its content, then it will be known as:

3863

About lumbar hernia, false statements:

3864

Howship-Romberg sign is seen in:

3865

False about paraduodenal hernia:

3866

After retrocolic gastrojejunostomy, hernia occurring through window in the transverse mesocolon is:

3867

Omphalocele is caused by:

3868

Mayo operation is done for:

3869

Umbilical hernia in a child-indication for surgery is:

3870

Hernia that is least likely to strangulate is:

3871

True regarding gastroschisis is:

3872

The hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is:

3873

The sac contains only a portion of the circumference of the intestine:

3874

Which of the following is content of Littre hernia?

3875

Hernia into pouch of Douglas is?

3876

Hernia with hydrocele is _______ hernia:

3877

Regarding desmoid tumour, true is:

3878

The hernia bounded by the latissimus dorsi muscle, iliac crest, and external oblique muscle is known as:

3879

Which of the following is true regarding femoral hernias?

3880

Which of the following arteries is the main vascular supply for the temporalis myofascial flap?

3881

Plagiocephaly describes the shape of the skull that may result from fusion of which of the following sutures?

3882

A 2-year-old child has recurrent discharge from a sinus in the left lower aspect of the neck at the anterior border ofthe sternocleidomastoid muscle, between the middle and lower third of the muscle. This condition has been presentsince birth. Which of the following nerves will be at greatest risk for injury during surgical excision of the lesion?

3883

A right unilateral cleft lip is most likely to result from incomplete union between which of the following prominences?

3884

A 3-year-old boy has a dermoid cyst at the lateral aspect of the right eyebrow. Although he has no exophthalmosat rest, gentle palpation of the cyst shows indistinct margins and a decrease in size with accompanying proptosis.Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

3885

A 45-year-old man has a 1.5-cm superficial ulcer of the midline of the lower lip. There is no lymphadenopathy onpalpation of the neck. Biopsy shows well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the mostappropriate management?

3886

A 65-year-old woman has a 10-mm smooth pink nodule on the lower eyelid. Histologic analysis of a biopsy specimen confirms a diagnosis of Merkel cell carcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step inmanagement?

3887

Which of the following muscles can be used for reconstruction in a patient with facial paralysis?

3888

A 3-month-old girl has a port-wine stain of the left forehead, periorbital region, and cheek that has not changedsignificantly since birth. She is otherwise healthy. Which of the following is most likely to be anticipated in thispatient?

3889

A 50-year-old man has metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the cervical lymph nodes. Which of the following isthe most likely primary site of the occult tumor?

3890

A neonate has unilateral microtia of the right ear. Examination shows complete absence of all normal externalauricular structures except for a rotated lobule. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

3891

In the classic model of burn wound cytology, the intermediate zone of damaged but potentially salvageable cells iscalled the zone of

3892

A 3-year-old boy has a reddish blue mass on the cheek that appeared as a pale pink macule at birth and has notchanged in size for a year. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

3893

Healthy skin is predominately composed of which two types of collagen protein?

3894

Following placement of a split-thickness skin graft, which of the following sensations returns first?

3895

A 30-year-old man who repairs electrical lines for a utility company is brought to the emergency department fortreatment of an electrical injury to the right upper extremity. Examination shows limited full-thickness burns of theflexor creases of the palm, wrist, and elbow. Doppler flowmetry shows patent palmar arch pulses. Passive motionof the fingers produces an intrinsic minus hand posture with pain.The most appropriate initial step in management is

3896

A Burrow triangle is most frequently used in conjunction with which of the following types of flap?

3897

The shell of a saline breast implant is composed of which of the following substances?

3898

Which of the following forms of basal cell carcinoma is associated with the highest rate of recurrence after surgicalexcision?

3899

Which statement concerning haemangioma is incorrect?

3900

Which is not a feature of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome (KTS)?

3901

Which of the following arteries does not provide blood supply to the nipple-areola complex (NAC)?

3902

Which of the following nerves provide the maininnervation to the nipple-areola complex(NAC)?

3903

Microtia is associated with all except:

3904

Cleft lip:

3905

Telecanthus is defined as:

3906

Treacher-Collins syndrome consists of all except:

3907

Classifications, scoring systems and syndromesthat are relevant to cleft lip and palate and itsmanagement include all except:

3908

Which of these is not a predisposing factor to thedevelopment of melanoma?

3909

With regards to cutaneous horns:

3910

The most common cancer of the ear is:

3911

Which statement is incorrect about Merkel celltumour?

3912

Features of Gorlin syndrome do not include:

3913

Which of the following is incorrect about cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma?

3914

For a melanoma of the same depth which of the following has a worse prognosis?

3915

The following are specific risk factors formelanoma except:

3916

Which of the following prognostic features ofmelanoma is not included in the AJCC staging system?

3917

Dysplastic naevus syndrome is characterised by:

3918

With respect to basal cell carcinoma:

3919

A patient with a 1cm diameter SCC of the lowerlip vermillion:

3920

Frey syndrome:

3921

Sensory nerves to the ear include all except:

3922

Which of the following is the most common malignancy due to immunosuppression intransplant recipients?

3923

A malignant tumour of the parotid gland:

3924

What is the major artery in central and lower facetransplantation (also referred to as partial facial transplantation)?

3925

This instrument is used for taking

3926

What is the ideal time of surgery for this congenital disorder

3927

This flap used for reconstruction of nose is also known as

3928

Instrument shown in the picture is?

3929

Which flap has been marked in the image shown below?

3930

The flap shown in the image is based on which vessel:

3931

A 17-year-old girl was found collapsed and drowsy. Her 12-lead ECG showed a sinus tachycardia of 120 beats per minute with a corrected QT interval of 500 ms (normal <470). Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of her presentation?

3932

A 43-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-hour history of chest pain. He has a history of angina diagnosed by his GP. He is awaiting objective assessment to confirm this. His GP started aspirin and gave him a GTN spray with instructions how to use it. The pain came on after walking up a hill but has not gone away. He took three puffs of GTN but this had no significant effect. He looks sweaty and unwell. You review his 12 lead ECG but it looks normal to you. You think this patient has an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and decide to admit for assessment. Which of the features listed below is a good indicator of presence of acute coronary syndrome?

3933

A 75-year-old lady has been referred to you in the cardiology clinic with a four-month history of breathlessness on exertion. She has a 20-year history of hypertension and type II diabetes, controlled with insulin. On questioning she has noted gradually progressive breathlessness with mild ankle oedema. She has noted worsening symptoms at night. On examination her venous pressure is not elevated but there are slight bibasal crackles. Her heart sounds are normal and there is mild oedema. You arrange further tests and follow up. Regarding the heart failure, which of these clinical signs has the greatest sensitivity in detecting heart failure?

3934

An 82-year-old former soldier with no prior medical history of note was admitted following appendicitis treated with laparoscopic appendicectomy a week previously. At laparotomy the appendix was inflamed though not perforated. The operative notes describe an uncomplicated procedure with minimal blood loss. There were no immediate post-operative issues of note, with stable blood count and biochemistry. The bowels opened at day three, and the patient was back to his usual diet and level of independent mobility by day six. He has lived alone since being widowed over twenty years ago, is fully mobile and self-caring, and feels able to return home without any home help. He is referred to the medical team prior to discharge to address a consistently high systolic blood pressure, ranging around 160 - 170 mmHg, over repeated readings during the course of the admission, with no diurnal variation. Similar readings are obtained from all four limbs, in lying and standing positions. A review of his history indicates that the patient takes over the counter analgesia as required, but has never required medical care. He is a former smoker, but gave up many years ago. He has a good diet, and walks his dog two miles a day. On clinical examination the patient is euvolemic with an undisplaced apex, normal heart sounds and no bruits. Undilated fundoscopy is normal. Urine dipstick demonstrated a trace of ketones but nil else. The cardiac axis is normal on ECG. Biochemistry, including renal function, fasting glucose and lipid profile, is normal. BMI is calculated at 22 kg/m2. What is the best strategy to manage this patient's hypertension?

3935

A 38-year-old teacher attends the hypertension clinic, having been referred via her general practitioner following a sequence of elevated systolic blood pressure readings. Though she is worried about the long-term consequences of hypertension she has never trusted the medical profession, is worried about the possible side effects of medication, and wishes to control her blood pressure through alternative therapies. Which of the following interventions is part of currently advocated measures to reduce blood pressure?

3936

A 60-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease is seen for review. She reports that she has developed symmetrical muscle aches and pains and you attribute this to a myalgia associated with simvastatin. Her creatinine kinase is within the normal range. However, her dyslipidaemia management is still sub-optimal and you wish to add in a further agent.

3937

Cyanosis is a typical feature of which of the following conditions?

3938

In a normal heart, the oxygen saturation of a sample of blood taken from a catheter in the pulmonary capillary wedge position should be equal to a sample from which of the following?

3939

Whilst attending the cardiology clinic, the staff nurse measures the blood pressure of a 61-year-old man, and finds that it is 183/100 mmHg sitting and 190/105 mmHg standing. He has a heart rate of 81/minute, with an irregularly irregular rhythm. On auscultation of the heart, there are no murmurs, but he has bibasilar crackles on chest examination. Which of the following pathological findings is most likely to be present?

3940

A 75-year-old lady presents with sudden breathlessness and palpitations. On examination, she was observed to have an irregular heart beat with rate of 140 bpm, BP 85/40 mmHg and normal heart sounds. On auscultation of the chest, fine basal crepitations are heard. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) and an old inferior myocardial infarction. She is anticoagulated with heparin and given diuretics. Her heart rate remains rapid. What is the most appropriate management of the lady AF?

3941

Which of the following is true regarding the action of clopidogrel?

3942

A 34-year-old patient with longstanding primary hypertension presents in her first pregnancy. ECG, urine dipstick and fundoscopy are normal. Her current blood pressure is 140/95. What is the maximal acceptable blood pressure?

3943

A 43-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with diarrhoea and vomiting over the past 48 hours. She has a history of hypertension for which she takes indapamide 1.5 mg daily, but no other past medical history of note. On examination she looks unwell and has a BP of 122/71 mmHg and a pulse of 79. Her abdomen is soft but there is tenderness consistent with her gastroenteritis.

3944

A 40-year-old male attends for a consultation after discovering that his brother has been diagnosed with a familial hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Which screening method should he be offered?

3945

A 59-year-old male has been discharged from hospital following an uncomplicated admission with myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with stenting. His therapy at discharge included aspirin 75 mg daily, clopidogrel 75mg daily, ramipril 10 mg daily, atenolol 50mg daily and simvastatin 40 mg daily. On subsequent review, one month after discharge, he is well and unaware of any chest pain. His blood pressure is 134/78 mmHg and he has a resting heart rate of 66 bpm. There are no abnormalities on auscultation of the heart or chest. Investigations reveal:

3946

A 29-year-old male is admitted with a one-hour history of severe central chest pain associated with vomiting. It transpires that he used cocaine three hours ago. His blood pressure is 142/74 mmHg. He has a pulse of 110 beats per minute regular. His ECG reveals 3 mm ST segment elevation in leads V2-5. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

3947

A 74-year-old man presented with intermittent chest pain at rest. Which one of the following would most strongly suggest that the pain was due to myocardial ischaemia?

3948

A 40-year-old female with mitral stenosis consults for advice regarding operative procedures. In which of the following circumstances would antibiotic prophylaxis of infective endocarditis be required?

3949

A 30-year-old man presents with a history of transient loss of consciousness and palpitations. His ECG shows ventricular tachycardia (VT). Which of the following treatments should be avoided?

3950

A 73-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation due to ischaemic heart disease is well controlled with digoxin and amiodarone. She presents with a two month history of weight loss and palpitations. Examination reveals an irregular pulse of 110 bpm. Investigations show:

3951

A 64-year-old man is admitted with a right femoral neck fracture following a fall. Also seen in the radiograph of the pelvis are several prominent calcified vessels. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this finding?

3952

A 52-year-old male presents with a three-week history of fevers, deteriorating breathlessness and fatigue. Two years ago, he underwent prosthetic valve replacement for a calcified bicuspid aortic valve. On examination he has a temperature of 37.7 degree C and four nail-fold infarcts. Vegetations are demonstrated through transoesophageal echocardiography. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

3953

A 58-year-old male has a 6 year history of hypertension for which he is receiving Candesartan, Amlodipine, Bendroflumethiazide and Aliskiren. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Aliskiren?

3954

A 28-year-old man with a known history of congenital heart disease presents with a pansystolic murmur, large V waves in the JVP and pulsatile hepatomegaly. Which of the following types of congenital heart disease is most likely to be associated with this presentation?

3955

A 74-year-old patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with shortness of breath. He is finding difficulty mobilising any further than around his home. An ECHO demonstrates an ejection fraction of approximately 20%. He is on maximal drug therapy for heart failure, and is not thought to have an infective chest exacerbation. An ECG demonstrates sinus rhythm with a rate of 75/min and widened QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

3956

A post-marketing surveillance study of a new heart failure therapy to the market was carried out on 10,000 subjects who had completed clinical trials. Which one of the following most accurately reflects the information generated from such a study?

3957

A 34-year-old man presented for an insurance medical. He was symptom free, but clinical examination suggested a small ventricular septal defect (VSD). Which one of the following findings was most likely to have been present?

3958

You are asked to see a patient in the intensive care unit who is short of breath and tachycardic to rule out a cardiac cause of her symptoms. A right heart catheter reveals that the mixed venous O2 saturation is 70%; the pulmonary capillary wedge O2 saturation is 97%. The haemoglobin is normal and the patient is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement that could be applied to her features?

3959

A 14-year-old boy presents with hypertension. Which of the following statements concerning hypertension in the young is true?

3960

A 28-year-old man who is known to have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) has an out of hospital cardiac arrest and is successfully resuscitated. What is the most appropriate mode of treatment?

3961

A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with an inferior myocardial infarction. He has a history of smoking and hypertension and is a poor attendee at the GP surgery. On initial admission he is hypotensive and bradycardic, with clear inferior ST elevation. He is taken to the catheter lab and stented. You are asked to see him a few hours later as he is persistently hypotensive with poor urine output. He has remained pain free since his stenting. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, his pulse is 69, he has an elevated JVP, but his chest is clear.

3962

An 18-year-old with cerebral palsy is admitted after a respiratory arrest having been intubated by paramedics. Nobody can gain intravenous access as the patient is too shut down. A femoral line is not possible due to contractures. You do not have the experience to perform central venous cannulation. Which of the following is the best option for administering intravenous fluids/emergency drugs in this situation of inability to gain venous access?

3963

A 59-year-old lady is admitted with a 30-minute history of heavy central chest pain associated with nausea and sweating. Her ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3 and V4. Which of the following coronary arteries is most likely to be occluded?

3964

A publication reports the outcome of a new statin therapy in a placebo controlled primary prevention of ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. 1000 patients were randomised to receive the new therapy and 1000 allocated to placebo. The study was completed over a five-year period. In the placebo group there were 150 myocardial infarcts (MI) and in the group treated with the new statin there were 100 myocardial infarcts. What is the number needed to treat to prevent one MI over the course of this study?

3965

A 69-year-old man is treated for chest infection. He has been on a stable dose of warfarin for the last six months as a treatment for atrial fibrillation, with INR recordings between 2-2.5. However, his most recent INR was 5 (<1.4). Which one of the following drugs that has recently been started is likely to be responsible for the increased INR?

3966

A 50-year-old politician presented with a strange fluttering sensation in his chest, but no chest pain. The symptoms had lasted 24 hours. An ECG revealed atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 130 beats per minute. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to restore sinus rhythm?

3967

A 72-year-old man noted to have a systolic murmur undergoes an echocardiogram which demonstrates aortic stenosis. Which of the following is associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?

3968

A 69-year-old woman admitted for a surgical procedure is noted to have a soft systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Her ECG and chest x ray were normal and transthoracic echocardiography revealed a small posterior pericardial effusion with normal valves. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in this patient management?

3969

A 60-year-old man echocardiogram shows a dilated left ventricular (LV) cavity with the remainder of the other chamber sizes normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3970

A 60-year-old man has a three month history of worsening dyspnoea. He has been healthy all his life with no major illnesses. His blood pressure is 118/92 mmHg, he has a murmur and has audible crackles at both bases. His serum glucose is 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). His total serum cholesterol is 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2). The serum creatine kinase is not elevated. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

3971

An elderly gentleman is brought to the Emergency department after suffering a witnessed collapse in a supermarket. A passerby came to his aid immediately and he regained consciousness quickly. His usual state of health is good and he is independent. On arrival his GCS is 15/15. Blood pressure is 101/72 mmHg. Pulse is 40 regular. Cardiovascular, respiratory and neurological examination is normal. A 12 lead ECG demonstrates a bradycardia with no obvious association between the QRS complexes and P waves. You call the cardiology registrar for help. You talk to the patient about his problem and when pacemakers are needed. With regard to this, from the list below, which is an absolute indication for a permanent pacemaker?

3972

A 17-year-old boy was seen in the Emergency department for worsening shortness of breath and wheeze. He has a two-year history of asthma which responds to high doses of oral steroids. Further history revealed tingling and numbness affecting his toes for few months. He was given a full course of antibiotics and oral steroids by the GP but this did not help. He does not have any other co-morbidities. There is no family history of note. He does not smoke and does not drink alcohol. His exercise tolerance has been gradually deteriorating. There is no history of foreign travel. The examination revealed pulse 104/min, BP 125/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 22/min, apyrexial, and oxygen saturations 97 percent on room air. There was bilateral wheeze in the chest and vesicular breath sounds. Neurological examination revealed decreased sensation in a stocking distribution. The rest of the neurological and systemic examination was normal. The initial blood results reveal:

3973

A 70-year-old known hypertensive and diabetic patient presents with dyspnoea on moderate exertion. On examination he is pale, his pulse rate is 98/min regular, BP is 160/70 mmHg and there are fine basal crepitations in the lungs. ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy and renal functions were slightly deranged. What is the most appropriate treatment for cardiac failure in this patient?

3974

A 55-year-old man is being treated for hyperlipidaemia with atorvastatin 40 mg nocte. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease. His fasting lipids show:

3975

A 60-year-old lady is taking warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. She presents with a markedly raised INR. Which of the following medications is the most likely to be the reason?

3976

A 65-year-old male presents with arthralgia and sleep disturbance following the introduction of simvastatin. He has a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease for which he is receiving aspirin, atenolol and eprosartan together with simvastatin 40 mg OD which has been introduced in the last one month. Previously, he had been taking atorvastatin but this was changed to simvastatin after he complained of arthralgia. Investigations reveal: Which is the most appropriate treatment for his lipid profile?

3977

You are on call for hospital at night and are urgently called to a patient on the ward who is choking on a piece of steak visible in his oropharynx. He is in extremis with saturations of 87 percent. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?

3978

A 65-year-old man is admitted with central crushing chest pain, sweating and vomiting of one-hour duration. He is conscious with a pulse rate of 100 bpm and a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg. An ECG shows >2 mm ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF. FBC: normal U & E: normal Troponin T : 100 ng/ml. Apart from the presence of xanthelasma (+) there are no other positive findings on clinical examination. He is given oxygen, aspirin, clopidogrel, morphine and intravenous 5 mg atenolol. What is the best next step?

3979

A 17-year-old female loses consciousness whilst out jogging one afternoon. She has had similar blackouts over the last two to three years which have all occured during exertion. There is no family history of note. She is taken to the Emergency department, where a chest x ray, CT brain scan, FBC, and biochemistry are all normal. Her ECG shows changes of left ventricular hypertrophy and broad Q waves. An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular and septal hypertrophy, small left ventricle, and reduced septal excursion. The septum has a ground glass appearance. Which of the following conditions is she most likely to have?

3980

A 54-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain. Examination is normal. 12-lead ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF and ST depression in V1, V2 and V3. Which coronary artery is occluded?

3981

A 47-year-old lady is admitted to the coronary care unit with symptoms suggestive of decompensated heart failure. She has a history of severe mitral regurgitation secondary to mitral prolapse and is awaiting valve surgery. You are asked to admit the patient and the medical student attached to the firm asks to come with you. You take a full history and examine the patient, making sure to point out all the relevant clinical features to the medical student. After you finish seeing the patient you discuss the case with the medical student. She asks you the most common cause of mitral regurgitation (MR). What should be your response to the medical student question?

3982

Which of the following mechanisms best explains the action of ezetimibe?

3983

A 60-year-old woman has a systolic murmur. As part of the evaluation you listen to the murmur during a Valsalva manoeuvre and the murmur becomes louder. Which of the following systolic murmurs becomes louder with a Valsalva?

3984

A 45-year-old man presents with a rash. On examination you find he has eruptive xanthoma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

3985

A 58-year-old man presents with sudden onset chest pain. He has a known history of ischaemic heart disease. ECG shows ST segment elevation in V1-V5 without reciprocal depression. In which territory is the infarction most likely to have taken place?

3986

A 58-year-old male presents with acute dyspnoea following a convulsion. On examination his blood pressure was 240/120 mmHg and fundal examination reveals papilloedema with haemorrhages and cotton wool spots. His urea, electrolytes and creatinine are normal but chest x ray reveals pulmonary oedema and cardiomegaly. Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment?

3987

A 65-year-old man has long-standing stable heart failure treated with Furosemide and Enalapril. He complains of swelling in his left knee and his GP treats him with Celecoxib, a Cyclo-oxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor. Two weeks later the patient has increasing breathlessness and ankle edema. Which one of the following effects of Celecoxib is the most likely to explain his symptoms?

3988

A new antihypertensive drug needs to be investigated to establish its relative potency. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for this purpose?

3989

Which of the following concerning congenital heart disease is correct?

3990

A 15-year-old female presents following a sore throat with chest pain, fever, and a skin rash. Examination reveals a diastolic murmur. Her ASO titre is elevated. Which of the following is a major criterion for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?

3991

A 38-year-old patient with recent onset fatigue and prior hypertension presents to the endocrinology clinic as his potassium remains low on oral supplements. He has no medical history of note. A full endocrine profile is requested at the clinic, though the most recent available blood tests demonstrate ongoing hypokalaemia:

3992

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to Beta blockers?

3993

A 70-year-old man presented with a 40 minute history of heavy chest pain and sweating. On examination his pulse is 85 bpm and BP 200/110 mmHg. ECG shows ST elevation in leads V2 - V5 and ST depression in leads II and aVF. Diamorphine, oxygen and aspirin have been given. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

3994

A 55-year-old man presented to the Emergency department with sudden breathlessness. He is sweaty and obviously short of breath. He is a smoker with a past history of hypertension. There are crackles on inspiration at both his lung bases and his CXR shows upper lobe venous diversion and perihilar shadowing. His ECG shows sinus tachycardia only and his cardiac enzymes, when they return the next day, are normal. His symptoms resolved quickly with oxygen and furosemide. Which of the following conditions is the most likely explanation of this presentation?

3995

Which of the following lipid abnormalities are most likely to be detected in a patient with type 2 diabetes?

3996

A 62 year-old patient underwent a transurethral resection of prostate. His prostate size was 80 gms and surgery lasted for one and a half hour. Even on post-operative day 2, Irrigation with 1.5 percent glycine had to be continued as his catheter still shows some evidence of hematuria. But the patient became very drowsy, and developed oliguria. Further, some pitting oedema of his ankles and sacrum was also noticed. In due course patient also developed seizures. Appropriate management of the patient is

3997

Following is the complication is

3998

Identify the condition shown in following CT image. Apart from the mentioned condition, the patient is prone to develop

3999

A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with an exquisitely painful and woody feeling penile erection of 18-h duration. Which of the following is not a therapeutic option?

4000

The following sign is seen in which of the conditions

4001

A 54 year male suffering from prostatism, which is interfering with his normal sleep pattern. His prostate size is 22 gms.  The attending doctor advised him to undergo trans urethral incision of prostate. Main benefit of the said surgery is

4002

Identify the surgery being performed

4003

A 55 year old, otherwise healthy, male presented to surgical emergency with complaint of acute retention of urine. He was catheterized. The procedure was uneventful. In due course USG KUB was performed which revealed an enlarged prostate, management of the case would involve (choose the most appropriate answer)

4004

Post voidal residual urine > 200 ml. Q3: An Anxious patient, presents with complaint of greatly decreased ejaculate. He also complains of smoky urine at times. Patient had underwent TURP and recovered well. Management includes.

4005

A 58 year old patient underwent TURP and recovered well. 3 year after the surgery, the patient is due to visit his urologist yet again for follow up. He explains to the attending doctor that he is uncomfortable with Digital Rectal examination. The urologist should

4006

Best time to perform Orchidopexy in a case of undescended testis is

4007

A patient was wheeled in to surgery emergency with alleged  history of sustaining injuries in a brawl,  He is conscious oriented and his Blood pressure was found to be 114/70 and pulse rate of 96 per minute. He was admitted and to monitor input and  output, it was decided to catheterize him, however blood was noticed oozing out from urethra, management now includes

4008

A 21 year male presented to emergency room with complaints of severe pain right testis radiating to lower abdomen, upon examination right testis was hanging at a level lower than left testis. Most suitable Management option is

4009

A 21 year old patient presents to surgical emergency with complaint of excruciating pain right testis. Medical officer in charge suspected it to be a case of torsion testis. How will the diagnosis be established clinically, pick correct option

4010

Analyze the following image

4011

All are true except for the following condition

4012

False about the picture shown below?

4013

The picture is suggestive of?

4014

Anaylse the following image. Identify the condition/anomaly /structure

4015

The type of hernia shown in the following image is

4016

Identify the surgery being performed

4017

A 55 year old school teacher presents to surgery OPD with complaint of groin swelling.  Upon clinical examination the patient is noticed to be suffering from hernia. According to European hernia society classification the hernia is marked as RL3.  Which  of the  hernia is the patient suffering from

4018

30-year-old man presents to your office complaining of groin pain while playing sports. On examination, he has no palpable bulge but does experience tenderness with palpation over the pubic tubercle. Which of the following is true regarding a sports hernia or athletic pubalgia?

4019

A 32 year old patient presented to surgery emergency with complaints of fever and one episode of vomiting. Patient denies having any episode of obstipation. On abdominal examination, the abdomen was not distende, but a tender swelling was noticed in the inguinal region. His total leucocyte count was found to be 18000. Most likely diagnosis

4020

A patient operated for direct inguinal hernia developed anesthesia at the root of the penis and adjacent part of the scrotum, the nerve likely to be injured is:

4021

Type IIIA in Nyhus classification of hernia:

4022

This type hernial mesh is used in which type of surgery?

4023

An 80-year-old woman with a known history of femoral hernia is admitted to the hospital because of strangulation of the hernia. There is a tender swelling in the right femoral region immediately below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. She has had multiple bowel movements without relief of symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

4024

Bacteriuria without pyuria is indicative of:

4025

The most reliable urine specimen is obtained by:

4026

The optimal duration of antimicrobial therapy for symptomaticacute uncomplicated cystitis in women is:

4027

The most common bacterial cause of xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is:

4028

An obese 26-year-old man has an 8-hour history of severe dysuria, stranguria, and suprapubic and perineal pain with fever. On examination, he has suprapubic tenderness, and his prostate is enlarged, boggy, and exquisitely tender. Urinalysis shows pyuria. He continues to complain of symptoms despite insertion of a Foley catheter and has persistent fever following 30 hours of intravenous gentamicin and ampicillin. Culture grew Escherichia coli. What is the best next step?

4029

Which subtypes of human papillomavirus (HPV) are responsible for development of malignancies including cervical, penile, and anal?

4030

HPV vaccines are indicated for which groups?

4031

Gardasil in males is recommended:

4032

What type of genitourinary (GU) cancer is not increased in frequency in patients with HIV?

4033

Which of the following is a not a late complication of genito urinary tuberculosis?

4034

Which of the following statements is FALSE about genitourinary (GU) TB patients?

4035

The eponym for acute schistosomiasis is:

4036

The diagnostic, first-line gold standard for urogenital schistosomiasis is:

4037

The lymphatic drainage from the testis drains to:

4038

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) arises from the:

4039

What is the common denominator in all cases of Denys-Drash syndrome?

4040

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding patients with embryonic testicular regression or bilateral vanishing testes syndromes?

4041

Cryptorchidism increases the risk of all of the following EXCEPT:

4042

The risk of cryptorchidism is higher in all of the following syndromes EXCEPT:

4043

A newborn boy presents with a bilateral nonpalpable testes. Next steps in management should be:

4044

Which of the following is least useful to the provider in determining the diagnosis of retractile versus undescended testes?

4045

The following are possible locations of an ectopic testis, EXCEPT:

4046

A 6-month-old full-term male presents with a unilateral nonpalpable testis. The next step after a confirmatory exam is:

4047

A 6-month-old male presents for evaluation of subcoronal hypospadias.During physical examination, the left testicle is palpatedin the groin but cannot be manipulated into the scrotum. Thenext step is to:

4048

Circumcision should not be performed in neonates with which condition of the genitalia?

4049

What is the most common complication associated with circumcision?

4050

Staghorn calculus is made of:

4051

Irreversible ischemic injury of the testicular parenchyma may begin as early as how many hours after torsion of the spermatic cord?

4052

Which of the following is most specific in diagnosing spermatic cord torsion?

4053

Which of the following is NOT a relative indication for elective varicocele repair?

4054

Which of the following organ systems is implicated in the pathogenesis of enuresis?

4055

An 8-year-old male presents to your office with his parents for consultation regarding treatment for primary nocturnal enuresis. Behavioural modification, desmopressin, and the enuresis alarm have failed. Which of the following parameters is the best predictor of response to treatment with desmopressin?

4056

A newborn infant with a history of antenatal hydronephrosis and oligohydramnios is evaluated with a renal/bladder ultrasound and voiding cystourethrogram. All of the following are characteristic findings of posterior urethral valves EXCEPT:

4057

All of the following findings on antenatal imaging should raise suspicion of posterior urethral valves EXCEPT:

4058

A 3-year-old boy presents with urinary incontinence, stranguria, and occasional afebrile urinary tract infections. A renal ultrasound reveals moderate bilateral hydroureteronephrosis. The best next step in management is:

4059

Common findings in the prune-belly syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:

4060

Which of the following is not true:

4061

Which of the following is NOT considered a urachal anomaly?

4062

What is the best study for the detection of pyelonephritis and cortical renal scarring?

4063

Which system provides the current standard for grading reflux on the basis of the appearance of contrast in the ureter and upper collecting system during voiding cystourethrography?

4064

There is a strong association between the presence of reflux in patients with neuropathic bladders and intravesical pressures of greater than:

4065

Most common site of development of carcinoma of prostate is:

4066

All of the following are possible drainage sites for an ectopic ureter in a female except the:

4067

All of the following contribute to vesicoureteral reflux EXCEPT:

4068

The voiding pattern most often seen in a girl with an ectopic ureter is:

4069

Which of the following is a correct match?

4070

The following are extrarenal manifestations of ADPKD EXCEPT:

4071

Flank pain is one of the most common presenting symptoms of ADPKD in adult patients. This is often caused by:

4072

Which gene is associated with a multiple malformation syndrome and clear cell renal cell carcinoma?

4073

A patient with which of the following entities has the highest likelihood of having a renal cell carcinoma develop?

4074

Which of the following would confirm the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis?

4075

The following are true of von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease EXCEPT:

4076

A renal cyst with increased number of septa and prominent calcification in a nonenhancing cyst wall does not require exploration. According to the Bosniak grading system, this cyst would be categorized as:

4077

A 29-year-old hypertensive woman was found to have a 2.7 cm renal artery aneurysm. Excision is recommended:

4078

A newborn girl was noted prenatally to have coarctation of the aorta and horseshoe kidney. The next step is:

4079

Bilateral renal agenesis (BRA) is associated with mutations of:

4080

Most ectopic kidneys are clinically asymptomatic EXCEPT:

4081

The isthmus of a horseshoe kidney is located adjacent to which vertebrae?

4082

Technetium-99 m(99mTc)-dimercaptosuccinic acid is taken up by which renal cells?

4083

A voiding cystourethrogram is essential in the diagnosis of which clinical conditions?

4084

The fused lower pole of the horseshoe kidney is trapped by which of the following structures during the ascent?

4085

The testicles descend to the level of internal inguinal ring by which time point during gestation?

4086

The current appropriate dose for adjuvant radiation therapy after radical prostatectomy is:

4087

What is the most common cause of incontinence after radical prostatectomy?

4088

Serum PSA elevations may occur with prostate:

4089

With respect to the Gleason primary and secondary grade, all of the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT:

4090

All of the following are true about the Gleason grading system, EXCEPT:

4091

When performing TRUS prostate biopsy:

4092

The major advantage of simple prostatectomy over transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) in the management of prostatic adenoma includes:

4093

Transurethral resection (TUR) syndrome is caused by:

4094

Where does benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) originate? In the:

4095

What is the primary objective of the digital rectal examination (DRE) in evaluation of men with LUTS? To:

4096

Which α1 receptor subtype mediates prostate smooth muscle tension?

4097

Dutasteride:

4098

Which 5α-reductase isoform predominates in the prostate gland?

4099

Which of the following is an absolute indication for open repair of blunt bladder rupture injury?

4100

The blood in a hematocele is contained in which of the following?

4101

Which is FALSE about penile fracture?

4102

Stephen Fowler surgery is done for:

4103

Surgery for undescended testis is recommended at whatage?

4104

A 70-years old man with prostate cancer was givenradiotherapy. The recurrence of the cancer is monitoredbiochemically by:

4105

Which of the following is true about obstructiveazoospermia?

4106

A male child with recurrent UTI with dribbling of urinemost likely cause is:

4107

The Grayhack shunt is established between:

4108

Nesbitt operation is done for:

4109

All are true about bulbar urethral rupture, except:

4110

A 32-year-old man with pelvic fracture is in urinary retentionwith blood at the external urinary means. Retrogradeurethrogram shows prostatomembrane disruption. The most appropriate immediate treatment is:

4111

The recent treatment of short bridle passable stricture ofurethra in the penile and bulbous urethra is:

4112

Narrowest part of the urethra is:

4113

Renal calculi associated with proteus infection:

4114

Randall plaques causes:

4115

A patient present with pain and tenderness in the left iliacfossa. USG shows a 3 cm stone in the renal pelvis withoutany hydro-nephrosis. Most appropriate management:

4116

Stone which is resistant to lithotripsy

4117

Golf-hole ureter is seen in:

4118

Earliest and often the only presentation of TB kidney is:

4119

DTPA scan of hypertensive young lady is normal, USGshows small kidney on left side. Next investigation will be:

4120

Most common site of origin of RCC:

4121

Commonest manifestation of Grawitz tumor in male:

4122

A young patient complains of intermittent colicky pain in left lumbar region. Urine microscopic picture is shown. What is most likely diagnosis?

4123

In the given X-ray KUB what is seen

4124

Patient is having terminal hematuria and strangury, X-ray KUB is given. Which of the following statement is incorrect about this?

4125

Identify the procedure

4126

A 14-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 4-h history of acute, severe left scrotal pain. Examination reveals a high-riding left testicle and scrotal exploration was done. Which of the following is true?

4127

False about the picture shown below?

4128

The picture is suggestive of?

4129

False about this condition?

4130

Identify the image given below:

4131

All are true except for the following condition

4132

All except are true for the following stone:

4133

A 25 year old male presented with persistent back ache. Symptoms are aggravated by hyperextension.Coronal section of CT and IVP is given below. Which of the following is a false statement about this condition?

4134

Shown deformity in IVP is seen in

4135

What is true regarding essential drug:

4136

Therapeutic drug monitoring should be done for:

4137

Maximum tolerated dose of a new drug is evaluated in:

4138

What is true regarding therapeutic index except:

4139

Haemolysis in G-6 PD deficiency-all are true except:

4140

All of the following are pharamacogenetic conditions except:

4141

Loading dose of a drug calculated by:

4142

Removal of the acidic drug enhanced by:

4143

Drugs with high plasma protein binding true is:

4144

Zero order kinetics elimination independent of:

4145

Redistribution phenomenon causing ultrashort duration of action of the drug seen in:

4146

Which of the following property of the drug enable it to be used in low concentration with lesser side effects respectively:

4147

If a drug is having 60% absorption and hepatic extraction ratio of 0.4. What is the bioavailability of this drug:

4148

About rectal route what is true:

4149

With regards to diffusion through a membrane:

4150

Which of the following describes an agonist?

4151

What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?

4152

Damage at which of the following locations would most affect the goals of phase II biotransformation?

4153

Which of these drugs is the most efficacious?

4154

EC50 is

4155

Which of the following acts on intracellular receptors

4156

The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

4157

The reasons determing bioavailability are:

4158

Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

4159

Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:

4160

Mechanism of action of pralidoxime is

4161

All are true regarding side effects of anti-glaucoma drugs except:

4162

True statements about neostigmine are

4163

Organophosphates bind to

4164

Drug used in provocative test for myasthenia gravis is

4165

Anti-cholinesterases are ineffective against

4166

Which antiglaucoma drug can be used in an asthmatic patient

4167

All the following drugs are used for the treatment of urge incontinence EXCEPT

4168

Which of the following mydriatic drug has no cycloplegic action

4169

All of the following are correct statement EXCEPT

4170

Which of the following drugs shows the phenomenon of vasomotor reversal of Dale after administration of an alpha adrenergic blocker

4171

Beta2 selective agonists are often effective in treatment of

4172

All are side effects of salbutamol EXCEPT

4173

Drug given in septic shock for vasopressor effect is

4174

Depression occurs as a side effect due to the use of

4175

Clonidine has the following effect except

4176

Lofexidine is approved for-

4177

Dobutamine mainly increases

4178

An old man Ramu comes to you and is diagnosed to be having benign hypertrophy of prostate. The drug which provides faster and greater symptomatic relief to this patient will be

4179

Which of the following drugs is most effective for control of orthostatic hypertension

4180

The best drug to start to control BP in pheochromocytoma patients before surgical excision of tumour:

4181

Which is a correct match for anti-glaucoma medications:

4182

Rate limiting step in noradrenaline synthesis is:

4183

In anaphylactic shock, epinephrine is given by which route

4184

Atenolol is indicated in all EXCEPT

4185

Used in treatment of digitalis toxicity are all except:

4186

Which of the following drug can cause gynaecomastia:

4187

Drugs used in heart failure to decrease mortality by inhibiting remodeling of left ventricle is/are:

4188

All of the following drugs are decreasing pre and after load except:

4189

Sacubitril used in heart failure acts by:

4190

Which of the following antihypertensive drug safe in pregnancy:

4191

All are first line antihypertensives except:

4192

Potassium channel opener, not used in hypertensive females because of cosmetic reason:

4193

Antihypertensive drug not having favourable effect on lipid metabolism are all except:

4194

ACE inhibitors are preferred in all of the following conditions in a hypertensive patient except:

4195

Drugs used in chronic angina are all except:

4196

Which of the following drug used in sub-arachnoid hemorrhage:

4197

Calcium channel blocker verapamil is used with all of the following drugs except:

4198

Drug not used in STEMI patient is:

4199

Coronary steal phenomenon is caused by:

4200

All of the followings are seen with amiodarone treatment except:

4201

All of the following drugs can cause torsades de pointes arrhythmia except:

4202

Drug of choice for termination of acute attack of Torsades is:

4203

All are true regarding anti-arrhythmic drug class except:

4204

Most potent statin is:

4205

Pharmacologic effects of chlorpromazine include all of the following EXCEPT:

4206

All of the following are monoamine oxidase inhibitors EXCEPT:

4207

In a young female which of the following is the best drug to manage juvenile myoclonic epilepsy:

4208

Which of the following can reduce risk of suicides?

4209

All of the following statements are true regarding Levodopa treatment in parkinsonism except:

4210

Anti depressant used in Bed wetting (Nocturnal Enuresis) in children is:

4211

All are acting via prolongation of Na+ channel inactivation except:

4212

Drugs used in maintenance therapy of alcohol abstinence acts via:

4213

Following drug is responsible for wooden chest syndrome when infused IV rapidly:

4214

With which drug therapy we advise the patient to sleep with a towel over the pillow:

4215

Sedative drug used during intubating the patient are all except:

4216

Clozapine-what is true:

4217

Treatment combination used for Anti-obesity; antiepileptic drug given with phentermine, having risk of renal stone is:

4218

Gabapentin used for the treatment of:

4219

Carbamazepine can cause:

4220

Which of the following side effect seen with valproate:

4221

A female is on valproate to treat myoclonic seizures. Since last 1 year no episode of seizure occurred. Now she came to the physician after 1 week of missing menstruation period to take advice regarding drug therapy. What best advice you will give to her:

4222

Which of the following is an antagonist of BZD receptor:

4223

Best drug to treat short term insomnia and onset problem in sleep is:

4224

Drug used in performance related anxiety is:

4225

Which is true about voglibose:

4226

Sulphonylureas act by:

4227

Indications of glucocorticoids are all of the following, EXCEPT:

4228

What is true regarding Lugol iodine:

4229

Providing instruction to a patient who is prescribed with Repaglinide. All of which is true regarding this medication, except?

4230

A patient is prescribed insulin glargine injection daily. The onset of action will likely to happen?

4231

Sildenafil is given to a patient with erectile dysfunction. Which of the following is contraindicated with this medication?

4232

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is given to a patient with diabetes insipidus. Which of the following therapeutic response should you expect?

4233

Anti-obesity agent orlistat acts by:

4234

This drug is used to prevent contractions of the uterus:

4235

Diethylstilbestrol should not be used in pregnant women as it is associated with:

4236

Finasteride used in the prevention of male-pattern baldness by its ability to:

4237

Young woman with amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea was treated with a drug that successful restored ovulation and menstruation. Before being given the drug, the woman was carefully questioned about previous mental health problems, which she did not have. She was advised to take the drug orally. The drug used to treat this patient was:

4238

Oxytocin is preferred over ergometrine for augmenting labour because:

4239

Select the drug which can improve urinary flow rate in benign prostatic hypertrophy patients without affecting prostate size:

4240

Which of the following is true of anabolic steroids:

4241

Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with its mechanism of action:

4242

Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with one of its therapeutic use:

4243

Which of the following glucocorticoids produces the least sodium retention:

4244

Which of the following preparation is used in the treatment of acute thyroid storm:

4245

Antacid drug that typically causes diarrhoea is:

4246

The antiulcer agent which detaches and kills H. pylori organism and prevent relapses is:

4247

Which of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?

4248

All of the following drugs reduce the gastric secretion EXCEPT:

4249

Kaolin Pectate is:

4250

Which one of the following is not an antiemetic:

4251

Each of the following is correct regarding the treatment of diarrhoea except:

4252

All of the following about antiemetic drugs are true EXCEPT:

4253

Magnesium and aluminium are added in antacid because:

4254

The following statement about Omeprazole is true except:

4255

Which of the following drugs have an anti-androgenic effect?

4256

All of the following statements about antacid are true except:

4257

Which of the following interferes with the most of CYP450 enzymes and thus leads to many drug interactions?

4258

Which one of the following is the less frequent side effect of Metronidazole?

4259

Which of the following is a stool softener that has no effect on fat-soluble vitamins?

4260

Which of the following are the rationale of ORS composition:

4261

The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic encephalopathy:

4262

All of the following are the mechanism of action of metoclopramide except:

4263

Which of the following is the most effective drug for motion sickness?

4264

Followings are the indications of Octreotide except:

4265

A 50 year old male presents to OPD with diarrhea and abdominal pain. On investigations, it was found to be non-infective and you proceed with diphenoxylate therapy in this patient. Which of the following drug you prescribed to this patient along with diphenoxylate?

4266

A patient is being treated for ulcerative colitis. All of the following can be used except?

4267

Inhibits specific clotting factors and interfere with the clotting cascade and thrombin formation:

4268

Anti-platelet agents interfere with the clotting cascade at the point of:

4269

Which of the following is true about thrombolytics:

4270

Which Promotes formation of new clots:

4271

Thrombolytics break down an existing thrombus by stimulating the ______ system:

4272

Which of the following does not increase the action of warfarin?

4273

All the following drugs can cross placenta except

4274

Warfarin acts by:

4275

True about low molecular weight heparin:

4276

Rivoraxaban acts by inhibiting:

4277

All are seen with heparin therapy except:

4278

Anticoagulant safe in renal insufficiency:

4279

Oral anticoagulants are monitored by:

4280

Orally acting direct thrombin inhibitor is:

4281

Heparin acts via activation of:

4282

Urgent reversal of warfarin induced bleeding can be done by the administration of:

4283

Anti-coagulant of choice for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is:

4284

True about HIT syndrome are all except:

4285

Antiplatelets; all are true except:

4286

Which Anti platelet Agent is per oral:

4287

Inhibits conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin:

4288

Used to prevent blood clots during coronary angioplasty:

4289

Which of the following is not an Anticoagulant:

4290

Correct statement regarding Simvastatin:

4291

Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy:

4292

Positive bronchial challenge test, used to diagnose asthma is:

4293

Symptoms less than twice a month and no exacerbation risk factors, Asthma treatment step 1 given is:

4294

Biologic agents used in asthma, having Anti-IL4R activity is:

4295

Severe and life threatening asthma treatment includes all except:

4296

Brittle asthma: BEST treatment is

4297

Which is not a LAMA:

4298

Interim guidance on asthma management during COVID-19 are all except:

4299

Which is not a SABA:

4300

Drug acts via PDE-4 inhibition selectively, approved for COPD is:

4301

Drugs used in management of acute exacerbations of COPD are all except:

4302

All of the following statements about theophyline are true except

4303

The most prominent and dose related side effects of Albuterol is

4304

Size of particle for aerosol therapy is

4305

Which of the following are activated by esterase enzyme in the respiratory tract and causing lesser side effects so called as soft steroids

4306

Which of the following antihypertensive drug is best to treat pulmonary hypertension

4307

All are used in treatment of pulmonary hypertension except

4308

Dextromethorphan is an

4309

Which of the following is a mucolytic agent used in case of productive cough:

4310

About montelukast all are true except:

4311

Release of leukotrienes and histamine from mast cells is prevented by:

4312

All are effective against anaerobic microorganism except:

4313

Atypical pneumonia can be treated by all of the follwing drugs except:

4314

Antimicrobial drug best to treat gonococcal urethritis is:

4315

Cefepime, all are true except:

4316

True regarding treatment of late latent syphilis:

4317

Ivermectin is used for the treatment of:

4318

Gynaecomastia caused by which ATT drug:

4319

Treatment of tuberculoid leprosy is:

4320

Drugs got emergency use approval from DCGI for COVID-19 treatment is/are:

4321

Voriconazole is not effective against

4322

The drug used to treat acyclovir resistant Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) and Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) infection is:

4323

Antiviral drug having dual antiviral activity against HIV and HBV is

4324

Cobicistat used with which drug to give boosting effect:

4325

All of the following are side effects of Metronidazole except?

4326

The HIV drug entry inhibitor, Maraviroc, acts at the:

4327

The minimum period required for Nevirapine use in post-exposure chemoprophylaxis for HIV is:

4328

Drug of choice in a patient with severe complicated falciparum malaria during 1st trimester of pregnancy is:

4329

Radical cure is not required for malaria caused by:

4330

DEC (Di-ethyl-carbazine) is used for the treatment of all except:

4331

Ivermectin is approved to be used for the treatment of all except:

4332

Topical drug used for Impetigo is/are:

4333

Which of the following is/are topically used sulfonamides:

4334

Which of the following chemotherapy agents has demonstrated the ability to cause accelerated rheumatoid nodule formation?

4335

Which of the following chemotherapy agents can cause sticky skin syndrome when combined with ketoconazole?

4336

Which of the following agents is not a protein kinase inhibitor?

4337

All of the following drug and ADR is true except

4338

What chemotherapy agent has been shown to cause deep venous thromboembolism?

4339

Temozolomide has emerged as an agent that is active against glioblastoma multiforme (GBM). What is the mechanism of action of this chemotherapeutic drug?

4340

Bevacizumab is used in:

4341

Fully humanized antibodies used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis:

4342

Which of the following antineoplastic and immunosuppressant drugs is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor?

4343

Not true about thalidomide:

4344

FK 506 is a type of:

4345

What is a possible intervention to treat breathlessness in end-stage cancer patients?

4346

What is the mechanism of Action of 6 Mercaptopurine:

4347

A 47-year-old woman with choriocarcinoma is treated with very high doses of methotrexate (MTX). Which of following drugs is given to limit the toxic effects of this regimen on normal host cells?

4348

Clinical uses of interferon:

4349

What is the mechanism of Action of 5-Flurouracil:

4350

Nitrogen Mustard act on:

4351

Which of the following short-acting opioids used for breakthrough cancer-related pain has the most rapid onset of action?

4352

The immunomodulating monoclonal antibody alemtuzumab is associated with which infectious complication?

4353

Risk factors for anthracycline-induced cardiomyopathy include:

4354

The vinca alkaloids are a useful type of anti-cancer agents. Which of the following is true about these agents?

4355

Granisetron  and palonsetron  are both anti-emetics that are frequently used in chemotherapy. Which is true about these agents?

4356

Which antihistaminic drug is best to be used during day time because of least sedative potential

4357

Which of the following is a 3rd generation antihistaminic:

4358

Which antihistaminic is withdrawn because of cardiac arrhythmia risk at high doses by blocking cardiac K+ channels

4359

Which of the following is true regarding migraine drugs Triptans:

4360

All of the following are 5-HT antagonist except:

4361

All of the following drugs used in motion sickness except:

4362

True regarding Aspirin are all except:

4363

All NSAID used as ocular anti-inflammatory drugs except:

4364

Topically used antihistaminic drugs are all except:

4365

True regarding aspirin toxicity

4366

Which is correct statement:

4367

Most specific drug for the treatment of NSAIDs chronic use induced peptic ulcer:

4368

Aspirin high dose (2-4 gms/day) used for which purpose:

4369

Uricosuric drug, used in gout is:

4370

Leflunomide used in arthritis, acts via inhibiting enzyme:

4371

True regarding colchicine are all except:

4372

The drug which blocks H1, 5-HT2 and Muscarinic receptor is:

4373

Which is true regarding ergot compounds:

4374

All are true regarding prostaglandins except:

4375

All are true regarding Acetaminophen except:

4376

A young man was wheeled in emergency room with alleged history of sustaining thermal burn injuries allegedly in a domestic accident. After emergency resuscitation, he was found to be having mottled painful burnt area, blisters developed soon after. He was given prompt treatment and was discharged soon after. During his follow up visit after 3 weeks, it was noticed that his wounds have healed causing some pigmentation with almost no evidence of scarring. The type of wounds sustained by young man most likely were:

4377

32 years old patient has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and the patient states that he or she has little pain. Most likely the burns are?

4378

A 44 year old fire safety officer sustained an inhalation injury, has been wheezing. After a few hours wheezes are no longer heard. What is the best action?

4379

A 32 year old female sustained thermal burn injuries in a domestic accident. She was promptly resuscitated in the emergency department. Her fluid requirements were calculated on the basis of her total burns surface area, which was estimated to be 36 percent. During course of management Sutherland formula was also used. The purpose of this formula is to

4380

A 42 year old farm labourer presents to surgery OPD with history of a long standing ulcerated nodular at the angle of mouth. Cervical examination was found to be unremarkable. Biopsy was devised which confirmed the diagnosis of basal cell carcinoma. Preferred treatment of the condition is:

4381

Which of the following is not a definition of massive bleeding?

4382

True statements are all except?

4383

First step in trauma is?

4384

Early stage of trauma is characterized by

4385

Which one of the following veins should be avoided for intravenousinfusion in the management ofabdominal trauma?

4386

Back examination of poly-trauma patient is known as:

4387

Which one of the following is not a part of the Revised TraumaScore?

4388

Trauma and injury severity score (TRISS) includes:

4389

Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) includes all of thefollowing except?

4390

Which colour of triage is given the highest priority?

4391

Most common organ involved in blunt injury to the abdomen:

4392

A driver wearing seat belt applied brake suddenly to avoidaccident. Most common organ injured in seat belt injury:

4393

Best diagnostic test in stable patient with blunt trauma abdomenis:

4394

FAST stands for:

4395

Damage control surgery is:

4396

Organ most commonly damaged in stab injury ofabdomen is:

4397

In a blast injury, which of the following organ is least vulnerableto the blast wave?

4398

True about flail chest are all except:

4399

About diaphragmatic injury, true statement is:

4400

A 20-years old male come to causality with head injury.Examination reveals normal consciousness and blood in thetympanic membrane. Most likely cause is:

4401

The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressurefollowing head injury is:

4402

After head injury, biconvex, lenticular shape hematoma inCT scan is characteristic of which of the following:

4403

The term post traumatic epilepsy refers to seizures occurring:

4404

After 4 weeks of head trauma, patient presents with featuresof irritability and altered sensorium. Commonest cause will be:

4405

Which of the following is commonest source of extradural hemorrhage?

4406

Haemostasis in scalp wound is best achieved by:

4407

Seat belt causes injury to:

4408

Criteria for brainstem death includes:

4409

Head and neck involvement in burns in infant is:

4410

According to rule of nines, burns involving perineum are:

4411

In 3rd degree burns, all are seen except:

4412

2nd degree burns indicate involvement of:

4413

Myoglobinuria is seen in which type of burn?

4414

Operation theatre fire is most commonly due to:

4415

Most common cause of death in burns is:

4416

Burns in which part of body are nursed without occlusivedressing?

4417

The ideal temperature of water to cool the burnt surface is:

4418

Parkland formula is:

4419

Which of the following regarding burn wound depth is true?

4420

Which of the following statements regarding the order ordescription of the zones of injury is correct?

4421

A 25-year-old patient has been in the burn intensive care unit (ICU) intubated and sedated for 2 weeks after an 80 percent TBSA burn. He suddenly develops hypotension, tachycardia, and melena. What type of surgical problem is this patient mostlikely to have?

4422

A 35-year-old male comes in following an occupational injury in which he sustained 35% full-thickness burns to historso and upper extremities. On hospital day 2, the decisionis made to perform excision of his burns with split-thickness skin grafting. Which of the following is associated with early excision and grafting?

4423

The primary survey is best described by which sequence ofsteps?

4424

A 72-year-old female presents after being ejected during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. Her heart rate (HR) is 155 beats/min, and blood pressure is 60/35 mmHg. Emergency medical technicians (EMT) were not able to obtain intravenous (IV) access. What is the best access for this patient so that fluid resuscitation can be initiated?

4425

A 17-year-old female presents after a motor vehicle crash andis in haemorrhagic shock. A massive transfusion protocol is triggered. What is the optimal ratio in damage control resuscitation?

4426

A 32-year-old male presents after being assaulted by a bat tohis head, face, and torso. He opens his eyes to sternal rub, localizes to pain, and is only making groaning sounds. Whatis this patient GCS?

4427

Four politicians are rushed into the A+E Department. They were set upon by an individual as they left a meeting. The individual had two aerosol cans which he sprayed in front of their faces. On presentation, all of the men had profuse lacrimation, chemosis, pain around the eyes and injected cornea. Slit-lamp examination revealed severe corneal injuries. There was no demonstrable neurological deficit in any of the patients, but all four men complained of shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. All the men were pyrexic, nauseated, and all developed diarrhoea within two hours of admission. Initially, blood gases were normal, but after 2 hours, arterial blood gases in the most severely affected man showed:

4428

A 80-year-old female presents to A+E acutely unwell after being found unresponsive on the floor of her house by her son. She had a past history of hypothyroidism and taking thyroxine daily. However, her compliance with treatment is questionable. On examination she was unrouseable with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 6/15, had a central temperature of 34 degree C, Oxygen saturations of 95 percent on air, a pulse of 44 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/80 mmHg. There were no specific localising signs on neurological examination but both plantars were extensor. Prior to results of her emergency blood tests being available, what is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?

4429

60-year-old woman presented with 3 months history of diplopia and blurred vision of left eye. She denied any pain or other neurological symptoms. Her previous medical history is unremarkable. She smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks alcohol in moderation. Her general medical examination is normal. Her visual acuity on the right is 6/6 and on the left 6/36. There is left partial ptosis and mild proptosis with conjunctival injection. The left pupil is smaller than the right but reacting normally to light. There is some limitation of abduction of the left eye. Fundoscopy showed a pale left optic disk. The left corneal reflex is reduced. The remaining of the neurological examination is normal. Routine blood tests including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function, serum calcium, serum creatine kinase, and autoantibody screen were normal. Her electrocardiogram and chest radiograph showed no abnormalities. Slit lamp examination was normal and intra-ocular pressures were within normal range. Where is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

4430

A 25-year-old man presents with vague chest pain and cough. His Chest X-ray, taken in the Emergency Department, is shown. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

4431

A 30-year-old gentleman is admitted to A&E after a motor vehicle accident. You are asked to review the patient. He is fully oriented to time place and person. On questioning, the patient cannot provide any information about the accident, the last he remembers was getting into the car in order to attend a meeting. The paramedics who attended the emergency call describe that the patient has had a frontal car accident and was found outside the car, he was initially dazed but recovered after a few minutes. He had only a few superficial scratches and contusions on his face, elbows and knees and a small haematoma on his forehead. The patient is fully oriented to time place and person with a GCS of 15. He is up and about and demands when he can leave hospital. What course of management would you advise?

4432

A 45-year-old man presented with diplopia, dysarthria and difficulty with swallowing. Over the next few days he developed weakness of the upper and lower limbs. On day 4 he was unable to walk unaided. He denied any sensory symptoms or bladder disturbances. His previous medical history is unremarkable. He is a non-smoker, does not drink alcohol excessively. He does not take any drugs. On examination he was apyrexial. His general medical examination was normal. His higher mental function was unremarkable. There were no signs of meningism. Cranial nerve examination showed bilateral dilated and fixed pupils. He had binocular diplopia but no obvious ophthalmoplegia. He was dysarthric with weak cough. His vital capacity was 3.15 standing and 2.00 lying flat. He had lower motor neuron tetraparesis of power 3/5. He was hyporeflexic with normal sensation and was unable to walk unaided. Investgations including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, serum calcium, thyroid function tests, autoantibody screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate and serum C-reactive protein were normal. His electrocardiogram and chest radiograph were normal. A CT scan of his brain was normal, as were nerve conduction studies and an electromyogram (EMG). What is the most likely diagnosis?

4433

A 55-year-old vagrant was brought to the Casualty department after being found unresponsive by a paramedic crew. His chest x-ray is shown. Select the most important immediate investigations that should be performed?

4434

A 30-year-old male HIV positive patient is admitted with Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia. He stopped taking co-trimoxazole therapy 3 weeks previously due to a rash. Blood gases reveal:

4435

A 14-year-old girl is admitted with headache, nausea and vomiting. She had previously been well but her symptoms deteriorated over the last 12 hours. On admission, she is noted to be slightly confused with a temperature of 39 degrees centigrade, stiff neck positive Kernig sign and a faint purpuric rash on the knees. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg with a pulse of 120 beats per minute. A diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis is confirmed following CT headscan and lumbar puncture. She is admitted to ITU and treated with IV cefotaxime 2g tds and Benzylpenicillin 2.4g qds. She has a rather stormy admission requiring intubation, ventilation and hypotensive episodes. On day 2 of her admission, her urine output falls with hourly urine output of approximately 10 mls/hr. Investigations reveal:

4436

A 62-year-old female is referred with mild confusion. She has a history of depression, type 2 diabetes mellitus and angina for which she takes a variety of medications. Results of investigations reveal:

4437

A 42-year-old homeless man is brought into accident and emergency department at approximately 11:00pm by the emergency ambulance crew. He is known to have a history of alcohol abuse and on this occasion, he was found by a group of passers-by outside a nightclub having sustained a laceration to his forehead following a fall onto the pavement. On arrival to accident and emergency department, he was described as being unkempt with a strong odour of alcohol. He appeared to be moderately intoxicated with alcohol and on examination he was found to have a superficial laceration over his left forehead, which required no suturing. His Glasgow Coma Scale was 14/15. No localising signs were found on examination of the central nervous system. He was admitted overnight for observations. He took his own discharge at approx 9:00am the next day but returned to the ward later on the same day complaining shortness of breath and blurred vision. In addition, he had developed abdominal pain associated with vomiting and diarrhoea. On examination, he had a respiratory rate of 30/min. Pulse rate of 100/min regular, blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and heart sounds normal. There were occasional coarse crepitations in both lung fields which cleared on coughing. Examination of the abdomen revealed generalised tenderness with no masses or hepato-splenomegaly. Rectal examination was normal. The only other positive findings were hyperaemia and blurring of the optic discs bilaterally. Initial investigations showed:

4438

A 55-year-old male previously diagnosed with alcoholic liver disease was admitted with increasing confusion. He consumed at least 40 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he was confused with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 14, and had a slight flap of the outstretched hands. His temperature was 36.8 degree C and he had a blood pressure of 122/88 mmHg. He was noted to be jaundiced with spider naevi and palmar erytthema. Abdominal examination revealed slight distension but no organomegaly. Investigations revealed:

4439

A 55-year-old male is admitted with a large haemetemesis. Three weeks ago he underwent bilateral inguinal hernia repair and has been taking analgesia. The above image was noted on endoscopy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient? (Please select 1 option)

4440

A 65-year-old male is admitted after being found by the Police collapsed in the centre of town. He is a known alcoholic and is dishevelled and dirty. Examination reveals a confused male with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13, a temperature of 37 degree C, a pulse of 110 bpm regular and a blood pressure of 138/96 mmHg with oxygen saturations of 98 percent. There are no specific abnormalities on examination, with normal reflexes, tone and down going plantars. He has a respiratory rate of 30 per minute

4441

34-year-old male presents on the neurology ward with headache and breathlessness. He has a tetraplegia due to trauma to the cervical spine at level C5 which he sustained approximately two weeks ago in a rugby match. Examination reveals a flushed appearance, a temperature of 37.5 degree C, a blood pressure of 220/110 mmHg and a pulse of 60 bpm regular. His JVP is not elevated and chest and heart examinations are normal. Examination of the abdomen reveals no specific abnormality with a urinary catheter in situ although this appears to have become blocked over the last two hours. From the following list, what is the most likely explanation for his current symptoms? (Please select 1 option)

4442

A 23-year-old female presents acutely unwell. She has a three month history of weight loss, tiredness and lethargy which has deteriorated over the last week. Six weeks previously she had been diagnosed with hypothyroidism by her general practitioner

4443

A 42-year-old Zimbabwean man was admitted to Casualty after becoming unconcious at Heathrow airport shortly after his arrival in the UK. His wife said that he had been unwell for several weeks, but had complained of a high fever associated with neck stiffness for the past 24 hours. Microscopy of his CSF is pictured. What organism is shown? (Please select 1 option)

4444

What is the diagnosis? (Please select 1 option)

4445

A 52-year-old woman is referred by an orthopaedic surgeon for advice following a Colle fracture 8 weeks ago. At the time of her fracture, the radiologist had reported significant osteopenia. A dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan was carried out and her T score was –2.6 at the hip and -1.9 at the lumbar spine. She smokes approximately 15 cigarettes per day and has a body mass index of 21 kg/m2. She has been post-menopausal for 2 years, is unaware of any menopausal symptoms and has had a benign breast lump removed 18 months ago. She is currently taking aspirin, atenolol and glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray for her angina, which she only uses occasionally. What would be the most appropriate treatment? (Please select 1 option)

4446

45-year-old man with a past medical history of multiple sclerosis was admitted to hospital following an overdose of baclofen. He was diagnosed with relapsing and remitting multiple sclerosis 20 years ago and is usually mobile with 2 sticks. He performs intermittent self-catheterisation and his only medication is baclofen 20mg three times a day. He was found surrounded by empty packets previously containing baclofen by his son after returning from a night out with his friends. Earlier that evening, the patient and his partner had an argument and this was thought to have precipitated his actions. According to his partner, there were approximately 20 tablets left in the packet, each containing 10mg of baclofen. (150mg of baclofen is associated with severe toxicity). He is a non-smoker and is tea-total. The only other past medical history of note is a previous admission 18 months ago with severe community acquired pneumonia, which he needed mechanical ventilation. On examination, he was drowsy with a respiratory rate of 5/min. He had a Glasgow coma scale (GCS) of 8/15 (Eye=2, Verbal=2, Motor=4) and neurological examination revealed generalised hyporeflexia. Pulse rate was 60/min and blood pressure was 95 systolic and 60 diastolic. Examination of respiratory, cardiovascular and abdominal system was unremarkable. His arterial gases on 50% inspired O2 were as follows:

4447

What is the diagnosis?

4448

A 26-year-old woman presented in acute shock at 35 weeks of pregnancy with profuse vaginal bleeding. She had suffered two previous miscarriages. She had a pulse of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/84 mmHg and no foetal heart sounds were audible. Investigations revealed:

4449

What is the diagnosis? (Please select 1 option)

4450

These are the shins of a 73-year-old female who is admitted as a consequence of increasing confusion and inability to look after herself. Which one of the following investigations would be most likely to confirm the underlying diagnosis? (Please select 1 option)

4451

A 52-year-old man presented with acute dyspnoea. His past medical history includes 3 vessel coronary artery bypass surgery for Ischaemic Heart Disease. Examination revealed widespread inspiratory crackles with chest X-ray confirming pulmonary oedema. He was treated with intravenous nitrates and furosemide with symptomatic improvement. Investigations at this stage revealed:

4452

A 63-year-old man is brought to hospital after being found unconscious in his caravan. He is drowsy but rousable and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On examination his temperature is 36.5oC but appears flushed. Neck is supple and there is no palpable lymphadenopathy. BP 110/65. Heart sounds normal with no murmurs or added sounds. Chest clear to auscultation. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. His son reported that his father, usually a skilled model-maker, had appeared clumsy lately and had been confused at times when talking on the telephone

4453

A 16-year-old girl is brought to Casualty by her parents. She has a two-day history of general malaise, vomiting and vague abdominal discomfort. Over the past twelve hours she has become increasingly drowsy. On examination she was unresponsive to verbal commands. Temperature 36.5 degree C, BP 74/48

4454

Which of the following agents is the most appropriate to treat this lesion? (Please select 1 option)

4455

A 15 year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Room by her parents. She has no past medical history of note. In her parents absence, she says that she and her boyfriend had an argument several days previously and that as a result she took a number of paracetamol tablets-but did not intend to kill herself. Which of the following is the best indicator of the degree of hepatocellular damage? (Please select 1 option)

4456

A 28-year-old lady presents with a 3-day history of a painful swollen right calf. Her coagulation screen shows:

4457

What is the diagnosis? (Please select 1 option)

4458

A 47-year-old woman was seen in general medical clinic complaining of a 3 month history of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness. The weakness appeared to affect her shoulder muscles and thighs and she had noticed she was experiencing great difficulty in walking up and down stairs. She had not noticed any weakness of ocular muscles or any swallowing, speech or breathing problems. She had a past medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia and took regular Atenolol and Simvastatin. She was a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and did not drink alcohol. On examination her blood pressure was 135/85 mmHg, pulse 67 beats per minute and regular with a temperature 36.1 degree C. Auscultation of the chest and heart revealed normal heart sounds with some bilateral expiratory wheeze. Examination of the cranial nerves revealed no abnormalities and there was no detectable neck weakness. On upper limb examination there was general myalgia, but no evidence of wasting. Tone, reflexes and sensation were all normal, but there was proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. There was a similar pattern of weakness in the lower limb with preserved tone, reflexes and sensation

4459

A 32-year-old male schizophrenic is admitted with fever and confusion. Examination reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13, he appears dehydrated with a temperature of 40 degree C, a plethoric complexion and nicotinine staining of the fingers. His pulse is 110 bpm, with a blood pressure of 160/88 mmHg and his tone throughout all limbs is generally increased. There are no other abnormalities of note on examination

4460

A 29-year-old man presents with a 6 months history of nasal congestion. He was seen by an ENT consultant who diagnosed sinusitis. He presents now with a two day history of right periorbital swelling and diplopia. Examination reveals him to be unwell, with no neck stiffness or photophobia and his temperature is 37.4 degree C. He has marked drooping of the right eyelid with the right eye congested and deviated right with an enlarged right pupil. Left eye appears normal. Fundoscopy is normal. There is also loss of sensation of the right forehead. What is the likely diagnosis? (Please select 1 option)

4461

The following Arterial Blood Gases were taken from an unconscious 45-year-old man in the Accident and Emergency Department

4462

A 76-year-old lady had a GI bleed 10 months ago related to NSAID use for osteoarthritis. At that time an endoscopy showed a Duodenal Ulcer which was treated. She now re-presents with an acute haematemesis following represcription of diclofenac with misoprostol. Her Hb on admission is 5.6 g/dL. OGD is performed, showing a single bleeding vessel on the posterior wall of the duodenum. Injection sclerotherapy is attempted but fails to stop the bleeding. What is the next step in her management? (Please select 1 option)

4463

This 52 year-old man was found collapsed on a golf course. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation was initiated. On arrival of the Paramedics, he was noted to be in ventricular fibrillation. What was the cause of his collapse? (Please select 1 option)

4464

52-year-old man presented with acute dyspnoea. His past medical history includes 3 vessel coronary artery bypass surgery for Ischaemic Heart Disease and hypertension. Examination revealed widespread expiratory crackles with chest X-ray confirming pulmonary oedema. He was treated with intravenous nitrates and furosemide with symptomatic improvement

4465

This 80 year-old lady presented with congestive cardiac failure. What is the diagnosis?

4466

A 19-year-old man is brought to Casualty after having a generalized seizure in a nightclub. Some friends, who are accompanying him, state that he has a known history of epilepsy. They also report that he has consumed approximately 10 pints of lager during the evening and that he vomited while having the seizure. On examination the patient is drowsy but responsive to verbal commands. His clothing is covered in vomitus. He is febrile, 37.5 degree C. On auscultation of his chest, there are coarse crackles in the right upper and mid zones. His chest radiograph shows diffuse right upper lobar airway shadowing. Which of the following combinations of antibiotics should be started? (Please select 1 option)

4467

A 19-year-old man presented with pleuritic chest pain which occurred suddenly while playing football. He presented to the Accident and Emergency department complaining of dyspnoea. His Chest X-ray is shown below. Which of the following would be the definitive treatment for this condition? (Please select 1 option)

4468

A 35-year-old male presents after being stabbed in the neck. A 3 cm wound is present at the base of the neck, just right of midline above the sternum. An expanding hematoma is noted. The patient is intubated for airway protection and taken to the operating room for exploration. What is the bestinitial incision to expose and control this injury?

4469

A 26-year-old male presents with a stab wound to the rightchest about 1 cm lateral to the sternum between the secondand third ribs. The patient is awake but confused, his HR is100 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 102/54 mmHg. Heis taken to the operating room after initial resuscitation. What is the best approach to expose this injury?

4470

A 37-year-old female comes in with a stab wound to the rightchest just lateral to the sternal border. HR is 130 beats/min, blood pressure is 74/58 mmHg, and jugular venous distentionis noted on examination with muffled heart sounds. Whichoption provides the appropriate diagnosis and treatment?

4471

The quadrangular space is bounded by the following structure except which?

4472

All of the following statements concerning the brachial plexus are correct except which:

4473

The labourer nerve is another name for:

4474

Structure piercing the clavipectoral facia are all except:

4475

The boundary of the triangle of auscultation is formed by all except which:

4476

All the muscle attached to the bicipital groove of humerus except:

4477

The carpal tunnel contains the following structure except which?

4478

Select incorrect statement about the supraspinatus:

4479

Which of the following bone does not have a medullary cavity?

4480

Function of palmar interossei are all except:

4481

Ape thumb deformity is seen in involvement of:

4482

All the following statements concerning the brachial plexus are correct except which?

4483

The boundaries of anatomical snuffbox include the following except which?

4484

Hyperextension of the proximal phalanges of the little and ring fingers (i.e. claw hand) can result from damage to the ________ nerve

4485

An inabilities to oppose the thumb to the little finger can result from damage to the ________ nerve

4486

All the muscles are attached to coracoid process of scapula except:

4487

The sternoclavicular joint is a:

4488

The content of lower triangular space in scapular region is:

4489

The muscle which initiates shoulder abduction is:

4490

True about latissimus dorsi:

4491

Which of the following is not a branch of the axillary artery?

4492

The flexor retinaculum attaches to all bones except:

4493

All are true about median nerve except:

4494

The deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies all the muscles of hand except:

4495

Continuation of medial cord of brachial plexus is:

4496

Sternoclavicular joint is a type of:

4497

The medial wall of axilla is formed by:

4498

The dorsum of hand is supplied by:

4499

In Erb palsy which is not seen:

4500

Supination and pronation occur at which joint:

4501

The following pairs describe the muscles producing flexion of elbow joint and their respective nerve. Choose the wrong pair:

4502

About deep palmar arch all are true except:

4503

The nerve of Bell is:

4504

Abduction of wrist is done by all except:

4505

The defect known as winged scapula is caused by damage to a nerve that arises from which of the following structures of the brachial plexus?

4506

The content of upper triangular space is:

4507

The Erb point in brachial plexus is:

4508

Klumpke paralysis is due to injury to:

4509

Which of the following is not a content of the axilla?

4510

Lower angle of scapula corresponds to which vertebral level?

4511

In a vehicular accident, the musculocutaneous nerve was completely severed, but the person was able to weekly flex the elbow joint. All of the following muscles are responsible for the action. Except:

4512

Artery of anatomical snuff box is:

4513

The nerve damage due to lunate dislocation is:

4514

The content of cubital fossa are all except:

4515

Median nerve supplies all the muscle of the thumb except:

4516

Root value of the radial nerve is:

4517

Nerve lying in the spiral groove of humerus is:

4518

Which nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?

4519

Which of the following walls of the axilla is formed by the humerus?

4520

The floor of triangle of auscultation is formed by:

4521

The muscle attached to the lesser tubercle of humerus:

4522

True about branchial plexus:

4523

True about Latissimus dorsi:

4524

The structure which does not pass under flexor retinaculum:

4525

The pinch grip test is for:

4526

The dinner fork deformity is seen in:

4527

The median nerve supplies all of the thenar muscles except:

4528

The muscle having dual nerve supply are all except:

4529

All are true about radial nerve except:

4530

The retraction of scapula is achieved by all except:

4531

Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to which nerve injury:

4532

The movements of supination and pronation occurs in all of the following joints except:

4533

The following are true about cephalic vein except:

4534

The cutaneous innervation of the dorsum of hand is by:

4535

True about deep palmar arch:

4536

A patient presents with blunt trauma chest on the right side, he is having shortness of breath and pain on left side. Chest xray has been shown. Which of the following is not true about this condition

4537

In the given NCCT head, which of the following is false

4538

What is the name of this amputation shown in the figure

4539

A patient after trauma presented to casualty and was hemodynamically unstable, during laparotomy the following finding was seen. What is the likely mechanism of trauma?

4540

This is an example of which type of De Bakey Aortic dissection?

4541

The picture shown below is?

4542

Case of stab injury to the abdomen and the picture is shown as below. What is the next line of management?

4543

Following blunt abdominal trauma, mandatory exploration is indicated for a nonexpanding hematoma identified on CT scan in which of the following areas?

4544

Which of the following vessel injuries can be safely ligated in an unstable trauma patient?

4545

A 41-year-old male who was shot in the abdomen multiple times undergoes an exploratory laparotomy with multiple bowel resections. Following surgery, he is taken to the ICU for further resuscitation. Which of the following signs is consistent with the development of an abdominal compartment syndrome?

4546

A 16-year-old unrestrained driver is involved in a roll-over head-on collision. Extensive damage to the vehicle and prolonged extrication time was noted. The patient was hemodynamically unstable upon extrication and was transported by air to a level I trauma center. While in transport, the patient became severely hypotensive and unresponsive, with impending respiratory distress. Which of the following is considered a life-threatening injury in this patient that warrants immediate intervention?

4547

The severity of hypovolemic shock has been found to correlate with

4548

A 41-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after sustaining a gunshot wound to the abdomen, with injuries to the liver and large bowel. Despite successful resuscitation and operative intervention, the patient dies 2 weeks later of multisystem organ failure in the intensive care unit. Which organ most likely first experienced dysfunction?

4549

In which category of shock is the Trendelenburg position considered a viable treatment option?

4550

Which of the following is true of tissue oxygenation in septic shock?

4551

A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle crash. On physical examination, he opens his eyes to painful stimulation, he occasionally mumbles incomprehensible sounds, he localizes to painful stimulation with his right upper extremity, and he withdraws his left upper extremity to pain. His pupils are 4 mm bilaterally and reactive. What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

4552

Diffuse axonal injury (DAI) results from what type of force acting on the brain?

4553

A mother brings her 14-month-old son into the emergency department because he is difficult to arouse.The mother states that the infant accidentally fell off a changing table that is approximately 3 ft tall. On physical examination, you find that the infant has multiple bruises and bilateral retinal hemorrhages. Skull radio- graphs show a right frontal and a left parietal linear fracture. A CT scan of the head shows a left convexity chronic subdural hematoma. The most likely diagnosis is

4554

A 24-year-old man is taken to the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle crash approximately 3 hours ago. The patient was the unrestrained driver, and he cannot recall the crash. He complains of a left-sided headache, and you notice on physical examination that he has a palpable deformity over the left side of his skull and a boggy temporalis muscle. You order a CT scan of the head. The nurse calls you 20 minutes later to see the patient because he has suddenly become unresponsive. A CT scan of the head is most likely to reveal what type of lesion?

4555

All of the following are physical signs of a basal skull fracture except

4556

A 58-year-old woman with multiple comorbidities and previous cardiac surgery is in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is intubated for airway protection. Because of hemodynamic instability, a central venous catheter is placed in the right subclavian vein. While the surgeon is securing the catheter, the cap becomes displaced and air enters the catheter. Suddenly, the patient becomes tachycardic and hypotensive. What is the best next maneuver?

4557

A teenage boy falls from his bicycle and is run over by a truck. On arrival in the emergency room (ER), he is awake and alert and appears frightened but in no distress. The chest radiograph suggests an air-fluid level in the left lower lung field and the nasogastric tube seems to coil upward into the left chest. Which of the following is the next best step in his management?

4558

A 25-year-old woman arrives in the ER following an automobile accident. She is acutely dyspneic with a respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are markedly diminished on the right side. Which of the following is the best first step in the management of this patient?

4559

A 45-year-old man was an un-helmeted motorcyclist involved in a high-speed collision. He was ejected from the motorcycle and was noted to be apneic at the scene. After being intubated, he was brought to the ER, where he is noted to have a left dilated pupil that responds only sluggishly. What is the pathophysiology of his dilated pupil?

4560

A 31-year-old man is brought to the ER following an automobile accident in which his chest struck the steering wheel. Examination reveals stable vital signs and no evidence of respiratory distress, but the patient exhibits multiple palpable rib fractures and paradoxical movement of the right side of the chest. Chest x-ray shows no evidence of pneumothorax or hemothorax. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

4561

A patient is brought to the ER after a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious and has a deep scalp laceration and one dilated pupil. His heart rate is 120 beats per minute, blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute. Despite rapid administration of 2-L normal saline, the patient’s vital signs do not change significantly. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the workup of his hypotension?

4562

A 27-year-old man presents to the ER after a high-speed motor vehicle collision with chest pain and marked respiratory distress. On physical examination, he is hypotensive with distended neck veins and absence of breath sounds in the left chest. Which of the following is the proper initial treatment?

4563

An 18-year-old high school football player is kicked in the left flank. Three hours later he develops hematuria. His vital signs are stable. A CT scan demonstrates a grade II renal injury based on the Urologic Injury Scale of the American Association for the Surgery of Trauma. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

4564

A 49-year-old man was the restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision. He decelerated rapidly in order to avoid hitting another car and swerved into a ditch. He complains of chest pain. Which of the following findings on chest x-ray would be most suspicious for an aortic injury?

4565

A 58-year-old man presents to the ER after falling 10 ft from a ladder. Examination reveals stable vital signs, no evidence of respiratory distress, and multiple right-sided rib fractures. Chest x-ray shows a hemothorax on the right side and a right tube thoracostomy is performed in the ER. Approximately 700 mL of blood is immediately drained with placement of the thoracostomy tube. Over the next 4 hours he continues to drain 300 mL/h after the original evacuation. Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient?

4566

A 25-year-old un-helmeted man involved in a motorcycle collision has multiple cerebral contusions on head computed tomographic (CT) scan. He is agitated but hemodynamically stable, with a heart rate of 80 beats per minute and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 90 mm Hg. An intracranial pressure monitor is placed, and the initial ICP reading is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate in the management of his traumatic brain injury (TBI) over the next few days?

4567

A 55-year-old man involved in an automobile accident is unresponsive and is intubated at the scene. On arrival in the emergency department, he responds to painful stimulation. His systolic BP is 60 mm Hg, his HR is 140 bpm, his neck veins are distended, and his breath sounds are absent on the left side. Immediate management should involve which of the following?

4568

A 45-year-old man skidded from the road at high speed and hit a tree. Examples of deceler- ation injuries in this patient include:

4569

A 25-year-old man fell down from his bicycle and hit a concrete wall on his left side. An ultra- sound examination showed free fluid in the abdomen. A CT scan confirmed a grade III splenic injury. The most important contraindication for a non-operative management of the splenic injury is:

4570

A 32-year-old female falls from the tenth floor of her apartment building in an apparent suicide attempt. Upon presentation, the patient has obvious head and extremity injuries. Primary survey reveals that the patient is totally apneic. By which method is the immediate need for a definitive airway in this patient best provided?

4571

A 60-year-old man is attacked with a baseball bat and sustains multiple blows to the abdomen. He presents to the emergency department in shock and is brought to the operating room (OR), where a laparotomy reveals massive hemoperitoneum and a stellate fracture of the right and left lobes of the liver. Which of the following techniques should be used immediately?

4572

A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a gunshot injury to the abdomen. At laparotomy, a deep laceration is found in the pancreas just to the left of the vertebral column with severance of the pancreatic duct. What is the next step in management?

4573

A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to the anterior mid neck. On physical examination, it is difficult to determine if the plane of the platysma has been violated. However, subcutaneous emphysema is found on palpation. What is the next management step?

4574

A 40-year-old woman was involved in a car crash. She was unconscious for 5 minutes. X- ray revealed a depressed fracture in the frontal region. Which of the following statements is true of skull fracture?

4575

Which of the following sets of clinical signs are usually associated with a basal skull fracture?

4576

A unit of blood could be transfused most rapidly through which of the following vascular access catheters?

4577

Patient suffering from the following condition life threatening hypoxia after the surgery. Most appropriate management is:

4578

Most common carcinoma developing in the following condition is;

4579

A 38 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaint of neck mass. She was diagnosed to be suffering from thyroid carcinoma. Eventually she was managed surgically. Histopathology of the neck swelling returned the following picture. Most likely the female was suffering from

4580

Thyroid incidentaloma less than 1 cm in size discovered in a patient with family history of thyroid cancer. Preferred management:

4581

A 24 year old female presents to surgery OPD with complaints of irritability, nervousness, palpitations, and heat intolerance, for last 2 weeks. Her symptoms become distressing at times and she finds it difficult to attend to his 3 month old male child. Thyroid functions tests reveal high levels of thyroxine. Iodine scan was done which revealed decreased uptake. Likely diagnosis of the condition

4582

A 56 year old female presents with a smooth goitre. Blood tests reveal a high TSH. Which of the following investigations would be further helpful in reaching a diagnosis?

4583

After undergoing thyroid surgery for graves diseases, a 38 year old school teacher complains of hoarseness. Laryngoscopy was repeated which confirmed left side vocal cord to be lying in median position. Likely injured nerve(s) is

4584

The following sign is seen in

4585

A 40-year-old woman presents with tiredness, weight loss and heat intolerance; she has used lithium in the past for bipolar disease. She has a family history of thyroid disease. On examination, she is clinically hyperthyroid, with lid lag and agitation. On examination, she has a smooth, palpable goitre with one dominant swelling (3 cm) in the right lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

4586

A 45-year-old woman undergoes total thyroidectomy and central compartment Lymph node dissection for a 5 cm papillary thyroid cancer, with biopsy-proven nodal disease. The tumour had extra thyroidal spread laterally, and the recurrent laryngeal nerve (although visualized and exposed throughout its length) was closely adherent. In recovery, her cough and voice are abnormal and weak. What is the most appropriate treatment?

4587

A 48-year-old woman presents with a THY1 lesion, (aspirate from an isolated, recurrent 5 cm right-sided cystic thyroid swelling) what is the most appropriate treatment?

4588

Contra indications of the following surgery are all except

4589

Identify the following method of examination

4590

Identify the triangle marked A in the figure below?

4591

The following device is used for

4592

The following device is used for

4593

Identify the following device

4594

Identify the instrument

4595

Which of the nerves can be damaged in following surgical position

4596

Identify the knot

4597

A 30-year-old woman fell from the roof of her house. On arrival in emergency department  she is noticed  to be opening her eyes to speech, moves in response to painful stimuli by withdrawing her arms and is using inappropriate words. Her vital signs are stable. What is her current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

4598

A 24 year old man is brought to emergency department with history of fall from height. He was diagnosed to be suffering from wedge collapse of lumbar vertebrae. Folley catheterization was done as a part of management. The colour code of the folley catheter used would most likely be

4599

Identify the surgical blade

4600

Identify the instrument

4601

Identify the instrument

4602

The following surgical procedure is done for

4603

A middle age patient underwent ERCP for CBD calculi, now presents with fever, right hypochondrium pain and jaundice. USG shows hypoechoic lesion in liver. There was no evidence of cholelithiasis. TLC was found to be 13,000 /mm3 and alkaline phosphatase 240 IU/l. Treatment of choice in thgis condition is

4604

A 25 year old man presented with abdominal pain, nausea, jaundice. Clinical examination revealed mild tenderness in right hypochondrium. Blood investigations show raised SGOT and SGPT. Most likely diagnosis is:

4605

45 year old house wife, living in a rural household of eastern india presented to surgery OPD with complaint of dull pain abdomen, associated with nausea. General physical examination revealed mild hepatomegaly. A provisional diagnosis was reached at after performing the USG. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done by

4606

CT scan was performed in a post menopausal woman while undergoing metastatic work up for carcinoma breast. She was found to harbor a 6 cms lesion in right lobe of liver. On 3 phase CT it was found to have features suggestive of hemangioma. Appropriate management would be:

4607

Investigation of choice to diagnose the above mentioned condition is

4608

A 64-year-old man presented with a 6-month history of epigastric pain, weight loss, and nausea. In the previous 3 months, he had lost 10 kg. Upper endoscopy revealed an ad-enocarcinoma of the gastric corpus. Computed tomography of the abdomen showed  liver metastasis. On examination, he was also noted to have a nontender, firm, fixed neck swelling as pointed below. It was confirmed later on as an enlarged lymph node. The level of this cervical lymph node is

4609

A 32 year old female presented to surgery OPD with 1 year history of soft compressible swelling in the sub mandibular region. On examination, the selling is soft, compressible and squeezing the swelling causes a lump to appear in the floor-of-mouth. The swelling arises in relation to which muscle

4610

A 55-year-old, man, smoker and alcoholic presents with a history of a painless, gradually enlarging mass in the region of the right parotid for about 7 months. He presents after noticing difficulty depressing the right angle of his mouth, and being unable to close his right eye fully for the previous week. On examination, There is a firm, nontender mass overlying the right angle of the mandible, somewhat mobile but with a suggestion of fixity to the overlying skin. No adenopathy is palpable elsewhere in the neck. No mucosal lesions or cutaneous tumors are present. Likely diagnosis

4611

A 52 year old male underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy for acute appendicitis. The diagnosis was made on the basis of CECT abdomen as clinical examination alone was found to be inconclusive for establishing a diagnosis. Intra operatively the appendix was found to be inflamed. However no mass lesion was noticed. Patient was shifted back to ward. After 6 hours patient complained of mild pain abdomen and slight nausea. He was administered injection diclofenac and cyclizine. However the patient condition worsened and he developed breathlessness. His blood pressure was found to be 80/64 mm hg, HR was found to be 120 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation was found to be 88 percent (on room air). Next step in management should be

4612

Following a major accident, a patient presents with cool clammy extremities, tachycardia, weak peripheral pulses, and sustained hypotension. The blood volume loss would be a minimum of:

4613

A 44 year old known diabetic presented to surgery OPD with a painful wound over gluteal region which has progressed rapidly over last 3 days. On examination wound with dead tissue and muscle sparing is noticed. Most common pathogen incriminated in following condition is

4614

Identify the vascular structure

4615

Harvested skin graft can be stored for future use for

4616

A 42 year old farm labourer presents to surgery OPD with history of a long standing ulcerated nodular at the angle of mouth. Cevical examination was found to be unremarkable. Biopsy was dviased which confirmed the diagnosis of basal cell carcinoma Preferred treatment of the condition is

4617

The primary purpose of following surgery is

4618

Mother was diagnosed as having pregnancy induced hypertension. Which of the following is not expected to be affected in fetus?

4619

Extremely preterm child is gestational age less than:

4620

A newborn is having laboured breathing. Airway was cleaned and positioning was done. Most appropriate next step is:

4621

In a newborn, heart rate was absent at birth. All appropriate steps were performed. Resuscitation efforts should be discontinued after birth at:

4622

Dose of epinephrine to be used in neonatal resuscitation via intravenous route is:

4623

38 week gestation, child had heart rate less than 100/min at birth. Initial concentration of oxygen to be started is:

4624

In APGAR the letter R stands for:

4625

Periventicular leucomalacia is seen in preterm child. Most likely cause is:

4626

In a 30 week gestational age child there is tense fontanel. On examination there is decreased hematocrit, hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia and hypotension. Initial investigation required for diagnosis is:

4627

Initial investigation done in child with neonatal seizure is:

4628

All are the features of jitteriness seen in children except:

4629

Congenital alveolar proteinosis is due to deficiency of surfactant protein:

4630

Mother is having twin pregnancy and gestational age is approximately 30 week. True regarding antenatal corticosteroid prophylaxis is:

4631

Drug which is used in child with transient tachypnea of newborn is:

4632

Meconium stained child is born. On examination there is depressed respiration, poor muscle tone and HR less than 100/min. All of the following steps are required in management except:

4633

Following arrows in picture is suggestive of congenital diaphragmatic hernia type:

4634

On 2nd day of life SpO2 was measured in a child. SpO2 in right upper limb is 92 percent and in right lower limb is 81 percent. Drug likely to benefit this child is:

4635

Child was diagnosed to have small left colon syndrome after being evaluated for history of delayed passage of meconium. Mother is likely to have:

4636

All are the clinical features seen in Kernicterus except:

4637

All of the following are the causes of neonatal cholestasis except:

4638

Rolling appears in a child when which of the following reflex disappears:

4639

All are the risk factors for Necrotizing enterocolitis in a child except:

4640

In a child born to a diabetic mother, monitoring for hypoglycaemia is required for:

4641

In a term child, hypocalcemia is total serum calcium less than:

4642

Serum hypothermia in newborn is temperature:

4643

In a child born to HIV positive mother, nucleic acid amplification test should be done at:

4644

HIV positive mother was breast feeding the child. Child also becomes HIV positive. Child was started on anti retoviral therapy. Breast feeding in this child should be continued for:

4645

Mother has history of Toxoplasma infection during pregnancy. At birth IgM antibodies were negative and IgG antibodies were present. Again at 1 year IgG antibodies are present. Next step in management is:

4646

Most common late sequelae of congenital cytomegalo virus infection is:

4647

At birth child was diagnosed to have microcephaly. On examination picture is as shown. This is suggestive of congenital infection:

4648

12 months old boy presents with complaint of not growing properly. On history he is still entirely breastfed. On examination his wrist is as shown. Most likely diagnosis is:

4649

8 year old girl comes with complaint of difficulty in vision. There is history of recurrent episodes of loose stools and pneumonias. The weight of child is 18 Kg and height is 90cm. Most likely diagnosis is:

4650

All are features seen in Kwashiorkor except:

4651

Severe acute malnourished child came in emergency. Blood sugar is 40mg/dL. Child is conscious and responding to verbal commands. All of the following will be done in management except:

4652

Hypothermia in severe acute malnourished is rectal temperature below:

4653

Correct regarding the composition of rehydration solution for malnourished child (Resomal) ORS is:

4654

Malnourished child was started on F75 diet. He should be shifted to F100 diet when:

4655

X linked hypophosphatemic ricket is due to overproduction of factor:

4656

Following picture is suggestive of vitamin/mineral deficiency:

4657

Child has swollen gums, depressed sternum and perifollicular haemorrhages. On radiograph following changes are seen. This is suggestive of:

4658

Child responds to name and transfer object from one hand to another at the age of:

4659

Child can uncover a toy after being said, it is hidden. Developmental implications is:

4660

Child can speak sentence of 4 words and use past tense. Age of the child is:

4661

Child can walk up and down stairs, 1 step at a time. He can open doors. Age of the child is:

4662

A 3 year old child can do all of the following except:

4663

True regarding familial short stature in child is:

4664

Increased height in children can be seen in all of the following except:

4665

14 months old male child comes with history of no teeth eruption yet. Most common cause is:

4666

3 year old girl has weight of 55 percent of expected and height of 91 percent of expected. According to IAP classification degree of malnutrition is:

4667

10 year old girls presents in OPD with short stature. Findings are as seen below. Diagnosis will be confirmed by:

4668

Neuroblastoma usually metastases to all of the following except:

4669

Child comes with history of passing blood in urine and abdominal pain. On examination abdominal mass is present. Initial investigation to be done in this child is:

4670

There is involvement of gene WT-1. On examination focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and gonadoblastoma. This is seen in syndrome:

4671

6 year old child presented with history of headache and vomiting. On MRI there is a solid, homogenosis contrast enhancing mass is the posterior fossa causing 4th ventricular obstruction and hydrocephalus. Out of the following most likely cause is:

4672

2 year old child, presented with jaundice and abdominal pain. On examination there is right upper quadrant mass and increased alpha fetoprotein. Most likely diagnosis is:

4673

All are skeletal feature seen in Turner syndrome except:

4674

All of the following are true about Noonan syndrome except:

4675

Criduchat syndrome is due to deletion of the chromosome:

4676

Chromosome disorder not associated with increased maternal age is:

4677

All are the features seen in trisomy 18 Edward syndrome except:

4678

Before being used for a patient, fresh frozen plasma should be thawed in the blood bank in water bath with temperature between 30 degree C to 37 degree C. Temperature higher than this is not preferred because

4679

A 62 year old patient was to be taken up for low anterior resection for carcinoma rectum. The surgeon decided to transfuse 2 units of cross matched blood to the patient before surgery in view of severe anaeamia. First blood transfusion went un eventful. However 2 hours after second transfusion, the patient developed dyspnea, fever, cyanosis and hypotension. Chest x-ray (CXR) shows evidence of bilateral pulmonary edema unassociated with heart failure (non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema), with bilateral patchy infiltrates. Treatment options include

4680

A 22-year-old man is brought into the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He sustained an open fracture of the right tibia and fibula. His HR is 110 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 108/85, respiratory rate (RR) 28; urine output is 25 mL in the last hour. Which class of hemorrhagic shock does he fall into?

4681

A 62 year old male suffering from colorectal carcinoma is to undergo low anterior resection. which of the following is not necessary

4682

A motorcyclist sustained blunt trauma abdomen in a road side accident and was brought to causality by passer byes. FAST was done and splenic injury was confirmed, followed by immediate laparotomy. The surgeon however decides to put in a drain. Best place to place the drain in such cases would be

4683

A 62-year-old woman presents to surgery OPD for further workup of a left lung mass detected on x-ray chest. She has been a smoker but quit it 10 years back. Further, she complains of immense fatigue. She also noted increasing shortness of breath and cough for 6 weeks, but no hemoptysis. Scrutiny of her medical records shows that over a period of 4 weeks she has lost around 5 kgs of weight too. Likely diagnosis

4684

A 56-year-old woman, a chronic smoker is referred from orthopaedics OPD with 6 months history of pain left shoulder radiating to her arm. Physical examination is unremarkable, including range of motion of her left shoulder and chest auscultation. There is a family history of diabetes, lung cancer, and breast cancer. X rays of cervical spine and shoulder joint are unremarkable. On posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest radiographs, the heart size is normal, and the lung fields are clear, with the exception of a small opacity in the left apex. Most likely diagnosis

4685

A 42 year old morbidly obese computer engineer presents to surgery OPD for treatment of his condition. All his efforts to manage his obesity failed including dietary therapy, exercise and even drug therapy. The attending doctor advised him to undergo Roux en y gastric by-pass surgery. Before undergoing the procedure, to obtain his informed consent, he needs detailing about the likely benefits and ill effects. The main disadvantage to be explained to him must be:

4686

A 14-year-old girl presents with a 2 cm soft, fluctuant lump on the right side of her neck adjacent to the angle of the mandible. The lump trans illuminates and is cystic on ultrasound. Diagnosis?

4687

A 62 year old patient was to be taken up for low anterior resection for carcinoma rectum. The surgeon decided to transfuse 2 units of cross matched blood to the patient before surgery in view of severe anemia. First blood transfusion went uneventful. However 2 hours after second transfusion, the patient developed dyspnea, fever, cyanosis and hypotension. Chest x-ray (CXR) shows evidence of bilateral pulmonary edema unassociated with heart failure (non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema), with bilateral patchy infiltrates. Treatment options include

4688

Identify the suture

4689

A 3-day-old girl with cystic fibrosis has a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant. A plain abdominal X-ray reveals dilated small bowel loops. Select the appropriate diagnosis

4690

A 34-year-old man presents with a firm lump in the right side of his neck just below the mandible. The lump measures 3 cm. The skin appears attached to the lump and there is a small punctum visible. Diagnosis?

4691

A 22-year-old man is brought into the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He sustained an open fracture of the right tibia and fibula. His HR is 110 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 110/86, respiratory rate (RR) 28; urine output is 25 mL in the last hour. Which class of haemorrhagic shock does he fall into?

4692

A 32 year old patient underwent bowel resection due to mesenteric vein thrombus, and had to be put on Total parenteral nutrition for initial management. The attending doctor chose to insert a central veinous catheter in internal jugular vein. The reason to chose internal jugular vein over subclavian vein include

4693

The following method of central veinous cannulation is preferred for

4694

A middle aged male sustained blunt trauma abdomen and is being subjected to laparotomy for a splenic injury. While performing laparotomy the surgeon decided to use diathermy. Skin incision is given and for the next abdominal layer, the surgeon decided to CUT through using a diathermy. Diathermy in cutting mode uses what type of current

4695

Identify the following medical device:

4696

A morbidly obese man is in the ICU 12 h after a separation of- components hernia repair for a large hernia with loss of abdominal domain. He is intubated and sedated. The nurse calls you to the bedside because of worsening abdominal distension. Which of the following is not a sign of developing an abdominal compartment syndrome?

4697

A 60-year-old man is admitted for cellulitis, Antibiotics are started, and the patient is observed. On hospital day 5, he is febrile, coughing up thick green sputum, and dyspneic. A chest radiograph shows an infiltrate in his right lower lobe, and laboratory tests show a WBC count of 18,000/mm3. Which characteristic of nosocomial pneumonia listed below is not correct?

4698

A 65-year-old male undergoes parotidectomy for a parotidneoplasm. Which of the following is true regarding parotidectomy?

4699

The following condition occurred in a patient 12 days after he was operated for a perforated duodenal ulcer

4700

A 32 year old male presented to emergency department with history of sharpnelle injury. Appropriate management for the following wound of his would be

4701

A 45-year-old female presents with a 0.5-mm lesion suspicious for melanoma. Which of the following principles should you follow when performing biopsies of lesions suspicious for melanoma?

4702

Pathogenesis of thrombosis is explained by Virchow triad. All are true about Virchow triad except:

4703

Localized area of coagulative necrosis is called infarct. It is usually due to ischemia. Pale infarcts are seen at all of the following sites except:

4704

Oedema is the correction of fluid in serous cavities or interstitial tissue. Primary causes of non-inflammatory oedema include all of the following except:

4705

An infarct is an area of ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of either the arterial supply or the venous drainage. All of the following are true of red infarction, except:

4706

Lines of Zahn help in differentiating antemortem clots from postmortem clots. They occur in:

4707

60 year old male had complaint of cough with pink frothy sputum. He was diagnosed as having left ventricular failure. On examination heart failure cells will be seen in:

4708

Normal endothelium has antiplatelet, anticoagulant and fibrinolytic effect which prevents normal blood coagulation. Factors produced by the endothelium which inhibit platelet aggregation includes:

4709

65 year old male had ischemic stroke and was started on heparin. There was skin rash present and it was diagnosed as heparin induced thrombocytopenia. All are true about heparin induced thrombocytopenia syndrome except:

4710

Thrombi can develop anywhere in the cardio vascular system including heart and blood vessels. True regarding thrombosis is:

4711

70 year old male had road side traffic accident and was unable to move lower limb. On hospitalization 3rd day there was difficulty in breathing and skin rash. It was suspected to be fat embolism syndrome. All are true about fat embolism syndrome except:

4712

Patient had myocardial infarction and was admitted in hospital. Decision to do angioplasty was done. Following angioplasty of an arterial obstruction there is:

4713

Patient presented with chest pain that improved on leaning forward. On examination there is hepatomegaly jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. It was diagnosed as constrictive pericarditis. Cause of edema is:

4714

Child was diagnosed as having Nephrotic syndrome and there is presence of edema. Regarding edematous fluid all are feature of transudate except:

4715

30 year old male had ischemic stroke. All of the following genetic causes of hypercoagulability can cause except:

4716

40 year old female had hysterectomy done and was hospitalized. Patient is non ambulatory for 5 days and now complains of chest pain. She was diagnosed as pulmonary embolism. Most common source of pulmonary embolism is:

4717

In all of the following there is Hyper coagulable state except:

4718

Which of the following thrombi are found in arterioles, capillaries, venules and are typical of disseminated intravascular coagulation:

4719

Which of the following types of emboli will result in widespread mental changes, thrombocytopenia, petechiae, acute respiratory distress, and lesions in the brain including cerebral edema and microinfarcts:

4720

55 year old make chronic smoker presented with hepatomegaly and peripheral edema. Hepatomegaly is due to Nutmeg Liver. The pathological changes in liver is due to:

4721

Nutmeg liver refers to the mottled appearance of the liver as a result of hepatic venous congestion. Radiologically, it is most appreciable on portovenous phase imaging on cross-sectional imaging. It is named after the cut appearance of the nutmeg seed

4722

Platelets play important role in blood coagulation. They have 2 types of granules, alpha-granules and dense granules. All are present in alpha granules except:

4723

Patient complains of swelling in leg, pain on deep pressure over the calf and pain in the calf when the foot is dorsiflexed. Cause of edema is:

4724

A child is diagnosed to have platelet aggregation defect-glanzmann thrombosthenia. There is deficiency of factor:

4725

In all of the following there is increased risk of coagulation except:

4726

In heart thrombus can be present in the chamber or attached to the endocardium or heart valve. Thrombi present on heart valves are called:

4727

25 year old female complains of shortness of breath after 10 hrs of travel by air. Pulmonary embolism is suspected. Her D-Dimer is increased. True about pulmonary embolism is:

4728

Patient presented with dyspnea, chest pain, fever and hemopsis. On X-ray Wedge shaped shadow was seen. It is suggestive of:

4729

Venous emboli that reach the arterial circulation through the formation ovale or an interventricular septal defect and causing symptoms similar to arterial emboli is called:

4730

Platelets have receptor which help in adhesion and aggregation. Which of the following is most abundant receptor on platelet surface:

4731

Hypercoagulability due to defective factor V gene is called:

4732

In healing by secondary intention there is wound contraction seen, which is mediated by myofibroblast. This myofibroblast contain:

4733

3 year old child was having defective phagolysosome formation and was diagnosed as Chediak Higashi syndrome. All are the features which can be seen except:

4734

On microscopic examination there is presence of well circumscribed granuloma. It can be seen in all of the following except:

4735

Granulation tissue is seen in wound healing which helps in formation of extracellular matrix. It contains of the following except:

4736

In acute inflammation the hallmark feature is increased vascular permeability. Most common mechanism of vascular leakage in acute inflammation is:

4737

6 year old child presented with recurrent bacterial infection of the skin, mouth, respiratory tract, lower intestinal tract and genital mucosa.  There is presence of neutrophilic leucocytosis. On examination there is absence of Sialyl-Lewis X receptor. This child is suffering from:

4738

Arachidonic acid metabolites are involved in the inflammation. They are released from the cell membrane by activation of:

4739

Bacterial killing is accomplished (in neutrophils) largely by:

4740

In wound healing in skin usually granulation tissue makes it appearance on:

4741

A 14 years old boy with history of petechiae and necrotising infection of gums reported to a physician. On examination his platelets were found to be reduced. He showed focal spot of hypopigmentation on skin. The disease is:

4742

In acute inflammation after exiting from the circulation, leucocytes move in the tissue towards the site of injury by the process caused chemotaxis. Which of the following chemical mediator is responsible for chemotaxis?

4743

Some complements stimulate histamine release from mast cell and cause vasodilation. Which of these complement components act as anaphylatoxins?

4744

40 year old male presented with chronic cough. On chest X ray there is bilateral hilar adenopathy and on microscopic examination there is non-necrotizing granulomas. This is seen in:

4745

In wound healing deposition of collagen is required. Vitamin required for hydroxylation of lysine and proline which helps in collagen synthesis is:

4746

In acute inflammation Rolling is mediated by selectin. The selectin which is expressed on leukocytes is called L–selectin. It binds to the receptor on endothelium:

4747

In acute inflammation stimulation of kinin pathway produces bradykinin by the enzyme kallikreins. Effects of bradykinin are similar to:

4748

Deposition of collagen is a part of normal wound healing. In lung and kidney myofibroblasts are the main source of collagen and in liver major source of collagen production is:

4749

Complements form membrane attack complex which helps in killing of bacteria with thin cell wall. Deficiency of the complements factor C5,C6,C7, C8, and C9 leads to increased incidence of infection by:

4750

In acute inflammation there is vasoconstriction, vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. Most characteristic feature of acute inflammation is:

4751

The most abundant glycoprotein present in basement membrane which connects cells to underlying extracellular matrix is:

4752

Transmigration of leucocytes mainly occurs in post capillary venules. Leukocyte migration through endothelium occurs with the help of adhesion molecules:

4753

Macrophages are the dominant cell in most chronic inflammatory reaction. Classical pathway of macrophage activation in chronic inflammation is due to:

4754

All of the following are opsonins except:

4755

In acute inflammation there is vasodilation which causes redness and increase temperature. Which if the following Arachidonic acid metabolite causes vasodilation?

4756

40 year old female underwent cholecystectomy. Patient was prescribed oral glucocorticoids by the physician for asthma. Glucocorticoids results in weakness of scar due to decreased production of:

4757

Arachidionic acid metabolites produce prostaglandns and leukotrines. Mediator responsible for hyperalgesia is:

4758

Complements are activated by alternate and classical pathway which plays a important role in acute inflammation. C3 convertase of alternate pathway of complement is:

4759

During tissue repaire there is proliferation of vascular endothelial cell and fibroblast. Fibroblasts are classified as:

4760

In healing of skin wounds there is inflammation, proliferation of epithelial cells and formation of granulation tissue. Type I collagen is seen in wound healing on day:

4761

Neurophils kills the bacteria by oxygen dependent and oxygen independent mechanism. All are the oxygen independent mechanism for killing of bacteria/microbial toxin except:

4762

What is the name of the phenomenon where WBC marginate and become attached to the edge of the endothelium?

4763

In wound healing the repair process is a balance between synthesis and degradation of extracellular matrix. Remodelling of connective tissue seen in wound healing is due to the emzyme ADAM and:

4764

Chronic granulomatous disease is characterized by neutrophils and monocytes capable of normal chemotaxis, ingestion but unable to kill microorganism due to defect in enzyme NADPH oxidase. Most common bacterial infection seen in chronic granulamatous disease is:

4765

In granulomatous inflammation foreign body giant cell and Langhans giant cells are seen. In Langhans giant cells the nucleus are:

4766

All of the following mediators of inflammation causes vasodilation leading to redness except:

4767

Which of the following is a stimulator of apoptosis?

4768

Deficiency or excess of which vitamin induces metaplasia-

4769

Morphologic features in apoptosis include all except

4770

A 54 yrs old male develops a thrombus in his left anterior descending coronary artery. The area of myocardium supplied by this vessel is irreversibly injured. The thrombus is destroyed by the infusion of streptokinase, which is a plasminogen activator and the injured area is reperfused. The patient however develops an arrhythmia and dies. An electron microscopic (EM) picture taken from the irreversible injured myocardium reveals the pressure of large, dark irregular amorphic densities. These flocculent densities are typically found within the:

4771

Which of the following statement regarding apoptosis is not correct?

4772

Cell ageing, all true except:

4773

On autopsy of a 75 yrs old man who died during abdominal surgery; the heart was found to be atrophied and brownish in colour. Brown colour is due to:

4774

Most common mechanism for physiological hypertrophy is:

4775

Most common epithelium metaplasia is:

4776

Features of reversible cell injury that can be recognized under the light microscopy is:

4777

Necrosis in which architecture of dead tissues is preserved is:

4778

Executioner caspases are:

4779

Apoptotic bodies are coated by the complement:

4780

Clumping of nuclear chromatin in reversible cell injury is due to:

4781

On microscopic examination of the liver there is presence of steatosis. They were stained by oil red O and were positively stained. It can be seen in all of the following except:

4782

60 year old male had ischemic stroke with right sided hemiplegia. On microscopic examination of brain following will be seen:

4783

All are the causes of metastatic calcification except:

4784

Most reactive oxygen derived free radical is

4785

Pathological effects of free radicals are due to

4786

Kinases involved in necroptosis are

4787

Liver regeneration is an example of:

4788

Schistosomiasis can induce following change in urinary bladder mucosa:

4789

Cytomegalovirus produces FLIP i.e. Fas mediated ligand inhibitor protein which inhibits apoptosis. It is mainly killed in human body by:

4790

Pyroptosis is accompanied by fever and activation of caspase 1. It is due to release of:

4791

Mallory Denk bodies seen in Alcoholic hyaline are formed of:

4792

Patient with Werner syndrome show premature aging. It is due to defect in:

4793

30 year old male had fracture of forearm bone and plaster was applied. After removing plaster after 6 weeks following changes will be seen in forearm:

4794

Lactating breast is an example of:

4795

Patient is admitted with severe chest pain for 6 hrs duration. On lab examination there is increased level of the serum creatine kinase. It is most likely due to:

4796

Cloudy swelling, hydropic change and fatty change in the liver of a patient with a history of alcohol abuse is an example of:

4797

What roles in regulating the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis are played by the Bcl-2 protein family members Bax and Bcl-2?

4798

Light microscopic examination of liver in alcoholic patient shows the following findings. Which of the following is reversible:

4799

In which of the following situations, cell death is by necrosis not apoptosis:

4800

Cytochrome C activates apoptosis activating factor 1 (APAF1) which stimulates:

4801

Nuclear fragmentation seen in irreversible cell injury is called:

4802

A boy aged 10 year presents with alopecia, boggy scalp swelling and easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing diagnosis would be:

4803

A premature LBW baby, presented with a bullous rash at birth and on x-ray there was periostitis. What is the next investigation?

4804

Incubation period of scabies is:

4805

Scabies in children effect:

4806

Koebner phenomenon is not seen in:

4807

Burrows of scabies are in:

4808

Effective topical agents for treatment of dandruff include all except:

4809

Most severe form of scabies is found in:

4810

Characteristic lesion of scabies is:

4811

Fir tree distribution of lesions is seen in

4812

Most potent antileprotic drug is

4813

Pitting of nails is seen in:

4814

All are true regarding psoriasis except:

4815

Most characteristic finding of nails in lichen planus are:

4816

Skin manifestation of TB is:

4817

Apple jelly nodules are features of:

4818

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:

4819

Staphylococcus causes all except:

4820

Pityriasis rosea is a:

4821

Which of the following features are associated with psoriasis

4822

Puva therapy is used in

4823

Wood lamp examination is used in diagnosis of following conditions except:

4824

In lichen planus, nails deformities include all except:

4825

Auspitz sign is seen in:

4826

All are true regarding psoriasis except:

4827

In pemphigus vulgaris antibodies are present against

4828

The etiology of epidermolysis bullosa is

4829

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

4830

Target iris lesions are seen in:

4831

Single lesion in skin is seen in which type of leprosy?

4832

Commonest nerve involvement in leprosy is:

4833

Which of the following is not a fungal infection?

4834

All the following are true of lichen planus except

4835

Primary bullous lesion is seen in:

4836

A 40-year-old man had multiple blisters over the trunk and extremities. Direct immunofluorescence studies showed linear IgG. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

4837

Which of the following is the histological feature of pemphigus?

4838

Butterfly rash is associated with

4839

Most common type of pemphigus in India is

4840

Causative agent of molluscum contagious is a

4841

Kerion is a form of

4842

Erythroderma is not related with

4843

Herald patch is seen in

4844

Tinea incognitio is caused by

4845

Tinea ungum effects

4846

A 5 years old male child has multiple hyper-pigmented macules over the trunk, on rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen. He developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

4847

A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema contact, recurrent skin infections and severe abnormal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from

4848

For erythrodermic psoriasis the treatment of choice is:

4849

Yaws is caused by:

4850

Chloroquine is used in treatment of:

4851

Tzanck cell is a:

4852

Most sensitive index to assess the drug effectiveness in skin smears of leprosy patient is:

4853

Maximum suppression of cell mediated immunity occurs in:

4854

Skin pigmentation is a side effect of:

4855

Dose of dapsone is:

4856

Daily dose of thalidomide for controlling ENL is:

4857

Drug of choice in type I lepra reaction with severe neuritis is:

4858

Ichthyosis vulgaris is inherited as:

4859

Ichthyosis is associated with all except:

4860

Dhobi itch is:

4861

For pediculosis corporis the treatment of choice is:

4862

In which of the following condition, intraepidermal blisters are seen:

4863

Underlying internal malignancy is shown by all, except:

4864

Tzanck smear in a patient of bullous lesions shows:

4865

Treatment with griseofulvin in fungal infection of the finger nails is for:

4866

Quincke disease is popularly known as:

4867

Ciclopirox olamine is used in:

4868

Crocodile skin or phrynoderma is seen in:

4869

Black Dot ring worm is caused by:

4870

Suprabasal blister is a characteristic feature of:

4871

Pruritus is not seen in:

4872

Rarest variety of pemphigus which is also associated with SLE is:

4873

A patient gets recurrent urticaria while doing exercising and on exposure to sunlight. Which of the following is the most likely cause:

4874

Maculae ceruleae are caused by:

4875

A 12 years old boy from Rajasthan had a gradually progressive plaque on a buttock for the last 3 years. The plaque was 15 cm in diameter annular in shape, with crusting and indurations at the periphery and scarring at the centre. The most likely diagnosis is:

4876

A 22 years old women developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is:

4877

A 45 years old male had multiple hyperaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is:

4878

6 months old infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had history of itchylesions. The most likely diagnosis is:

4879

A 10 years old schoolgirl has recurrent episodes of boils on the scalp. The boils subside with antibiotic therapy but recur after some time. The most likely cause of the recurrence is:

4880

A 36 years old sexually active male presented with asymptomatic multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk, the most likely diagnosis is:

4881

An 8 years old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an ill-defined hypo pigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:

4882

Which of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor and is fungicidal?

4883

A 36 years old factory worker developed non-itchy annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:

4884

Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true:

4885

The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodosumleprosum (ENL) reaction is:

4886

The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:

4887

The following test is not used for diagnosis of leprosy:

4888

Air borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:

4889

Which one of the following is the drug of choice for treating systemic fungal infection?

4890

Which of the above are correct regarding leprosy?

4891

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

4892

Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in:

4893

A patient had seven irregular hyper-pigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyper-pigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis:

4894

24 years old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comedonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be:

4895

A 45 years old farmer has itchy erythematous popular lesions on face, neck, V area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75 percent in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:

4896

Leprosy effects all, except:

4897

Which of the following about mycoses fungoides is not true:

4898

An infant presented with non-itchy vesicles and bulla on hands and feet at birth. Which of the following investigation will you perform?

4899

Inverted saucer lesions is seen in:

4900

Which of the following cause of Kerion?

4901

Which of the following antibodies are associated with renal nephritis in SLE?

4902

Dyskeratosis is a feature of:

4903

Gonococcus is:

4904

In gonorrhoea the drug of choice is:

4905

Reliable test for chancroid detection:

4906

Lisch nodules are seen in:

4907

Porphyria cutaneatarda can be treated by:

4908

Cells cultured from patients with this disorders exhibit low activity for the nucleotide excision repair process. This autosomal recessive genetic disease includes marked sensitivity to sunlight, ultraviolet light with subsequent formation of multiple skin cancer and premature death, the diagnosis is:

4909

False about pityriasis alba:

4910

Shantanu, a 24 years old woman, presents with multiple erythematous annular lesions with collarette scales predominantly arranged over the truck. The likely diagnosis is:

4911

Koenen periungual fibromas are seen in greater than 50 percent of cases of:

4912

Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of:

4913

Nail involvement is not a feature of:

4914

A 50 year old male had severely itchy bullous lesions on truck for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgG deposition at dermo-epidermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is:

4915

Which of the following diagnoses active infection in syphilis?

4916

A 40 years old woman presented with an 8 months history of erythema and swelling of the periorbital region and papules and plaques on the dorsolateral aspect of forearms and knuckles with ragged cuticles. There was no muscle weakness. The most likely diagnosis is:

4917

A 40 years old woman presents with a 2 years history of erythematosus papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is:

4918

A 27 years old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion heated with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:

4919

Chancre redux is a clinical feature of:

4920

A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following would help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except:

4921

A 40 years old woman presented to the gynaecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervical on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy, except:

4922

Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with:

4923

Drug induced lupus can be identified by:

4924

An adult comes with urethral discharge the gram stain is negative, what medium should be used for culture:

4925

In acute graft versus host disease which of the following organs are not affected:

4926

A 22 years old female comes with a history of ingestion of groundnuts followed by swelling of tongue and respiratory distress. What is the possible cause:

4927

Which of the following is seen in Hailey-Hailey disease?

4928

Which of the following drugs are useless in P versicolor?

4929

Which of the following is diagnostic of dermatomyositis?

4930

Pityriasis rosea is a?

4931

Thimble pitting of nails is seen in:

4932

A 7 years old child presents with fever, given cefaclor for 8 days out of 10 days, presents with rash, pruritus, and lymphadenopathy. What is the diagnosis?

4933

Acantholysis is due to destruction of:

4934

Which is not pruritic?

4935

Niklosky sign is seen in all except:

4936

Row of tombstones is seen in:

4937

The commonest venereal disease in India is:

4938

Pseudo bobo is seen in:

4939

Safety pin appearance is seen in:

4940

School of fish appearance is shown by:

4941

Features of secondary syphilis are all expect:

4942

Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in:

4943

Granular IgA deposit at dermal papilla are found in:

4944

Incubation period of syphilis is:

4945

Wasserman test is done for:

4946

Symptoms of secondary syphilis are all except:

4947

Causative agent of chancroid is:

4948

Sabre warts are caused by:

4949

All are true regarding psoriasis except:

4950

Flag hair sign is characteristic of:

4951

Woods lamp examination is used in diagnosis of:

4952

Verrucosa vulgaris is caused by:

4953

Main feature of gonorrhea is:

4954

Gonococcus resistant structure is:

4955

Esthimone is seen in:

4956

Condyloma lata are seen in:

4957

Most striking feature of lichen plannus is

4958

Commonest site of atopic dermatitis

4959

Features of lichen planus are except:

4960

True about dermatomyocytis is:

4961

Ash leaf macule is found in:

4962

Most common precipitant of contact dermatitis is:

4963

Gottron papules are seen in:

4964

Fordyce spots are ectopic:

4965

Growing phase of hair is:

4966

Pseudopelade is also known as:

4967

Rhinophyma is:

4968

Most common site of herpes gestation is:

4969

Lagophthalmos is seen in:

4970

Darier sign is seen in:

4971

Drug of choice in a male with androgenic alopecia:

4972

The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular plaque on the face is:

4973

In a fair patient early diagnosis of vitiligo is by:

4974

Castellani paint contains all of the following except:

4975

Erythrasma is caused by:

4976

In a patch of vitiligo when the hair is white it is called:

4977

The treatment of choice of sweet syndrome is:

4978

A 56 years old man has painful weeping rashes over the upper eyelid and forehead for the last 2 days along with ipsilateral acute punctate keratopathy. One year back, he had chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. There is no other abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

4979

Ivermectin is indicated in the treatment of:

4980

What is the cutaneous viral infection which is commonly seen in children and characterized by single or multiple pearly-white skin coloured smooth dome shaped papules with central pitting?

4981

A diagnosed case of BT with neuritis is treated by:

4982

A child comes with a congenital dermatomal hypopigmentation which disappear on diascopy test:

4983

Oral hairy leukoplakia is cause by:

4984

Which of the following can be depressed?

4985

FK 506 is a drug in vitiligo and atopic dermatitis, it is a:

4986

True about stratum lucidum is:

4987

Which is not a primary lesion of the skin?

4988

Acne vulgaris is due to involvement of:

4989

Non cicatricial alopecia is seen in:

4990

Hypopigmentation is not seen in:

4991

Exclaimation mark hair is seen in:

4992

Melanocytes are present in which layer?

4993

Skin doubling time is _______ weeks:

4994

Melanocytes are derived from:

4995

Which of the following is not a sebecous gland:

4996

Decreased number of melanocytes is seen in:

4997

Most common site of affection of herpes simplex is:

4998

Exposure to sunlight precipitates:

4999

Most common site for zoster involvement is:

5000

Common conditions due to herpes simplex include all except:

5001

Genital warts are caused by:

5002

Most common etiology of erythema multiforme is:

5003

A 30 years old male had severely itchy papula vesicular lesion on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for 1 year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermoedermal junction. The most probable diagnosis is:

5004

Tineacapitis that is Wood lamp negative and is characterized by scutulae is caused by:

5005

Coral red fluorescence Wood lamp seen in:

5006

A boy aged 8 from Tamil Nadu has a white non-anaesthetic, scaly hypo pigmented macule on his face:

5007

Oil drop phenomenon is seen in:

5008

Tinea incognito is due to inappropriate use of systemic and topical:

5009

Causative agent of tinea versicolor is:

5010

Berloque dermatitis is due to contact with which of the following:

5011

Permethrin is useful in:

5012

A 17-year-old female presents with a two-day history of vomiting, general lethargy and giddiness. Over the last six months she had lost 5kg in weight, had a reduced appetite and had been feeling increasingly lethargic. She had no past medical history of note, was a non-smoker and took the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception. Her eldest brother was well and there was a family history of thyroid disease with both her mother and maternal grandmother taking thyroxine. On examination, she was comfortable at rest, appeared slightly dehydrated was apyrexial, had a body mass index of 18.5 kg/m2 and oxygen saturations on air of 99%. Her blood pressure was 102/64 mmHg and fell to 86/60 mmHg on standing. Her pulse was 90 beats per minute regular and auscultation of the heart and chest were normal. No abnormalities were detected on abdominal or CNS examination. Investigations revealed:

5013

A late middle-aged homeless man is brought to the Accident & Emergency department with a 6-hour history of profuse vomiting. He complains of nausea and headache. The history available is sketchy: he is of no fixed abode and denies having any previous medical problems. He appears unkempt and is confused: oriented to person but not time or place. He is afebrile. His breath smells of ketones. Twelve hours after admission his condition deteriorates: he complains of blurred vision and his pupils are fixed and dilated; his respiratory rate increases sharply over the next few minutes and he becomes unconscious

5014

A 23-year-old obese woman presented to Casualty Department with a 4 day history of progressively worsening generalised headache associated with a buzzing in her ears. In the last few days she had noticed some blurring of her vision and reduction in her visual field. She had started to feel nauseated particularly early in the morning and on the morning of admission had vomited several times. She had a history of severe acne which was treated with long-term oral doxycycline and smoked 35 cigarettes a day. On examination she was orientated with a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. Visual acuity was recorded as 6/18 in both eyes. There was reduction in temporal visual fields bilaterally and enlargement of the blind spot bilaterally. The rest of the neurological examination was entirely normal.

5015

A 45-year-old man presented with a 6-month history of agitation and delusions. He had seen a psychiatrist who had made a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia and started depot haloperidol. His psychosis had improved considerably following this therapy and he had been well. However, he was admitted by his GP following a 3-day history of confusion and increasing drowsiness. On examination, he was agitated with a temperature of 38.5 degree C and blood pressure of 190/110 mmHg. His cardiovascular and chest examination were normal and no organomegaly was noted on abdominal examination although he was tender in the hypochondrial region. He had bilateral severe rigidity but no tremor

5016

A 40-year-old man with chronic alcohol abuse presented in the accident and emergency department with confusion, agitation and ataxia. He had been found wandering the streets at 2 am and was brought in by the police. He had been admitted on numerous occasions previously related to alcohol abuse. On examination he appeared disheveled, confused and smelt of alcohol. He was disoriented in time and place with a mini-mental score of 16/30. He was apyrexial with a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg. He had bilateral 6th nerve palsies, gaze-evoked nystagmus and gait ataxia. What treatment should this patient receive? (Please select 1 option)

5017

A 26-year-old female complains of headache. She states that these headaches are normal for her. She generally gets them when she is stressed out. Her mother has a history of headaches too. She says that she usually sees spots with these headaches. Which of the following is this patient suffering from?

5018

An 89-year-old man has a basal cell carcinoma on his forehead which requires excision. He has dementia. The clinic nurse feels he is not competent to give consent for surgery. Which is the most appropriate action for obtaining consent?

5019

A 21-year-old woman has increasing severe pain in her left leg. She had an undisplaced fracture of the midshaft of her left tibia 2 days ago which was treated conservatively with a plaster cast. Her toes are warm and pulses are present. Which is the most important immediate action?

5020

Regarding infective endocarditis, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5021

A 66-year-old man has tiredness and low back pain for 2 months. He has type 2 diabetes and hypertension and takes metformin and ramipril. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. His pulse rate is 88 bpm and BP 138/82mmHg. Clinical examination is normal

5022

A 17-year-old woman has a painless lump on her right breast for 4 weeks. There is no history of trauma. She takes the oral contraceptive pill. Her maternal grandmother had breast cancer. She has a 1 cm painless lump in the upper outer quadrant of her right breast. Which is the most appropriate initial investigation?

5023

A 40-year-old man takes an overdose of his antidepressant tablets and is seen in the Emergency Department. He is medically fit for discharge. He has bipolar affective disorder. He is tearful and feels hopeless about his future. Which is the most appropriate next management step?

5024

An 85-year-old man has a fall at home and is seen in the Emergency Department. He had incontinence of urine and had been lying on the floor all night. He had a myocardial infarction 8 years ago. He takes aspirin, atorvastatin and ramipril. His pulse rate is 94 bpm and BP 106/76 mmHg

5025

A 30-year-old man has had weakness in his left arm and leg for three days. He is HIV positive with a CD4 count of 50 cells/mm3. He is not taking anti-retroviral therapy. His temperature is 37.5 degree C, pulse rate 95 bpm and BP 140/90 mmHg. He has power of 3/5 in his left arm and 4/5 in his left leg there is no other focal neurological signs.

5026

An 84-year-old woman has worsening confusion. She has visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep and urinary incontinence for 1 week. She has Alzheimer dementia and arthritis and has recently started taking paracetamol. Her abbreviated mental test score is 2/10. Which is the most likely underlying reason for her deterioration?

5027

A 38-year-old man has worsening vertigo and tremor. His symptoms are more pronounced in the morning. He has longstanding alcohol dependence and drinks 60 units of alcohol per week. His abbreviated mental test score is 9/10. He has an intention tremor, horizontal nystagmus and walks with a broad-based gait. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

5028

A 32-year-old woman has a febrile illness and swelling of the small joints of her hands for 2 days. She is seen in the GP surgery. She has not travelled outside the UK. She has two young children. She has a maculopapular rash and palpable, small cervical lymph nodes. The small joints of her feet, wrists and knees are swollen. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

5029

A 78 year old woman has pain in her left thigh and calf on walking for 8 weeks. The pain is relieved with rest. She has a 40 pack-year smoking history. Her left popliteal and pedal pulses are not palpable. Investigation: Hand held Doppler: monophasic waveform in her left Dorsalis Pedis artery. Which is the most likely site of arterial pathology?

5030

A 53 year old woman has anorexia and increasing breathlessness. She has stage 4 adenocarcinoma of the lung and now requires full support with her activities of daily living. She takes diazepam, cyclizine and zopiclone

5031

A 66-year-old man has increasing abdominal pain. He had an anterior resection 5 days ago. His temperature is 38.5 degree C, pulse rate 120 bpm and BP 90/60 mmHg. His abdomen is tender and there is generalised rigidity. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

5032

An 83-year-old woman has visual hallucinations and is confused for 4 hours. She is on the medical inpatient ward and is being treated for pneumonia. She is restless and verbally abusive towards the staff who she believes are trying to poison her. She has no previous psychiatric history. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

5033

A 45-year-old man was brought to the emergency with ill localized chest pain with perspiration. Before any investigation a pre-test probability of the condition is best described by which of the following?

5034

Regarding investigations for the above case which ONE of the following is most appropriate?

5035

A 45-year-old male presents with palpitations. His ECG is shown below. Which is the most common cause of such ECG?

5036

A 38-year-old hairdresser presents with a 2-day history of localized pain and tenderness in her leg. Appropriate management of this condition includes:

5037

Regarding risk stratification for patients with suspected non-ST segment elevated ACS (NSTEAC), which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5038

A 55 years old smoker presented to ER with history of continued chest pain starting 01 hour back. The ECG is shown below. Which of the following condition is unlikely in this case?

5039

Regarding the above case and ECG which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5040

A 24-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant presents with hyperemesis. She is clinically dehydrated and you start treatment with IV fluids and anti-emetics. Which one of the following is most useful as a guide to further treatment for her hyperemesis?

5041

Regarding ACS which of ONE the following statements is TRUE?

5042

A 30-year-old woman presents to the ED 12 hours after swallowing 34 tablets of paracetamol 500mg. On arrival: HR 120/minute, BP 110/80 mmHg, RR 20/ minute. The most important initial management step is:

5043

Regarding ECG changes associated with ACS, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5044

A 40 year old man who suffers from ulcerative colitis recently stopped his sulphasalazine medication and presents with generalised abdominal pain. He appears pale and dehydrated. On arrival: Temperature 39 degree C, HR 120/minute, BP 95/60. An abdominal X ray is taken (shown). Expected lab findings with this condition include:

5045

Based on the ECG which of the following statements are true?

5046

A 65 years old person was brought to emergency with acute onset chest pain along with left upper limb weakness of 1-hour duration. ECG shows STEMI. Which of the following is true in his case?

5047

Regarding reperfusion therapy in AMI, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5048

A manager asks why you have a nurse see the patient in triage before the doctor sees the patient. He thinks this is a waste of resources. You explain the purpose of triage systems is to:

5049

A 26 year old man presents at the emergency department with sudden onset breathlessness. Examination shows him to be dyspnoeic at rest, with saturations of 80 percent on air and a pulse rate of 100 beats/min. His trachea is not deviated, and his blood pressure is 117/82 mm Hg. Figure below shows his radiograph. After administering oxygen, what is the definitive course of management?

5050

A 50 year old patient wakes up with excruciating pain at the base of their great toe with redness and swelling. They do not currently take any medications. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

5051

A 6 month old baby presents with a one day history of fever (39 degree C) and a generalised rash, which began on the legs and is now present on limbs and trunk, almost equally. The rash is purplish, non-palpable, and non-blanching. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

5052

Regarding pharmacological management of ACS, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5053

A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) with a gradual new onset dyspnea on exertion. Regarding assessment for heart failure in this patient, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

5054

A 50-year-old man has an appointment for a routine blood pressure check. He is sitting in the waiting room when he becomes very breathless with stridor. He had mentioned to another person in the room that he had been stung by an insect on his way to the clinic. You diagnose an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What dose and route of administration would you use for adrenaline in this situation?

5055

Regarding acute pulmonary oedema, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5056

Regarding cardiogenic shock, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5057

Regarding cardiogenic shock in AMI, which ONE of the following is FALSE?

5058

A 50 y/o man is brought into the ER by coworkers following an accidental splash into his eyes with chemicals. The workers don not know what the liquid was but they work in a factory where they etch glass. He was walking by a coworker when he was accidentally splashed by a liquid the coworker was working with. He immediately screamed and other people came to his aid, attempting to flush his eyes with cups of water. Reportedly his is on medication for hypertension. Upon arrival you see him in obvious distress with vitals of BP 160/100, HR 120, RR 22, Temp 99.1, Sat 98 percent on RA. When you are able to look at his eyes you see they are both very injected with a flaking cornea and edema and erythema of both lids. What is the next course of action for this patient? What is the suspected chemical?

5059

A 19 year old F returns from Spring break with severe pain in both of her eyes for a day. She says she was on vacation for 4 days in the Caribbean and halfway through her last day there, she began to notice pain and blurred vision in both eyes. She does not wear glasses or contacts. There was no trauma, no fever, or other symptoms. Her vitals in the ER are unremarkable. Her visual acuity without correction is 20/100 in both eyes. On exam, she has severe photophobia, and both eyes are injected but the pupils are normally reactive. You perform a fluorescein exam and see the following. What do you tell the patient? What is the treatment?

5060

An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his parents because he has had continuous pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen for the past 18 hours. Temperature is 37.8 degree C (100.0 degree F), pulse rate is 80/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft, but tenderness to palpation and rebound tenderness are noted in the right lower quadrant. No other abnormalities are noted. On laboratory studies, white blood cell count is 7900/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

5061

A 68 years old female presents to emergency with low BP, tachycardia and irregular rhythm following an acute MI. Which of the following best describes the therapeutic goal?

5062

A 50 year-old person presented with severe acute onset head with blurring of vision in the background of hypertension with poor drug compliance. His BP was 210/160 mm Hg. Which of the following should be most appropriate statement in his case

5063

In the pharmacological treatment of the above case which is true?

5064

A 28-year-old man with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome comes to the emergency department because he has had palpitations and racing heartbeat for the past 12 hours. Temperature is 37.0 degree C (98.6 degree F), pulse rate is 140/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Electrocardiography shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response of 140/min. Administration of which of the following medications is most likely to be effective in relieving this patient symptoms?

5065

A 22-year-old man comes to the emergency department because he has had fever, elevated blood glucose level, and confusion during the past three hours. Pulse rate is 140/min, respirations are 30/min, and blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes and delayed capillary refill. Laboratory studies show serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L and serum glucose level of 580 mg/dL. Arterial blood gas analysis shows pH of 7.0. Infusion of which of the following fluids is the most appropriate initial management?

5066

Regarding ECG changes in pericarditis, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5067

A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance 15 minutes after he had sudden onset of confusion and decreased level of consciousness while running a marathon on a hot day. According to the first responders at the scene, the patient began staggering as he neared the finish line and was escorted to the first aid tent by onlookers. At that time, the patient temperature was 40.4 degree C (104.8 degree F). He is otherwise healthy, takes no medications, and has no history of trauma. Currently, temperature is 40.4 degree C (104.8 degree F), pulse rate is 105/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 135/65 mmHg. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical examination, the patient is flushed, diaphoretic, semiconscious, and mumbling, and he responds to painful stimuli. No other abnormalities are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management of this patient condition?

5068

With respect to pericarditis, which ONE of the following is TRUE regarding ECG findings?

5069

In non-traumatic pericardial tamponade, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5070

A 16-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by ambulance in full spinal immobilization after he sustained injuries in a motor vehicle collision. He says he has pain in the lower back and numbness of his legs. He is unable to move his lower extremities. Pulse rate is 112/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. Physical examination shows total loss of strength and pain sensation distal to the umbilicus. Proprioception is intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

5071

A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease has been researching the internet. He asks your opinion on laser transmyocardial revascularisation. Which of the following statements about this technique is true?

5072

A young boy is born with a heart murmur that is subsequently diagnosed as Ebstein anomaly. Which of the following drugs, taken by the mother, may have contributed to this case of congenital heart disease?

5073

Following a lecture on cardiac physiology, your consultant asks you during a ward round to calculate how much blood (in ml) Mr. Smith ventricle ejects every time his heart beats. He gives you the following values: Blood pressure: 136/90 mmHg units Cardiac output: 5000 ml/minute Heart Rate: 72/minute Urine output: 5 ml/kg/hr

5074

A 24 years old boy presented with syncopal attack. He does not give any history of similar episode in the past and there is no family history of epilepsy. There is no history of chest discomfort, positional vertigo or vomiting. What is the most appropriate statement concerning his condition?

5075

Which of the following is true regarding mitral stenosis?

5076

Regarding the same clinical case which among the following options is TRUE?

5077

With respect to heart block, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5078

Regarding atrioventricular block, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5079

A 40-year-old man received an orthotopic cardiac transplant seven years ago to treat a dilated cardiomyopathy. Since that time he has been healthy, with no episodes of rejection or infection. Over the next year, however, he develops fatigue with exercise. He has worsening pedal oedema and orthopnoea. On physical examination, his vital signs are temperature 36.3 degree C, pulse 78, respiratory rate 16, and BP 130/70 mm Hg. There are no murmurs, rubs, or gallops audible. Bibasilar crackles in the lungs are audible. Which of the following conditions is most likely to account for these findings?

5080

A 65-year-old woman presents with heart failure. Her echocardiogram shows a restrictive cardiomyopathy but with structurally normal valves. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

5081

Regarding broad-complex tachycardia, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5082

Regarding broad-complex tachycardia, which ONE of the following characteristics would favor a diagnosis of VT rather than SVT with aberrancy?

5083

A 57-year-old female school cleaner is undergoing investigation for breathlessness. Which of the following is not in keeping with a diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis?

5084

Regarding the pharmacological treatment of cardiac dysrhythmias, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5085

Regarding Brugada syndrome, which ONE of the following statements is FALSE?

5086

Which ONE of the following drugs can safely be used in patients with Brugada syndrome?

5087

Regarding use of adenosine in the treatment of SVT, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5088

A 52-year-old lady presented with a history of crushing central chest pain, sweating and dyspnoea. An ECG confirms acute myocardial infarction with ST elevation in leads V2-V4 and ST depression in leads II and III. Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis in this lady?

5089

A 26-year-old female with a small ventriculo-septal defect (VSD) presents in the sixth week of pregnancy. She has been told that she would need antibiotic prophylaxis for dental surgery, and various other procedures. She asks you to tell her whether she will have to take this during her pregnancy, and if so, at which point it will be needed

5090

Regarding reentrant SVT, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5091

Regarding WPW, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:

5092

For management of AF, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5093

You are investigating the use of novel markers which may show myocardial damage within the first three hours after myocardial infarction to see if this may improve early diagnosis of damage. Which of the following is the most appropriate marker?

5094

With respect to AF in the ED, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

5095

When AF is associated with WPW, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5096

Regarding recognition of atrial flutter on a 12-lead ECG, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5097

Regarding artificial pacemaker code, which ONE of the following is INCORRECT?

5098

Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE regarding failure of electrical and mechanical capture in a patient with a pacemaker?

5099

A male infant is rushed to the Emergency department by his parents with a short history of blue lips and breathlessness. His parents are frantic and you arrange admission to the paediatric ward. Two days later you decide to go to the ward to see how the patient is doing. You look through the notes and find a report from a transthoracic echocardiogram. The report mentions displacement of the tricuspid valve towards the apex, a small atrialised and hypoplastic RV, an ASD and tricuspid incompetence. Based on the echo findings. What is the likely diagnosis?

5100

Your next patient in the care of the elderly clinic is a 77-year-old man with a history of hypertensive heart disease leading to congestive cardiac failure. Unfortunately, in the past few months his symptoms have worsened and he is becoming house bound. His wife accompanied him and is worried about his state. She asks you directly how long has he got left. You tell his wife that certain test results can suggest a worse prognosis. From the list

5101

Which of the following antimicrobials is associated with prolongation of the QT interval?

5102

A 43-year-old patient who has a metallic mitral valve developed fever of unknown origin. With the suspicion of endocarditis which ONE of the following statements is most appropriate?

5103

A 65-year-old man was advised to start oral digoxin at a dose of 250 µg daily. His physician explained that the full effect of this treatment would not be apparent for at least a week. Which one of the following pharmacokinetic variables did the physician use to give this explanation?

5104

A patient had an electrocution injury and was taken to the hospital in a collapsed state. His ECG is shown below. What is the most relevant option below about his ECG?

5105

A 34 years old female consumed some extra medicines and presented in a collapsed state to the emergency. The ECG is as follows. All of the following can be associated with such ECG abnormality except?

5106

A 43 years old lady presented with palpitation and giddiness. The ECG is shown below. Which of the following statements is most appropriate while managing the clinical condition?

5107

Regarding a neonate with an undiagnosed congenital heart disease presenting for the first time to the ED, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

5108

Regarding the hyperoxia test in a neonate with suspected congenital heart disease, which ONE of the following statements is FALSE?

5109

Regarding the assessment of children with hypertension, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

5110

A 79-year-old white male presents with witnessed syncope (no seizure activity) and dyspnea. Exam reveals BP 180/100, P 60s with pauses, T 98, R 20; systolic scratchy harsh murmur over precordium radiating to sternal notch and carotids; displaced apical impulse, rales bilaterally. Monitor shows occasional two-second pauses; EKG shows left ventricular hypertrophy and complete heart block.The next best test to work up this patient problem is:

5111

You find something surgically correctable on this test. In discussing the need for surgery with this patient you need to understand:

5112

A 50-year-old male patient complains in April of choking sensations at night which awaken him and force him to sit upright while sleeping. He has smoked for 40 years and his 67-year-old mother died recently of a cerebrovascular accident secondary to hypertension. Exam reveals BP 190/90, P 100, weight 278, few basilar rales, laterally displaced point of maximal impulse; frequent ectopic beats, and 2+ pitting edema. EKG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy and bilateral atrial enlargement. Chest X-ray shows mild cardiac enlargement and fluid in fissures. While discussing these abnormal findings, you witness one of these episodes while the patient is sitting down. The best explanation for the patient symptoms is:

5113

About the same patient, a physical exam finding to confirm your diagnosis is:

5114

The most common side-effect of nitroglycerin preparations is:

5115

A patient has an irregularly irregular heart rate of 140 beats per minute, but his other vital signs are stable. The most probable dysrhythmia in this patient is:

5116

Mr. Green is a 50-year-old male who presented with one hour of chest pressure and electrocardiographic findings of acute inferior myocardial infarction. He denied known heart disease, contraindications to thrombolytic therapy were not elicited, and he underwent successful thrombolysis. Within hours, he complains of right groin pain and develops an inguinal mass. On further questioning, he admits to being hospitalized for chest pain 48 hours prior to this admission. He is experiencing:

5117

You attend to this problem and the patient stabilizes. The next day he worsens again with severe heart failure and you hear a new pansystolic murmur, grade III/IV, along the left sternal border with a parasternal thrill. You suspect:

5118

A rapid confirmation of the diagnosis is with:

5119

The latest problem is a recognized complication of:

5120

Appropriate treatment might include:

5121

A 60 year old woman presents with dyspnea, dysphagia, weight loss, and an irregularly irregular rhythm with a rate of 165. Likely underlying etiologies include all EXCEPT:

5122

A high school basketball star was noted on the preseason physical examination to have an apical systolic murmur, the intensity of which decreased with squatting and hand grip. He was advised to have an echocardiogram but continued to practice. During a strenuous workout he collapsed and could not be resuscitated. Autopsy revealed:

5123

Which drug is to be avoided in the above condition?

5124

What is the reason for sudden death in the above condition?

5125

A 53-year-old male presented to the emergency room with a one-month history of dyspnea on exertion and vague substernal chest discomfort. He has smoked two packs per day of cigarettes, has hypercholesterolemia, and a positive family history of coronary artery disease. His exam was unremarkable except for a loud pulmonic component of the second heart sound. The EKG showed nonspecific T wave changes and sinus tachycardia. Echocardiography revealed elevated right heart and pulmonary artery pressures. The patient died suddenly. Autopsy was performed which revealed:

5126

All of the following statements regarding thrombolytic therapy are true EXCEPT:

5127

A 56-year-old white male has been anticoagulated for recurrent deep venous thrombosis. While on Warfarin he experiences a GI bleed. Which one of the following is false?

5128

A 65-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit with an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). There are no contraindications to thrombolysis and he receives streptokinase with good resolution of ECG changes. Three days later examination is normal, with a blood pressure of 134/76 mmHg. Results reveal a total cholesterol of 4.8 mmol/l (<5.2). Which one of the following drugs does not have good evidence for reducing future morbidity and mortality?

5129

A 60-year-old man with diabetes presents to clinic for advice on prevention of a further heart attack after having sustained a myocardial infarction five years previously. He takes metformin 500 mg tds, bendr of lumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and aspirin 150 mg daily. His body mass index was 33.5 kg/m2, with a pulse of 82 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 152/92 mmHg. His cholesterol concentration is 3.3 mmol/l (<5.5). What is the most appropriate strategy for this patient?

5130

In a patient presenting with aortic stenosis (AS), which of the following findings would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis of congenital bicuspid valve as the aetiology?

5131

A patient presents with atrial fibrillation which later reverts to sinus rhythm. In which of the following circumstances is the patient more likely to remain in sinus rhythm?

5132

According to Starling law, when the end-diastolic volume increases, resulting in myocardial stretch, how does the heart maintain an adequate cardiac output?

5133

A 52-year-old housewife presents to the hypertension clinic with hypertension that has proved difficult to control. Her general practitioner has started ramipril 1.25 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, bisoprolol 2.5 mg and bendr of lumethiazide 2.5 mg. Her systolic blood pressure is 152 mmHg, and it has consistently ranged 150-160 mmHg. The urine dipstick is normal. Renal function and electrolytes are normal. Her ECG showed borderline left axis deviation but is otherwise normal in rhythm and complexes, and a subsequent echocardiogram demonstrates good ejection fraction with no significant systolic or diastolic impairment. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

5134

A 59-year-old office worker is diagnosed with essential hypertension, following sequential blood pressure readings in the range of 150-162/85-92. She has no other medical issues, and is started on an ACE inhibitor, which is up titrated over the following year to a dose of ramipril 5 mg OD. At her next consultation she reports a concerted effort to address lifestyle factors over the preceding year, leading to substantial weight loss. She has also given up occasional smoking since her retirement, and is currently asymptomatic. On clinical examination the blood pressure is 126/78. BMI 22.4. The apex is undisplaced. Fasting blood tests are as follows:

5135

A 70-year-old woman has failed two previous attempted cardioversions for atrial fibrillation. She has previously been echoed which revealed left atrial enlargement and mild LV dysfunction. She has a history of a previous myocardial infarction four years earlier, and currently takes ramipril 10 mg, furosemide 40 mg, atorvastatin 40 mg, and aspirin 75 mg. On examination her BP is 135/70 mmHg, with a pulse of 100 in atrial fibrillation (AF). She has bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure and there is mild bilateral pitting oedema. Investigations show:

5136

A 24-year-old woman develops infective endocarditis involving the aortic valve. She receives a porcine bio-prosthesis because of her desire to have children and not to take anticoagulant medication. After ten years, she must have this prosthetic valve replaced. Which of the following pathological findings in the bio-prosthesis has most likely led to the need for replacement?

5137

A 25-year-old female who is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child is admitted with palpitations. The ECG reveals a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and this self terminates 20 minutes after admission. Subsequently she has further runs of symptomatic SVT. What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

5138

You wish to calculate a patient ejection fraction as the patient complains of dyspnoea. Which of the following echocardiographic measures would be mandatory?

5139

A 62-year-old male undergoes cardioversion for idiopathic atrial fibrillation (AF). Post-procedure he was shown to be in sinus rhythm. Medication at admission included warfarin, digoxin and atenolol, which he had been taking for the last six weeks. Which of the following agents should he continue to take until he is seen in clinic in six weeks time?

5140

A 78-year-old female is referred by her GP with high blood pressure. Over the last three months her blood pressure is noted to be around 180/80 mmHg. She has a body mass index of 25.5 kg/m2 and is a non-smoker. There are no features to suggest a secondary cause for her hypertension. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her blood pressure?

5141

A 56-year-old male with left ventricular systolic dysfunction was dyspnoeic on climbing stairs but not at rest. The patient was commenced on ramipril and furosemide. Which one of the following drugs would improve the patient prognosis?

5142

A child is brought to the Emergency department by his parents after a three month history of blue lips and breathlessness. You arrange urgent admission and follow up the case on your next shift. You call the paediatric SHO to find out about the child. She tells you he underwent a transthoracic echocardiogram and it demonstrated displacement of the tricuspid valve towards the apex, a small atrialised and hypoplastic RV and an ASD. You go to the ward to see the patient and look in his notes. You review his ECG. Based on the likely diagnosis, which ECG finding is most likely to be present?

5143

Which ONE of the following is associated with Marfan syndrome?

5144

A 26-year-old man is found to have hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. A 24-hour ECG recording reveals runs of non-sustained ventricular tachycardia. He has had three episodes of syncope in the last two years. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan for this man?

5145

A 65-year-old man has an ejection systolic murmur and narrow pulse pressure on clinical examination. There is no history of chest pain, breathlessness or syncope. An ECHO confirms aortic stenosis and shows an aortic valve gradient of 40 mmHg. There is good left ventricular function. Which of the following management options is the most appropriate choice in this case?

5146

A 73-year-old male is referred with palpitations. On 24 hour ambulatory ECG monitoring he is shown to have paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and is treated with amiodarone. Through blockade of which of the following receptors is the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone most attributed?

5147

A 70-year-old female is reviewed in clinic after having had an anterior MI. Her echo reveals some left ventricular impairment. You are contemplating the addition of a beta-blocker to current therapy which consists of bendr of lumethiazide, aspirin and simvastatin. Which of the following beta-blockers should be avoided?

5148

Concerning complete atrioventricular septal defects which one of the following statements is true?

5149

A 21-year-old woman has a history of palpitations and light headedness. ECG shows short PR interval and inferior Q waves. Her symptoms improve with atenolol 25 mg/day but she has had two short episodes of similar symptoms in the previous 24 hours. What is the long-term management of choice?

5150

A 35-year-old woman presented with a history of intermittent light-headedness. Clinical examination and 12 lead ECG were normal. Which of the following, if present on a 24-hour Holter ECG tracing, would be the most clinically important?

5151

A 75-year-old man presents with severe central crushing chest pain. ECG shows evidence of an inferior myocardial infarction (MI). He receives primary stenting to the proximal right coronary artery Four hours after initial presentation, he starts feeling dizzy and breathless. His pulse is 30 bpm regular, BP 70/50 mmHg. Heart sounds are soft and chest clear to auscultation. ECG shows 2:1 AV block with broad QRS and T wave inversion inferiorly. IV atropine was administered but had no effect. What is the next most important treatment?

5152

Which of the following is not a component of the cardiac electrical conduction pathway?

5153

A 24-year-old man is admitted from a soccer match by ambulance. He collapsed during the game. Medical staff who attended the scene found him to be in VT and he was shocked by the automated defibrillator which was at the stadium. By the time he reaches the emergency department he is beginning to regain consciousness and is complaining of a sore chest from where he was shocked. On examination his blood pressure is elevated at 145/82 mmHg. He has a double apical impulse and a mid-systolic murmur.

5154

Which of the following regarding the anatomy of the heart is true?

5155

A 29-year-old female attends the emergency department complaining of acute onset of palpitations. She is attached to a cardiac monitor and her pulse rate is 180 bpm. She is warm and well perfused, her BP is 135/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 20/min, oxygen saturation 100% on air and on auscultation her chest is clear with no evidence of cardiac failure. ECG shows a narrow complex tachycardia. Carotid massage and Valsalva manoeuvre have failed to attenuate the rhythm disturbance. What is the appropriate initial management?

5156

A 63-year-old male is admitted with a 30 minute history of central chest pain associated with nausea and sweating. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which of the following coronary arteries is most likely to be occluded?

5157

A 35-year-old shop worker presents with pain in her calves which develops after 50 yards of walking. The pain settles with rest. On examination she has yellow discoloration of her palmar creases. Her fasting lipid profile reveals:

5158

Which of the following is not associated with left atrial myxoma?

5159

A 76-year-old woman presented with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG showed ST segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely to be occluded?

5160

Which of the following is true regarding the coronary circulation?

5161

A 60-year-old man had a myocardial infarction (MI) six weeks ago. He is taking aspirin 75 mg/day and metoprolol 50 mg 2/day. During a routine follow up exercise test he has a 20 beat run of non-sustained VT. He achieved stage 4 of the Bruce protocol and 92 percent of his target heart rate. The non-sustained VT occurred halfway through stage 2. ST segments were normal during the study. What is the definitive investigation?

5162

You are working as part of the on-call medical team and a GP calls for some advice about a 62-year-old male patient. He is a heavy smoker and has a long and extensive history of peripheral vascular disease. He has had two recent admissions under the vascular surgeons, both occasions requiring embolectomy surgery. His GP is unsure which medication to start to reduce his risk of an occlusive vascular event. Unfortunately, the patient is intolerant of aspirin with documented severe allergy. There is no history of stroke or TIA. The patient is in sinus rhythm. Based on this information and with regard to current NICE guidance, which management option listed is recommended to reduce occlusive vascular events in this patient?

5163

On physical examination a 65-year-old man is found to have pulsus alternans where there is regular alternation of the force of his radial pulse. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis?

5164

A 17-year-old male presented with episodes of low back pain. On clinical examination he is tall and has features of Marfan syndrome. You refer him for echocardiography and he asks why it is needed. Which of the following is the most common abnormality seen in people with Marfan syndrome?

5165

A 38-year-old woman with a 10 year history of type 1 diabetes attends for annual review. She has background diabetic retinopathy, microalbuminuria with a urine albumin: creatinine ratio of 4.8 mg/dl (<3). Currently, she takes basal bolus insulin four times daily and lisinopril. She is a non-smoker, has a BMI of 30 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 124/70 mm/hg. Investigations reveal:

5166

A 24-year-old female is admitted with palpitations. Her pulse is 160 beats/min, blood pressure 70/50 mmHg and she has a respiratory rate 32/min. She is awake, alert and oriented but dyspnoeic. Her electrocardiogram shows a regular rhythm with QRS complex width of 0.11s. What is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?

5167

A 16-year-old girl was incidentally found to have delta wave on ECG suggestive of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. There was no tachycardia and she was asymptomatic. What is the next step in management?

5168

A 65-year-old woman undergoes temporary pacing due to complete heart block following acute myocardial infarction. Which coronary artery is most likely to have been occluded?

5169

A 65-year-old male attends clinic complaining of breathlessness. He has end stage cardiac failure due to dilated cardiomyopathy. Currently he takes furosemide, lisinopril and carvedilol. Which one of the following drugs should be added to his current therapy?

5170

A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation (AF) is admitted for DC cardioversion. The procedure resulted in successful restoration of sinus rhythm. Which one of the following drugs would be most likely to maintain sinus rhythm following this procedure?

5171

One of the following statements is not true regarding temperature in anesthesia

5172

Local anesthetic causing methhaemoglobinemia

5173

Used in treatment of bupivacaine toxicity

5174

Earliest sign of systemic absorption of local anesthetic is

5175

True about EMLA

5176

In spinal anesthesia the drug is deposited between

5177

For prevention of headache associated with spinal anaesthesia which one of the following should be done

5178

Contraindications to epidural analgesia include the following except

5179

Shortest acting local anesthetic agent

5180

A 30 yr old lady is to undergo surgery under intravenous regional anesthesia for her left trigger finger. Which of the following drugs can be used for giving this type of anaesthesia

5181

Tuffiers line is the line joining the two

5182

Which of the following is seen most commonly immediately after spinal anaesthesia

5183

One of the commonest post op complication of spinal

5184

Methaemoglobinemia caused by

5185

Lignocaine with adrenaline is contraindicated for block of:

5186

Lignocaine can be used in all except:

5187

EMLA cream contains:

5188

All of the following structures are pierced while giving spinal, except:

5189

The advantage of using epidural over spinal anesthesia are all except:

5190

A boy is having sickle cell trait. What mode of anesthesia, we should avoid:

5191

Nerve spared with axillary approach:

5192

Chassaignac tubercle is landmark for:

5193

The sacral hiatus results due to failure of fusion of lamina:

5194

True about spinal anaesthesia:

5195

First muscle relaxant t be used:

5196

Venturi effect is based on

5197

ASA classification is done for

5198

Use of Intraarterial cannula in major surgery

5199

Premedication in anaesthesia is given for

5200

Surgical anaesthesia is-

5201

All but one of the following are contraindications to use of succinylcholine. Indicate the exception

5202

A previously fit 45 year old woman is distressed in the recovery room following emergency intestinal obstruction repair. She is awake and cardiovascularly stable but is vomiting in the post op. All the following can be used to prevent post op nausea and vomiting except

5203

Identify the following

5204

True about the PVC endotracheal tube cuff

5205

In an infant CPR, chest compression is given by

5206

During the two rescuer CPR of a child, chest compressions to ventilation ratio is

5207

Kindly identify the breathing system

5208

Anesthetic circuit that prevents rebreathing of CO2

5209

Which of the following is stored in grey coloured cylinder

5210

The first person to give anaesthesia successfully

5211

With respect to the following figure, it indicates

5212

A 30 year old full term pregnant lady for LSCS. ASA grading is

5213

A young patient with tumor is to be injected with stem cells. There is a danger of collapse during the injection. The anesthetist is called for standby. Which of the following anesthetic technique is used

5214

Stage IV of anaesthesia is stage of

5215

Which of the following is not an effect of opioids

5216

A 36 yr old man after Laproscopic hernia repair under GA was shifted to recovery. And he complained of unbearable pain. Which of the following can be used to monitor his pain

5217

Contra indications of nasotracheal intubation are all except

5218

Kindly identify the following

5219

Pre oxygenation increases which of the following parameters

5220

This breathing system is used for

5221

Uses of central line include all of the following except

5222

A collapsed adult pt was brought to the casualty. CPR was started and according to 2015 AHA CPR guidelines the CPR was done. The ratio of chest compressions to ventilation was maintained at 30:2. What should be the ideal rate of chest compression

5223

The day celebrated as World Anesthesia Day:

5224

MAO inhibitors should be stopped:

5225

Invasive blood pressure monitoring done mainly by:

5226

Somatosensory evoked potential will be very useful during:

5227

A lady under GA for LSCS was aware which monitor should have used to avoid intraoperative awareness?

5228

End tidal CO2 is decreased in all except:

5229

Best lead to detect arrhythmia during anesthesia monitoring:

5230

Definitive airway is all except:

5231

Surest sign of confirmation of intubation:

5232

Pin index for nitrous oxide is:

5233

Emergency oxygen flush delivers:

5234

Tare weight is the term used for:

5235

The optimal size of sodalime is:

5236

The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant during anesthesia is:

5237

Advantages of closed circuit are all except:

5238

Confirmation of double lumen tube is by:

5239

Oxygen delivery is regulated by:

5240

Size of the laryngeal mask airway (LMA) for a patient of 45 Kg:

5241

Correct description for term allodynia:

5242

Best lead to direct ischemia during anesthesia monitoring:

5243

Stage of surgical anesthesia is:

5244

Not a contraindication for nasal intubation:

5245

Pin index of nitrous oxide is:

5246

Rotameter in anesthesia machine measures:

5247

The optimal size of soda lime is:

5248

All are the advantages of closed circuit except:

5249

All of the following is true regarding the Infant airway except

5250

All of the following are true regarding Midazolam except

5251

Not an intra venous anesthetic agent

5252

Thiopentone is contra indicated in

5253

Intra-arterial injection of Thiopentone causes

5254

One of the following causes seizures and convulsions

5255

One of the following is the derivative of D-isopropyl phenol

5256

A 20 yr old pt presented with early pregnancy for medical termination of pregnancy in day care facility. The patient has to be discharged by evening. What will be the anesthetic induction agent of choice

5257

Which of the following causes adrenal suppression

5258

Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents is associated with the highest incidence of Myoclonus?

5259

Increased ICT is caused by

5260

Administration of ketamine will cause

5261

Ketamine can be used in all of the following situations except

5262

Wooden chest syndrome is caused by

5263

Shortest acting opioid

5264

Antipsychotic used for anaesthesia

5265

Most potent of the following inhalational agents

5266

All of the following have some muscle relaxant action except

5267

One of the following agents maintains the minute ventilation

5268

Inhalational agent of choice for manual removal of placenta

5269

Which of the following inhalational agents is contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy

5270

Inhalational agent causing nephrotoxicity

5271

Succinylcholine causes one of the following

5272

Site of action of Rocuronium

5273

Which of the following muscle relaxants would you choose to give to a patient undergoing cardiac surgery in order to counteract the bradycardia caused by induction agents?

5274

Phase II block is caused by

5275

Shortest duration of action out of the following

5276

A 55 year old chronic renal failure patient has to undergo renal transplant. Out of the following which one is preferred

5277

Sugammadex is specific reversal agent for

5278

One of the following contains Thymol as the preservative

5279

The doctor on duty asks the technician to get a blue cylinder that has a white shoulder. Which cylinder is the doctor asking for

5280

Least potent of the following inhalational agents

5281

A 36 year old patient was operated for perforation peritonitis under balanced anaesthesia technique. Post extubation he was fine and vitals were well maintained. Pt was kept in ICU and was kept for observation. On the 3rd day his condition deteriorated and was taken in the OT for exploratory laprotomy. Which of the following inhalational should not be repeated if it was used during the first surgery

5282

Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with

5283

A patient of RTA with subdural haematoma is to be operated and craniotomy is planned. Which of the following is the inhalational agent of choice in this patient

5284

A patient during pre anesthetic check up gives a family history of sudden rise in temperature during surgery that had happened to his father 20 years ago. Which of the following should not be used in this patient

5285

Inhalational which is a greenhouse gas

5286

Not a barbiturate

5287

Absolute contra-indication of Propofol

5288

Anti-convulsant in nature

5289

Administration of Thiopentone will decrease all of the following except

5290

For which of the following patients would Etomidate be most appropriate as an induction agent

5291

A patient with hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis dysfunction is posted for a surgery. All the investigations are found to be normal. Which of the following should be avoided in such a patient

5292

One of the following produces a non depolarizing block

5293

Rocuronium is known to cause

5294

Which one of the following statements is wrong regarding succinylcholine

5295

Which one of the following can replace N2O as a carrier gas for volatile anesthetic agent

5296

All of the following may be used for premedication except:

5297

All of the following are advantages of propofol over thiapentone except:

5298

Which of the following intravenous injection causes pain?

5299

36 years old hypertensive male posted for elective surgery. Which drug would be contraindicated?

5300

Not a property of ketamine:

5301

Agent of choice for decreasing hallucinations after ketamine:

5302

Inhalational agents are fluorinated to:

5303

Spike and wave pattern of EEG shown by:

5304

Sevoflurane degradation to compound A is increased by:

5305

Prolonged block after suxamethonium may be seen in:

5306

Hoffmann degradation is shown by:

5307

Which of the following increases the potassium level?

5308

Dichloroethylene affects most commonly:

5309

The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:

5310

A 56 years old female is undergoing neurosurgery. Her BP is 180/110, Pulse rate 55/minute on fundoscopy, papilledema is present. In this induction agent of choice is:

5311

Anesthesia agent contraindicated in intestinal obstruction:

5312

Which of the following is hepatotoxic?

5313

Not a clinical feature of malignant hyperthermia:

5314

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia does not include:

5315

Muscle relaxant which can cause convulsions:

5316

Transvaginal ultrasound report: single intrauterine gestational sac, fetus present with crown-rump length 42.7 mm, fetal heart beat absent what is the diagnosis?

5317

The serum BhCG of a symptomless woman with a pregnancy of unknown location (PUL) has dropped by more than 50 percent after 48 hours. What is the next step you advise?

5318

Patient age 31 year old g3p2l2 diagnosed by ectopic pregnancy in left tube with size of the mass of 4cm and positive fhr. Patient has mild lower abdominal pain, what is the management?

5319

A twenty years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

5320

All of the following are features of ovarian pregnancy except?

5321

A couple who have had three consecutive miscarriages have come to see you .For advice after having a thrombophilia screen. The result showed that she was positive to one of the antiphospholipid antibodies. Which of the following is an antiphospholipid antibody?

5322

A women with 20 weeks pregnancy presents bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, os is open but no products have come out. The diagnosis is?

5323

A lady presented with 7 weeks amenorrhea presented with slight vaginal spotting, CRL was 6 mm with well-formed gestational sac with calculated GA of 5, 6 weeks on TVS. Next line of management?

5324

The general practitioner calls to ask about the immediate follow-up of a woman who had a suction evacuation of a complete molar pregnancy. What is your advice?

5325

A mid aged woman came to OPD with a 32 weeks pregnancy. She already had 2 first trimester abortion and she has a 3-year-old female twins who were born at the end of 8 month of gestation. Which of the following is her accurate representation? G=gravid, P=para

5326

The CVS undergoes multiple changes in pregnancy in order to adapt to the demands of the developing fetus and labour. Which of the following parameter does not change?

5327

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy:

5328

What is the optimum method of screening for chromosomal abnormality in a monochorionic twin pregnancy at 13 weeks of gestation?

5329

A 39-year-old para 0 who is 12+2 by last menstrual period attends for dating scan. She is keen to have screening for aneuploidy. T e CRL is found to be 89 mm. What would be the best management with regard to dating the pregnancy and screening for Down syndrome?

5330

A pregnant women has been referred for a chest x-ray at 25 weeks gestation. She is worried at the impact of ionising radiation on her pregnancy. What is the accepted cumulative dose of ionising radiation in pregnancy?

5331

When is the following sign elicited?

5332

Identify the following placenta?

5333

A woman with a monchorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy at 25 weeks gestation is assessed at the regional fetal medicine service. She is found to have severe TTTS (Quintero stage III). What is the optimal treatment?

5334

Identify the anomaly based on the image below:

5335

Cause of Fetal growth restriction may be:

5336

A gravida 3 female with h/o two prior 2nd trimester abortions associated with h/o painless cervical dilatation, comes to you with Level II USG which shows the below findings. Most appropriate management?

5337

A pregnant woman presented to you with a pregnancy at period of gestation of 9 weeks. She has a history of conization one year back currently on follow up with no recurrence on Pap smear. She also has bicornuate uterus. Her cervical length is 3 cm on tvs. What is your the management of this patient?

5338

A 31 weeks pregnant women, on examination pallor present. Hb is 8 gm/dl. What should be the management?

5339

36 weeks pregnant diabetic female with NST non-reactive. What should be done next?

5340

Identify the cause?

5341

A patient presents at 28 weeks with pain abdomen since 3 hours associated with decreased fetal movements, USG shows the following, the recording shows 90 bpm, what is the management?

5342

A 32-year-old G2P1001 at 16 weeks gestation presents with complaints of palpitations, nervousness, insomnia, and fatigue. On physical exam a fine tremor is noted in her hand, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What is the most likely diagnosis? What is the best treatment?

5343

A 40-year-old multiparous woman presents to the labour ward with a history of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) at 29 weeks of gestation. She complains of regular uterine contractions coming every 3 minutes. Speculum examination confirms a rupture of membranes and her cervix appears to be 3 cm dilated. Clinically, there are no signs of chorioamnionitis?

5344

32 weeks pregnant female presented with labor pains and minimal vaginal discharge, on analysis of the cervicovaginal discharge showed fibronectin. What is the probable diagnosis?

5345

A 38-year-old multiparous woman attends her antenatal clinic appointment at 35 weeks of gestation. She gives a history of PROM at 24 weeks of gestation. Abdominal examination reveals cephalic presentation with no signs of chorioamnionitis. An ultrasound scan reveals oligohydramnios. Her inflammatory markers are normal

5346

With regards to prelabour spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM) at term all are true except:

5347

You are asked to review a patient in the first stage of labour as the midwife is concerned about her progress. This is her first pregnancy. She has dilated from 4cm to 6cm in 4 hours. At your initial assessment she is 6cm dilated with membranes intact. You review her again 2 hours later and the cervix is now 6.5cm dilated with membranes intact. What is the most appropriate management?

5348

Which one of the following methods for induction of labour should not be used in patient with previous lower segment caesarean section?

5349

Asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB) is most commonly seen in early pregnancy, which is the reason why it is standard antenatal practice to send a urine sample for microscopy and culture at the initial booking. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of ASB?

5350

In uterine prolapse, decubitus ulcer in the cervix is caused by:

5351

A young nulliparous woman had 3rd degree of uterovaginal prolapse without any cystocele or rectocele. There is no stress incontinence. The uterus is retroverted. Uterocervical length is 3 inches. All other symptoms are normal. The best treatment plan for her will be:

5352

A 90-year-old woman with hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with worsening uterovaginal prolapse that is not being controlled with shelf pessaries. What is the management?

5353

A primipara who had a prolonged labour and difficult vaginal delivery three months ago presents with complaints of incontinence of loose stools and flatus from the day of delivery. The most likely diagnosis: A primipara who had a prolonged labour and difficult vaginal delivery three months ago presents with complaints of incontinence of loose stools and flatus from the day of delivery. The most likely diagnosis:

5354

Patient of rectovaginal fistula should be initially treated with:

5355

A woman attends the urogynaecology clinic with symptoms of stress incontinence that have not responded to conservative measures. She is keen for surgical intervention but wishes to avoid synthetic meshes and tapes as she has read adverse reports in the media. What is the management do you prefer?

5356

A couple is advised to use barrier methods after vasectomy till:

5357

Peritoneum is opened in all of the following sterilisation procedures except?

5358

A 32 year old p2l2 lady comes five days after unprotected sexual intercourse. What will be your advice for contraception in this lady?

5359

A 21-year-old woman comes to the genitourinary medicine clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. Vaginal high-swab results show that she has bacterial vaginosis. She asks you about treatment of her sexual partner. Which infection needs treatment of an asymptomatic sexual partner?

5360

A 20-year-old pregnant woman presented to the genitourinary medicine clinic with anogenital warts. She is diagnosed as in image. What are her treatment options?

5361

What is not a derivative of the urogenital sinus?

5362

The following is correctly matched:

5363

An 18-year-old girl presents to her general practitioner with distension of the abdomen. An ultrasound scan reveals a unilateral solid/cystic mass on the left side. An MRI scan confirms that the ovarian tumour is confined to the left ovary and the right ovary looks normal. However, her tumour markers, beta human chorionic gonadotropin (beta hCG) and alpha fetoprotein, were normal. She is then referred to the gynaecology oncology centre for further management, following which she undergoes staging laparotomy and left-sided oophorectomy. One of the components of the histology shows elements of glial tissue

5364

Laparotomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascites positive for malignant cells and positive pelvic lymph nodes. All other structures were free of disease. What is the stage?

5365

A 54 year old female presents with PMB biopsy shows endometriod variety of cancer of 3 cm in the uterine fundus, histology shows grade 1, MRI shows greater than50 percent of myometrial involvement. Next step in management is?

5366

A 45-years-old woman has negative pap smear with positive endocervical curettage. Next step in management will be:

5367

A case of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia belongs to high risk group if disease develops after:

5368

The ideal treatment for metastatic choriocarcinoma in the lungs in a young women is:

5369

A woman presents with a fluctuant non tender swelling at the introitus. The best treatment is:

5370

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia (DUB) underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X-ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

5371

A 36 year old female, with two alive children complains of dysmennorhea and dyspareunia. TVS shows a thin walled cyst 4cm x 5cm with ecogenic fluid and no solid areas in right ovary. She does not wish to conceive. Which is first line management?

5372

A 30 year old, para two, with two live children has menorrhagia for 2 years. She was ligated 4 years back. On investigation, she is found to have a 2 cm × 2 cm submucous myoma. What will be the best management option for her:

5373

Lady with infertility with bilateral tubal block at cornua; best method of management is:

5374

tient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites, the probable cause is:

5375

A 35-year-old lady with post coital bleeding management is:

5376

Which of the following strategy has been recommended to reduce the heredity risk for ovarian cancer in women with BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 mutations?

5377

HSG is done:

5378

The contraception method shown below is made of:

5379

A 24-year-old woman comes to the genitourinary medicine clinic complaining of small multiple groups of painful vulval ulcers. On examination, the base of the ulcer was erythematous and inguinal lymph nodes were painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5380

During diagnostic laparoscopy on a 28-year-old female for chronic pelvic pain, you noticed inflammation of the liver capsule and adjacent peritoneum. What is the most likely causative organism?

5381

A 48-year-old woman is complaining of abnormal uterine bleeding, which has lasted for two years. She has tried the combined oral contraceptive, oral progestogens, tranexamic acid and mefenamic acid but without any improvement. She has three children and has been sterilized. Her last cervical smear was two years previously and was normal. She had surgery for breast cancer four years before. Her pelvic scan shows no uterine abnormalities. Her endometrial sampling is normal. What would you offer her as a further step of treatment?

5382

A 35-year-old woman, who is a para 2+1, has presented with secondary amenorrhea for the past 10 months and complains of weight gain. She has increased two dress sizes over the last year. The pelvic examination was normal. The TVS shows an increased AFC and increased ovarian volume. What is the best treatment option for her?

5383

What is the best way to differentiate between class 4 and class 5?

5384

Identify the image?

5385

A 35 year old woman with three years of infertility came to hospital for further investigation, vaginal smear obtained on day 22 shows the following what is the diagnosis?

5386

Type of diabetes mellitus resulting from autoimmune beta cell destruction is

5387

A 54-year-old male presents to his general practitioner for a health insurance medical and is concerned about his general health. He has been otherwise well except for a diagnosis of hypertension two years ago and was placed on a diet. He stopped smoking 10 years ago and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol weekly. Currently he takes no medication. He is concerned that his elder brother has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and has commenced oral therapy. His father and mother were also diabetic and died of stroke and myocardial infarction respectively. He also informs you that he is concerned about his weight. On examination, his BMI is 33.4 kg/m2, pulse is 82 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination are normal except for central adiposity.

5388

MEN 1 includes all except

5389

A 42-year-old male presents with impotence and reduced libido of 6 months duration. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes 5 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. Examination reveals an obese male who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics. Investigations are as follows:

5390

Nonfunctional pancreatic endocrine tumours secrete all except

5391

A 62-year-old male attends his general practitioner for annual review of his diabetes. He has been diagnosed with diabetes for 3 years and has been treated with diet alone. He is generally asymptomatic. He has a strong family history of diabetes and cardiovascular disease, with his mother having diabetes and having died of an MI at 65 and his sister also suffering from diabetes. Currently he takes only Omeprazole for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d. He is a nonsmoker and drinks approximately 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he has a BMI of 36.5 kg/m2, a pulse of 88 bpm and a blood pressure of 156/92 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory system examination are normal. On abdominal examination he has central adiposity but no other abnormalities are noted. All peripheral pulses are palpable. He has a reduced appreciation to vibration sensation in the feet and examination of the fundi reveal 2-3 microaneurysms in each eye

5392

A 74-year-old female presents as an acute admission with confusion and diarrhoea. Little is known of her past medical history except that it is noted on the GP letter that she is receiving treatment for manic depression and hypothyroidism. Examination reveals that she has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 15 but is confused. She is thin, unkempt and dehydrated with a temperature of 37oC. She has a pulse of 82 beats per minute in a regular rhythm and a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg. She is noted to have a coarse tremor and dysarthric speech. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to assist in her management?

5393

A 68-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus (insulin controlled) and end stage renal disease (hemodialysis dependent for 4 years) was admitted to the coronary care unit 72 hours ago, with an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite appropriate therapy, including thrombolysis, he continues to have ischemic symptoms, and is in pulmonary edema. His last hemodialysis session was three hours prior to admission. His blood pressure is 86/52 mmHg

5394

A 56-year-old male type 2 diabetic of 15 years attends the diabetic clinic for annual review. He has been treated with insulin for 5 years and tells you his blood sugar readings have been steady. He does complain of increased lethargy however for approximately 6 months. There are no symptoms suggestive of angina or intermittent claudication, however he reports paraesthesia affecting the lower limbs, which is worse at night. He attends annually for digital imaging of the retina and is reported to have changes of background diabetic retinopathy in both eyes. He has previously documented microalbuminuria. There is no complaint of erectile dysfunction. On examination his weight is 80 kg and pulse rate is 72/min with a blood pressure of 145/85mmHg. He appears clinically euthyroid with no palpable goiter. S1S2 are audible with no added sounds or murmurs; his chest is clear to auscultation and his abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. He has diminished 128Hz tuning fork vibration and 10g monofilament sensation in both of his feet with intact pedal pulses and no evidence of ulceration. Fasting blood glucose is 7.8mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

5395

In ADA criteria for diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, fasting state means

5396

Diseases that cause secretory large volume diarrhea include all except

5397

Mutations of which gene occurs in MEN 2

5398

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by all except

5399

Impaired glucose tolerance is defined as plasma glucose levels of what level after 2 hours of 75 gram oral glucose load

5400

Individuals with impaired fasting glucose are at increased risk of developing

5401

A 58-year-old male was reviewed by his General Practitioner with a three-month history of lethargy and weight loss. He had a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes for which he was treated with Gliclazide 80g twice daily and Metformin 1g twice daily. He was receiving amlodipine 5 mg daily as treatment for his hypertension. He confessed to poor compliance with diet, he smoked 5 cigarettes daily and drank approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he was noted to have a BMI of 29.6 kg/m2, a pulse of 88 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 164/102 mmHg. Fundal examination revealed dot haemorrhages in the temporal retina of both eyes with occasional hard exudates. Loss of position and vibration sensation were also noted to the mid tibia bilaterally. Peripheral pulses were all preserved.

5402

A 28-year-old female presents with recurrent vulval candidiasis together with polyuria. She has gained approximately 20kg in weight since the birth of her last child five years ago. During this pregnancy she recalls that she was received insulin for approximately four months although this was discontinued after the birth of her daughter who is quite well. She also has two older children who are well although she did not receive insulin during these pregnancies. She is a smoker of 12 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. There is a strong family history of coronary artery disease, her father and paternal uncle died in their fifties of heart disease. Her mother is diabetic and takes thyroxine for a thyroid problem. On examination she weighs 90kg with a body mass index of 36.5 kg/m2. Her pulse is regular, 82 beats/minute and her blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg. Otherwise examination of the heart, chest and abdomen is unremarkable. Fundal examination reveals three dot haemorrhages in the left and two dot haemorrhages in the right retina. There are no abnormalities of sensation in the feet or hands. Peripheral pulses are all normal.

5403

MEN type 2B feature includes all except

5404

Most common hormone produced by pituitary tumours in MEN 1:

5405

Syndromes associated with DM include all except

5406

A 19-year-old woman is seen following recurrent episodes of cystitis despite trimethoprim therapy. As well as these symptoms she has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus from 12 years of age and receives twice daily mixed insulin. She also takes the oral contraceptive for the last two years and smokes 10 cigarettes daily. She has two elder brothers who are both well. Examination reveals a thin but well looking female with a BMI of 21.5 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 108/76 mmHg and normal cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination

5407

Proteolytic processing of pre-pro-insulin results in the formation of

5408

MEN 1 includes

5409

Viruses causing diabetes mellitus include all except

5410

A 58-year-old male with a 3-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus which has been managed by his general practitioner is referred to the diabetic clinic. He has been generally well but has been aware of a 6kg weight gain over the last one year together with 2 to 3 episodes of nocturia most nights. He is currently on diet control alone for his diabetes. He is an ex-smoker having stopped 10 years ago. He drinks approximately 8 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he has a body mass index of 33.5 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 162/98 mmHg and a pulse of 78 beats per minute. Auscultation of his heart, and chest are normal and no abnormalities are detected on abdominal examination. Fundoscopic examination reveals scattered microaneurysms in both eyes and a crescent of hard exudates encroaching upon the macular in the right eye. Neurological examination reveals reduced light touch sensation in both feet to the ankles. Dipstick of his urine reveal glucose +. Investigations show:

5411

A 72-year-old male diabetic presents with weakness and lethargy. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 12 years ago and remains on gliclazide and metformin therapy and takes atenolol for hypertension.

5412

A 58-year-old lady with type II diabetes mellitus and chronic renal failure on haemodialysis presents with unstable angina. She currently uses twice daily insulin for glycaemic control but control has been poor of late

5413

A 26-year-old female presents with 3-month history of weight loss and general lethargy. She has a 5-year history of type 1 diabetes for which she has been treated with basal bolus insulin consisting of short acting insulin thrice daily and long acting insulin in the evenings. Commensurate with her weight loss of 5 kg over the last three months she has noticed that she has recently encountered more hypoglycaemic events and has reduced her insulin requirements from 60 units per day to 38 units daily. She takes no medication other than the oral contraceptive pill. She is a nonsmoker and denies use of any illicit substances. On examination she has a BMI of 21.2 kg/m2 and appears comfortable. Her pulse is 68 beats per minute regular and her blood pressure is 118/70 mmHg. There are no specific abnormalities of the chest, heart or abdomen but she has a slight purplish- yellow, non-tender 2 –3 cm maculopapular rash on both shins

5414

A 58-year-old man attends well man clinic because his father died of a heart attack at the age of 61. There is no past history of Diabetes Mellitus but he is a smoker of 10 – 15 cigarettes per day. On examination, he has a BMI of 28 kg/m2 and has Blood Pressure of 162/88 mmHg. Cardiovascular, chest and abdominal examination are normal. Fundoscopy merely shows AV nipping. He is advised to re-attend his general practitioner who confirms the sustained elevation in blood pressure with recordings averaging 170/94 mmHg. Dipstick urinalysis reveals urine protein (+)

5415

A 60-year-old male patient is referred to the outpatient department complaining of tiredness, lethargy, sweats and weight loss over the past 6 months. On further questioning he reports diminished libido and erectile dysfunction. He has a past history of diabetes mellitus and suffered a myocardial infarction 2 years previously which was complicated by ventricular tachycardia for which he is taking Amiodarone. On examination, he is pale with a resting pulse of 108 bpm and a bounding pulse. His blood pressure is 122/82 mmHg and he has normal heart sounds. Chest is clear to auscultation and the abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. He has a smooth goiter; eye movements are normal with no evidence of dysthyroid eye disease and visual fields are intact to confrontation. The GP has performed a number of investigations, which are shown here:

5416

Subvariant of MEN 2A includes

5417

86 amino acid precursor polypeptide of insulin is

5418

Cleavage of proinsulin results in

5419

A 72-year-old male diabetic presents with weakness and lethargy. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 12 years ago and remains on gliclazide and metformin therapy and takes atenolol for hypertension. There is little to find on examination

5420

MEN type 2A feature includes all except

5421

A and B chains of insulin contain how many amino acids respectively

5422

MODY is characterized by all except

5423

Drugs causing diabetes mellitus include

5424

A 54-year-old male presents with a three month history of impotence. He has been aware of deteriorating erections for the last year but over the last three months his erectile function has been particularly poor. He is divorced for the last 8 years but 5 months ago has established a relationship with another woman. Consequently, he is rather distressed by his impotence. He has attempted intercourse but he has been able to achieve slight tumescence but he is unable to achieve penetrance. Similarly, he is aware of only slight tumescence alone or at night. As a consequence of his inability to have intercourse he confesses to a reduced interest in sex, has been embarrassed and emotional about his problem. He denies any reduced shaving frequency but has gained weight over the last year or so. He has two children by his previous marriage. He is employed as a factory worker and together with the weight gain has been feeling a little more tired of late. On weekends he tends to have sleep after lunch. He drinks approximately 15 unit of alcohol weekly. His history is complicated by type 2 diabetes which he has had for 5 years and is controlled by diet alone. His last HbA1c was 6.8% (3.8-6.4). He takes lisinopril for hypertension together with rosuvastatin and omeprazole for gastroesphageal reflux. He is a nonsmoker. On examination, he has a BMI of 35.4 kg/m2, a pulse of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 138/82 mmHg. He has normal secondary sexual characteristics and there are no abnormalities on examination of the CVS, respiratory or abdominal system. All pulses are palpable, there is no evidence of peripheral neuropathy and fundal examination is normal. Testicular examination is entirely normal with testicular volumes of approximately 12 mls bilaterally

5425

This 34-year-old female presents with a nine month history of weight gain, weakness and amenorrhoea. Examination reveals the appearances as shown, a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg and proximal myopathy. Urinalysis shows ++ glucose and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnostic test?

5426

A 55-year-old woman is found to have ++ glycosuria and had a maternal history of Type II diabetes mellitus. She is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Examination reveals no specific abnormalities apart from a BMI of 30. Blood pressure was 132/88 mmHg. Investigations reveal:

5427

A 45-year-old female is referred to the outpatient’s clinic having been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus following an oral glucose tolerance test. The clinical history reveals a 6-month history of weight gain malaise with low mood with poor sleep and reduced libido. The patient also had symptoms of recurrent urinary tract infections and candidiasis, in association with osmotic symptoms of diabetes. She had otherwise been quite well. On examination the patient weighed 80 Kg with a BMI of 31 kg/m2, she appeared plethoric and flushed with an acneiform rash over the shoulder area. Blood pressure was 165/92 mmHg, the pulse rate was 96 beats/min with normal heart sounds audible; examination of the respiratory system was unremarkable. Abdominal examination revealed pigmented striae. There was evidence of a marked proximal myopathy affecting the upper and lower limbs. Urine dipstick revealed 4+ of glycosuria and 2+ of protein. Initial investigations revealed the following results

5428

Drugs causing diabetes mellitus include all except

5429

Tumor suppressor protein encoded by MEN 1 gene

5430

Impaired fasting glucose is defined when fasting plasma glucose levels are between

5431

Most recent classification of diabetes mellitus is based on

5432

A 48-year-old male is seen at the diabetic clinic for annual review. He has a four-year history of diabetes and mild hypertension for which he takes gliclazide 160 mg bd, metformin 500 mg bd, Rosuvstatin 10 mg od and bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. At the consultation he is generally untroubled except for impotence which has deteriorated over the last 12 months. He has tried Viagra but without success. He is becoming increasingly distressed about his impotence although he has an understanding wife. On examination he has a BMI of 29 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 134/78 mmHg, a pulse of 90 bpm and appears well. There is no evidence of neuropathy or retinopathy and all pulses are palpable

5433

A 52-year-old female presents with tiredeness, weight loss, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. She was receiving a combined cyclical oestrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy. Examination revealed a thin patient with a pulse of 110 beats per minute, a fine tremor and proximal myopathy. Her spleen tip was barely felt

5434

True regarding VIPomas

5435

Which is structurally related to IGF-I and II

5436

Pancreatic cholera is due to overproduction of

5437

A 26-year-old female presents with fatigue and weight loss. Six years previously she had been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus following diabetic ketoacidosis. She had been well up until the last one year, since when she has been admitted on two occasions with diabetic ketoacidosis. She is currently receiving soluble insulin three times daily and long acting insulin in the evening. Over the last year she had lost approximately 10kg in weight and over the last 3 months had generally lost her appetite. She had also been amenorrhoeic over the last 3 months. Examination reveals a thin, pale female with a pulse of 76 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 116/80 mmHg. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination were normal. Sensation was intact and fundal examination is normal

5438

A 20-year-old female student presents with sleepiness, weakness and vivid dreams which have occurred over the last two months. She has a six year history of type 1 diabetes and has been using basal bolus insulin consisting of three times daily Lyspro insulin and evening long acting insulin for the last six months. Prior to that she had been receiving twice daily insulin but had noted rather eratic control after she attended University. She generally adhered to a good diet and regularly monitored her BMs twice daily which tend to be below 10. She is receiving no other treatment except insulin. She does not smoke, lives in a flat with two other female student colleagues and binge drinks often on Saturday nights. Examination reveals a well female with a BMI of 23 kg/m2, a pulse of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. No abnormalities are noted on examination

5439

A 25-year-old female presents for annual review. She developed diabetes mellitus at the age of 15 and currently is treated with human mixed insulin twice daily. Over the last one year she has been aware of episodes of dysuria and has received treatment with trimethoprim on 4 separate occasions for cysytits. Examination reveals no specific abnormality except for two dot haemorrhages bilaterally on fundal examination. Her blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg

5440

A 55-year-old male consulted his General Practitioner with a three-month history of lethargy and weight loss. Six years previously he was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and was receiving Glibenclamide 10 mg daily and Metformin 1g twice daily. On examination he was noted to have a BMI of 25.6 kg/m2, a pulse of 88 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 164/102 mmHg. Fundal examination revealed numerous dot haemorrhages in the temporal retina of both eyes with occasional hard exudates. Loss of position and vibration sensation were also noted to the mid tibia bilaterally

5441

A 52-year-old type 2 diabetic woman presents for her annual review. She was diagnosed with diabetes 3 years ago and was diagnosed with hypertension 2 years ago. Currently she remains on diet control alone for her diabetes and is taking bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg daily. There is no other past history of note. She stopped smoking 5 years ago and drinks approximately 5 glasses of wine weekly. On examination, she has a body mass index of 33.1 kg/m2, a pulse of 88 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 160/92 mmHg. Her peripheral pulses are all present and she has a slight reduction of light touch sensation in the feet. Fundoscopy through dilated pupils reveals some hard exudates close to the macula bilaterally

5442

A 21-year-old female with a four year history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with dysuria, fever and rigors. She has been using mixed insulin twice daily and her last HbA1c was 7.2 percent at annual review three months ago. On examination, she has a temperature of 39C, a blood pressure of 112/76 mmHg and a pulse of 110 bpm. Cardiovascular and respiratory examination are unremarkable. She has diffused tenderness on abdominal examination

5443

A 33-year-old nurse is admitted for prolonged fasting. She originally presented to clinic with a history of episodic sweating and light-headedness which had developed over a six-month period with symptoms being entirely relieved by eating. She had developed one of these episodes whilst on the ward and a BM monitor showed a value of 2 mmol/L. She took some glucose tablets and had quickly recovered. On examination no specific abnormalities were found with a blood pressure of 118/74 mmHg, a pulse of 72 beats per minute and a BMI of 22 kg/m2. She was admitted for a 72 hour fast and at 3 am, 16 hours into the fast she develops typical symptoms. Her BM is measured at 2.2 mmol/L, the fast is stopped and bloods taken

5444

A 44-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus has not attended the diabetic clinic for 5 years. Examination shows no abnormalities

5445

A 54-year-old male diabetic with a five-year history of type 2 diabetes presents at annual review. He is currently receiving Glibenclamide 5 mg daily, together with Lisinopril 10 mg daily for hypertension. On examination he has a BMI of 32.4 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 132/84 mmHg, all pulses are palpable and he has some loss of vibration sensation on both big toes and has 2 to 3 dot haemorrhages in each eye

5446

A 56-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of weight loss, loose motions and flushes. She passed through the menopause over 5 years ago and was untroubled at that stage. However, her current symptoms have deteriorated over the last six months. She is aware of a loose motion 4 times daily, has intermittent flushes and has lost approximately 6kg in weight over this period. She currently takes no medication and but has a 2-year history of type 2 diabetes for which she is on diet treatment alone. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 10 units of alcohol weekly. On examination, she has a BMI of 28.1 kg/m2, pulse of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. Auscultation of the chest reveals a couple of scattered expiratory wheezes. There is no abnormality on auscultation of the chest. Examination of the abdomen revealed 4cm hepatomegaly

5447

A 55-year-old male presents at diabetic annual review. He is generally well and receiving metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has a BMI of 32, he has a blood pressure of 144/88 mmHg and has a slight reduction to sensation in his feet to pinprick. There is no evidence of any retinopathy

5448

A 45-year-old male is referred for advice regarding his impotence and diabetes. He was diagnosed by his GP with diabetes 4 years ago after presenting to him with problems related to erectile dysfunction. On questioning he has complete impotence, a poor libido and shaves infrequently. He has tried sildenafil (Viagra) without any success. Currently he is receiving glibenclamide 10 mg daily, aspirin 75 mg daily and amlodipine 5 mg daily for hypertension. Examination reveals normal secondary sexual characteristics, a pulse of 80 bpm irregular, a blood pressure of 126/86 mmHg and a BMI of 24.4 kg/m2. No abnormalities are noted in the cardiovascular, respiratory or abdominal systems. His fundi appear normal and there are no abnormalities of sensation

5449

A 56-year-old male with a 12-year history of diabetes mellitus presents for annual review. He is currently receiving gliclazide at a dose of 80 mg twice daily. Examination reveals a pulse of 76 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 152/90 mmHg. Fundal examination reveals bilateral dot haemorrhages with scattered hard exudates. He has loss of vibration sensation in to the ankles but all pulses are palpable

5450

A 52-year-old male who has a five-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with chest pain. His usual drug therapy includes metformin 500 mg tds and he also takes bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily for hypertension. On examination, he is obese with a BMI of 32kg/m2, has a pulse of 88 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg. His ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. He receives streptokinase and his BM glucose concentations show values between 7-10 mmol/L (11.1). His plasma glucose concentration obtained from the lab is 8.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the most appropriate treatment for his glycaemic control?

5451

A 78-year-old male presents with exertional shortness of breath and palpitations. His symptoms developed over the last 24 hours. Previously he was active but was diagnosed with angina 2 years ago for which he takes isosorbide mononitrate 60mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg daily, diltiazem 200 mg daily and aspirin 75 mg daily. Two months ago he presented to his GP with general apathy and was commenced on fluoxetine 20mg daily. On examination he was noted to have a heart rate of 122 beats per minute irregularly irregular, a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg but otherwise appears fine. In particular he appeared clinically euthyroid and no goitre was palpable on examination. ECG confirmed atrial fibrillation

5452

A 20-year-old student presents with weight gain and depression. Six months ago, she recently commenced university. Three months ago, she presented to the dermatologists with deteriorating facial acne. She was treated with topical tetracycline and noted some improvement in the acne. However, over the last three months has become more depressed, finds class work difficult and has difficulty getting out of her bed in the mornings. She is also concerned that she has gained approximately 5 kg in weight over this time and has noted some problem with menstrual irregularity. On examination she had mild facial acne, a pulse of 128/86 mmHg and had a BMI of 32.1 kg/m2

5453

A 22-year-old woman presented with a 5-year history of hirsuitism with her having noticed coarse dark hair under her chins. Being a teacher in a primary school, these symptoms are very distressing for her. She has tried local measures such as shaving and applying depilatory creams but without lasting success. Her periods are irregular with oligomennorhea. She attained menarche at the age of 14-years. She has not yet conceived. She takes 5mg diazepam at night. On examination, she had a BMI of 24. She had coarse, dark hair over her chin, lower back and inner thighs. She does not have galactorrhea to expression and there were no other clinical features to suggest Cushing

5454

A 55-year-old man was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and commenced on amiodarone 2-years ago. His thyroid function tests prior to commencing amiodarone were normal. He subsequently developed hyperthyroidism whilst on amiodarone. Amiodarone was stopped 4-months ago and he was commenced on 40 mg carbimazole OD but he continued to lose weight despite maintaining a good appetite. His other medications comprised of digoxin 250 g OD and warfarin as per INR. There was no family history of thyroid disease. On examination, pulse was 92 beats per minute, irregularly irregular, blood pressure was 130/70 mmHg. There was no goitre palpable on neck examination and he had no visible tremors

5455

A 36-year-old female recently diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis presents with a sore throat. One month ago, she commenced Carbimazole 40 mg daily plus propranolol 40 mg bd and began to feel better but over the last one week she has been aware of a sore throat with painful swallowing. On examination, her pulse is 80 beats per minute regular and she has a modest non tender goitre. No other abnormalities are noted

5456

A 33-year-old female presents with a one-year history of galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea. She informs you that she does not want to become pregnant. On examination there is galactorrhoea to expression and visual fields are normal to confrontation. Investigations confirm the diagnosis of a macroprolactinoma, with a prolactin concentration of 10,500 mu/l (50-500) and MRI of the pituitary revealing a 1.5 cm tumour with some suprasellar extension. What is the most appropriate treatment for this woman?

5457

This 56-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of weight loss and sweats. Examination reveals the appearances as shown, a pulse of 98 beats per minute and blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg

5458

A 54-year-old male presents to his general practitioner for a health insurance medical and is concerned about his general health. He has been otherwise well except for a diagnosis of hypertension two years ago and was placed on a diet. He stopped smoking 10 years ago and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol weekly. Currently he takes no medication. He is concerned that his elder brother has recently been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and has commenced oral therapy. His father and mother were also diabetic and died of stroke and myocardial infarction respectively. He also informs you that he is concerned about his weight. On examination, his BMI is 33.4 kg/m2, pulse is 82 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination are normal except for central adiposity

5459

A 22-year-old woman presented with a 5-year history of hirsuitism with her having noticed coarse dark hair under her chins. Being a teacher in a primary school, these symptoms are very distressing for her. She has tried local measures such as shaving and applying depilatory creams but without lasting success. Her periods are irregular with oligomennorhea. She attained menarche at the age of 14-years. She has not yet conceived and has had a coil fitted for contraception. She takes 5mg diazepam at night. On examination, she had a BMI of 24. She had coarse, dark hair over her chin, lower back and inner thighs. She does not have galactorrhea to expression and there were no other clinical features to suggest Cushing

5460

A 66-year-old female was admitted with nausea and vomiting of two days duration. She and her husband had eaten a take away meal and had both become ill. However, her husband a had recovered after a day. Otherwise she had been fit and well except for hypertension for which she took amlodipine 5 mg daily. On examination she appeared comfortable, with a temperature of 36.5 degree C, a pulse of 90 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 146/98 mmHg. No other abnormalities were noted.

5461

A 36-year-old female presents with thirst and frequency of micturition. These symptoms have deteriorated over the last three months and she is now aware of twice nightly nocturia and occasionally needs to drink during the night. She has been aware of intermittent frontal headaches over this time which are generally relieved by paracetamol and are without any relationship to the time of day. She has been rather stressed of late since the breakup of her marriage six months ago. Since the separation she has been taking Fluoxetine 20 mg daily. No abnormalities are detected upon examination. She undergoes an 8-hour water deprivation test which reveals the following:

5462

A 30-year-old woman is referred to you for treatment of obesity. Which of the following considerations would be correct when considering treatment in this woman?

5463

A 58-year-old male presents to the endocrine clinic for annual review. 6 years ago, he presented with visual field defects and was noted to have a large pituitary tumor. He underwent successful surgical removal of a non-functioning pituitary tumor and received cranial irradiationradiotherapy. Post-operative assessment at the time revealed partial hypopituitarism and since he has remained well on hydrocortisone 10 mg bd and thyroxine 150 µg daily. Currently he feels quite well but is aware of lack of libido. Serial MRI has revealed no recurrence of his pituitary tumour. Endocrine investigations performed by the endocrine nurse prior to the clinic reveal:

5464

A 69-year-old man is reviewed at medical outpatient clinic complaining of tiredness. Six months ago, he was admitted with angina associated with atrial flutter which spontaneously settled following intravenous digoxin. Since then he has been treated with amiodarone 200 mg daily. He also takes aspirin 75 mg daily and atenolol 50mg daily together with Pravastatin 40 mg daily. Recent 24 hr ECG shows sinus rhythm throughout with occasional ventricular ectopics. Examination of the patient reveals a fine tremor, and a pulse of 56 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 146/88 mmHg

5465

A 70-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and dehydration. Her relatives claim that she has been deteriorating over the last couple of months. They have noticed that lately she has become incontinent of urine and that she has become more withdrawn and depressed. Her past medical history is unremarkable except for hypetension diagnosed three years ago for which she takes bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and amlodipine 10 mg daily. On examination she is confused but alert. She knows her name and address but does not know where she is. She appears clinically dehydrated, with a pulse of 110 bpm regular, a blood pressure of 194/88 mmHg and is apyrexial. Examination of the cardiovascular system, abdomen and chest are all normal. No goitre was palpable but breast examination revealed genrally nodular breasts

5466

A 52-year-old female presents with agitation and weight loss. Examination reveals a fine tremor, goitre and tacchycardia. Investigations confirm thyrotoxicosis with positive TSH receptor autoantibodies. She elects to receive radioactive iodine treatment. Which of the following statements concerning therapy for this patient is correct?

5467

A 65-year-old female presents with a three-month history of generalized aches and pains. These problems began rather gradually and she has noticed less energy of late. She has otherwise been in good health but has a five-year history of hypertension for which she is treated with bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and more recently she has received lisinopril 5 mg daily. She has received regular blood pressure checks at her GPs clinic. Over the last one year she has also been taking vitamin D supplements as she has been concerned regarding osteoporosis. She stopped taking female HRT approximately 5 years ago. Of relevance in her family history was a strong maternal history of osteoporosis. Her mother had a fractured neck of femur at the age of 70 and her maternal aunts had problems with osteoporosis. She is a smoker of 15 pack years having stopped smoking 5 years ago. She drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. On examination she is slightly built with a BMI of 22.2 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/84 mmHg. No specific abnormalities are noted on cardiovascular, respiratory or abdominal examination.

5468

A 72-year-old male is admitted with acute onset dyspnoea. He was a smoker of 20 cigarettes daily and had been aware of increasing exertional dyspnoea over the last year. On examination, he was short of breath at rest, was obese, had a pulse of 125 beats per minute irregular, blood pressure 122/82 mmHg, he had a third heart sound and numerous crackles bibasally on chest examination

5469

A 41-year-old woman presents with a history of weight loss and anxiety. She has a three-year history of thyrotoxicosis for which she has been treated with previous courses of carbimazole but has failed to attend scheduled outpatient appointments for over one year. Following the course of Carbimazole which was stopped approximately two years ago she felt much better but was still aware of a goitre. Most recently she has become aware of a more prominent swelling of the right side of the neck and her symptoms of anxiety with a 3 kg weight loss. Currently she takes no medication but is a smoker of 10 cigarettes daily. On examination she has, a pulse of 96 beats per minute, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag and some periorbital puffiness. There is a moderately enlarged and diffuse goitre with a more prominent, 3cm nodule on the left of the gland which is non-tender. Over the goitre is a bruit and no lymphadenoapthy is palpable. No other abnormalities are noted

5470

A 62-year-old male is referred with impotence. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 10 years ago and was initially treated with diet but has required metformin over the last three years. Five years previously he underwent a left hip replacement. Over the last two years he has been aware of deteriorating erectile dysfunction and is now totally impotent. He shaves daily and has not been aware of any change in body hair. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately ten units of alcohol weekly. Examination reveals an obese male with a blood pressure of 146/88 mmHg. And normal secondary sexual characteristics. Testicular examination reveals normal testes of approximately 15 ml in volume. There are no abnormalities on cardiovascular, respiratory or abdominal examinations

5471

A 60-year-old male who is the professor of endocrinology presents to A+E with acute shortness of breath after a transatlantic flight. He has otherwise been quite well. Examination reveals a pulse of 102 bpm, his oxygen saturations are 90% on air and he has a blood pressure of 118/90 mmHg. His legs appear normal and chest examination is fine. On the clinical suspicion of a pulmonary embolism he is commenced on low molecular weight heparin therapy and this is confirmed on a VQ scan. Given his occupation, thyroid function tests are performed despite no overt features of thyrotoxicosis and return revealing:

5472

A 51-year-old female is referred by her GP over concerns about osteoporosis. She had a hysterectomy and oophorectomy because of uterine fibroids one year ago, after which she developed hot flushes that persist. Her elderly mother recently fractured the neck of her femur and the patient is worried about the possibility that she too will fracture her hip later in life. She is otherwise well, is a non-smoker drinks about 5 units of alcohol weekly and has a healthy diet. Examination reveals a fit thin female with a BMI of 18, her blood pressure is 122/88mmHg and breast examination is normal. Which of the following would you recommend for her?

5473

A 21-year-old female is concerned following exposure to meningococcal meningitis. Her flatmate contracted meningococcal meningitis and she now wants preventative treatment. She is generally well without any past medical history. She takes Logynon as a contraceptive agent and uses a salbutamol inhaler infrequently. Which prophylactic anti-microbial treatment would you select?

5474

A 45-year old man is referred by his GP with a 6-month history of weight gain, thirst and weakness. He has a blood pressure of 176/82 mmHg and is noted to have some difficulty rising from a squatting position. Of relevance, his GP encloses results showing a random glucose concentration of 9.0mmol/l and serum creatinine of 220 umol/l. Which would be the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for this patient?

5475

A 35-year-old woman presented at 16-weeks gestation with history of a severe headache affecting the left side of her forehead associated with visual symptoms of blurred vision in her left eye 5-days ago, whilst on a holiday in Spain. The headache and visual symptoms completely resolved over the next 12-hours with paracetamol. On returning home, she reported the incident to her GP who was concerned as she had been diagnosed with micro-prolactinoma 5-years ago and was treated with cabergoline in the past, which she took for about 3-years. Cabergoline was successfully stopped 2-years ago and her prolactin levels were maintained within the normal range. This was the first time she had conceived and she had no other significant past medical history apart from migraine, which she has been suffering from for the last 15- years. On examination, pulse was 78 beats per minute, blood pressure was 118/66 mmHg. There was no galactorrhea to expression. Her visual acuity and papillary reflexes were normal. Fields of vision were normal to confrontation. Fundus examination was normal and there were no signs of meningeal irritation. Rest of systemic examination was normal as well

5476

A 72-year-old diabetic man was referred to the Acute Medical Admission Unit with a three-hour history of confusion and headache. His wife reported that he began stumbling into furniture in the house, apparently without realizing what he was doing. On examination he was afebrile and there was no nuchal rigidity. BP 180/110, pulse 84 and regular. Pupils were both 5mm in diameter and reacted equally to light and accommodation. Fundoscopy was normal. What bedside test could be employed to confirm the diagnosis?

5477

A 58-year-old male with a 3-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus which has been managed by his general practitioner is referred to the diabetic clinic. He has been generally well but has been aware of a 6kg weight gain over the last one year together with 2 to 3 episodes of nocturia most nights. He is currently on diet control alone for his diabetes. He is an ex-smoker having stopped 10 years ago. He drinks approximately 8 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he has a body mass index of 33.5 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 162/98 mmHg and a pulse of 78 beats per minute. Auscultation of his heart, and chest are normal and no abnormalities are detected on abdominal examination. Fundoscopic examination reveals scattered microaneurysms in both eyes and a crescent of hard exudates encroaching upon the macular in the right eye. Neurological examination reveals reduced light touch sensation in both feet to the ankles. Dipstick of his urine reveal glucose+

5478

A 38-year-old female presents with weight gain, hirsutism and hypertension of 2 years duration. She has also noted oligomenorrhoea over the last 2 years and over the last two months has had no periods. Examination reveals a BMI of 32.4, a reddish complexion, with a blood pressure of 168/98 mmHg and abdominal striae. She has difficulty rising from a squatting position.

5479

GRFomas are found as

5480

The following blood gases were obtained on a 58-year-old confused female:

5481

A 33-year-old woman was referred by her GP with a 4-month history of weight loss and agitation. On examination she had a fine tremor, a resting tachycardia and a smooth goitre

5482

32-year-old male presents to the rheumatology clinic with stiffness and deformity of the small joints of the hands which has developed over the last 12 months. The hands have become increasingly stiff and awkward particularly as the day progresses and he has had trouble straightening the lateral fingers of the right hand. He has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus for the last 11 years and has been treated with twice daily insulin. He has undergone laser treatment to the left eye. Currently he is receiving 60 units of mixed insulin daily and also is treated with ramipril 10 mg daily. On examination, the appearances of the hands are shown with the patient asked to oppose the hands together. What is the diagnosis?

5483

A 52-year-old female presents with weight loss, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. She had been taking combined cyclical estrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy over the last two years. On examination she was noted to have a body mass index of 26.5 kg/m2, a pulse of 104 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg. No goitre was palpable and eye movements were entirely normal. She was noted to have weakness of the proximal musculature of the shoulder and hip girdles.

5484

A 54-year-old man was referred to the medical outpatient clinic for assessment of fatigue. He gave a six-month history of generalised malaise and feeling tired all the time. He had a past history of hypertension that had been monitored by his General Practitioner but this had not required treatment. He had also reported feeling in a low mood to his GP, but attributed this to the fatigue

5485

A 20-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. As a child she underwent repair of a cleft palate. Examination reveals poor secondary sexual characteristics with a BMI of 22.4.

5486

Most common mutation in cystic fibrosis is deletion of phenylalanine at 508 positions. The effect on CFTR gene due to this mutation is:

5487

All are true about acute epiglottitis in children except:

5488

9 months old boy present with fever and difficulty in breathing for the last 3 days. On examination there is subcostal & intercostals recession and wheezes present throughout the lung field. On chest X ray there is hyperinflated chest. Best management in this child is:

5489

A 2 yrs old girl came with fever, cough in emergency. She had resp rate 36, min, barking cough and stridor which increased on crying. Child was stable, accepting orally. Next line of management is

5490

10 year old girl has frequent attacks of asthma. There is history of increasing difficulty in breathing over the last 12 hours. She is anxious, sitting upright and is unable to complete a sentence. Which of the following statement is most likely to be correct

5491

Indication for use of long acting bronchodilators in bronchial asthma is:

5492

Asthma in children, to diagnose improvement in FEV1 is more than after bronchodilator therapy:

5493

A month old HIV positive child following URTI developed sudden onset breathlessness. The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation. The O2 saturation was greater than 90 percent. The treatment of choice is:

5494

If a 5 year old child suddenly develops stridor, which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis:

5495

18 months old girl presents with coryza, cough & Mild fever for 3 days. Respiratory rate is normal and there is no chest recession. Most likely diagnosis is:

5496

Ductus arteriosus closes in response to:

5497

Drug of choice for treating a new born with presumed ductal dependent cyanotic disease

5498

Presence of left axis deviation and cyanosis are suggestive of congenital heart disease:

5499

All are the indications for surgery in a case of ventricular septal defect except:

5500

Child aged 4 months is admitted to hospital with a 2 days history of mild coryza, tachypnea without significant intercostal recession. Child is feeding poorly for last 2 weeks. Which clinical feature most supports her having congenital heart disease rather than respiratory disease:

5501

24 hrs old child appears blue around the mouth. On examination his tongue looks blue and there is peripheral cyanosis. His respiratory rate is 60/min. On auscultation of the chest there is no murmur. Pulses are all four limbs can be palpated and are equal in volume. Most likely diagnosis is:

5502

All are the characteristic features of coarctation of aorta except:

5503

The following complications are seen in Tetralogy of fallot except:

5504

A 5 month old child with Tetrology of Fallot develops cyanotic spell. Which drug should be avoided

5505

5 month old infant has history of fever and runny nose for 2 days; tongue is pink, breathing normal and has soft systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Pulses are normal. Most likely diagnosis is

5506

Patent ductus arteriosus is characterized by:

5507

Which of the following regarding rheumatic nodules is false:

5508

Nada criteria is used for:

5509

Which of the following represents the additional component in pentology of fallot?

5510

Children born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosis are likely to have one of the following anomalies:

5511

All of the following are true about ASD except:

5512

Classical clinical criteria for diagnosis of Kawasaki disease include all except:

5513

What is the minimal diameter of Giant coronary aneurysm in children with Kawasaki disease which pose highest risk of ruptures, thrombosis, Stenosis and myocardial infarction?

5514

Out of the following not a minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever is:

5515

Following symptoms of rheumatic fever may be the only isolated manifestation:

5516

Which of the following is most appropriate method for obtaining a urine specimen for culture in an 8 months old girl?

5517

A 5 years old child suffering from Nephrotic syndrome is responding well to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy:

5518

Investigation of choice for assessing a child with vesicoureteric reflux is:

5519

Urine analysis should be done upto _____ months after the development of rash in case of Henoch-Scholein Purpura:

5520

Remission in nephrotic syndrome has urine protein:Creatinine ratio of:

5521

A 10 years old boy has steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome since last 3 years. On examination his B.P. is 130 by 90 mm Hg with cushingoid features. Opthalmological examination revealed posterior subcapsular cataract. The most appropriate treatment of choice for his nephrotic syndrome would be

5522

Antibody titer done for evidence of cutaneous streptococcus infection in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is:

5523

Complement C3 level comes to normal in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis in:

5524

The finish type of congenital nephritic syndrome occurs due to gene mutation affecting the following protein:

5525

All of the following are decreased in nephrotic syndrome except:

5526

Steroid responsive nephrotic syndrome means that remission is seen to steroid in week:

5527

18 months old boy with history of vomiting and had diarrhea for 3 days. His stool is watery and foul smelling but has no blood in it. On examination there is mild dehydration but is otherwise normal. Most likely organism causing his symptoms is:

5528

Assessment of dehydration in severely malnourished children is done by:

5529

Most common extra intestinal manifestation of celiac disease is:

5530

Oral rehydration therapy can be given in a child having diarrhea in:

5531

All are the factors associated with increased recurrence of febrile seizure except:

5532

9 month old infant has unusual movements. There are episodes of suddenly throwing her hand and arms forward which occur in repetitive bursts. She was able to sit but has stopped doing so. This is suggestive of:

5533

15 month old boy had history of running nose and cough for 2 days. He suddenly becomes stiff, eyes rolled upwards and both arms and legs had jerking for 2 minutes. His temperature was increased and after 2 hrs he recovered fully. Milestones are normal and neurological examination is normal. Most appropriate investigation:

5534

In child with splenic dysfunction most common cause of meningitis is:

5535

14 year old boy gives history of regularly spilling his tea in the morning because his arms jerks involuntarily. He is doing relatively well at school. Most likely diagnosis is

5536

True about absence epilepsy is:

5537

Most common type of cerebral palsy seen in child with history of kernicterus is:

5538

Features of Von Hipple Lindau syndrome include all except:

5539

Flattening of thenar and hypothenar muscles is seen in muscular dystrophy:

5540

In meningococcal meningitis antibiotics therapy is given for:

5541

A 5 years old girl presents with hypertension and virilization. There is also finding of hypokalemia, what is the diagnosis?

5542

Term neonate was diagnosed to have hypothyroidism based on initial routine neonatal screening. On BERA there is bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Most likely diagnosis:

5543

Best approach out of the following to screen for congenital hypothyroidism is

5544

Baby at birth has disorder of sexual differentiation. There is suspicion of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Confirmation of diagnosis requires

5545

A 3 months old child is apathic, dull-looking, dwarf and has constipation decrease in bone age. Diagnosis:

5546

What is the angle subtended by top most letter of Snellen chart at distance of 6 meter:

5547

Corneal endothelium is embryologically derived from:

5548

Cause of decreased vision due to defect shown in visual?

5549

False about Bitot spots is?

5550

All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except:

5551

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

5552

Changes seen in the conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency:

5553

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of the of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas on the palpebral conjunctiva is:

5554

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

5555

Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

5556

A 28 years old male complains of glare in both eyes. The cornea shows whorl-like opacities in the epithelium. He gives history of long term treatment with Amiodarone. The most likely diagnosis is:

5557

A patient presents with history of Chuna particles falling in the eye. Which of the following should not be done?

5558

Herbert pits are seen in:

5559

Cataract in diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is:

5560

Which is the most important factor in the prevention of postoperative endophthalmitis?

5561

A 56 year old man presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with history of pain and decrease in vision after an initial improvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

5562

A 55 years old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

5563

The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens:

5564

Which of the following is not needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery:

5565

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

5566

Which of the following is the only reversible cataract-

5567

Rider cataract is seen in

5568

Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in-

5569

A 30-day-old neonate was presented with a history of photophobia and excessive acrimation. On examination, both the lacrimal duct systems are normal, but there was a large cornea with haziness. The diagnosis is:

5570

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following:

5571

The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma

5572

Treatment of choice for open angle glaucoma in the other eye is:

5573

Which of the following anti-glaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?

5574

Earliest manifestation of chronic simple glaucoma

5575

Typical coloboma of the iris is situated:

5576

A 25 years old man has pain, redness and mild diminution of vision in one eye for the past 3 days. There is also history of low backache for the past one year. On examination there is circumcorneal congestion, few keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium, 2+ cells in the anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure is within normal limits. The patient is likely to be suffering from:

5577

The uveitis associated with vitiligo and auditory defects occurs in:

5578

Recurrent mobile hypopyon seen in acute anterior Uveitis indicates?

5579

A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient department with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:

5580

Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by:

5581

A patient Mohan, aged 60 yrs, needs an eye examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his eyes but not paralyse his ciliary muscles. Choose the drug:

5582

Which of the following is an example of compound myopic, against the rule astigmatism?

5583

Weigert ligament is:

5584

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, irido-donesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

5585

A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm that clears up in about 2 minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

5586

Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:

5587

An infant with intolerance to breast feed, vomiting and diarrhoea develops cataract. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

5588

A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause?

5589

All of the following are true about the above instrument except:

5590

A patient having glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can be responsible for it?

5591

Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in hypertensive patients?

5592

Candle wax dripping type of vasculitis is a feature of:

5593

A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2 day history of cilia congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is:

5594

The commonest cause of visual loss in AIDS is which one of the following?

5595

A patient presented with pain, photophobia and watering from eye since last 36 hours. 0/E there is 1 x 2 cm ulcer with minimal hypopyon with finger like projection into stroma. What is the most likely cause?

5596

The normal ratio of light peak and dark trough on an EOG is

5597

Confirmatory investigation in retinitis pigmentosa is:

5598

Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:

5599

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

5600

Most common primary malignant tumour of orbit in children:

5601

A 25 yrs old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

5602

Asteroid hyalosis are composed of:

5603

The risk of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is increased in all of the following except

5604

A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

5605

Most common clinical presentation of retinoblastoma is:

5606

This is defect in

5607

A person has defective blue colour appreciation. His condition is

5608

Not a feature of Horner syndrome:

5609

All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except

5610

Pie in sky appearance is seen in:

5611

Visual defect shown in the photograph below occur in lesion of:

5612

What is the most likely site of lesion for the visual field defect?

5613

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

5614

The given image is related to following:

5615

Lamina cribrosa is absent in:

5616

Roth spots are seen in:

5617

Which of the following is not true about inferior oblique muscle?

5618

Esotropia is commonly seen in which type of refractive error?

5619

Identify the test shown in the image:

5620

Identify the instrument:

5621

Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared in involvement of occulomotor nerve

5622

Retinal layer relatively resistant to radiation is:

5623

Which of the following is not a feature of paralytic squint:

5624

The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:

5625

Aniseikonia means:

5626

On performing retinoscopy using a plane mirror in a patient who has a refractive error of -3D sphere with -2 cylinder at 90 degree from a distance of 1 m, the reflex would move:

5627

Most common cause of ocular morbidity in India:

5628

What should not be done in this patient?

5629

All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

5630

In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen EXCEPT

5631

There is a retained intraocular iron foreign body. What is the best investigation for monitoring vision?

5632

A 20 years old boy presents with history of tennis ball injury to the right eye. On examination a red spot is seen on the macula. The most likely diagnosis is:

5633

A 19 year old young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of nasal decongestants presented with abrupt onset of fever and chills and rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, moderate proptosis and chemosis. On examination, optic disc is congested. Most likely diagnosis is:

5634

Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis in children:

5635

Most common malignant tumour of the eyelids:

5636

A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathological examination to rule out the possibility of:

5637

Which of the following is not included in the Global Vision 2020 Program?

5638

A patient presented with his head tilted towards right. On examination, he was having left Hypertropia which is increased on looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed is:

5639

Which of the following is not an indication for evisceration?

5640

Identify the pathology in the below histopathology picture of retinal pigment epithelium?

5641

A patient is taking drugs for rheumatoid arthritis and has a history of cataract surgery 1 year back, the Patent presented with sudden painless loss of vision, probable diagnosis is?

5642

The given image of a patient ophthalmological examination is suggestive of which of the given condition?

5643

Irido Corneal Endothelial syndrome is characterized by:

5644

A lesion in the left parietal lobe is most likely to affect which visual field quadrant in the left eye:

5645

Identify the marked layer in given histological section?

5646

A 53-year-old man presented with hypertension of 150/110 mmHg. He is generally asymptomatic and has no previous medical history of note. He is a smoker of 5 cigarettes daily and drinks modest quantities of alcohol. He takes no prescribed medications. Examination reveals a BMI of 33.5 kg/2 but nothing else of note.

5647

A 45-year-old male diabetic was seen in clinic at the diabetic clinic for annual review. He had been a diabetic for 8 years and attended clinic regularly. He was also being treated for hypertension and was taking metformin 500mg tds, gliclazide 80mg daily, atorvastatin 10mg/d, ramipril 10mg/d and bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d. He was noted to be obese (130kg). Physical examination was otherwise unremarkable

5648

A 26-year-old female presents with 3 month history of weight loss and general lethargy. She has a 5 year history of type 1 diabetes for which she has been treated with basal bolus insulin consisting of short acting insulin thrice daily and long acting insulin in the evenings. Commensurate with her weight loss of 5 kg over the last three months she has noticed that she has recently encountered more hypoglycaemic events and has reduced her insulin requirements from 60 units per day to 38 units daily. She takes no medication other than the oral contraceptive pill. She is a non-smoker and denies use of any illicit substances. On examination she has a BMI of 21.2 kg/m2 and appears comfortable. Her pulse is 68 beats per minute regular and her blood pressure is 118/70 mmHg. There are no specific abnormalities of the chest, heart or abdomen but she has a slight purplish- yellow, non-tender 2-3 cm maculopapular rash on both shins

5649

This is the MRI scan of a 22-year-old female who presents with a 6-month history of secondary amenorrhoea. She is otherwise well and there are no abnormalities on physical examination. From the history and MRI appearance what is the most likely diagnosis?

5650

This 58-year-old lady presented with hypertension. What clinical sign is being demonstrated in picture B?

5651

This patient presents with a sudden onset of frontal headache, diplopia and vomiting. Examination reveals the appearances as shown. There is also a constriction of outer visual fields in both eyes, a loss of sensation over the left/right upper maxilla

5652

A 17-year-old male is investigated for short stature. He has a previous diagnosis of slipped femoral epiphysis diagnosed at the age of 11. He presented with this disorder at this age with pain in the hip and limp. This was treated by the orthopaedic surgeons with nonsurgical containment of the femoral head in the acetabulum using casts. However, his younger brother has also recently been diagnosed with bilateral slipped femoral capital epiphyses and is being treated by the orthopaedic surgeons at the age of 12. There is nothing else of note in family history and his progress at school and development are otherwise fine. On Examination he is on the 12th centile for height, a BMI of 30 and has normal pubertal development. His blood pressure is 108/70 mmHg and he has a pulse of 90 beats per minute. No abnormalities are noted on examination of the chest, heart and abdomen

5653

A 22-year-old gentleman attends A&E department accompanied by very worried parents. They claim that their son has lately become increasingly aggressive and unusually suspicious of them. He is convinced that the neighbours are after him because they hate him. He also has quarrelled with many of his friends accusing them to be trying to steal his girlfriend. His parents are convinced that these symptoms may be due to a very strict diet he is doing in order to take part in a sport competition. The patient is oriented to time, place and person. His past medical history is unremarkable and he denies taking any medication. On examination, the patient is well built with no abnormal findings except for nodulocystic acne on his face and back. What is the most likely cause of this patient abnormal behaviour?

5654

A 65-year-old man is brought to A+E having been found collapsed and semi-conscious at home, he is unable to give a coherent history and he has no family to assist. On examination, his GCS is depressed at 10/15, his pupils are reactive, there are no localizing neurological signs and cranial nerves are intact. He has a temperature of 38.5 degree C, is dehydrated, has a pulse rate of 125/min with a BP of 110/60 mmHg associated with a postural drop of approximately 10mmHg. On auscultation of his praecordium, heart sounds 1 and 2 are audible with no murmurs. He is tachypnoeic and hypoxic with O2 sats of 89 percent on air and has right lower zone dullness to percussion with coarse breath sounds. His abdomen is soft with audible bowel sounds. Ophthalmoscopy shows some microaneurysms and exudates. The A+E nurse dipsticks the urine which is +++ Glucose and a finger blood glucose is greater than 40

5655

Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is associated with the underlying disease?

5656

A 59-year-old unemployed man presents to hospital. He gives a history of weight loss over the past four months and also complains of weakness. Specifically, he has had difficulty climbing his stairs and in rising from his armchair at home. He finds that the weakness is more prominent at the end of the day. He drinks 50 units of alcohol per week and has smoked 20 cigarettes daily for 40 years. He lives alone. His blood pressure is 197/98 mmHg

5657

A 45-year-old male presents with a one-year history of impotence and reduced shaving frequency. These symptoms have evolved over this period of time and he is unaware of any erections whatsoever and has no libido. He also is aware that he shaves just once weekly whereas previously he was shaving daily. Together with these symptoms he has also been feeling rather lethargic with reduced energy and is aware of vague joint aches. He takes no medication and has otherwise been well except for an appendicectomy at the age of 20. He drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol weekly and smokes 5 cigarettes daily. He is married but has no children. On examination, he appears slightly pigmented, has gynaecomastia and a fine skin with scant facial, pubic and axillary hair. Examination of the testes reveal testicular size of approximately 15mls bilaterally and no masses are felt. Examination of the cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal systems are normal. No abnormalities are noted on joint movements with a full range of movement

5658

A 50-year female presents with palpitations and slight weight loss. She has an uneventful past medical history but takes supplements that she buys in a health food shop. She is a nonsmoker and drinks little alcohol. There is a maternal aunt who has an underactive thyroid but nothing else of note in her history. On examination she has a pulse of 96 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 122/76 mmHg. She has fine tremor of the outstretched hands and there is slight lid lag but no exophthalmos. No goiter is palpable

5659

A 60-year-old male patient is referred to the outpatient department complaining of tiredness, lethargy, sweats and weight loss over the past 6 months. On further questioning he reports diminished libido and erectile dysfunction. He has a past history of diabetes mellitus and suffered a myocardial infarction 2 years previously which was complicated by ventricular tachycardia for which he is taking Amiodarone. On examination, he is pale with a resting pulse of 108 bpm and a bounding pulse. His blood pressure is 122/82 mmHg and he has normal heart sounds. Chest is clear to auscultation and the abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. He has a smooth goiter; eye movements are normal with no evidence of dysthyroid eye disease and visual fields are intact to confrontation

5660

See the Following reports and analyze:

5661

A 55-year-old woman was coincidentally found to have hypercalcaemia. She was asymptomatic with unremarkable examination findings

5662

A 29-year-old patient is seen in the outpatient clinic. She complains of feeling tired all the time, being unable to sleep at night and generally having a low mood with frequent tearful episodes. Systemic reveals a poor appetite and longstanding constipation. Past medical history reveals that she was had a recent gynaecology consultation for menorrhagia. Her current medication is Paroxetine 20mg prescribed by the GP for depression and 75 µg of thyroxine daily. On examination the patient weighs 75 kg and has a BMI of 28 kg/m2. Her pulse rate is 60 beats/min, she has a blood pressure of 124/80 mmHg with audible first and second heart sounds. The chest is clear and abdominal examination is unremarkable. Neurological examination is normal. Examination of the thyroid gland reveals a small, smooth goiter, the eye movements are normal and there is no lid lag or chemosis.

5663

A 55-year-old man was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and commenced on amiodarone 2-years ago. His thyroid function tests prior to commencing amiodarone were normal. He subsequently developed hyperthyroidism whilst on amiodarone. Amiodarone was stopped 4-months ago but he continued to lose weight despite maintaining a good appetite. His present medications comprised of digoxin 250 µg OD and warfarin as per INR. There was no family history of thyroid disease. On examination, pulse was 92 beats per minute, irregularly irregular, blood pressure was 130/70 mmHg. There was no goitre palpable on neck examination and he had no visible tremors

5664

A 72-year-old male diabetic presents with weakness and lethargy. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 12 years ago and remains on gliclazide and metformin therapy and takes atenolol for hypertension

5665

A 15-year-old girl complained of anxiety and excessive sweating. She was not taking any medication

5666

A 49-year-old lady was seen in the outpatient clinic with a four-week history of diarrhea and weight loss. There was no past history of note and she was not taking any regular prescribed medications. On examination she appeared well. A smooth, diffusely enlarged mass was palpable over the trachea; the mass moved upwards on swallowing. Her pulse was 100 beats per minute, regular. Blood pressure 135/60 mmHg. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender with active bowel sounds. A fine tremor was noted

5667

A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-month history of amenorrhoea. She takes no specific therapy. She has two children and her husband has a vasectomy. Examination reveals an obese individual but no other abnormality

5668

A 54-year-old male presents with a three-month history of impotence. He has been aware of deteriorating erections for the last year but over the last three months his erectile function has been particularly poor. He is divorced for the last 8 years but 5 months ago has established a relationship with another woman. Consequently, he is rather distressed by his impotence. He has attempted intercourse but he has been able to achieve slight tumescence but he is unable to achieve penetrance. Similarly, he is aware of only slight tumescence alone or at night. As a consequence of his inability to have intercourse he confesses to a reduced interest in sex, has been embarrassed and emotional about his problem. He denies any reduced shaving frequency but has gained weight over the last year or so. He has two children by his previous marriage. He is employed as a factory worker and together with the weight gain has been feeling a little more tired of late. On weekends he tends to have sleep after lunch. He drinks approximately 15 unit of alcohol weekly. His history is complicated by type 2 diabetes which he has had for 5 years and is controlled by diet alone. His last HbA1c was 6.8 percent (3.8-6.4). He takes lisinopril for hypertension together with rosuvastatin and omeprazole for gastroesphageal reflux. He is a nonsmoker. On examination, he has a BMI of 35.4 kg/m2, a pulse of 80 bpm and a blood pressure of 138/82 mmHg. He has normal secondary sexual characteristics and there are no abnormalities on examination of the CVS, respiratory or abdominal system. All pulses are palpable, there is no evidence of peripheral neuropathy and fundal examination is normal. Testicular examination is entirely normal with testicular volumes of approximately 12 mls bilaterally

5669

This 52-year-old male is referred with reduced shaving frequency and libido of at least five years duration. Examination reveals the appearances as shown and he is noted to have a bitemporal hemianopia and slight galactorrhoea to expression. From the list select the most likely diagnosis

5670

A 56-year-old female presents to her GP with tiredness of three years duration. No specific abnormalities are found and eventually the GP undertakes some blood tests. He is surprised to find an elevated calcium concentration and refers the patient to you. She has been well but has been depressed of late since the death of her elderly parents. In her past history she states that her elder brother and his son had some calcium problem diagnosed approximately 6 years ago although to her knowledge they have not received any treatment. She only takes atenolol for hypertension but receives no other therapy and does not take any supplements. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 148/96 mmHg but no other abnormalities are noted

5671

A 42-year-old nurse is found collapsed outside her apartment. When she is brought to Casualty, her blood glucose level is found to be 1.9 mmol/l. What investigations should be performed immediately?

5672

A 27-year-old female is referred by her GP. being 10 weeks pregnant. Three months ago she was diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis with an elevated T4 concentration and suppressed TSH concentration. At that stage her GP started her on carbimazole. At presentation she has a pulse of 90 beats per minute, a fine tremor and lid lag. Blood pressure is 118/80 mmHg and she has a palpable goitre. From the following select the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

5673

A 38-year-old man is referred with diarrhoea, dyspnoea and weight loss of approximately 6 months duration. Prior to this he had been quite fit and active. The patient is aware of up to 10 episodes of diarrhoea daily. It also transpires that he frequently has flushes during the day which may occur at any particular time and during these episodes he is frequently wheezy and breathless. Examination reveals a pulse of 90 beats per minute regular, a blood pressure of 122/76 mmHg and saturations of 98 percent on air. His jugular venous pressure is elevated approximately 8 cm above the sternal angle and auscultation of the heart reveals a soft pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. He is noted to have 8cm hepatomegaly on abdominal examination

5674

These thyroid function tests were obtained from a 65-year-old male who presents with tiredness. Past history includes ischemic heart disease and depression, for which he takes medication.

5675

A 29-year-old female with a past history of thyrotoxicosis which has been treated successfully with anti-thyroid medication had a relapse of thyrotoxicosis in the third trimester of pregnancy. She was treated with Carbimazole for a short period but was intolerant of this and was therefore discontinued. She is now 4 weeks post-partum and continues to experience tremor, sweats palpitations weight loss and flushing. She is also keen to breast feed and has been breast feeding her healthy infant boy. On examination she has fine tremor of the outstretched hands, a pulse rate of 110/min-1 and lid lag. She has a palpable goiter with an audible bruit. Otherwise she is haemodynamically stable, but eye examination reveals that she has exophthalmos, chemosis and lid-lag

5676

A 23-year-old female presents with weight gain and a 4-month history of amenorrhea. Examination reveals a BMI of 33 and mild hirsutism

5677

A 45-year-old female is referred to the out-patient clinic having been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus following an oral glucose tolerance test arranged by the GP. The clinical history reveals a 6-month history of weight gain malaise with low mood with poor sleep and reduced libido. The patient also had symptoms of recurrent urinary tract infections and candidiasis, in association with osmotic symptoms of diabetes. She had otherwise been quite well. On examination the patient weighed 80 Kg with a BMI of 31 kg/m2, she appeared plethoric and flushed with an acneiform rash over the shoulder area. Blood pressure was 165/92 mmHg, the pulse rate was 96 beats/min with normal heart sounds audible; examination of the respiratory system was unremarkable. Abdominal examination revealed pigmented striae. There was evidence of a marked proximal myopathy affecting the upper and lower limbs. Urine dipstick revealed 4+ of glycosuria and 2+ of protein

5678

A 56-year-old woman was referred to hospital by her GP with a three-day history of malaise, myalgia, fever and pain in her neck. Ten days previously she had had a self-limiting upper respiratory tract infection but had not received any antibiotics. She had no significant past medical history and did not take any regular medication. On examination she appeared anxious and unwell. Temperature 37.9 degree C, pulse 130 per minute and regular, blood pressure 125/75 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal with no murmurs and her chest was clear. Examination of the abdomen was unremarkable. Neurological examination revealed a fine resting tremor, but was otherwise unremarkable. The thyroid gland was diffusely enlarged and very tender to touch

5679

This 55-year-old female is referred with hypertension. She has been hypertensive for over 4 years and control has been difficult despite a combination of atenolol 50 mg daily, lisinopil 20mg daily and benderoflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. Examination reveals the appearances as shown with a blood pressure of 180/98 mmHg and a pulse of 66 beats per minute. Which of the following investigations would be most appropriate?

5680

A 45-year-old female presents feeling unwell with weight loss, throat pains and palpitations. These symptoms have developed over the last two weeks and she has lost approximately 3kg in weight. There is no other past medical history of note. She is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 10 units of alcohol weekly. She is employed as a cleaner. Of note in her family history is a maternal grandmother who receives treatment for an underactive thyroid. On examination she has a temperature of 37.5oC, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, a pulse of 98 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. She has evidence of lid lag but no exophthalmos. Examination of her neck reveals a tender goitre but no palpable lymphadenopathy. No bruit is audible over the goitre. Auscultation of the heart and lungs are both normal and no masses are palpable on abdominal examination

5681

A 48-year-old male is seen at the diabetic clinic for annual review. He has a four-year history of diabetes and mild hypertension for which he takes gliclazide 160 mg bd, metformin 500 mg bd, Rosuvstatin 10 mg od and bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. At the consultation he is generally untroubled except for impotence which has deteriorated over the last 12 months. He has tried Viagra but without success. He is becoming increasingly distressed about his impotence although he has an understanding wife. On examination he has a BMI of 29 kg/m2, a blood pressure of 134/78 mmHg, a pulse of 90 bpm and appears well. There is no evidence of neuropathy or retinopathy and all pulses are palpable

5682

A 32-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of weight loss and increasing agitation. On examination she is noted to have a smooth goitre, a fine tremor of the outstretched hand and a pulse of 98 beats per minute

5683

A 22-year-old woman presented with a 5-year history of hirsuitism with her having noticed coarse dark hair under her chin. Being a teacher in a primary school, these symptoms were very distressing for her. She had tried local measures such as shaving and applying depilatory creams but without lasting success. Her periods are irregular with oligomennorhea. She attained menarche at the age of 14-years. She has not yet conceived and has had a coil fitted for contraception. She takes 5mg diazepam at night. On examination, she had a BMI of 24 kg/m2. She had coarse, dark hair over her chin, lower back and inner thighs. She does not have galactorrhea to expression and there were no other clinical features of Cushing syndrome

5684

A 54-year-old female presented with a neck swelling which has been more noticeable over the previous four months. Examination revealed a moderate goitre and clinically she appeared euthyroid

5685

A 23-year-old female presents acutely unwell. She has a three-month history of weight loss, tiredness and lethargy which has deteriorated over the last week. Six weeks previously she had been diagnosed with hypothyroidism by her general practitioner

5686

A 22-year-old male is referred by his General practitioner due to problems related to his sex life. He has recently entered into his first sexual relationship but has problems achieving an erection and is perturbed by poor sexual development. He describes his pubertal development as poor: being aware of a paucity of pubic hair and he has been embarrassed about his gonadal development. He started to shave at the age of 18 but shaves only twice weekly. Otherwise he is quite fit and active and works as a labourer on a building site. He takes no medication and drinks 20 units of alcohol weekly but mostly on weekends. He has one younger brother. Examination reveals a phenotypically normal male, who is tall but lean with a BMI of 21.2 kg/m2. He has little beard growth, fine skin, a paucity of body hair and scanty pubic hair. His penile length is approximately 6 cm with testicular volumes of approximately 6-7 mls bilaterally (Normal 10-15 mls). Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination are all normal. Fundal examination is normal and he has normal visual fields

5687

A 33-year-old male presents with anxiety attacks and palpitations associated with hypertension. As part of screening for secondary hypertension he is noted to have repeatedly high urinary catecholamine concentrations. He is an intermittent smoker of 10 cigarettes per week and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol weekly. He has been otherwise quite well. He is adopted and no family history is available. He is referred to the local endocrine department where elevated urine catecholamine concentrations are noted and CT scan of his abdomen reveals bilateral adrenal masses of 4 cm diameter. Amongst other investigations an elevated plasma calcitonin concentration is noted. What other abnormality is likely to be present in this patient?

5688

This patient has bilateral phaeochromocytomas and elevated plasma calcitonin concentration suggesting a medullary thyroid cancer and so implying a diagnosis of MEN type 2. The missing piece of the triad for MEN type 2 is hyperparathyroidism and hyperparathyroidism is a likely finding in this patient. MEN type 2 is an autosomal dominant condition although many presentations are sporadic; has been mapped to chromosome 10 and is associated with the presence of the RET proto-oncogene. There are 2 different types – 2A and 2B, of which 2A is commonest and may be distinguished from 2B which is associated with Musculoskeletal abnormalities including Marfanoid habitus and ganglioneuromas. In our particular case there was no mention of any abnormalities on examination to suggest mucosal/truncal neurofibromas. A 40-year-old woman presents with tiredness, weight gain and fatigue of over one year’s duration. Two years ago she underwent trans-sphenoidal resection of a non-functioning pituitary tumour. Post-operatively she was confirmed to have pan-hypopituitarism amd is receiving treatment with hydrocortisone 10 mg bd, thyroxine 100 µg daily, and takes the oral contraceptive logynon. On examination she has a blood pressure of 110/64 mmHg, a pulse of 80 bpm and appears clinically euthyroid

5689

A 15-year-old female presents with a 6-month history if secondary amenorrhea. She has been otherwise well and has also noticed slight galactorrhea over the last 3 months. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination she appears well, appears clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg

5690

A 25-year-old female of Bangladeshi origin presents with weight loss and fatigue of approximately four months duration. She arrived back in the UK 3 months ago after spending one year in Bangladesh and returned due to ill health. She has otherwise been quite well with no other past medical history, has two children, is a non-smoker and drinks no alcohol. On examination she is thin with a BMI of 20 kg/m2, has obvious pigmentation of the palmar creases, has pigmentation of the buccal mucosa, a pulse of 77bpm and a blood pressure of 100/62 mmHg. No other abnormalities are evident on examination.

5691

A 26-year-old female presents with fatigue and weight loss. Six years previously she had been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus following diabetic ketoacidosis. She had been well up until the last one year, since when she has been admitted on two occasions with diabetic ketoacidosis. She is currently receiving soluble insulin three times daily and long acting insulin in the evening. Over the last year she had lost approximately 10kg in weight and over the last 3 months had generally lost her appetite. She had also been amenorrhoeic over the last 3 months. Examination reveals a thin, pale female with a pulse of 76 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 116/80 mmHg. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination were normal. Sensation was intact and fundal examination is normal

5692

A 64-year-old lady presented to the Accident and Emergency Unit with orbital pain and swelling (shown below). She had been under review in the endocrinology clinic and had been started on some new treatment four weeks previously. Thyroid function four weeks ago showed:

5693

A 52-year-old female presents with weight loss, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. She had been taking combined cyclical estrogen/progesterone hormone replacement therapy over the last two years. On examination she was noted to have a body mass index of 26.5 kg/m2, a pulse of 104 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg. No goitre was palpable and eye movements were entirely normal. She was noted to have weakness of the proximal musculature of the shoulder and hip girdles. Abdominal examination revealed a palpable splenic tip

5694

A 14-year-old boy is being investigated for nocturnal enuresis. His mother also reports that he is not doing well academically at school and that he is easily fatigued by physical exertion. A full examination, including blood pressure, is normal

5695

A 60-year-old female was prescribed thyroxine 150 g daily for hypothyroidism. She was clinically hypothyroid and no goitre was present. She attends a follow-up clinic and following are her results

5696

A previously fit 30-year-old male presents with a two months history of weight loss, tiredness and nausea

5697

A 36-year-old man attends clinic with his wife after failing to conceive after 10 years of marriage. Examination reveals that he his tall, thin and has bilateral gynaecomastia. Investigations show high levels of urinary gonadotrophins. What is the most likely diagnosis

5698

A 77-year-old lady was referred to out patients by her GP. The GP note stated that the patient had a fracture of her femoral neck while she was walking three months previously. The fracture had been treated with a dynamic hip screw. The patient wanted some form of treatment that would strengthen her bones and prevent other fractures. She had no other medical history of note, except that she had a hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy aged 45 for severe menorrhagia. Physical examination was unremarkable. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

5699

A 52-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of weight loss and diarrhea. Over this period of time she had lost approximately 10 kg in weight and was aware of watery diarrhea three to four times daily. She was also aware of occasional flushes which she had experienced since the menopause at the age of 49 but had become more frequent of late. She had previously been well with no other past medical history. She took no medication. She was a nonsmoker and drank approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. On examination, she had a reddish complexion and had a BMI of 24 kg/m2. She had a pulse of 88 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 122/88 mmHg. There were no abnormalities on cardiovascular or respiratory examination but abdominal examination revealed two finger breadths hepatomegaly

5700

A 16-year-old boy was seen in Casualty with a three-day history of nausea and vomiting. He had a twelve-year history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Over the past three years he had been less attentive to his glycaemic control and been admitted on several occasions in diabetic ketoacidosis. On examination he was alert and oriented. His mouth was dry but there was no loss of skin turgor. Examination was otherwise unremarkable

5701

Which of the following investigations is most likely to establish the diagnosis?

5702

A 22-year-old male is referred by his General practitioner due to problems related to his sex life. He has recently entered into his first sexual relationship but is worried by his poor sexual development. He is aware of a paucity of pubic hair and he has been embarrassed about his gonadal development. He started to shave at the age of 18 but shaves only twice weekly. He is quite fit and active and works as a labourer on a building site. He takes no medication and drinks 20 units of alcohol weekly, mostly on weekends. He has one younger brother. Examination reveals a phenotypically normal male, who is tall but lean with a BMI of 21.2 kg/m2. He has little beard growth, fine skin, a paucity of body hair and scanty pubic hair. His penile length is approximately 6 cm with testicular volumes of approximately 6-7 mls bilaterally (Normal 10-15 mls). Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination are all normal. Fundal examination is normal and he has normal visual fields.

5703

A 77-year-old lady is rushed to hospital after having been found unresponsive by her children. On examination the patient has a GCS of 8, she is obese and her skin has a yellowish hue. Her pulse is 50 beats per minute and her temperature is 35 degree C. Her heart sounds are normal and the ECG is unremarkable except for a rate of 49bpm. Auscultation of the chest reveals coarse crepitations and generally decreased air entry bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5704

A 28-year-old female presents in the 24th week of pregnancy with profound tiredness and anxiety. Examination reveals a tremor, a pulse of 100 beats per minute and a soft bruit heard over the thyroid gland.

5705

A 68-year-old man was admitted with nausea and general malaise He was a hill farmer and continued to work his farm, on which he kept mostly sheep, with his sons. Over the last two weeks, since returning from Holiday in Spain, he had become increasingly fatigued. The only other symptoms of note were a 3-month history of poor appetite and an 8 kg weight loss. He was receiving thyroxine 100 mcg daily having been diagnosed with hypothyroidism by his GP 9 years previously. He was a smoker of 5 cigarettes per day and had drunk more alcohol than usual whilst on holiday but usually drank about 12 units of alcohol daily. On examination, he was sun-tanned, slightly confused, appeared dehydrated and had a pulse of 92 bpm regular, a temperature of 37.2 degree C with a blood pressure of 100/80 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory examination were unremarkable. He had a slight liver edge on palpation and neurological examination was normal.

5706

A 45-year-old man presented to hospital with severe pain in his thighs and bittocks associated with difficulty in walking. During the two months prior to his presentation he had noticed increasing difficulty climbing the stairs at home and rising from a chair. The pain in his thighs had started gradually, beginning in the right leg and then in the left leg. The pain was not related to exertion, and was now sufficiently severe to keep him awake at night. He also complained of fatigue and had lost 8kg in weight over the preceding six months despite having a good appetite. He had been diagnosed diabetic two years previously, but was an infrequent attender at his General Practitioner diabetic clinic. He maintained that he adhered to his diabetic diet and continued to take the chlorpropamide that had been prescribed from the clinic. He lived alone, smoked 20 cigarettes a day and drank approximately 12 units of alcohol per week. On examination he appeared thin and in discomfort. There was wasting of the quadriceps muscles bilaterally with loss of power (grade 3/5). Knee and ankle jerks could not be elicited and both plantar responses were extensor. There was some loss of light touch and pinprick sensation over both feet and ankles. Urinalysis: Protein-trace; glucose 1% What is the most likely diagnosis?

5707

A 25-year-old male is referred with hypertension, agitation and sweats of approximately 6 months duration. He has no specific family history of note, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks little alcohol. Medication prescribed by his GP for hypertension includes bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d and Ramipril 10mg per day. His blood pressure on examination was 176/94 mmHg and he has a BMI of 23.5 kg/m2

5708

This lady has a normal T4 and TSH. What is the probable diagnosis?

5709

A 72-year-old female was admitted with a deteriorating dyspnoea and fever which had deteriorated over the preceding three days. Prior to this admission she had been well having returned one week ago from a Spanish holiday with her husband. The only other history of note was that three years ago she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes for which she was treated with diet alone. She is a smoker of 5 cigarettes per day. On examination she was suntanned, slightly confused with saturations of 92 percent on air. She had a pyrexia of 40C, a pulse of 118 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/90 mmHg. Auscultation of the chest revealed left basal crackles.

5710

A 62-year-old woman is referred to you with persistent hypertension and obesity. She also complains of excessive pigmentation and headaches. Her past medical history includes investigation in the 1970s for obesity, mild diabetes mellitus and hypertension. At that time, she had a bilateral adrenalectomy which was then the treatment of choice for her condition. Since then, she has been on hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone treatment. On examination, she is noted to have hyperpigmentation and striae. BP was 175/100. No abnormality of the visual fields is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

5711

A 43-year-old male presents with a six-month history of tiredness, weight gain and poor concentration. Two years ago, he underwent surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour and has been receiving replacement therapy with hydrocortisone 10mg bd, thyroxine 150 µg daily and testosterone 250 mg im monthly

5712

This 50-year-old male presents with a three-month history of tiredness, lethargy and weight gain. Six years previously he underwent trans-sphenoidal resection of a non-functional pituitary tumour. He currently takes hydrocortisone, thyroxine and testosterone therapy. Examination reveals the appearances as shown and a BMI of 30. Which of the following treatments would you consider for this patient?

5713

A 33-year-old female is referred to clinic by her GP with tiredness and lethargy of approximately three months duration. She was diagnosed with an underactive thyroid 2 years ago by her GP and was commenced on 150 µg of thyroxine daily. She has two young children and had been well up until the birth of her last child 6 months ago and has since been feeling increasingly tired with weight gain. She is a smoker of 5 cigarettes daily and drinks modest quantities of alcohol. Her mother is also receiving thyroxine replacement therapy for an underactive thyroid. Examination reveals a pulse of 82 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 124/74 mmHg and no goitre is palpable. No abnormalities are noted

5714

This 55-year-old male is referred with a long history of infrequent shaving and low libido. Examination reveals the appearances as shown.

5715

A 65-year-old female is admitted with an intracranial bleed under the care of the neurosurgeons. Following Magnetic resonance angiography, she undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and was well the following morning. The surgical team document the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days: Day 1:Plasma Sodium 130 mmol/L, Potassium 3.5 mmol/L, Urea 4.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 95 µmol/L Day 2:Plasma Sodium 127 mmol/L, Potassium 3.4 mmol/L, Urea 4.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 µmol/L Day 3:Plasma Sodium 124 mmol/L, Potassium 3.4 mmol/L, Urea 4.4 mmol/L, Creatinine 76 µmol/L Day 4:Plasma sodium 120 mmol/L, Potassium 3.5 mmol/L, Urea 5 mmol/L, Creatinine 70 µmol/L. Normal Range: Plasma sodium 137-144 mmol/L, Potassium 3.5-4.9 mmol/L, Urea 2.5-7.5 mmol/L, Creatinine 60-110 µmol/L. On day 4 she was commenced on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day.

5716

A 36-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner with weight loss and agitation of two months duration. The GP had noted that she had a mild tacchycardia, fine tremor, lid lag and a small goitre and sent blood for thyroid function tests which showed:

5717

A 65-year-old woman presents with deteriorating wheeze and dyspnoea. She has been diagnosed with asthma over the last 15 years and is treated with inhaled salbutamol, inhaled fluticasone and has received numerous courses of prednisolone. Currently, she is receiving 15 mg of prednisolone daily as a reducing dose. Four years ago, she had also received cyclical hormone replacement therapy for post-menopausal flushes but his was stopped after one year of therapy when she developed a deep vein thrombosis. What treatment would you select as prophylaxis against osteoporosis?

5718

A 55-year-old man was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and commenced on amiodarone 2-years ago. His thyroid function tests prior to commencing amiodarone were normal. He subsequently developed hyperthyroidism whilst on amiodarone. Amiodarone was stopped 4-months ago but he continued to lose weight despite maintaining a good appetite. His present medications comprised of digoxin 250 µg OD and warfarin as per INR. There was no family history of thyroid disease. On examination, pulse was 92 beats per minute, irregularly irregular, blood pressure was 130/70 mmHg. There was no goitre palpable on neck examination and he had no visible tremors.

5719

A 15-year-old girl is referred by her general practitioner with agitation and weight gain. Her mother accompanies her during the consultation and explains that over the last 2 months she has become increasingly agitated with poor sleep. Her progress at school has up until recently, been fine, although of late she has been apathetic. She has no past medical history of note. Examination reveals no specific abnormalities with a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg and a BMI of 20.

5720

A 45-year-old female presents with depression, constipation, polyuria and thirst. Over the last six months she has become increasingly aware of tiredness and arthralgia since being diagnosed with hypertension and has been treated with bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. Physical examination proves to be entirely normal except for a blood pressure of 162/94 mmHg.

5721

A 15-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is accompanied by her mother who explains that she has also lost approximately 10 kg of weight over the last year and has occasional episodes of diarrhoea. She has recently become a vegetarian and tends to favour wheat snacks and bread. Her progress at school has been excellent, she plays the piano in the school orchestra and she regularly go jogging. She has a younger brother who is well and her mother and maternal aunt have a past history of hyperthyroidism. Her parents divorced about 2 years ago and she sees her dad infrequently. She takes no medication. On examination she is thin with a BMI of 17.6 kg/m2 and appears phenotypically female. She has normal breast development with no galactorrhea to expression, has absence of axillary and scanty pubic hair.

5722

A 70-year-old female is admitted acutely unwell. Six weeks prior to admission she had presented to the GP with tiredness and weight loss and had been diagnosed with hypothyroidism based on results which showed:

5723

A 62-year-old woman is referred to you with persistent hypertension and obesity. She also complains of excessive pigmentation and headaches. Her past medical history includes investigation in the 1970s for obesity, mild diabetes mellitus and hypertension. At that time, she had a bilateral adrenalectomy which was then the treatment of choice for her condition. Since then, she has been on hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone treatment. On examination, she is noted to have hyperpigmentation and striae. BP was 175/100. No abnormality of the visual fields is noted. What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

5724

A 15-year-old girl is referred by her general practitioner with agitation and weight gain. Her mother accompanies her during the consultation and explains that over the last 2 months she has become increasingly agitated with poor sleep. Her progress at school has up until recently, been fine, although of late she has been apathetic. She has no past medical history of note, although family history reveals that her mother was treated for an overactive thyroid and now takes thyroxine tablets. Examination reveals no specific abnormalities with a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg and a BMI of 20. The GP letter includes the results of the following

5725

A 65-year-old retired teacher presents to the diabetic clinic after her GP found a random blood glucose of 25mmol/l on a routine check-up. She has been diabetic for 25 years and was previously well controlled on Glibenclamide 5mg bd together with Metformin 800mg TDS. She is currently asymptomatic and suffers from no other medical conditions. On examination she has stocking distribution sensory neuropathy that is symmetrical, scattered hard exudates and dot blot haemorrhages on fundoscopy. Her examination is otherwise normal except for a BMI of 32. Her fasting blood glucose on the day of the clinic is 20 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the best management of this patient?

5726

A 38-year-old man is referred with diarrhoea, dyspnoea and weight loss of approximately 6 months duration. Prior to this he had been quite fit and active. The patient is aware of up to 10 episodes of diarrhoea daily. It also transpires that he frequently has flushes during the day which may occur at any particular time and during these episodes he is frequently wheezy and breathless. During the consultation it is noted that his face goes particularly red. Examination reveals a pulse of 90 beats per minute regular, a blood pressure of 122/76 mmHg and saturations of 98 percent on air. His jugular venous pressure is elevated approximately 8 cm above the sternal angle and auscultation of the heart reveals a soft pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. He is noted to have 8cm hepatomegaly on abdominal examination.

5727

Which of the following statements regarding the anatomy of the pituitary gland is true?

5728

Which of the following is common in patients with Kallmann syndrome?

5729

A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. She has longstanding coronary artery disease and is wondering about the potential consequences for her cardiovascular system. Which of the following statements is true regarding the interaction of hypothyroidism and the cardiovascular system?

5730

A 38-year-old mother of three presents to her primary care office with complaints of fatigue. She feels that her energy level has been low for the past 3 months. She was previously healthy and taking no medications. She does report that she has gained about 10 lb and has severe constipation, for which she has been taking a number of laxatives. A TSH is elevated at 25 mU/L. Free T4 is low. She is wondering why she has hypothyroidism. Which of the following tests is most likely to diagnose the etiology?

5731

A 54-year-old woman with longstanding hypothyroidism is seen in her primary care physician office for a routine evaluation. She reports feeling fatigued and somewhat constipated. Since her last visit, her other medical conditions, which include hypercholesterolemia and systemic hypertension, have been stable. She was diagnosed with uterine fibroids and started on iron recently. Her other medications include levothyroxine, atorvastatin, and hydrochlorothiazide. A TSH is checked, and it is elevated to 15 mU/L. Which of the following is the most likely reason for her elevated TSH?

5732

An 87-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit with depressed level of consciousness, hypothermia, sinus bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoglycemia. She was previously healthy with the exception of hypothyroidism and systemic hypertension. Her family recently checked in on her and found that she was not taking any of her medications because of financial difficulties. There is no evidence of infection on exam, urine microscopy, or chest radiograph. Herserum chemistries are notable for mild hyponatremia and a glucose of 48 mg/dL. A TSH is >100 mU/L. All of the following statements regarding this condition are true EXCEPT:

5733

A 29-year-old woman is evaluated for anxiety, palpitations, and diarrhea and found to have Graves disease. Before she begins therapy for her thyroid condition, she has an episode of acute chest pain and presents to the emergency department. Although a CT angiogram is ordered, the radiologist calls to notify the treating physician that this is potentially dangerous. Which of the following best explains the radiologist recommendation?

5734

A patient has neurosurgery for a pituitary tumor that requires resection of the gland. Which of the following functions of the adrenal gland will be preserved in this patient immediately postoperatively?

5735

A 43-year-old man with episodic, severe hypertension is referred for evaluation of possible secondary causes of hypertension. He reports feeling well generally, except for episodes of anxiety, palpitations, and tachycardia with elevation in his blood pressure during these episodes. Exercise often brings on these events. The patient also has mild depression and is presently taking sertraline, labetalol, amlodipine, and lisinopril to control his blood pressure. Urine 24-hour total metanephrines are ordered and show an elevation of 1.5 times the upper limit of normal. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step?

5736

An 18-year-old woman is evaluated at her primary care physician office for a routine physical. She is presently healthy. Her family history is notable for a father and two aunts with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1), and the patient has undergone genetic testing and carries the MEN1 gene. Which of the following is the first and most common presentation for individuals with this genetic mutation?

5737

You are seeing Mr. Avendaw in clinic today. He is a 35-year-old man who last year had a partial thyroidectomy for medullary thyroid carcinoma. You note that he was recently in the hospital and diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma, and after 2 weeks of intensive medical therapy, he underwent unilateral adrenalectomy. He is recovering nicely. You are reviewing his chart before the visit, when you note that on the pathology from his thyroid surgery last year, a single parathyroid gland was removed that was shown to be a parathyroid tumor. When you meet with Mr. Avendaw, you will tell him which of the following?

5738

Johnny Stewart, a 4-year-old boy, presents to the hospital with hypotension, lethargy, and hyponatremia. You also note that his potassium is elevated to 5.7 mEq/dL. He is afebrile and has a normal complete blood count. However, you note extensive oral thrush. On review of his chart, you note that he has had multiple treatment courses for thrush and cutaneous candidal infections. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibody tests have been negative. Also, you note that at 1 year of age, he had an episode of tetany prompting an emergent presentation to the hospital, where he was found to be hypocalcemic. Ultimately, he was diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Given his current presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate course of treatment?

5739

Mr. David presents to the emergency department with numbness and weakness in his legs and feet. On exam, you find that he is numb to the knees and has marked weakness in ankle dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. Two years ago, he developed diabetes, and last year, he was admitted when found to be profoundly hypothyroid. On examination, he has hepatosplenomegaly and appears to have a dark tan despite having no sun exposure recently. Which of the following tests will likely help make his diagnosis?

5740

A 37-year-old man is evaluated for infertility. He and his wife have been attempting to conceive a child for the past 2 years without success. He initially saw an infertility specialist but was referred to endocrinology after sperm analysis showed no sperm. He is otherwise healthy and only takes a multivitamin. On physical examination, his vital signs are normal. He is tall and has small testes, gynecomastia, and minimal facial and axillary hair. Chromosomal analysis confirms Klinefelter syndrome. Which of the following statements is true?

5741

A 17-year-old teenager is evaluated in your office for primary amenorrhea. She does not feel as if she has entered puberty because she has never had a menstrual period and has sparse axillary and pubic hair growth. On examination, she is noted to be 150 cm tall. She has a low hairline and slight webbing of her neck. Her FSH level is 75 mIU/mL, LH is 20 mIU/mL, and estradiol level is 2 pg/mL. You suspect Turner syndrome. All of the following tests are indicated in this individual EXCEPT:

5742

An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia. Although amniocentesis analysis during pregnancy showed a 46, XX genotype, this infant has phallic-appearing genitalia and partially fused labia. You cannot palpate testes. Aside from a standard blood test, which biochemical screen is indicated?

5743

A 58-year-old man is seen in his primary care physician office for evaluation of bilateral breast enlargement. This has been present for several months and is accompanied by mild pain in both breasts. He reports no other symptoms. His other medical conditions include coronary artery disease with a history of congestive heart failure, atrial fibrillation, obesity, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His current medications include lisinopril, spironolactone, furosemide, insulin, and digoxin. He denies illicit drug use and has fathered three children. Examination confirms bilateral breast enlargement with palpable glandular tissue that measures 2 cm bilaterally. Which of the following statements regarding his gynecomastia is true?

5744

All the following drugs may interfere with testicular function EXCEPT:

5745

A 68-year-old man was admitted to the Acute Medical Assessment Unit with a 1-day history of epigastric pain. The pain had started suddenly as a sharp central abdominal ache but by the time of admission the pain was unremitting, severe and radiating through to his back. He had vomited several times. There was no past history of other medical problems. On further questioning, he reported a history of headaches that had occurred intermittently for several years and of occasional feelings of low mood and low self-esteem. He had lost approximately 4 kg in weight over the previous 8 months. Over the past five or six months he had been getting up to pass urine several times at night. He lived alone. Since his wife dies six years previously, he seldom left the house. He had a son and daughter who did not live locally.

5746

A 45-year-old presents to casualty with a nose bleed, and gives a history of intermittent nose bleeds of a few minutes duration over previous 2 days. Her full blood count is as follows:

5747

A 55-year-old gentleman presented to the outpatient clinic after being referred by his General Practitioner. He complained of feeling lethargic and had lost 15 kg in weight. He also complained of profuse sweating, especially at night and also had some upper abdominal discomfort. On examination, the spleen was palpable 12cm below the left costal margin

5748

A 66-year-old lady presents to her GP with a two-day history of intermittent nose bleeds. She is otherwise relatively fit and well with only hypertension as significant in her past medical history. On examination her blood pressure is 135/86, cardiovascular and chest examination unremarkable. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no masses or organomegaly. She has numerous bruises, mainly over her limbs but also over her trunk and a petechial rash over her shins

5749

A 15-year-old girl is referred urgently to clinic because of a two-day history of spontaneous bruising. She has no past history of note and is not taking any regular prescribed medication. She has noticed spontaneous appearance of bruises on her hips, thighs and upper arms over the past three days. There is no history of trauma to account for their appearance. The largest of these measures 15cm in diameter. Otherwise she feels well, though she reports having had a mild viral illness two weeks previously

5750

A 52-year-old lady was being treated for non-Hodgkins lymphoma. She had tolerated the first three cycles of chemotherapy well, and was attending for the fourth cycle. Over the course of several days she complained of an increasing tingling sensation in her hands and feet that was also associated with a sensation of numbness. She had a past history of hypertension for which she was taking atenolol. Her other regular prescribed medications comprised: omeprazole for a previous duodenal ulcer; allopurinol as prophylaxis against tumour lysis; ciprofloxacin and co-trimoxazole as antibacterial prophylaxis; and itraconazole as anti-fungal prophylaxis. There was no past history or family history of diabetes mellitus. Clinical examination revealed diminished sensation in a glove and stocking distribution, consistent with peripheral neuropathy. Her blood pressure was 150/85 mmHg and a random blood glucose was 11 mmol/L. Since she had received vincristine as part of the chemotherapeutic regimen, this was considered to be the most likely precipitating cause. Which of the following drugs is responsible for possibly exacerbating the vincristine neurotoxicity?

5751

A 32-year-old Nigerian lady with sickle cell anaemia (Hb SS) has a history of recurrent back pain. She presents to Casualty with fever and a worsening of the back pain. There is no history of weight loss or night sweats

5752

A 26-year-old man attends the dental hospital for a tooth extraction. He reports prolonged bleeding after a tooth extraction 2 years previously. He has had no other surgical challenges and no other history of prolonged bleeding. He is otherwise fit and well. On further questioning he said his mother had recently been referred to a local hospital for recurrent nose bleeds and menorrhagia. He was also aware that his sister had been seen in the past for menorrhagia. The dental extraction cannot be delayed. What should the dentist be advised to give the patient to reduce the risk of significant bleeding?

5753

A 33-year-old lady is admitted at 24 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy to the gynaecology ward. She had seen her midwife and complained of feeling generally not well. Her husband reported that she has become very vague and disorientated. The midwife found her blood pressure to be 140/89mmHg; her booking blood pressure was 120/80mmHg

5754

This 16-year-old boy has a long history of recurrent infections since childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5755

A 23-year-old male had a bone marrow transplant from his sister for acute myeloid leukemia. Two months later he presented with a rash and general malaise with lethargy and poor appetite. On further questioning the patient revealed that he had had episodes of green-colored diarrhea for several weeks. His medications included cyclosporin, penicillin V, co-trimoxazole and acyclovir. He was last given a blood component transfusion four weeks previously. On examination, a diffuse macular rash was visible, mainly affecting the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. His pulse was 110 beats per minute and regular. Blood pressure 105/60 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal and the chest was clear. His abdomen was soft, with tenderness in the right upper quadrant. No organs were palpable. Bowel sounds were active. Neurological examination was normal.

5756

All of the following are typically increased in a patient with hemolytic anemia EXCEPT:

5757

An 82-year-old lady presented to her GP with a two-month history of severe back pain. She had not been feeling well for several weeks and had lost weight, though was unsure how much. Her past medical history included angina, which was well-controlled on atenolol 100mg daily and isosorbide mononitrate 10mg twice daily. She was an ex-smoker of 40 cigarettes per day, having given up smoking eight years previously. She lived alone in a warden-monitored flat and usually managed to cook and clean for herself – but her ability to perform her daily chores had become increasingly difficult over the past week because of the severity of the pain. For the past two days she had not managed to get out of bed. Her husband had died three years previously of lung cancer. She had two children who lived several hours drive away. Because of the severity of the pain and her inability to cope at home, she was admitted to hospital

5758

A 72-year-old woman attended the hematology day unit for review. She complained of lethargy, headaches and visual disturbance over the previous two weeks. Her daughter, who accompanied her, had noticed that her mother had been slightly confused in the past 24 hours. On examination her blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg with a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. She had some mild pitting edema of her ankles and scattered bilateral basal fine crepitations. The remainder of the examination was normal. There was no evidence of confusion and her mini mental score was 30. Investigations revealed: Serum electrophoresis showed an IgA kappa monoclonal band with immune paresis. The IgA kappa level was 76g/L. She was given three units of red cells, each unit running at an infusion rate of 2 hours. Following the first unit the patient became acutely short of breath, confused and complained of a severe headache. Her blood pressure was recorded as 70/40 mmHg with a regular heart rate of 120 beats per minute. She was afebrile with oxygen saturation of 88% on air. What is the most likely cause of her acute deterioration?

5759

A 19-year-old student, in excellent health with no history of chronic medications, presented with for new-onset severe fatigue and left upper abdominal pain. She was treated 2 days ago in the health center for presumed gonorrhea with ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Her past medical history is only notable for one prior episode of presumed gonorrhea when she was 17 years old. Her physical examination is notable for a heart rate of 100 bpm and a palpable spleen. Stool is negative for heme. Laboratory examination is notable for hemoglobin of 5 g/dL with normal WBC and platelets. Peripheral blood smear shows an excess of spherocytes. Which of the following tests will most likely confirm the diagnosis?

5760

A 73-year-old man comes to primary care clinic complaining of 4–6 weeks of increasing malaise, fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, and occasional night sweats. His past medical history is notable for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Medications include lisinopril and atorvastatin. He had a screening colonoscopy 6 months ago, at which time his laboratory studies were normal. His physical examination today is only notable for a heart rate of 105 bpm and pale mucous membranes. Lungs are clear, and there are no new cardiac findings. Electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia but no acute changes. Laboratory studies show normal electrolytes, but his WBC is 1300/μL, platelet count is 35,000/μL, and hemoglobin is 7.5 g/dL. Examination of his peripheral smear confirms the pancytopenia and notes the red blood cells are macrocytic, and there are 3% blasts present. All of the following statements regarding his condition are true EXCEPT:

5761

All of the following disorders are considered by World Health Organization classification as chronic myeloproliferative neoplasms EXCEPT:

5762

A 53-year-old man is sent to you for evaluation of an elevated hematocrit found incidentally on lab testing. He was removing dry wall in a house and cut his upper arm. A CBC before his arm was stitched revealed a hematocrit of 59% with hemoglobin of 20 g/dL, WBC count of 15.4/uL with a normal differential, and platelet count of 445,000/uL. His physical examination is notable for a room air oxygen saturation of 95%, blood pressure of 145/85 mmHg, and a palpable spleen. He has no past medical history, is a nonsmoker, drinks rarely on social occasions, and is taking no medications. The patient reports his last contact with a physician was 2–3 years ago, and he recalls no abnormalities reported on blood testing. Which of the following is the next diagnostic step?

5763

A 64-year-old lady is reviewed in the outpatient clinic. She has been known to have Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia for six months. Apart from three chest infections in the last year, she is otherwise well

5764

A 60 year-old female of Greek origin is admitted with a two week history of deteriorating weakness, productive cough and dyspnoea. She has recently started amoxicillin prescribed by her GP. She is a smoker of 5 cigarettes per day

5765

A 50-year-old man presented with lethargy and weight loss.

5766

A 45-year-old lady with Chronic Renal failure secondary to Systemic Lupus Erythromatosus is seen in a low clearance clinic as a routine follow up. Her Joints have been causing some discomfort and she has been taking Naproxen PRN as well as Prednisolone 2.5mg od with Azathioprine 50mg od for disease control. She has stable renal function with a Creatinine of 300mmol/l and a Creatinine clearance of 18ml/min. Associated with her Chronic renal failure she has controlled secondary hyperparathyroidism. She has been Anaemic for the last 6 months and investigation of dyspepsia with an OGD showed only mild gastritis. She has already been on oral ferrous sulphate 200mg tds for 3 months

5767

In a patient of polycythemia, if secondary causes of elevated hemoglobin are ruled out, which of the following is the recommended therapy?

5768

posure to all of the following has been associated with the development of acute myelogenous leukemia EXCEPT:

5769

A 64-year-old man presents with 3 weeks of increasing fatigue and bleeding while brushing his teeth. Physical examination is notable for low-grade fever and normal heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate. He has splenomegaly. A CBC shows marked pancytopenia with blasts present on peripheral smear. A bone marrow aspirate and biopsy result in the diagnosis of acute promyelocytic leukemia with the t(15;17) (q22;q12) cytogenetic rearrangement. Which of the following medications that is specific to acute promyelocytic leukemia will be included in his induction chemotherapy?

5770

All of the following statements are false regarding chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) EXCEPT:

5771

Which of the following is the most common lymphoid malignancy?

5772

All of the following infectious agents are associated with the development of a lymphoid malignancy EXCEPT:

5773

A 32-year-old man was referred to clinic with a ten-year history of recurrent chest infections. He was diagnosed with common variable immunodeficiency

5774

A 33-year-old woman was referred by her GP with a 4-month history of weight loss and agitation. On examination she had a fine tremor, a resting tachycardia and a smooth goitre

5775

A 58-year-old lady with type II diabetes mellitus and chronic renal failure on hemodialysis presents with unstable angina. She currently uses twice daily insulin for glycaemic control but control has been poor of late

5776

A 34-year-old taxi driver was seen in the clinic with diarrhea for 1 year, he opened his bowels several times per day and stated that he never had formed stools. There was no blood in the stools. The stools were a little hard to flush away. On questioning he had lost some weight and had vague epigastric discomfort. There had been no recent travel and none of his family had similar symptoms. There was no history of inflammatory bowel disease in the family. He admitted drinking up-to 2 litres of cider per day. On examination he looked well, body mass index was 20, abdomen was soft and the sigmoidoscopy was normal. A rectal biopsy and two stool cultures were reported as negative

5777

A 62-year-old woman was admitted to hospital for a left knee replacement

5778

A 32-year-old female suffers multiple traumas in a road traffic accident including fracture of her pelvis, right femur and left humerus. She is taken immediately to theatre for surgery. During surgery and immediately post operatively she has extensive life threatening bleeding and requires 24 units of red cells, 6 units of pallets and 16 units of fresh frozen plasma. She undergoes a stormy post op recovery initially on the intensive care unit and then the general ward. You are called to see her 5 days post operatively. She is receiving a blood transfusion and has spiked a temperature 45 minutes after starting a unit of red cells. Her temperature is 38.2 oC and blood pressure is 110/70mmHg and heart rate is 98 bpm. The red cell transfusion is stopped and patient identity checked and the unit of blood is checked against her identity, all appear to be correct. A transfusion reaction investigation is initiated by the hospital transfusion practitioner and transfusion team. The patient is monitored closely and remains well over the next 24 hours. Her temperature returned to normal within 20 minutes of stopping the transfusion. Further information emerges the next day following investigations. The patient is blood group A Rhesus D Negative, and the unit of blood being transfused during the above reported reaction was of the correct group and cross match compatible. However, it appears that during her emergency surgery and subsequent bleeding she received 2 units of Rhesus D Positive platelets. What action do you advise now?

5779

A 62-year-old gentleman was followed-up every six months in the haematology clinic. During his most recent appointment he complained of a headache, blurred vision, aching bones, and extreme lethargy. His wife reported that he has been very vague at times over the previous four weeks and drowsy when he was awake. On examination he appeared pale with blood pressure 125/65 mmHg. He was afebrile. Respiratory rate was 12 breaths per minute. Cardiovascular, chest and abdominal examination were unremarkable

5780

A 70-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with a two-month history of increasing fatigue. She has a past history of stable exertional angina, but over the past few weeks she has also noted that her episodes of angina have been occurring with less strenuous physical exertion and has also noted that her ankles have become swollen. Ten years previously she underwent an aortic valve replacement with a mechanical valve for rheumatic valvular heart disease; she also had two coronary artery vein grafts during the same procedure since pre-operative angiography had shown significant coronary artery disease. The valve was functioning normally on transthoracic echocardiography when she was last reviewed in the Cardiology outpatient clinic three months ago. Her regular medications consist of atenolol, warfain and sublingual nitrate spray. On examination she appeared pale. She was afebrile. Pulse 90/minute, BP 185/100. Her apex beat was displaced laterally to the 6th intercostal space but her heart sounds were normal and lungs were clear on auscultation. There was bilateral pitting oedema of the ankles. Her abdomen was soft and non-tender. The liver edge was palpable 4cm below the right costal margin.

5781

A 44-year-old woman was admitted to the gynaecology ward for investigation of menorrhagia. After receiving the results of her initial investigations, the gynaecology team request a medical review. She was known to be anaemic and had been prescribed ferrous sulphate by her GP. However, she experienced severe abdominal pain and constipation when taking oral iron supplements and had discontinued the tablets of her own accord. In addition to menorrhagia, she complained of constant fatigue and also experienced breathlessness on exertion that was limiting her daily activities

5782

A 35 year-old woman with sickle cell disease was admitted to hospital with abdominal pain. This appearance was noted on fundoscopy. What is the diagnosis?

5783

A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. What antimicrobial prophylaxis should he receive before starting chemotherapy with fludarabine?

5784

A 45-year-old male presents with a one-year history of impotence and reduced shaving frequency. These symptoms have evolved over this period of time and he is unaware of any erections whatsoever and has no libido. He also is aware that he shaves just once weekly whereas previously he was shaving daily. Together with these symptoms he has also been feeling rather lethargic with reduced energy and is aware of vague joint aches. He takes no medication and has otherwise been well except for an appendicectomy at the age of 20. He drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol weekly and smokes 5 cigarettes daily. He is married but has no children. On examination, he appears slightly pigmented, has gynaecomastia and a fine skin with scant facial, pubic and axillary hair. Examination of the testes reveal testicular size of approximately 15mls bilaterally and no masses are felt. Examination of the cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal systems are normal. No abnormalities are noted on joint movements with a full range of movement.

5785

A 62-year-old man attended the outpatient clinic for a follow-up appointment. He had a history of two venous thromboembolic events and wanted advice regarding his treatment with warfarin. He had been diagnosed with an ilio-femoral deep vein thrombosis two years previously after returning from a holiday in Thailand and had been treated with a six-month course of warfarin. A thrombophilia screen, performed two months after stopping the warfarin, was negative. Six months after stopping warfarin he presented to hospital with left-sided pleuritic chest pain. His ECG was normal but a CT-pulmonary angiogram showed a pulmonary embolus. On this occasion there were no obvious risk factors, other than his previous event. He was recommenced on warfarin. At the time of his follow-up outpatient appointment he was approaching completion of six months of treatment. During his hospital admission, he had been advised that he should receive lifelong treatment with warfarin. However, he expressed concern about the risk of bleeding while on warfarin. On further questioning, he reveals that he has had two admissions to hospital with episodes of bleeding in the past three months. On the first occasion he had a spontaneous epistaxis. The second admission was for bleeding from a scalp wound after he hit his head accidentally on the bathroom cupboard. On both occasions his INR was over 8 and he had been admitted until the INR returned to normal. What is the best course of action?

5786

A 64-year-old African American male is evaluated in the hospital for congestive heart failure, renal failure, and polyneuropathy. Physical examination on admission was notable for these findings and raised waxy papules in the axilla and inguinal region. Admission laboratories showed a BUN of 90 mg/dL and a creatinine of 6.3 mg/dL. Total protein was 9.0 g/dL, with an albumin of 3.2 g/dL. Hematocrit was 24%, and WBC and platelet counts were normal. Urinalysis was remarkable for 3+ proteinuria but no cellular casts. Further evaluation included an echocardiogram with a thickened left ventricle and preserved systolic function. Which of the following tests is most likely to diagnose the underlying condition?

5787

You are caring for a 65-year-old African American man who was recently told by a cardiologist that he likely has heart failure due to familial amyloidosis based on echocardiography. He has a strong family history of nonsystolic heart failure including his father and a brother who both died in their 60s. Which of the following statements regarding this patient’s condition is true?

5788

A 75-year-old man is hospitalized for treatment of a deep venous thrombosis. He had recently been discharged from the hospital about 2 months ago. At that time, he had been treated for community-acquired pneumonia complicated by acute respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation. He was hospitalized for 21 days at that time and was discharged from a rehabilitation facility 2 weeks ago. On the day prior to admission, he developed painful swelling of his left lower extremity. A lower extremity Doppler ultrasound confirmed an occlusive thrombus of his deep femoral vein. After an initial bolus, he is started on a continuous infusion of unfractionated heparin at 1600 U/hr as he has end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis. His activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is maintained in the therapeutic range. On day 5, it is noted that his platelets have fallen from 150,000/μL to 88,000/μL. What is the most appropriate action at this time?

5789

An 18-year-old woman was referred to hospital with a six-month history of increasing fatigue. She had no other symptoms. Her only medication was ferrous sulphate 100mg once daily which she had bought from the pharmacy. On examination she was pale. Her pulse was 90 beats per minute and regular. Her blood pressure was 110/60 mmHg

5790

What may be the cause of the appearance of this blood film?

5791

A 20-year-old woman presented to hospital with a one-week history of increasing fatigue and exertional dyspnoea. She also complained of the spontaneous appearance of numerous bruises. On the day of admission she suddenly developed a high fever and became drowsy. On examination she was pale and looked unwell. She was drowsy but rousable. Temperature 39.5oC, pulse 120 per minute regular, blood pressure 85/40 mmHg. There was no palpable lymphadenopathy. Heart sounds were normal and her chest was clear to auscultation. Several large bruises were noted on her arms, legs and abdomen.

5792

A 72-year-old man is referred to clinic with a four-month history of breathlessness and abdominal swelling and discomfort. On examination, he appears pale and unwell. His liver is palpable 12cm below the right costal margin and his spleen palpable 15cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy was detected

5793

A 70-year-old lady presents with recurrent lower respiratory tract infections. She has had three courses of antibiotics from her General Practitioner in the past 4 months. She has no history of asthma or COPD. She denies sputum production between the episodes of infection

5794

A 38-year-old gentleman is seen on the hematology day unit 55 days post sibling allogeneic bone marrow transplant for Acute Myeloid Leukemia. He has been doing relatively well until 3 days ago when he first noticed that his urine was dark colored. Then he developed a fever 24 hours ago and subsequently has become very confused. On examination he is unwell with a temperature of 39 degree C, pulse 110 beats per minute and regular, normotensive. His sclerae are yellow, cardiovascular, chest and abdomen are unremarkable. Neurological examination shows him to be confused and very drowsy but no focal abnormality detected

5795

A 62-year-old woman undergoes successful mitral valve replacement (mechanical valve) for rheumatic valvular heart disease. Post-operatively she is started on warfarin and her INR is stabilised with a plan to maintain her INR within the range 3.0–4.5. Six months later she consults her General Practitioner, complaining of recurrent episodes of dysuria and frequency. Her GP starts co-trimoxazole. What action should be taken to ensure that her INR stays in the target range?

5796

A 72-year-old man is referred to clinic with a four-month history of breathlessness, abdominal swelling and discomfort. On examination, he appears pale and unwell. His liver is palpable 9cm below the right costal margin and his spleen palpable 7cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy was detected

5797

Which of the following is the most likely finding in a patient with a dry bone marrow aspiration?

5798

All of the following statements are true regarding the criteria to diagnose hypereosinophilic syndrome EXCEPT:

5799

All of the following statements regarding mastocytosis are true EXCEPT:

5800

A 42-year-old homeless man is brought into accident and emergency department at approximately 11:00pm by the emergency ambulance crew. He is known to have a history of alcohol abuse and on this occasion, he was found by a group of passers-by outside a nightclub having sustained a laceration to his forehead following a fall onto the pavement. On arrival to accident and emergency department, he was described as being unkempt with a strong odour of alcohol. He appeared to be moderately intoxicated with alcohol and on examination he was found to have a superficial laceration over his left forehead, which required no suturing. His Glasgow Coma Scale was 14/15. No localising signs were found on examination of the central nervous system. He was admitted overnight for observations. He took his own discharge at approx 9:00am the next day but returned to the ward later on the same day complaining shortness of breath and blurred vision. In addition, he had developed abdominal pain associated with vomiting and diarrhoea. On examination, he had a respiratory rate of 30/min. Pulse rate of 100/min regular, blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and heart sounds normal. There were occasional coarse crepitations in both lung fields which cleared on coughing. Examination of the abdomen revealed generalised tenderness with no masses or hepato-splenomegaly. Rectal examination was normal. The only other positive findings were hyperaemia and blurring of the optic discs bilaterally.

5801

A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with severe acute dyspnoea. She denied having any chest pain but said that she had become progressively breathless over the past three months. On examination her pulse was 120 beats per minute and regular. Her blood pressure was 95/55 mmHg and her jugular venous pressure was elevated to the angle of the jaw. Her heart sounds were normal. Auscultation of her chest revealed bilateral fine inspiratory crackles to the mid zones. She had haemorrhages in both fundi

5802

All of the following genetic mutations are associated with an increased risk of deep venous thrombosis EXCEPT:

5803

A 76-year-old man presents to an urgent care clinic with pain in his left leg for 4 days. He also describes swelling in his left ankle, which has made it difficult for him to ambulate. He is an active smoker and has a medical history remarkable for gastroesophageal reflux disease, prior deep venous thrombosis (DVT) 9 months ago that resolved, and well-controlled hypertension. Physical examination is revealing for 2+ edema in his left ankle. A D-dimer is ordered and is elevated. Which of the following makes D-dimer less predictive of DVT in this patient?

5804

A 22-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of 12 hours of shortness of breath. The symptoms began toward the end of a long car ride home from college. She has no past medical history, and her only medication is an oral contraceptive. She smokes occasionally, but the frequency has increased recently because of midterm examinations. On physical examination, she is afebrile with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 92% (room air). The rest of her physical examination is normal. A chest radiograph and CBC are normal. Her serum pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the indicated management strategy?

5805

A 50-year-old lady was seen in the clinic having been found to have deranged liver function by her general practitioner. She had been asymptomatic and felt very well She had a past history Graves hyperthyroidism which had been treated with radio iodine and she was now managed with thyroxine. On examination she had palmar erythema, and several spider naevi. The rest of the examination was unremarkable

5806

A 33-year-old male develops a rash and low-grade fever (37.6 degree C) 21 days post allogeneic bone marrow transplant for High Risk Acute Myeloid Leukaemia in first complete remission. The rash is initially maculopapular affecting palms and soles but 24 hours later general erythroderma is noted affecting the trunk and limbs. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 µmol/L (1-22). He remains very well in himself. What would be your management of this patient at this stage?

5807

A 21-year-old medical student presents with a ten-day history of fevers and malaise. There is no past history of note. On examination, he has enlarged lymph nodes palpable in both supraclavicular fossae. The nodes are smooth, mobile and non-tender. There is no recent history of overseas travel. He returned from his elective period in Gambia three months previously. His blood film is shown below:

5808

A 61-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness. She gave a two-month history of increasing exertional breathlessness. Five years previously she had undergone a mitral valve replacement with a bioprosthetic valve. She had a longstanding history of rheumatoid arthritis. She was taking digoxin and warfarin for atrial fibrillation. On examination she was afebrile. Pulse 110 beats per minute in atrial fibrillation; blood pressure 110/55 mmHg. A loud pansystolic murmur was audible at the apex

5809

A 25-year-old woman undergoing treatment for promyelocytic (M3) leukaemia develops a high fever. Sepsis is suspected and she rapidly develops widespread ecchymoses and starts bleeding from venepuncture sites and mucous membranes. Which is the most specific laboratory test to confirm the diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

5810

A 69-year-old lady is seen in the haematology clinic for the second time. Her first review was 6 months previously. Her full blood count shows:

5811

A 53-year-old gentleman was admitted to hospital after presenting to his GP complaining of feeling lethargic and generally unwell. Despite having a normal appetite, he had lost two stones in weight in six weeks. He also reported sweating profusely at night and his wife said that she often had to change the sheets because they were drenched. He also has some upper abdominal discomfort. On examination he looked thin and unwell. His pulse was 90 beats per minute in sinus rhythm with blood pressure 145/80 mmHg. A short systolic murmur was audible at the lower left sternal edge. His chest was clear. His abdomen was soft, with slight tenderness in the epigastrium and central abdomen. The spleen was palpable 7cm below the left costal margin.

5812

A 78-year-old lady is admitted to hospital for a right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. She has a past history of osteoarthritis for which she takes non-steroidal anti- inflammatory agents intermittently. Two years previously she had a fibroma removed from her right breast. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 8 units of alcohol per week

5813

An 18-year-old man was admitted to casualty at 3am having collapsed at a rave party. A friend, who accompanied him to hospital, said that the patient had been entirely well earlier in the evening and had been dancing most of the night. He reported that his friend seldom drank alcohol, although there was alcohol available at the party venue. He did not know whether his friend had taken any drugs

5814

All of the following statements regarding hemoglobinopathies are true EXCEPT:

5815

A 22-year-old man with known sickle cell anemia is admitted to the intensive care unit with diffuse body pain, shortness of breath, fever, and cough. He started having a bone pain crisis 1 day ago and tried to treat it at home with oral hydration. On examination, his blood pressure and heart rate are elevated, and he is in obvious pain and respiratory discomfort. His room air arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 83% and increases to 91% on a nonrebreather oxygen face mask. His chest radiograph shows bilateral diffuse alveolar infiltrates. This is his third similar episode in the last 12 months. All of the statements regarding his condition are true EXCEPT:

5816

A 28-year-old woman is referred to your clinic for evaluation of anemia that was found on a life insurance screening examination. She reports being healthy, takes no medications other than a multivitamin with iron, and only admits some recent fatigue on exertion in the past 6-9 months. She menstruates regularly with 3 to 4 day menses that have not changed in years. She eats a normal omnivorous diet, smokes one pack per day of cigarettes, and does not use illicit drugs. The results of her complete blood count (CBC) reveal a white blood cell (WBC) count of 4.0/uL, platelet count of 235,000/uL, and hemoglobin of 8 g/dL with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 105. Her blood smear is shown in Figure below. She has normal renal and liver function. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

5817

In the patient from Question III-55, which of the following is the next best study to confirm the diagnosis?

5818

A 58-year-old man is evaluated for sudden-onset cough with yellow sputum production and dyspnea in the emergency department. Aside from systemic hypertension, he is otherwise healthy. His only medication is amlodipine. Chest radiograph shows a right upper lobe alveolar infiltrate, and labs are notable for a BUN of 53 mg/dL, creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL, calcium of 12.3 mg/dL, total protein of 9 g/dL and albumin of 3.1 g/dL. Sputum culture grows Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which of the following tests will confirm the underlying condition predisposing him to pneumococcal pneumonia?

5819

In patients with multiple myeloma, which of the following results is the most powerful predictor of survival?

5820

You are evaluating a 72-year-old man who has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) after finding an elevated gamma gap on routine blood testing. His bone marrow biopsy demonstrated 5% clonal plasma cells, and he has no evidence of end-organ or bone damage. He reports his appetite is excellent, and he has had no weight gain or loss in the past 1 year. His past medical history is notable for mild hypertension treated only with a diuretic andhyperlipidemia treated with atorvastatin. He has no history of latent or active tuberculosis. He still works as an international travel consultant and walks at least 2 miles three times per week. Calcium and renal function are normal on laboratory testing. His physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following treatments is indicated at this time?

5821

A 48-year-old woman is evaluated by her primary care physician for a complaint of gingival bleeding and easy bruising. She has noted the problem for about 2 months. Initially, she attributed it to aspirin that she was taking intermittently for headaches, but she stopped all aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug use 6 weeks ago. Her only medical history is an automobile accident 12 years previously that caused a liver laceration. It required surgical repair, and she received several transfusions of red blood cells and platelets at that time. She currently takes no prescribed medications and otherwise feels well. On physical examination, she appears well and healthy. She has no jaundice or scleral icterus. Her cardiac and pulmonary examinations are normal. The abdominal examination shows a liver span of 12 cm to percussion, and the edge is palpable 1.5 cm below the right costal margin. The spleen tip is not palpable. There are petechiae present on her extremities and hard palate with a few small ecchymoses on her extremities. A CBC shows a hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL, hematocrit of 37.6%, WBC count of 8400/uL with a normal differential, and platelet count of 7500/uL. What tests are indicated for the workup of this patient’s thrombocytopenia to rule out secondary causes (select the most appropriate option)?

5822

A 54-year-old woman presents acutely with alterations in mental status and fever. She was well until 4 days previously when she began to develop complaints of myalgia and fever. Her symptoms progressed rapidly, and today her husband noted her to be lethargic and unresponsive when he awakened. She has recently felt well otherwise. Her only current medication is atenolol 25 mg daily for hypertension. On physical examination, she is responsive only to sternal rub and does not vocalize. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 165/92 mmHg, heart rate 114 bpm, temperature 38.7 degree C (101.7 degree F), respiratory rate 26 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Her cardiac examination shows a regular tachycardia. Her lungs have bibasilar crackles. The abdominal examination is unremarkable. No hepatosplenomegaly is present. There are petechiae on the lower extremities. Her CBC shows a hemoglobin of 8.8 g/dL, hematocrit of 26.4%, WBC count of 10.2/uL (89% polymorphonuclear cells, 10% lymphocytes, 1% monocytes), and a platelet count of 54,000/uL. A peripheral blood smear is shown in Figure III-80. Her basic metabolic panel shows a sodium of 137 mEq/L, potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, chloride of 98 mEq/L, bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L, BUN of 89 mg/dL, and creatinine of 2.9 mg/dL. Which of the following most correctly describes the pathogenesis of the patient’s condition?

5823

A 54-year-old woman presents acutely with alterations in mental status and fever. She was well until 4 days previously when she began to develop complaints of myalgia and fever. Her symptoms progressed rapidly, and today her husband noted her to be lethargic and unresponsive when he awakened. She has recently felt well otherwise. Her only current medication is atenolol 25 mg daily for hypertension. On physical examination, she is responsive only to sternal rub and does not vocalize. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 165/92 mmHg, heart rate 114 bpm, temperature 38.7°C (101.7°F), respiratory rate 26 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Her cardiac examination shows a regular tachycardia. Her lungs have bibasilar crackles. The abdominal examination is unremarkable. No hepatosplenomegaly is present. There are petechiae on the lower extremities. Her CBC shows a hemoglobin of 8.8 g/dL, hematocrit of 26.4%, WBC count of 10.2/μL (89% polymorphonuclear cells, 10% lymphocytes, 1% monocytes), and a platelet count of 54,000/μL. A peripheral blood smear is shown in Figure III-80. Her basic metabolic panel shows a sodium of 137 mEq/L, potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, chloride of 98 mEq/L, bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L, BUN of 89 mg/dL, and creatinine of 2.9 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment for the patient.

5824

A 28-year-old plumber was referred to hospital by his General Practitioner. He had initially presented 7 days previously, giving a 3-day history of malaise, headache, and myalgia and subsequently developed a dry cough and fever. His GP had started a course of amoxicillin/clavulinic acid, but the symptoms failed to resolve. On the day of referral, the patient continued to complain of cough and had become mildly dyspnoic; he also complained of a global headache, myalgia and arthralgia. On examination, he appeared unwell and was febrile (39 degree C). A maculopapular rash was evident over his upper body. Heart sounds were normal; BP 120/70. On auscultation of his chest, fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone. Mild neck stiffness was noted.

5825

An 18-year-old lady was diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, she required weekly lumbar punctures to administer intrathecal chemotherapy. When she attended the day unit for her third course of treatment, her platelet count was found to be 25x109/L (150-400x109/L). What is the best course of action?

5826

A 21-year-old woman presented to hospital with vaginal bleeding. She had started her menstrual period the previous day and had been used two boxes of tampons. There was no past history of menorrhagia. She was passing bright red fresh blood with no clots. On examination she was pale and breathless at rest. Temperature 37.2 degree C. Her pulse was 110 beats per minute with blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Several large bruises were noted on her arms and legs.

5827

A 23-year-old man is noted by his partner to be jaundiced. Two weeks previously he suffered a mild flu-like illness

5828

A 49-year-old female attended the ward for pre-clerking for a routine laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Her past medical history included surgery for an injury to her left arm one year previously. Her only medication was hormone replacement therapy. Other than occasional episodes of right upper quadrant pain secondary to gall stones, she was otherwise very well.

5829

A 56-year-old man with chronic renal failure attended the renal clinic. He was undergoing regular haemodialysis and had been treated for the past six months with oral ferrous sulphate (200mg three times a day). His haemoglobin in clinic measured at 7.6 g/dL, compared with 10.6 g/dL six months previously. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

5830

A 26-year-old woman presented in acute shock at 35 weeks of pregnancy with profuse vaginal bleeding. She had suffered two previous miscarriages. She had a pulse of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/84 mmHg and no foetal heart sounds were audible

5831

This peripheral blood smear is obtained on a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome who is admitted with abdominal cramps and constipation. Investigations reveal:

5832

A 33-year-old woman developed a fever (38.0 degree C) within 90 minutes of starting a red cell transfusion three days post allogeneic bone marrow transplant. Prior to the transfusion her temperature had been 37.6 degree C. On examination she appeared flushed, breathless and complained of dizziness and a tight chest. Her heart rate was 110 beats per minute and regular, blood pressure was 90/60 mmHg and auscultation of the chest revealed widespread wheeze. The staff nurse stopped the transfusion and checked a full blood count, the result of which is shown below:

5833

A 55-year-old hotel manager was referred by her general practitioner with abnormal liver function tests. She had routine blood investigations as part of a diabetes mellitus work up. She had a history of Hypertension, Type 2 diabetes, Hypothyroidism and pernicious anaemia. On direct questioning she did complain of occasional right upper quadrant pain but denied any obvious features of obstructive jaundice. She did not drink alcohol. She was taking Aspirin, Atenolol, Simvastatin and Rosiglitazone. On examination she had a body mass index of 34, blood pressure 170/90 and a random glucose of 11.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

5834

A 34-year-old female presented to the antenatal clinic at 24 weeks gestation complaining of general malaise, fatigue and shortness of breath at rest. Her partner said that at times over the past 24 hours she had been vague and mildly confused. This was her first pregnancy and had been uncomplicated. At her booking appointment she had not reported any significant past medical history. There was no abnormality detected at the dating ultrasound scan and her full blood count was within normal limits. On examination her blood pressure was 122/80 mmHg; her booking blood pressure had been 116/77 mmHg. Her temperature was 37.8 degree C. Heart sounds were normal. Chest was clear and abdominal examination was unremarkable. Examination of the peripheral and central nervous system was unremarkable; but she was disorientated in date, day and time. She also seemed very agitated. There was a purpuric rash over her shins. She was admitted to the antenatal ward and a series of blood tests sent

5835

An 18-year-old man presented with a two-week history of massive painless cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following investigations should be performed to obtain the diagnosis?

5836

A 55-year-old man was referred to the outpatient clinic with anaemia. He had presented to his General Practitioner with a three-month history of fatigue and low back pain. There was no preceding history of trauma. A plain x-ray of his lumbar spine showed a lytic lesion in the body of the fourth lumbar vertebra (L4)

5837

A 42-year-old widow presents with a one-week history of progressive confusion and unsteady gait. She works as a barmaid and lives in poor social circumstances. On examination she is malnourished and disorientated. She has nystagmus and is unable to abduct either eye. The pupils are sluggish and unequal. Ankle jerks are absent but upper limb reflexes are present. Shortly after her admission you are called to the ward as she has become very drowsy and has collapsed on the floor.

5838

A 34-year-old man presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A doppler ultrasound confirms the presence of a posterior knee occlusive deep vein thrombosis. Two weeks previously a below knee plaster cast had been removed on the right side. This had been in place for 4 weeks following a rugby injury. He had no other significant past medical history. What is the best management plan for this man?

5839

An inpatient on the haematology ward develops a fever five minutes after starting a platelet transfusion. His temperature rises 1 degree C from pre-transfusion observations. Other than feeling hot he is well. His blood pressure, pulse and oxygen saturations are all unchanged from pre-transfusion observations. An hour later he remains febrile, but is well and all other observations stable. What is the most likely cause of his fever?

5840

This blood film was obtained on a 37-year-old male. What is the likely cause for these abnormalities?

5841

A 74-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a trans-urethral resection of the prostate. Investigations showed:

5842

A 30 year-old man was referred to the outpatients because of abnormal liver function tests. He had attended his general practitioner complaining of lethargy and feeling generally unwell. He worked at his familys dairy farm. He drank alcohol regularly, consuming on average 30 units per week. He took thyroxine for hypothyroidism. He denied drug abuse; he had never had a blood transfusion and had never traveled abroad. On examination he looked generally well, he was not overtly jaundiced, there were no signs of chronic liver disease

5843

A 17-year-old girl with sickle cell disease presents with pain in her left thigh. A plain X-ray film shows changes consistent with osteomyelitis of the left femur. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

5844

A 61-year-old old lady was referred to clinic by her GP with a six-month history of fatigue. There was no history of weight loss or change in bowel habit, no cough or sputum production. She denied having any fevers or sweats. Her only other complaint was of occasional pains in her joints secondary to rheumatoid arthritis, which had been diagnosed three year previously. She worked as an assistant in a bookshop and lived with her husband. She had three children, all of whom were well. There was no family history of note. She was a lifelong non-smoker and seldom drank alcohol. On examination she appeared well. She was afebrile. Xanthelasma were noted around both eyes. A few faint scratch marks were visible on the skin of her arms. She attributed this to an allergy to a new washing powder. Her pulse was 70/min with blood pressure 110/65. Heart sounds were normal with no murmurs or added sounds. Her chest was clear. The abdomen was soft and non-tender. The spleen was palpable three centimetres below the left costal margin. The liver and kidneys were not palpable. Neurological examination was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5845

A 44-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus has not attended the diabetic clinic for 5 years. Examination shows no abnormalities

5846

A 28-year-old lady presents with a 3-day history of a painful swollen right calf

5847

According to WHO, anemia is defined as a hemoglobin level of?

5848

A 67-year-old man is evaluated for exertional dyspnea. He recalls that 3 years ago he was told that he had anemia. In reviewing his records, you note that at that time his hemoglobin level was 9.5 g/dL and his hematocrit was 33% with an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV); the remainder of his complete blood cell count was normal. On physical examination, he had conjunctival pallor, normal heart and lung findings, no lymphadenopathy, no hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, and no petechiae or ecchymoses

5849

Hematopoietic stem cell produces which of the following?

5850

A 45-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical service with severe arterial insufficiency of the right second toe. She has no prior medical history and takes no medications. Physical examination findings are normal except for mild splenomegaly and signs of early gangrene in the right second toe. All pulses are full and equal throughout

5851

A 22-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for an elective cholecystectomy. You are asked to see him because he had anemia on preoperative testing. He tells you that he has always been told by his physicians that he has mild anemia; his medical history is otherwise unremarkable. His vital signs are normal. His conjunctivae are mildly icteric, and the spleen is palpable in the left upper quadrant. Findings on the remainder of the physical examination are normal

5852

A 42-year-old man had received thrice weekly hemodialysis for the previous 10 days via a subclavian line. Over the last 2 days he developed problems in that the line had frequently been found to be clotted. He had also noticed some red skin lesions in the last 24 hours. Four years previously (before starting dialysis) he had been nephrotic and had developed a deep vein thrombosis. This was managed with low molecular weight heparin and then warfarin. His medication included erythropoietin and alphacalcidol. Unfractionated heparin was being used for both the subclavian and dialysis lines. On examination several necrotic skin lesions were noted on his lower legs

5853

In the absence of erythropoietin (EPO), committed erythroid progenitor cells undergo?

5854

How many mature red cells are produced from a pronormoblast?

5855

A 29-year-old woman was admitted to hospital after having a tonic-clonic seizure at home. She had been unwell for two days, firstly developing diarrhea and then complaining of fever and malaise. Over the preceding twenty-four hours she had become slightly confused

5856

A 75-year-old man is referred to the outpatient clinic for investigation of anemia. He gives a six-month history of fatigue and exertional dyspnea. He has a past history of hypertension which is controlled with atenolol, and had a prostatectomy aged 70 years for benign prostatic hypertrophy. He smoked 20 cigarettes per day until aged 38 years. He drinks approximately eight units of alcohol per week. On examination he appears pale. He becomes mildly dyspneic getting onto the examination couch. His pulse is 100 beats per minute, regular with blood pressure 125/65. His heart sounds are normal with no murmurs and his chest is clear. His abdomen is soft. A smooth, non-tender liver edge is palpable 3cm below the right costal margin; the spleen is palpable 10cm below the left costal margin. His peripheral blood film is shown below:

5857

Erythropoietin is produced and released by?

5858

Erythropoietin is also produced by?

5859

A 28-year-old black man with sickle cell disease presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, chest pain, and shortness of breath. His dyspnea evolved over 36 hours after a visit with his niece and nephew. His history is significant for approximately 2 emergency department visits or hospital admissions per year for painful crises. Three years ago, he spent 4 weeks in the hospital after an episode of acute chest syndrome. He has been taking hydroxyurea but only intermittently because of financial concerns. His pulse is 116 beats per minute and regular, his blood pressure is 138/76 mm Hg, his respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and his temperature is 38.3 degree C. Pulse oximetry shows 91% oxygen saturation with room air and 93% with 4 L of oxygen by nasal cannula. His lungs have scattered inspiratory crackles in the right midlung field. His spleen is not palpable. The remainders of the physical examination findings are normal

5860

Key to EPO gene regulation is?

5861

A 36-year-old woman presented to hospital with a 3-day history of pain and swelling in her right leg. Ten years previously she was diagnosed as having a deep vein thrombosis of the right calf after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Three years previously she was treated by her General Practitioner for pleurisy. She has a history of recurrent water infections: for 2 years she has developed intermittent bouts of flank pain and has also noted that she occasionally passes dark urine in the morning. This has recently been investigated by her General Practitioner: an ultrasound scan of her renal tract and an intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a Building Society and lives with her husband and two children. There is no recent history of travel. She smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. She does not take any regular medication. On examination she appears well. Temperature 37.9 degree C. The right calf is swollen, red and tender

5862

What percentage of all circulating RBC is replaced daily?

5863

Term erythron best relates to?

5864

A 70-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm and leg. His symptoms began yesterday and are now resolved. He also reports a 6-month history of recurrent headaches and fatigue. He is a nonsmoker. His medical history is significant for high blood pressure. His blood pressure is 167/88 mm Hg, his oxygen saturation is 93% on room air, his face is plethoric, and a right carotid bruit is heard. Other findings on physical examination are normal

5865

A 42-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with fatigue. She has been receiving anti-tumor necrosis factor therapy and has been managing the SLE well. However, she has recently experienced worsening fatigue. Her vital signs are normal. Her face and conjunctivae are jaundiced, and she has a fading butterfly rash on her face. The spleen is palpable on deep inspiration

5866

Erythropoietin is a?

5867

A 32-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a fever five days after receiving a cycle of chemotherapy for lymphoma. On examination, he appeared unwell. He was febrile 39.5 degree C. Pulse 120 beats per minute, regular with Blood pressure 85/40 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal with no added sounds or murmurs. His chest was clear on auscultation and his abdomen was soft and non-tender

5868

Regulation of EPO production is linked to?

5869

Which of the following about mature red cell is false?

5870

You are called to A&E to assess a 21-year-old student who has presented with bloody diarrhea. The diarrhea started two weeks previously, and was associated with increasing nausea and malaise, and mild swelling of the lower limbs. She was having difficulty passing urine. She had eaten steak from the local butcher at a friend barbeque the day before developing diarrhea. On examination she was pale, with evidence of petechiae over her legs. Her face appeared puffy. Blood pressure was 160/95. On examination she was apyrexial, but had a tachycardia, and crackles on inspiration at both lung bases. There was an old appendicectomy scar in the right iliac fossa

5871

A 34-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a painful swollen left leg. While in the admissions unit he also developed abdominal pain-which he said had been recurring over several months. He had a past history of a right calf deep vein thrombosis six months previously that had been treated by anticoagulation with warfarin for three months. He had noticed that over the past two months his urine had been darker than usual in the morning.

5872

A 33-year-old female with a history of paranoid delusions of one-month duration was treated with phenothiazine. She presents with a 10-day history of fever, chills, and malaise, with increasing weakness and fatigue over the last two days. Examination reveals a temperature of 38.1 degree C, a pulse of 100 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 110/76 mmHg. She has a respiratory rate of 25/min and chest with dullness to percussion and increased breath sounds at the left base. There is no splenomegaly

5873

Normal level of Plasma EPO is?

5874

Plasma EPO levels increase when hemoglobin falls below?

5875

A 58-year-old woman with active rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and joint pain. She received the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis 5 years earlier and has been taking prednisone 10 mg daily and methotrexate with folate weekly. She has had chronic fatigue and anemia. Her vital signs are normal. Her conjunctivae are pale, and she has active synovitis affecting both knees, her wrists, and elbows, with rheumatoid nodules on the extensor surface of her right forearm. The remainders of the physical examination findings are normal

5876

In circulation, EPO has a half-clearance time of?

5877

A 17-year-old boy with lymphoma is started on a course of cytotoxic chemotherapy. On the day following his first cycle of treatment he becomes unwell and the following results are obtained:

5878

The mean hematocrit value for adult males is?

5879

Anemia is most often recognized by?

5880

O2–hemoglobin dissociation curve relates to which of the following?

5881

A 23-year-old woman was brought to the Accident & Emergency department. She was known to have acute myeloid leukemia and was undergoing chemotherapy. She had been unwell for the last eight hours and described having shaking shivers and sweats at home. She reported feeling very nauseous and had had some diarrhea. She had no other symptoms. On examination her temperature was 39.4 degree C. Her blood pressure was 90/55 mmHg with a heart rate of 136 beats per minute and regular. She had some oral candidiasis and a Hickman line was in situ. Cardiovascular, chest and abdominal examination were unremarkable

5882

Signs of vascular instability appear with acute blood loss of?

5883

Hypovolemic shock results if volume of blood lost is?

5884

Intravascular hemolysis with release of free hemoglobin may be associated with?

5885

Which of the following may be associated with autoimmune hemolysis?

5886

A 60-year-old Chinese man has been started on quinine for leg cramps by his General Practitioner. He presents, a week later, with 5 days of darkened urine and 2 days of increasing breathlessness, back pain and fatigue. Investigations show a haemoglobin of 7 g/dL (13.0-18.0) and raised reticulocyte count. Which of the following best explain this drug reaction?

5887

Which of the following reflects iron supply?

5888

Which of the following formula estimates MCV?

5889

A 62-year-old man underwent right total knee replacement 8 days ago. Swelling has developed in his right lower extremity, and Doppler ultrasonography confirms the presence of a right superficial femoral vein thrombosis. His current medications include oxycodone and subcutaneous unfractionated heparin. Results of preoperative tests, including a complete blood cell count and liver and kidney function, were normal. Other laboratory data include the following: hemoglobin 12.2 g/dL, leukocyte count 8.5×109/L, and platelet count 60×109/L. In addition to stopping the use of subcutaneous heparin, what is the next most appropriate step in management of this patient?

5890

A 45-year-old man presents with deep vein thrombosis of the right femoral vein. Three months ago, he received a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). In addition to confirming SLE, laboratory testing also documented the presence of a lupus anticoagulant (LAC). There is no family history of venous thrombosis. Current medications include hydroxychloroquine. Laboratory testing shows normal results for a complete blood cell count and for tests of liver and kidney function. Special coagulation testing confirms the persistence of an LAC. What is the most reasonable duration of warfarin anticoagulation for this patient?

5891

A 20-year-old white woman has been admitted to the hospital with pulmonary embolism. She has no chronic illnesses and is receiving no medications except for combination estrogen-progesterone birth control pills that she started using approximately 1 year earlier. Results were normal for a complete blood cell count, baseline prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and tests of kidney and liver function. The patient is currently receiving therapeutic doses of intravenous unfractionated heparin, and her aPTT is therapeutic at 72 seconds. A panel of thrombophilia tests has been performed. Which of the following statements about her thrombophilia test results is correct?

5892

A 62-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation has been treated with warfarin. He has no other chronic illnesses and is receiving no other medications long-term except for lipid-lowering agents. Results of his complete blood cell count and tests of renal and kidney function are normal. He checks his prothrombin time monthly and has kept the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range (2–3) for the duration of his therapy with warfarin. He has heard about recent US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval of dabigatran, which requires no monitoring, and he would like a prescription for this new drug. Which of the following statements is true about the use of dabigatran in atrial fibrillation compared with the well-managed use of warfarin?

5893

Anisocytosis is related to which feature of RBC?

5894

A 17-year-old man from India presents with a 12-hour history of priapism. He has a history of intermittent back and abdominal pain. On examination he is pyrexic 39 degree C appears pale. He has an enlarged smooth liver and a painful engorged penis

5895

Reliable estimate of red cell production is provided by?

5896

Shift cells refer to?

5897

Erythroid cells take about how many days to mature?

5898

A 72-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation has been receiving dabigatran 75 mg twice daily for the past 6 months. He has not had any thrombotic or hemorrhagic complications. He has a history of colon polyps, for which he needs to undergo a colonoscopy with possible polypectomy. Apart from an irregular pulse, his physical examination findings are normal. Results were normal for a complete blood cell count and tests of renal and liver function. The calculated creatinine clearance is 28 mL/min. For how long should dabigatran use be discontinued before the colonoscopy?

5899

Absolute reticulocyte count is calculated by?

5900

Which of the following about macrocytes is false?

5901

Howell-Jolly bodies best relate to which of the following?

5902

A 65-year-old man was admitted to hospital for a hernia repair.

5903

A 23-year-old Afro-Caribbean male presented to the emergency department with intermittent right upper abdominal pain. He had a temperature of 38.5 degree C and he was icteric.

5904

Thermal injury may produce which of the following?

5905

Burr cells are also called?

5906

Echinocytes are found in patients with?

5907

Acanthocytes are present in which of the following conditions?

5908

The normal serum iron range is?

5909

At her annual physical examination, an asymptomatic 68-year-old woman has lymphocytosis (32×109/L) with a normal hemoglobin level and platelet count. On examination, she has 1-cm lymphadenopathy in the cervical region and no palpable liver or spleen enlargement. A peripheral blood smear shows identically appearing mature lymphocytes with smudge cells. Flow cytometry of the peripheral blood lymphocytes shows a monoclonal B population with dim expression of gama‎ light chain and CD20 that is positive for expression of CD5, CD19, and CD23. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

5910

Ten years ago, a previously healthy 20-year-old woman presented to her physician with a 2-month history of pruritis, drenching night sweats, unintentional weight loss, and nonproductive cough. On examination, she had 2-cm cervical lymphadenopathy. A computed tomographic scan showed a 12-cm-diameter anterior mediastinal mass. An excisional biopsy of a cervical lymph node showed nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma. After she was treated with ABVD (doxorubicin [Adriamycin], bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine) combination chemotherapy followed by involved field radiotherapy, the disease was in complete remission. Now you see her for the first time for an annual physical examination. The disease remains in complete remission. Compared to her peers, this patient is at increased risk of which of the following conditions?

5911

An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after falling on an icy sidewalk and fracturing his hip. He undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture. At surgery, there does not appear to be any bone disease at the fracture site. The patient was previously asymptomatic. Physical examination findings are otherwise unremarkable. Serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation show an IgM κ‎ monoclonal protein (0.3 g/dL). The complete blood cell count and serum creatinine levels are normal. Skeletal survey shows no additional bone defects. Which of the following statements is true for this patient?

5912

A 75-year-old African American man was seen last week by his primary care physician for mild dyspnea. He has also noted intermittent peripheral edema. During the evaluation, an electrocardiogram showed low-voltage QRS complexes in the limb leads. The troponin T level was elevated (0.07 ng/mL). This finding suggested the need for a coronary angiogram, which showed no significant coronary artery disease. An echocardiogram showed diffuse left ventricular thickening with a granular texture to the myocardium and a septal thickness of 2.5 cm (normal <1.1 cm). The complete blood cell count results were normal. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis and immunofixation were unremarkable. Serum free light chain levels were not increased. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5913

A 55-year-old man presented to his primary care physician for evaluation of fatigue. He was previously healthy with the exception of chronic musculoskeletal low back pain, for which he occasionally takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. On examination, he is pale. Complete blood cell count results are as follows: hemoglobin 8.3 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume 73 fL, leukocyte count 6.9×109/L, and platelet count 398×109/L. Results of the fecal occult blood test are positive. During upper and lower endoscopy, a 1.2×2.5-cm ulcerative lesion is noted in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The lesion is biopsied and identified as a MALT lymphoma. Which of the following is characteristic of MALT lymphoma?

5914

A 73-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with new-onset back pain, confusion, and constipation over the past week. Her past medical history is significant only for hypertension. On examination, she is slightly pale with slow cognition and point tenderness over the lumbar spine. Plain films of the lumbar spine show osteolytic lesions in L2, L3, and L5. Laboratory values are as follows: hemoglobin 9.3 g/dL, leukocyte count 4.6×109/L with a normal differential count, platelet count 230×109/L, creatinine 1.6 mg/dL, total calcium 13.1 mg/dL, albumin 3.6 g/dL, and total protein 9.1 g/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5915

A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 6-week history of progressively worsening abdominal pain and night sweats. Physical examination findings were significant for palpable bilateral 2-cm axillary lymph nodes and diffuse abdominal tenderness with no rebound or guarding. Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis showed retroperitoneal and mesenteric lymphadenopathy. Excisional biopsy of an axillary node was positive for diffuse, large B-cell lymphoma. Positron emission tomography showed fluorodeoxyglucose-avidity in the axillary, mesenteric, and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Results of the bone marrow examination were normal. Which of the following is the best next step?

5916

The normal serum TIBC range is?

5917

Percent transferrin saturation is calculated by?

5918

Adult males have average serum ferritin levels of about?

5919

Adult females have average serum ferritin levels of about?

5920

Ferritin is also an?

5921

A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean male attends for a routine insurance examination. Questioning reveals that he has been frequently tired of late and sleeps in the evenings He also gives a history of bleeding gums and several recent episodes of epitaxis. He is a non- smoker but drinks 22 units of alcohol weekly. Examination reveals a pale appearance but no other abnormalities

5922

Erythroblasts containing what are called sideroblasts?

5923

Hemolysis is most likely cause if reticulocyte production index is more than?

5924

Which of the following anemias is most frequent?

5925

A hypoproliferative anemia can result from?

5926

Which of the following is the iron regulatory hormone?

5927

Nuclear maturation defects of RBC result from all except?

5928

Cytoplasmic maturation defects of RBC result from?

5929

Increased red cell mass is present when hematocrit in men is?

5930

Gaisbock syndrome relates to?

5931

EPO-producing neoplasms include?

5932

A previously fit 30-year-old male presents with a two months history of weight loss, tiredness and nausea.

5933

A 42-year-old widow presents with a one-week history of progressive confusion and unsteady gait. She works as a barmaid and lives in poor social circumstances. On examination she is malnourished and disorientated. She has nystagmus and is unable to abduct either eye. The pupils are sluggish and unequal. Ankle jerks are absent but upper limb reflexes are present. Shortly after her admission you are called to the ward as she has become very drowsy and has collapsed on the floor

5934

A 40-year-old gentleman presented to his General Practitioner complaining of tiredness, headaches and a pruritic rash after bathing. The symptoms of fatigue and headache had been present for several months and at first, he had attributed these to stress from work. He denied having any visual disturbance or focal limb weakness. There was no history of chest pain or breathlessness and his bowel habit was normal. He had noticed the rash on his legs two weeks previously; it was the rash that had prompted him to consult his General Practitioner. He had no other past medical history of note. He was an ex-smoker for 5 years, but prior to that had smoked for 20 years. He worked as an investment banker, which he found stressful. He was not taking any regular prescribed medication, but had been taking a homeopathic remedy for stress. He lived with his partner and their five-year-old son. There was a family history of hypertension. On examination his face was plethoric. His blood pressure was 138/89 mmHg with pulse 80 beats per minute and regular. His heart sounds were normal and all peripheral pulses were palpable. There were no carotid bruits. His chest was clear on auscultation with normal vesicular breath sounds. His abdomen was soft and non-tender with a smooth mass extending 2 finger breadths below the left costal margin

5935

A 17-year-old man was being investigated for a long history of malaise. His past medical history included recurrent episodes of anemia but the cause had never been established. There was no past history or family history of note and apart from the malaise he reported no other symptoms. On examination he was mildly jaundiced. He had a blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg and his pulse was 80 beats per minute. His spleen was palpable 6cm below the left costal margin. No other abnormality is found

5936

A 45-year-old woman presented to the Accident & Emergency department with a high spiking fever ten days after returning from holiday in Kenya. Before leaving the U.K., her General Practitioner had prescribed mefloquine malaria prophylaxis. She had started the mefloquine one week before travelling and had continued to take it while she was in Africa. She complained of regular spiking fevers and rigors and of lethargy and malaise. Physical examination was unremarkable apart from a temperature of 40 degree C. A peripheral blood film is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

5937

In the human hemostatic system, procoagulant forces include?

5938

The major components of the hemostatic system are?

5939

A 32-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady is admitted to hospital with a three-day history of increasing pain and swelling of her left leg. Over the past 24 hours she has also developed a low-grade fever. There is no history of recent trauma, immobilization or prolonged travel by land or air. She was admitted two years previously with a similar episode of pain and swelling in her right calf; a deep vein thrombosis was confirmed on doppler scanning. She is otherwise fit and well. She is married and lives with her husband and works on a production line for a company producing televisions. She is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. She had been taking the oral contraceptive pill when admitted 2 years ago with a DVT, but this was then discontinued. Her only medication is an antidepressant, prescribed by her GP after she had a miscarriage 6 months previously. Her relationship with a previous partner ended after she miscarried his child

5940

A 42-year-old gentleman presented to the Accident and Emergency department with a 24-hour history of lower abdominal pain. He had seen his General Practitioner five days previously for cramps in his legs at night. The GP had taken a full blood count and prescribed him quinine sulphate; he had taken just one dose the following evening. His past medical history was unremarkable, although he had a previous hospital admission with similar abdominal pain in his teens. No cause was found for that episode. On examination he appeared jaundiced. His blood pressure was 92/60 mmHg, but no other abnormality was detected

5941

A 49-year-old gentleman presents to the GP with tiredness and headaches. He also reports an itchy rash after bathing. He is an ex-smoker for 5 years, but prior to that had smoked for 20 years. He is under considerable stress in his office job and has been taking a homeopathic medicine for stress. He is on no other medication. There is a family history of hypertension. On examination he is plethoric. Cardiovascular examination and auscultation of the chest is unremarkable. On palpation of the abdomen the GP could palpate the spleen 2 finger breadths below the left costal margin. His blood pressure is 138/89. The GP refers him for a number of investigations

5942

Endothelial cells activate fibrinolytic mechanisms through the production of?

5943

Which of the following best relates to heparin?

5944

Which of the following becomes an anticoagulant when it is activated by thrombin?

5945

Which of the following about thrombomodulin is false?

5946

A 55-year-old man has presented to his GP complaining of several episodes of spontaneous facial blushing. In addition, he mentions he has had several episodes of watery diarrhoea. On examination of the cardiovascular system, giant v waves are noted on observation of the jugular venous pressure. In addition, a pansystolic murmur is heard in the lower sternal edge on inspiration. Examination of the gastrointestinal system reveals an enlarged, irregular, non-tender liver edge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5947

A 62-year-old man with known metastatic small cell carcinoma of the lung has presented to accident and emergency with sudden onset shortness of breath and arm and hand swelling. On examination, his face appears plethoric and Pemberton’s sign is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5948

A 56-year-old man with gastric cancer presents to his GP complaining of a lump in his belly button. On examination, there is a palpable nodule at his umbilicus. This sign is referred to as:

5949

A 65-year-old woman who is currently receiving chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia is found on blood testing to have urea of 10.1 mmol/L, creatinine of 190 mol/L, potassium of 6.1 mmol/L, phosphate of 8.5 mg/dL and corrected calcium of 2.00 mmol/L. The patient is asymptomatic. Her electrolyte levels were normal prior to the start of treatment. What is the most likely cause of this electrolyte disturbance?

5950

A 60-year-old man with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung, who has finished two cycles of palliative cisplatin/pemetrexed chemotherapy, presents with a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting. On examination, he is tachycardic with a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg. Blood tests show a urea of 15 mmol/L and a creatinine of 180μmol/L. Results from a week earlier showed a urea of 4.0 mmol/L and a creatinine of 90μmol/L. All other blood tests and arterial blood gas results are within the normal range. What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

5951

A 55-year-old woman with metastatic pancreatic cancer attends the oncology clinic prior to her second cycle of chemotherapy. She tolerated her first cycle well, but her husband mentions that there have been occasions where she has been confused. Her urea and electrolytes on this occasion reveal a serum sodium of 116 mmol/L. All other results were within the normal range. The chemotherapy is delayed and a urine specimen is sent off. This confirms a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). The most appropriate treatment is:

5952

A 55-year-old woman with metastatic pancreatic cancer attends the oncology clinic prior to her second cycle of chemotherapy. She tolerated her first cycle well but her husband mentions that there have been occasions where she has been confused. Her urea and electrolyte blood tests reveal a serum sodium of 116 mmol/L. All other results were within the normal range. The chemotherapy is delayed and a urine specimen is sent off. This reveals a urine osmolality of 620 mmol/kg. The most likely cause of the hyponatraemia is:

5953

A 57-year-old man with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung is attending for cycle three of his palliative pemetrexed/cisplatin chemotherapy. During his cisplatin infusion, he noticed his arm becoming painful, swollen and red at the cannula site. The most likely cause of this is:

5954

A 64-year-old man presents to accident and emergency following a collapse. He describes a blackout, subsequently regaining consciousness when on the floor. He presently feels well and describes no other symptoms. However, he mentions that he has unintentionally lost some weight over the past few months. There is no past medical history. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 9 g/dL with a mean cell volume on 71 fL. The most appropriate next investigation of this patient is:

5955

A 58-year-old male with known small cell lung cancer presents to accident and emergency with a 5-day history of severe headache and recurrent vomiting. He has recently commenced chemotherapy for small cell carcinoma of the lung. On examination of the visual fields, there is a left inferior homonymous quadrantinopia. The most important diagnostic investigation is:

5956

A 48-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of metastatic cancer of unknown primary, including metastasis to the sacral and thoracic spine, is currently being treated for lower back pain with regular paracetamol, diclofenac and oral morphine solution. She is receiving additional oral morphine solution rescue doses for her breakthrough pain. On review of her drug chart, she has received 60 mg of oral morphine solution over the past 24 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate escalation for this patient’s pain management?

5957

A 51-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of pancreatic carcinoma with metastases to the liver and omentum is about to commence gemcitabine chemotherapy. Prior to his first cycle he mentions that he is getting increasing severe abdominal pains. He is currently taking paracetamol for this, which eases the pain but is now becoming less effective. The most appropriate analgesia for this patient is:

5958

A 39-year-old woman has undergone a wide local excision for a 0.5 cm ductal carcinoma of her right breast. Sentinel node biopsy, histology and staging scans have confirmed the disease as T1N0M0. Histology has confirmed the cancer as oestrogen and progesterone receptor positive. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding this female treatment options?

5959

A 68-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of increasing shortness of breath. He has noticed deterioration in his exercise tolerance, particularly while mowing the lawn. He has a past history of squamous cell carcinoma of the lung for which he finished radiotherapy treatment a year ago. On examination, there are fine inspiratory crackles in the right lung base. The most likely cause of his shortness of breath is:

5960

A 62-year-old electrician has presented to accident and emergency with a sudden decline in his exercise tolerance. He mentions that he can only walk 5 yards and that he has had a persistent cough with some haemoptysis over the previous month. A chest x-ray confirms a right-sided pleural effusion, which is then drained. A repeat x-ray shows a round shadow in the right perihilar region. Subsequent bronchoscopy and biopsy confirm small cell carcinoma. Which of the following statements is most true about small cell carcinomas of the lung?

5961

A 70-year-old man presents to his GP having noticed a slowly enlarging ‘spot’ on his left cheek. On examination, there is a well-circumscribed, skin-coloured nodular lesion on the left cheek with some overlying small blood vessels visible. The most likely diagnosis of this lesion is:

5962

A 60-year-old man has presented to the gastroenterology outpatient clinic with a four-month history of progressive dysphagia. The patient reports a weight loss of 9 kg in the same time period. He has suffered from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 10 years. At endoscopy, a 5 cm malignant stricture is seen at the lower end of the oesophagus and biopsies are taken. Histological analysis is most likely to reveal:

5963

A 22-year-old man with testicular cancer has undergone an inguinal orchidectomy. Histology has confirmed teratoma. A preoperative CT staging scan has shown involvement of the para-aortic lymph nodes. Which of the following treatments is the best post-operative option?

5964

A 57-year-old woman with adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon with liver metastasis is attending for cycle six of her palliative FOLFOX chemotherapy. Which tumour marker can be measured in the blood test to indicate the effect of the chemotherapy?

5965

A 74-year-old man with T2N0M0 squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is currently undergoing hyper-fractionated radiotherapy with curative intent. He has had no previous surgery. This type of therapy is best described by which of the following terms:

5966

A 50-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency complaining of excessive lethargy. In addition, she mentions that she has been constipated. On examination, there are clinical features of dehydration. Blood tests have revealed a corrected calcium of 3.3 mol/L. Her chest x-ray shows bilateral streaky shadowing throughout both lung fields. She is given 3 L of saline in 24 hours after admission. The following day her blood tests are repeated and her corrected calcium level is now 3.0 mmol/L. Results of parathyroid hormone levels and thyroid function tests are still awaited. What is the most appropriate management?

5967

A 50-year-old woman with T2N2M1 squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue has been electively admitted for her third cycle of palliative cisplatin/5-fluorouracil chemotherapy. She has known metastasis to the T3 vertebrae and the ribs. Since her last cycle of chemotherapy, she has been very lethargic and constipated. Upon checking her bloods, you discover that her corrected calcium levels are 2.95 mmol/L. The most appropriate treatment is:

5968

A 60-year-old man with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the lung, who has finished two cycles of palliative cisplatin/pemetrexed chemotherapy, presents with a 2-day history of fever and lethargy. On examination, he is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.8 degree C. What is the most appropriate next step?

5969

A 62-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer, including bone metastases, presents to accident and emergency with sudden onset back pain and difficulty walking. An urgent MRI of the spine confirms cord compression at the level of L1–L2. What is the most appropriate initial management?

5970

A 62-year-old woman presents to accident and emergency with a 1-day history of sudden onset back pain and difficulty walking. She has not opened her bowels or passed urine for the previous day. She has a past medical history of breast cancer, diagnosed two years earlier and staged as T2N1M0 disease with oestrogen receptor positive status. She has been treated for her cancer with a wide local excision and axillary node clearance, followed by radiotherapy, chemotherapy and tamoxifen. On examination, there is reduced tone in the lower limbs. Power is diminished throughout the lower limbs, but especially on hip flexion. There is reduced sensation below the L1 dermatome. What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation?

5971

A 20-year-old man with newly diagnosed non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and widespread mediastinal lymphadenopathy was about to commence high dose chemotherapy for his potentially curable disease. However, the day before his treatment was to start, he developed a cough, dyspnoea and headache. The chemotherapy was delayed as he is thought to have a chest infection and he is prescribed broad spectrum antibiotics with no effect. A repeat chest x-ray shows widening of the mediastinum, but is unchanged from previously. Over the next week he developed facial oedema, tachypnoea, cyanosis, hallucinations and prominent veins over his upper chest. What would be your investigation of choice to confirm the acute diagnosis?

5972

A 23-year-old obese woman presented to Casualty Department with a 4 day history of progressively worsening generalised headache associated with a buzzing in her ears. In the last few days she had noticed some blurring of her vision and reduction in her visual field. She had started to feel nauseated particularly early in the morning and on the morning of admission had vomited several times. She had a history of severe acne which was treated with long-term oral doxycycline and smoked 35 cigarettes a day. On examination she was orientated with a Glasgow coma scale of 15/15. Visual acuity was recorded as 6/18 in both eyes. There was reduction in temporal visual fields bilaterally and enlargement of the blind spot bilaterally. The rest of the neurological examination was entirely normal. The fundoscopic appearance is shown below: An MRI scan of the brain was normal. A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data: Opening pressure 33 cm H2O (6–18 cm H2O) CSF protein 0.42 g/L (0.15-0.45 g/L) CSF white cell count 2 cells per mL (less than 5 per mL) CSF red cell count 2 cells per mL (less than 5 per mL) CSF oligoclonal bands Negative Given the above clinical account, what is the likely cause for this patient visual disturbance?

5973

A 72-year-old male presents with a two-day history of pain in the lower thoracic region and that he has not passed urine for 12 hours. He has a 2-year history of prostate carcinoma for which he has been receiving LHRH analogue therapy. On examination, he is obviously in discomfort, appears dehydrated, has a pulse of 102 bpm irregular and a blood pressure of 108/72 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory examination are normal. On abdominal examination he has a palpable bladder. Examination of his legs reveals weakness of the with loss of tendon reflexes. Which of the following would be the most appropriate investigation for this man?

5974

An 87-year-old man, who was diagnosed with renal cell carcinoma 18 months previously, presented with a three-week history of back pain which he described as shooting in nature and which radiates down the back of both thighs. He lived alone and was having difficulty mobilising. His medication included paracetamol 1g qds, codeine phosphate 60mg qds, furosemide 40mg od and digoxin 125 mcg od. On examination he was tender over his T10 vertebra with a palpable bladder. Neurological examination reveals globally reduced powers of 4/5 in his legs with upgoing plantars and altered sensation below the level of his umbilicus. What would be the most important drug treatment to initiate?

5975

A 52-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of weight loss and diarrhoea. Over this period of time she had lost approximately 10 kg in weight and was aware of watery diarrhoea three to four times daily. She was also aware of occasional flushes which she had experienced since the menopause at the age of 49 but had become more frequent of late. She had previously been well with no other past medical history. She took no medication. She was a non-smoker and drank approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. On examination, she had a reddish complexion and had a BMI of 24 kg/m2. She had a pulse of 88 beats per minute regular and a blood pressure of 122/88 mmHg. There were no abnormalities on cardiovascular or respiratory examination but abdominal examination revealed two finger breadths hepatomegaly. Investigations revealed: Haemoglobin 14.5 g/dL (11.5-16.5) White blood cells 8.5 x109/L (4-11 x 109) Platelets 301 x109/L (150-400 x 109) Serum sodium 144 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 3.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)Serum creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110) Serum alkaline phosphatase 125 U/L (45-105) Serum alanine aminotransferase 40 U/L (5-35) Serum bilirubin 12 µmol/L (1-22) 24hr Urine 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) 100 mg/d (less than 5) Abdominal ultrasound scan showed numerous echo-dense deposits within the liver. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient diarrhoea?

5976

A 38-year-old man is referred with diarrhoea, dyspnoea and weight loss of approximately 6 months duration. Prior to this he had been quite fit and active. The patient is aware of up to 10 episodes of diarrhoea daily. It also transpires that he frequently has flushes during the day which may occur at any particular time and during these episodes he is frequently wheezy and breathless. During the consultation it is noted that his face goes particularly red. Examination reveals a pulse of 90 beats per minute regular, a blood pressure of 122/76 mmHg and saturations of 98 percent on air. His jugular venous pressure is elevated approximately 8 cm above the sternal angle and auscultation of the heart reveals a soft pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. He is noted to have 8cm hepatomegaly on abdominal examination. Investigations at this stage reveal:  Haemoglobin 14.9 g/dL (13.0-18.0) White cell count 9.1 x 109/L (4-11 x 109) Platelets 310 x 109/L (150-400 x109) Serum sodium 137 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 3.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 7.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 87 µmol/L (60-110)Serum glucose 4.0 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) Serum bilirubin 17 µmol/L (1-22) Serum ALP 720 U/L (45-105) Serum AST 50 U/L (1-31) Serum ALT 62 U/L (5-35) 24hr Urine HIAA 750 U/L (<250) Echocardiography reveals marked tricuspid regurgitation and mild pulmonary stenosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

5977

A 17-year-old boy with lymphoma is started on a course of cytotoxic chemotherapy. On the day following his first cycle of treatment he becomes unwell and the following results are obtained: Hb 8.9 g/dL (13.0-18.0) WBC 3.8 x109/L (4-11 x109) Platelets 150 x109/L (150-400 x109) APTT 30 seconds (30-40) PT 12 seconds (11.5-15.5) Sodium 145 mmol/L (137-144) Potassium 7.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Urea 62 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Creatinine 750 µmoL/L (60-110) Glucose 5.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) Bicarbonate 9.0 mmol/L (20-28) What prophylactic treatment would have prevented this complication?

5978

57-year-old man presented with deteriorating breathlessness over the last one year. He had received inhalers for the last 2 years prescribed by his GP which he has, up until the last 3 months used intermittently. He was also taking Ramipril 10mg od and Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily for a six-year history of hypertension. He stopped smoking 2 years previously and consumed approximately 14 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he was cyanosed and had a swollen face and dilated superficial veins over the anterior chest wall with fixed dilated neck veins. His blood pressure was 154/88 mmHg, pulse is 88 beats per minute. Heart sounds were normal. There was pitting oedema of the ankles. Respiratory examination revealed a hyperexpanded chest with scattered expiratory wheeze. Abdominal examination was normal. Investigations revealed: Haemoglobin 14.8 g/dL (13.0-18.0) White cell count 12.91x109/L (4-11x109) Platelets 488x109/L (150-400x109) Serum sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144) Serum urea 10.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum corrected calcium 2.81 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) The ECG was normal. Chest x-ray showed hyperexpanded lung fields with left paratracheal shadowing. A CT scan of the thorax showed an anterior mediastinal mass Which single investigation would be most helpful in making a diagnosis?

5979

A 32-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a fever five days after receiving a cycle of chemotherapy for lymphoma. On examination, he appeared unwell. He was febrile 39.5oC. Pulse 120 beats per minute, regular with Blood pressure 85/40 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal with no added sounds or murmurs. His chest was clear on auscultation and his abdomen was soft and non-tender. Investigations revealed: Haemoglobin 11.2 g/dL (13.0-18.0) White cell count 2.0 x109/L (4-11 x109) Neutrophils 0.2 x109/L (1.5-7x109) Lymphocytes 1.6x109/L (1.5-4x109) Monocytes 0.15x109/L (0-0.8x109) Eosinophils 0.04x109/L (0.04-0.4x109) Basophils 0.01x109/L (0-0.1x109) Platelets 151x109/L (150-400x109) What treatment should be started?

5980

After presenting with an upper gastrointestinal bleed and back pain, a 90-year-old lady was diagnosed with gastric cancer. Subsequent investigations revealed multiple bony metastases in the spine and metastases in the liver and lungs. She was discharged home on oramorph for pain relief, but was readmitted within 48 hours because of increased pain. One week after readmission she developed a productive cough with consolidation at the right base on the chest x-ray. Within a few hours her condition deteriorated rapidly, and she became drowsy with laboured breathing. What would be the most appropriate treatment to discuss with family?

5981

A 60-year-old man was referred to clinic complaining of a constant headache and unsteadiness of gait. The unsteadiness had been progressive over a period of several weeks and his wife had noticed his speech had become slurred. More recently he had felt nauseated and had had several episodes of vomiting. He denied any weight loss, but had developed a dry cough. He had a past medical history of hypertension treated with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg/day and epilepsy diagnosed at the age of nine years for which he was taking phenytoin 300mg/day. He was a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes per day and drank 12 units of alcohol per week. On examination he had a marked dysarthria. His blood pressure was 145/85 mmHg and pulse was 82 beats per minute and regular. Fundoscopy revealed bilateral papilledema. He had reduced visual acuity of 6/9 in both eyes. The rest of the cranial nerves were normal and there was no evidence of neck stiffness. On examination of the upper and lower limb, tone, power and reflexes all appeared normal; however, he exhibited a marked intension tremor bilaterally and walked with a broad-based ataxic gait. Chest examination revealed reduced air entry at the left base with a monophonic unilateral wheeze. Investigations showed: Haemoglobin 15.8 g/dL (NR 13.0 - 18.0 g/dL) White cell count 13.4 x109/L (NR 4-11 x 109/L) Platelets 425 x 109/L (NR 150-400 x 109/L) Serum sodium 135 mmol/L (NR 137-144 mmol/L) Serum potassium 3.6 mmol/L (NR 3.5-4.9 mmol/L) Serum urea 8.3 mmol/L (NR 2.5-7.5 mmol/L) Serum creatinine 138 µmol/L (NR 60-110) Serum corrected calcium 2.95 mmol/L (NR 2.2-2.6 mmol/L)Plasma glucose 4.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) C-reactive protein 10 mg/L (<10) A CT scan of his brain was performed. An image from this scan, following intravenous contrast, is shown below: What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

5982

A 60-year-old man was diagnosed last year with adenocarcinoma of the lung, and a 4 cm mass lesion was treated with a right lower lobectomy. He now has an abdominal CT scan that reveals scattered hepatic mass lesions and hilar lymphadenopathy. For several weeks, he has had increasing malaise. Urinalysis Protein +++ 24-hour urine protein 2.7 g/24hr Serum urea 30 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 450 µmol/L (60-110) A renal biopsy shows focal deposition of IgG and C3 with a granular pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?

5983

A 25-year-old male is referred with hypertension, agitation and sweats of approximately 6 months duration. He has no specific family history of note, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and drinks little alcohol. Medication prescribed by his GP for hypertension includes Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d and Ramipril 10mg per day. His blood pressure on examination was 176/94 mmHg and he have a BMI of 23.5 kg/m2. Further investigations showed: Urine free metadrenaline 12 µmol/24 hr (<5) Fasting plasma calcitonin 100 ng/L (0-11.5) MRI scan of the abdomen revealed a 3.5 cm mass in the right adrenal gland Based upon this information, what other diagnosis is likely to be associated with his condition?

5984

A 58-year-old man presents with weight loss and haemoptysis. He has smoked most of his life. On examination he is clubbed and has clinical evidence of right pleural effusion. His serum calcium is 3.2mM (2.2-2.6 mmol/L). A bone scan is normal. Which of the following histological type of lung cancer is he most likely to suffer from?

5985

A 67-year-old man, who was diagnosed with cancer of the prostate 18 months previously, presented with a four-week history of back pain which he described as shooting in nature and which radiated down the back of both thighs. He lived alone and was having difficulty mobilising. Current medication included paracetamol 1g qds, codeine phosphate 60mg qds, Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg od and atenolol 25mg od. On examination he was tender over his T10 vertebra with a palpable bladder. Neurological examination revealed globally reduced powers of 4/5 in his legs with upgoing plantars and altered sensation below the level of his umbilicus. Which would be the initial investigation of choice?

5986

A 20-year-old man was found to have iron deficiency anaemia when he went to donate blood. The Blood Transfusion Service contacted his General Practitioner, who referred the patient to the outpatient clinic for further investigation. Generally, the patient was very well. He had a good appetite; his weight was steady and he ate a normal diet. He had a normal bowel habit and had never passed any blood, mucus or diarrhoea in his stools. The patient denied knowledge of any overt blood loss from any other source. His general practitioner had organized an open access endoscopy which was normal, duodenal biopsies were unremarkable. He had a limited knowledge of his family history as his mother had died in childbirth and as a result, he was an only child. His father had died of what he thought was secondary liver and lung cancer but he was unsure. On general physical examination he was fit and athletic. The skin and mucosal membranes were unremarkable. Pulse 70 beats per minute and regular with a blood pressure of 132/78 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal and the chest was clear. His abdomen was soft and non-tender with no palpable masses or organs. Rectal examination was normal. On viewing the rectal mucosa through a rigid sigmoidoscope the colonic mucosa was covered in innumerable polyps. What specific genetic abnormality is responsible for this appearance?

5987

A 40-year-old woman was admitted to Casualty with generalised tonic-clonic seizures. Her flatmate, who accompanied her to hospital, reported that the patient had complained of headaches for several weeks. In the past week she had been vomiting several times per day and had become slightly confused and disorientated. She had worked as a tour guide for twenty years for a package holiday company and had recently returned from Australia, where she had been working for six months. There was no history of illness while she had been overseas, but had noticed slight weight loss, which he had attributed to increased sporting activity. She was a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day and drank 21 units of alcohol per week. There was no other past medical history of note and she was not taking any regular medication. On examination she appeared confused with a Glasgow coma scale of 13/15 (Motor 6 eyes 4 vocal 13). Her blood pressure was 135/67 mmHg, pulse was 78 beats per minute and regular with a temperature of 36.7C. There was mild neck stiffness and photophobia. She had enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, axilla and in the left inguinal region. There were two macular brown lesions on the left leg and over the abdomen. Fundoscopy was normal and pupillary responses were intact. The remainder of the cranial nerve examination was normal. On examination of the peripheral nervous system, tone and power were normal. Reflexes were bilaterally brisk and both plantar responses were extensor. Full examination of the chest and abdomen were normal. Investigations revealed:Haemoglobin 13.6 g/dL (NR 13.0-18.0 g/dL) White cell count 11 x 109/L (NR 4-11 x 109/L) Platelets 356 x 109/L (NR 150-400 x 109/L) C-reactive protein 8 mg/L (<10) Serum sodium 136 mmol/L (NR 137-144 mmol/L) Serum potassium 3.8 mmol/L (NR 3.5 - 4.9 mmol/L) Serum urea 7.8 mmol/L (NR 2.5-7.5 mmol/L) Serum creatinine 110 µmol/L (NR 60-110) Serum calcium 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) A CT scan of the brain was performed. A non-co

5988

This 60-year-old man presented to his General Practitioner with a three-month history of proximal muscle weakness. He was a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day for 40 years. What is the diagnosis?

5989

A 25-year-old woman undergoing treatment for promyelocytic (M3) leukaemia develops a high fever. Sepsis is suspected and she rapidly develops widespread ecchymoses and starts bleeding from venepuncture sites and mucous membranes. Which is the most specific laboratory test to confirm the diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

5990

This 70-year-old male is investigated for a six-month history of a 10kg weight loss and fatigue. On examination he appears pale and an abdominal mass is palpable. A CT is requested. What is the diagnosis?

5991

A 22-year-old lady was planning to emigrate to Australia and had a chest X-ray undertaken as part of her Visa requirements. This demonstrated bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy but clear lung fields. It was reported as being suspicious of Sarcoidosis. She was referred to the outpatient’s clinic. On systems review in outpatients a two-month history of arthralgia and a dry cough was elicited. She had no previous history of note but three months ago she had had unprotected intercourse and took an HIV test which was negative. She had no other symptoms. She lived in Zimbabwe until she was 16. She worked as a waitress. Which one investigation is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

5992

A 52-year-old Company Executive consulted his General Practitioner reporting some weight loss and slight increasing frequency of stool, up to three time a day over the past four months, having been a once a day man previously. He had severe flu one month previously and had been in bed for a week. He had felt his symptoms could be due to increased stress at work, but his GP had persuaded him to be referred to open access colonoscopy, although he had not attended his appointment. His only other history was of mild depression, and arthritis of his right knee, for which he took regular diclofenac. Over the previous two weeks he had noticed some ankle swelling, which was unusual for him, and he reported that his urine was more frothy than normal, although he described no haematuria. He felt that he had put a bit of weight back on, in that his stomach was filling out again. On examination, he was slightly pale, with evidence of pitting oedema to the upper calf. His armpits were slightly pigmented. His pulse was 90 and blood pressure 95/60. His JVP was not seen. His heart sounds were normal. His chest was dull to percussion at the bases bilaterally. His abdomen was mildly distended but non-tender. There was evidence of a 2 cm firm non-tender liver edge, and presence of shifting dullness. Investigations revealed: Haemoglobin 9.2 g/dL (13.0-18.0) MCV 66 fL (80-96) White cell count 4.5 x109/L (4-11 x109)Platelets 340 x109/L (150-400 x109) ESR 60 mm/1st hour (0-20) PT 12.3 secs (11.5-15.5) Serum sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 3.4 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 88 mol/L (60-110) Serum glucose 7.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) Serum calcium 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) Serum phosphate 1.3 mmol/L (0.8-1.4) Serum bilirubin 44 µmol/L (1-22) Alkaline phosphatase 132 U/L (45-105) Serum ALT 28 U/L (5-35) Serum AST 33 U/L (1-31) Albumin 21 g/L (37-49) CRP 9 mg/L (<10) Urinalysis: Blood–Protein +++ CXR: Bilateral pleural effusions Which of th

5993

A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. What antimicrobial prophylaxis should he receive before starting chemotherapy with fludarabine?

5994

A 42-year-old woman is treated with carboplatin and paclitaxel for stage III ovarian cancer. Computed tomography (CT) imaging after completing six cycles of therapy shows that the tumor burden has decreased by 25 percent. What is the best assessment of her response to therapy?

5995

A 68-year-old woman is diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. She has a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 32% predicted, coronary artery disease with prior stenting of the left anterior descending artery, peripheral vascular disease, and obesity. She continues to smoke one to two packs of cigarettes every day. She requires oxygen at 2 L/min continuously and is functionally quite limited. She currently is able to attend to all of her activities of daily living, including showering and dressing. She retired from her work as a waitress 10 years previously due to her lung disease. At home, she does perform some of the household chores but is not able to use a vacuum. She does go out once or twice weekly to run typical errands and does drive. She feels short of breath with most of these activities and often uses a motorized cart when out and about. How would you categorize her performance status and prognosis for treatment taking this into consideration?

5996

Among women younger than 60 who die from cancer, which of the following is the most common organ of origin?

5997

A 24-year-old woman is seen in follow-up 12 months after an allogeneic stem cell transplantation for acute myeloid leukemia. She is doing well without evidence of recurrent disease but has had manifestations of chronic graft-versus-host disease. She should be administered all of the following vaccines EXCEPT:

5998

A 63-year-old man is treated with paclitaxel and carboplatin chemotherapy for stage IIIB adenocarcinoma of the lung. He presents for evaluation of a fever to 38.3 degree C (100.9 degree F). He is found to have erythema at the exit site of his tunneled catheter, although the tunnel itself is not tender or red. Blood cultures are negative at 48 hours. His neutrophil count is 1550/μL. What is the best approach to the management of this patient?

5999

A 44-year-old woman has myelodysplastic syndrome and has undergone myeloablative allogeneic stem cell transplantation. She has been neutropenic for 10 days and has developed a fever to 39.5 degree C (103.1 degree F). She has had a Port-a-Cath inserted for her intravenous access for the past 6 months. Her catheter site does not appear inflamed, and she has never tested positive for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. What is the best initial choice of antibiotics for this patient?

6000

A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with a stage I malignant melanoma on his left upper arm. Which of the following represents the strongest risk factor(s) for the development of this disease?

6001

A 55-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a lesion on her leg that is 8 mm in largest diameter and irregular in shape. She reports this mole has become larger and darker and wants to have it evaluated. Biopsy confirms melanoma that extends 0.5 mm from the surface and into the dermis with <1 mitosis/mm. Which of the following factors has the greatest impact on the patient prognosis?

6002

A 46-year-old woman has previously had stage IIB melanoma removed from her upper back. She presents to the emergency department with dyspnea and is found to have multiple lung lesions concerning for metastatic disease. Prior to embarking upon chemotherapy for her disease, the presence of which genetic mutation is an indication for specific therapy?

6003

You confirm the patient in Question III-10 has the mutation of interest. Which of the following is
recommended?

6004

A 60-year-old man was seen in the Oncology clinic. He had recently been diagnosed as having a rectal adenocarcinoma after presenting with anaemia and rectal bleeding. He underwent a colectomy. The resected colon showed a carcinoma that had spread to the serosa but the resected margins were free from tumour and excised sample lymph nodes did not show any evidence of disease. What additional treatment, if any, is required?

6005

All of the following statements regarding nonmelanoma skin cancer are true EXCEPT:

6006

A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of a hoarse voice for 6 months. He smokes one pack of cigarettes daily and also drinks at least a six pack of beer daily. His physical examination reveals a thin man with a weak voice in no distress. No stridor is heard. The head and neck examination is normal. No cervical lymphadenopathy is present. He is referred to an otolaryngologist who discovers a laryngeal lesion during flexible laryngoscopy. Biopsy reveals squamous cell carcinoma. On imaging, the mass measures 2.8 cm. No suspicious lymphadenopathy is present on positron emission tomography (PET) imaging. What is the best choice of therapy in this patient?

6007

All of the following have been identified as risk factors for the development of head and neck cancers EXCEPT:

6008

Which of the following statements regarding a solitary pulmonary nodule is true?

6009

A 64-year-old man seeks evaluation for a solitary pulmonary nodule that was found incidentally. He had presented to the emergency department for shortness of breath and chest pain. A CT pulmonary angiogram did not show any evidence of pulmonary embolism; however, a 9-mm nodule is seen in the periphery of the left lower lobe. No enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes are present. He is a current smoker of two packs of cigarettes daily and has done so since the age of 16. He generally reports no functional limitation related to respiratory symptoms. His FEV1 is 88% predicted, forced vital capacity is 92% predicted, and diffusion capacity is 80% predicted. He previously had a normal chest x-ray 3 years previously. What is the next best step in the evaluation and treatment of this patient?

6010

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of a droopy right eye and blurred vision for the past day. The symptoms started abruptly, and he denies any antecedent illness. For the past 4 months, he has been complaining of increasing pain in his right arm and shoulder. His primary care physician has treated him for shoulder bursitis without relief. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension. He smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. He has chronic daily sputum production and stable dyspnea on exertion. On physical examination, he has right eye ptosis with unequal pupils. His pupil is 2 mm on the right and not reactive, whereas the pupil is 4 mm and reactive on the left. However, his ocular movements appear intact. His lung fields are clear to auscultation. On extremity examination, there is wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Which of the following would be most likely to explain the patient’s constellation of symptoms?

6011

As an oncologist, you are considering treatment options for your patients with lung cancer, including small-molecule therapy targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). Which of the following patients is most likely to have an EGFR mutation?

6012

You are meeting today with Mr. Takei to discuss his recent diagnosis of small-cell lung cancer (SCLC). On reviewing his PET/CT results from earlier today, you note that he has a mass in the hilarregion of his left lung and that he has a moderate pleural effusion there. You know that he underwent thoracentesis of that effusion last week, and so you call the pathologist to get a cytopathology report. He reports the presence of hyperchromic, small basophilic atypical cells in the pleural fluid, consistent with SCLC. Which of the following statements is true?

6013

Which of the following statements regarding screening for lung cancer in the National Lung Screening Trial using low-dose CT scanning is true?

6014

A 34-year-old woman is seen by her internist for evaluation of right breast mass. This was noted approximately 1 week ago when she was showering. She has not had any nipple discharge or discomfort. She has no other medical problems. On examination, her right breast has a soft 1 cm × 2 cm mass in the right upper quadrant. There is no axillary lymphadenopathy present. The contralateral breast is normal. The breast is reexamined in 3 weeks, and the same findings are present. The cyst is aspirated, and clear fluid is removed. The mass is no longer palpable. Which of the following statements is true?

6015

Which of the following women has the lowest risk of breast cancer?

6016

Which of the following history or physical examination findings should prompt investigation for hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer screening in a 32-year-old man?

6017

A 64-year-old woman presents with complaints of a change in stool caliber for the past 2 months. The stools now have a diameter of only the size of her fifth digit. Over this same period, she feels she has to exert increasing strain to have a bowel movement and sometimes has associated abdominalcramping. She often has blood on the toilet paper when she wipes. During this time, she has lost about 20 lb with a decreased appetite. On physical examination, the patient appears cachectic with a body mass index of 22.5 kg/m2. The abdomen is flat and nontender. The liver span is 12 cm to percussion. On digital rectal examination, a mass lesion is palpated approximately 6 cm into the rectum. A colonoscopy is attempted, which demonstrates a 2.5-cm sessile mass that narrows the distal colonic lumen. The biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. The colonoscope is not able to traverse the mass. A CT scan of the abdomen does not show evidence of metastatic disease. Liver function tests are normal. A carcinoembryonic antigen level is 4.2 ng/mL. The patient is referred for surgery and undergoes rectosigmoidectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection. Final pathology demonstrates extension of the primary tumor into the muscularis propria, but not the serosa. Of 15 lymph nodes removed, 2 are positive for tumor. What do you recommend for this patient following surgery?

6018

A 56-year-old man presents to a physician with weight loss and dysphagia. He feels that food gets stuck in his mid-chest such that he no longer is able to eat meats. He reports his diet consists primarily of soft foods and liquids. The symptoms have progressively worsened over 6 months. During this time, he has lost about 50 lb. He occasionally gets pain in his mid-chest that radiates to his back and also occasionally feels that he regurgitates undigested foods. He does not have a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. He does not regularly seek medical care. He is known to have hypertension but takes no medications. He drinks 500 mL or more of whiskey daily and also smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes per day. On physical examination, the patient appears cachectic with temporal wasting. He has a body mass index of 19.4 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 198/110 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, temperature is 37.4 degree C (99.2 degree F), and oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. His pulmonary examination shows decreased breath sounds at the apices with scattered expiratory wheezes. His cardiovascular examination demonstrates an S4 gallop with a hyperdynamic precordium. A regular tachycardia is present. Blood pressures are equal in both arms. Liver span is not enlarged. There are no palpable abdominal masses. What is the most likely cause of the patient presentation?

6019

Which of the following risk factors is associated with both adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?

6020

All of the following conditions are known to increase the risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT:

6021

A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis due to prior hepatitis C infection is brought to the clinic by his family due to complaints of 1 month of worsening malaise, abdominal bloating, and nausea with 1 week of right upper quadrant pain. His physical examination is notable for normal vital signs (baseline low blood pressure) and new hepatomegaly. Which of the following statements is true regarding the possibility of hepatocellular carcinoma?

6022

The patient described in Question III-28 is found to have a 4-cm single hepatocellular carcinoma lesion. His performance status is excellent despite his recent decline. He still works as a web designer and walks over 10,000 steps daily. Based on this information, he may be eligible for all of the following therapies EXCEPT:

6023

All of the following statements regarding cholangiocarcinoma are true EXCEPT:

6024

All of the following statements regarding pancreatic cancer are true EXCEPT:

6025

A 65-year-old man is evaluated in clinic for 1 month of progressive painless jaundice and a 10-lb unintentional weight loss. His physical examination is unremarkable. A dual-phase contrast CT shows a suspicious mass in the head of the pancreas with biliary ductal dilation. Which of the following is the best diagnostic test to evaluate for suspected pancreatic cancer?

6026

A 63-year-old man presents to his internist with 3 months of worsening painless jaundice and anorexia. Further evaluation reveals a 1.5-cm obstructing lesion in the head of the pancreas that is confirmed as pancreatic adenocarcinoma by endoscopic ultrasound biopsy. The patient undergoes a modified Whipple procedure and is found to have a 1.6-cm primary tumor with no microscopicresidual disease and negative lymph nodes. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is true?

6027

A 63-year-old man complains of notable pink-tinged urine for the last month. At first he thought it was due to eating beets, but it has not cleared. His medical history is notable for hypertension and cigarette smoking. He does report some worsening urinary frequency and hesitancy over the last 2 years. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis is notable for gross hematuria with no white cells or casts. Renal function is normal. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is true?

6028

A 68-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of 2 months of increasing right flank pain with 1 month of worsening hematuria. He was treated for cystitis at a walk-in clinic 3 weeks ago with no improvement. He also reports poor appetite and 5-lb weight loss. His physical examination is notable for a palpable mass in the right flank measuring >5 cm. His renal function is normal. All of the following are true about this patient likely diagnosis EXCEPT:

6029

In the patient described in previous question, imaging shows a 10-cm solid mass in the right kidney and multiple nodules in the lungs consistent with metastatic disease. Needle biopsy of a lung lesion confirms the diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma. Which of the following is recommended therapy?

6030

Which of the following has been shown in randomized trials to reduce the future risk of pancreatic cancer?

6031

A 54-year-old man is evaluated in an executive health program. On physical examination, he is noted to have an enlarged prostate with a right lobe nodule. He does not recall his last digital rectal examination and has never had prostate-specific antigen (PSA) tested. Based on this evaluation,which of the following is recommended next?

6032

Which of the following statements regarding use of PSA is true?

6033

All of the following medications may be useful in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy EXCEPT:

6034

A 26-year-old man presents with pain and swelling of his right testicle that has persisted after an empiric treatment for epididymitis. Ultrasound confirms a 1.5 × 2 cm solid mass, suspicious for testicular cancer. Radical inguinal orchiectomy confirms the mass as a seminoma with disease limited to the testis (tumor stage pT1). Chest, abdomen, and pelvis CT shows no evidence of metastatic disease or lymphadenopathy. Results of serum tumor markers demonstrate the following (normal values in parentheses): alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) 5 ng/mL (<10 ng/mL), beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) 182 U/L (0.2–0.8 U/L), and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 432 U/L (100–190 U/L). Following resection, all tumor markers become undetectable after an appropriate interval. Which is the next best step in this patient treatment?

6035

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between testicular tumors and serum markers?

6036

All of the following statements regarding the risk of ovarian cancer are true EXCEPT:

6037

A 42-year-old woman seeks evaluation for over 6 months of postcoital bleeding without dyspareunia. She also notes some recent spotting between her regular menses. She has no past medical history, is unmarried with multiple sexual partners and practicing unprotected sex, and works as an accountant. She has not sought gynecologic evaluation for over 10 years. Pelvic examination reveals an abnormal appearance of the cervix with an abnormal Pap smear, positive human papillomavirus (HPV) test, and negative human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis studies. A cervical biopsy shows squamous cell carcinoma confined to the cervix. All of the following statements regarding this woman’s condition are true EXCEPT:

6038

Which of the following statements regarding the presentation and evaluation of suspected brain malignancy is true?

6039

A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a minor motorcycle collision complaining of diffuse chest pain. Her chest radiograph shows multiple 2- to 4-cm nodules and masses without cavitation in all lobes. Her physical examination is totally normal other than some diffuse chest. She has no past medical history and takes no medications, other than a multivitamin. She exercises regularly and had a negative colonoscopy and mammogram within the last 2 years. She works as a librarian and rides motorcycles for recreation. There is no history of cigarette or illicit drug use. Abdominal, pelvic, and head imaging shows no likely primary lesions. A bronchoscopic biopsy of a lung lesion is performed and shows histology consistent with moderately welldifferentiated adenocarcinoma. There were no airway abnormalities. Her FDG-PET scan shows no lesions other than those in the lung, and repeat colonoscopy and mammography are normal. All of the following statements regarding her carcinoma are true EXCEPT:

6040

A 63-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her nephew because of severeconfusion and obtundation. Her vital signs are normal, and there are no focal physical findings. She is found to have hypercalcemia with a serum level of 14.8 mg/dL, along with minimal elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Initial evaluation reveals a chest radiograph with multiple nodules suggestive of metastatic disease. Unfortunately, the nephew does not know anything about his aunt medical history. He reports that she was in town attending a healing yoga conference. Subsequent laboratory testing reveals a normal parathyroid hormone level and an elevated parathyroid hormone–related protein level. All of the following are a likely primary malignancy in this woman EXCEPT:

6041

The patient described in above question should receive treatment with all of the following for her hypercalcemia EXCEPT:

6042

A 65-year-old woman with a 40 pack-year smoking history had intermittent hematuria for 1 year. Her urine cytology was initially negative, and over the past 6 months, urine cytology was positive. Cystoscopy by urology revealed a fungating mass. Biopsy was positive for urothelial cancer, but deep muscle was not present. Physical examination revealed obesity and hypertension, no jaundice, and no hepatosplenomegaly. Labs revealed anemia with hemoglobin of 10.6 g/dL and creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

6043

A previously healthy 46-year-old man presents for a consultation after removal of colonic mass. He underwent laparoscopic right hemicolectomy 3 weeks ago when he presented with intussusception, and has now fully recovered from the surgery. Pre-operative CT scan had shown a 5-cm mass in the cecum with an adjacent 3-cm pericolic lymph node. The pathology report describes a high-grade lymphoma with medium-size and highly monomorphic cells which was 100% positive for Ki-67, and positive for CD20, CD10, and BCL6. Additional fluorescence in situ hybridization tests are positive for MYC-IGH fusion, and negative for IGH-BCL2 fusion or BCL6 rearrangement. Complete blood count, lactate dehydrogenase, renal function, and HIV serology are normal. A combined PET-CT scan and bone marrow biopsy show no evidence of lymphoma. What is the most appropriate treatment plan for this patient?

6044

A 79-year-old woman with newly diagnosed non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) comes to see you for consultation. She has a history of hypertension and lives independently. Imaging revealed bilateral pulmonary nodules. Transthoracic biopsy demonstrates squamous carcinoma. PD-L1 is 10%. She was found to have a 1-cm central nervous system metastases for which she has undergone stereotactic radiosurgery. Her performance status (PS) is 0. What is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?

6045

A 60-year-old man was recently diagnosed with Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC) by punch biopsy on his right shoulder. Subsequent local wide excision showed the lesion to be 3 cm in diameter, with MCC also found in the sentinel lymph node. Subsequent completion lymph node dissection revealed three more involved lymph nodes, one of them with extracapsular extension. He is in good health and does not have any history of autoimmune disease, but admits to ongoing sun exposure. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

6046

The knee joint is of what type:

6047

All the muscles are supplied by radial nerve below the spiral groove except:

6048

The dermatome of thumb is:

6049

The axillary artery is divided into three parts by:

6050

Which one is not a carpal bone?

6051

The circumflex nerve is:

6052

The opening in central tendon of diaphragm transmits:

6053

Which bronchopulmonary segment is absent in left lung?

6054

The upper part of crista terminalis contains:

6055

The coronary dominance is determined by:

6056

The membranatectoria is derived from:

6057

Pesanserinus includes following muscle except:

6058

The coronary ligament of knee is situated between:

6059

Sensory innervations of deep peroneal nerve is:

6060

Trendelenburg test is positive due to injury to the nerve:

6061

The medial border of femoral triangle is formedby:

6062

The dermatome of perianal skin is:

6063

The root valve of Obturator nerve:

6064

The posterior wall of rectus sheath below the level of anterior superior iliac spine is formed by

6065

Which of the following is associated with external oblique muscle

6066

Left ovarian vein grain into

6067

Nerve of laterjet of vagus is seen in

6068

The caudate lobe of liver is present in which sector

6069

Space of Disse is seen in

6070

The long axis of spleen corresponds to which rib

6071

How many segments are in kidney

6072

The foramen ovale transmit all except

6073

Scaphocephaly is an early closer of

6074

All of the following are pneumatic bones except

6075

The skin at angle of jaw is supplied by

6076

Which suprahyoid muscle is supplied by both facial nerve and mandibular nerve

6077

The common carotid artery divides at the level of

6078

Taste from circumvallate papillae of tongue goes through

6079

The Killian dehiscence is in

6080

The safety muscle of larynx is

6081

How many anterior ethmoidal air sinuses are

6082

The little area is

6083

Muscle which opens mouth is

6084

Thymus develops from

6085

All of these arises from neuroepithelial cells except

6086

Caudal neuropore closes at day

6087

Myelination in optic nerve (Second Cranial Nerve) is done by

6088

Red nucleus is situated at the level of

6089

Not a somatic efferent nerve

6090

Nucleus cuneatus and gracilis are present in

6091

Taste pathway comes under the neural column

6092

The cervical Enlargement in spinal cord presents at which spinal segment

6093

General visceral efferent fibers do not supply

6094

The nerves carrying parasympathetic fibers are

6095

Crocodile tear syndrome is because of which nerve lesion

6096

Identify the image below?

6097

Assertion A: MTP is not allowed after 20 weeks of pregnancy. Reason R: Foetal parts become big after 20 weeks of pregnancy. Codes:

6098

Most common cause of abortion:

6099

Young female H/o abortion and secondary amenorrhea since then. FSH 6 IU/L cause?

6100

A 24 years old G,P,Ac had last menstrual period 9 weeks ago. She presents with bleeding and passage of tissues pervaginum. Bleeding is associated with lower abdominal pain. The most likely diagnosis is:

6101

A 25 years old female reports in the casualty with history of amenorrhoea for two and half months and abdominal pain and bleeding per vaginum for one day. On examination, vital parameters and other systems are normal. On speculum examination, bleeding is found to come from Os. On bimanual examination, uterus is of 10 weeks size, soft and os admits on finger. The most likely diagnosis is:

6102

All of the following methods are used for MTP in 2nd trimester except:

6103

Menstrual regulation is done up to:

6104

Treatment of Choice of Asherman syndrome is:

6105

Causes of 1st trimester abortion are all except:

6106

A 25 years old female reports in the casualty with history of amenorrhoea for two and half months and abdominal pain and bleeding per vaginum for one day. On examination, vital parameters and other systems are normal. On speculum examination, bleeding is found to come from Os. On bimanual examination, uterus is of 10 weeks size, soft and os admits on finger. The most likely diagnosis is:

6107

All of the following methods are used for MTP in 2nd trimester except:

6108

Menstrual regulation is done up to:

6109

Ulipristal acetate is a/an:

6110

Which of the following is correct for the calculation of pearl index:

6111

Use of oral contraceptive decreases the incidence of all of the following except:

6112

Characteristic of an ideal candidate for copper-T insertion include all of the following except:

6113

All of these can be used for postcoital contraception except:

6114

Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma:

6115

Ulipristal acetate is a/an:

6116

All of these can be used of postcoital contraceptive except:

6117

The most common side effect of IUCD insertion is:

6118

Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:

6119

Minimum no of ANC visits according to WHO?

6120

Quadraple test includes all except?

6121

Identify the maneuver:

6122

Which of the statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO?

6123

Anatomical sphincter of fallopian tubes?

6124

All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:

6125

Absolute contraindication of hormone replacement therapy is:

6126

According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristic of normal semen analysis?

6127

At full term pregnancy all of the following parameters are raised except:

6128

Identify the image. What is the cut off for normal NT?

6129

The engaging diameter in deflexed head is:

6130

Minimum no of anc visits according to WHO?

6131

Which of the following congenital malformation can be diagnosed in the first trimester:

6132

23 years old primigravida presents to you at fourteen weeks of gestation. She is concerned about normality of fetus. At what time you will advice her detailed fetal anomaly scan:

6133

Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:

6134

Acetyl cholinesterase enzyme in amniotic fluid is diagnostic of

6135

Preconceptional intake of which of the following results in decrease in incidence of neural tube defect:

6136

What is the name of the manoeuvre given in the Image below?

6137

True about partograph is all except

6138

The following CTG indicates:

6139

What is the rate of cervical dilatation in active phase first stage of labour in primigravida?

6140

AMTSL includes all except?

6141

The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:

6142

What is the diameter of fetal skull that presents at vulva during normal labour:

6143

After the delivery of fetus, placenta should be removed by:

6144

A primigravida is in second stage of labour for the past two hours. Fetal head is at +1 station. Inspite of effective uterine contractions, mother is unable to push as she is exhausted. What will be the next step in her management:

6145

Maximum normal time for second stage of labour in primigravida without anaesthesia is about:

6146

Crowning is best defined as:

6147

Plane of least pelvic dimension extends from:

6148

Engagement of foetal head is with reference to:

6149

True labour differs from false labour by all except:

6150

Pain in early labour is limited to dermatomes:

6151

Name the presentation:

6152

Normal auscultatory finding in pregnancy?

6153

A: Pregnancy favours monilial vaginitis R: Vaginal pH decreases during pregnancy

6154

A 24 years old primigravida wt–57kg, Hb 11.0gm percent visits an antenatal clinic during 2nd trimester of pregnancy seeking advice on dietary intake. She should be advised:

6155

Gold standard test for measuring Beta HCG levels in serum is:

6156

Organogenesis is complete at:

6157

A pregnancy woman in 3rd trimester has normal body pressure when standing and sitting. When supine, BP drops to 90/50. What is the diagnosis?

6158

Pregnant women is most likely to develop CHF:

6159

All are risk factors for vaginal candidiasis except:

6160

A lady presented with creamy white vaginal discharge with fishy odor, drug of choice is:

6161

Moschowitz repair is done for:

6162

Strawberry Vagina is seen in

6163

Female comes with thick white discharge and pruritus. Causative agent is:

6164

Which of the following condition is most likely to be associated with vaginal Ph of 4?

6165

Clue cells are seen in:

6166

A patient with discharge per vagina was evaluated and on endocervical biopsy Chlamydia was found Treatment to be given. In this ease is:

6167

Strawberry vagina is seen in:

6168

A 40 years old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination The diagnosis of bacterial vagmosis was nude based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except

6169

Which of the following condition is most likely to be associated with vaginal Ph of 4?

6170

Clue cells are seen in:

6171

A patient with discharge per vagina was evaluated and on endocervical biopsy Chlamydia was found Treatment to be given. In this ease is:

6172

Strawberry vagina is seen in:

6173

A 40 years old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervix on the speculum examination The diagnosis of bacterial vagmosis was nude based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except

6174

Which of the following is not a risk factor for CA cervix?

6175

All are clinical features of PID except

6176

45 years old female complains of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On examination, there is cervicitis along with a mucopurulant cervical discharge. The Gram smear of the discharge shows presence of abundant pus cells but no bacteria The best approach to isolate the possible causative agent would be

6177

1st site to be affected in genital TB is:

6178

In pregnancy, which type of anemia is not common in India?

6179

A multigravida 32 years old female presents at 30 weeks of pregnancy for routine examination. She has history of type-2 Diabetes Mellitus, Hypercholesteremia and hypertension and has a 5back years smoking history. She is Rh positive and of husband Rh status is unknown. USG shows AF I 27cm. Modification of which of the following would most likely have helped to prevent this condition:

6180

Complication of diabetes in pregnancy includes all except:

6181

A G2 P1+0+0 diabetic mother present at 32 weeks pregnancy, there is history of full term fetal demise in last pregnancy. Her vitals are stable, sugar is controlled and fetus is stable. Which among the following will be the most appropriate management?

6182

Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:

6183

All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:

6184

Diabetic control is important before conception to reduce the incidence of:

6185

Normal pregnancy can be continued in

6186

Patient with MR on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin, when should it be shifted from warfarin to heparin?

6187

A 30 years old woman with coarctation of aorta is admitted to the labour room for elective caesarian section. Which of the following is the anaesthesia technique of choice:

6188

Most common heart disease associated with pregnancy is:

6189

What is the drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls?

6190

Hepatitis infection that is fulminant in in pregnancy

6191

A 45 year old patient presented with complaints of pain in abdomen and menorrhagia. Endometrial biopsy was normal and sonogram of uterus showed diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal mass. What is the diagnosis?

6192

If a patient comes with complaints of post dated pregnancy what is the first thing that you will do:

6193

All are tocolytics except:

6194

Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:

6195

On TVS which of the following shape of cervix indicates preterm labour:

6196

Clomiphene citrate is:

6197

Side effect of clomiphene citrate includes all except:

6198

All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in menopausal women except:

6199

HRT is helpful in all of the following except:

6200

Absolute contraindication of hormone replacement therapy is:

6201

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia (DUB) underwent hysterectomy. Shewishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X–ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

6202

Absolute contraindication of hormone replacement therapy is:

6203

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

6204

A 49 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia (DUB) underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X-ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

6205

Basanti Devi 45years old female presents with of flushes after stopping of menstruation. Hot Flush can be relieved by administration of following agents:

6206

Ventouse extraction is associated with advantage over forceps in?

6207

A G2P1 with previous cesarean section due to obstructed labour comes for first antenatal visit at 34 weeks of gestation. She is seeking advice for home delivery this time. What will be the most dangerous complication in her case if we allow her to deliver at home by untrained birth attendent:

6208

The pathological retraction ring of Bandle is associated with:

6209

Ventouse in 2nd stage of labour is contraindicated in:

6210

Contraindication of Vacuum extraction:

6211

Indication of classical caesarean section:

6212

What is the first sign of puberty in a girl:

6213

Which of the following is responsible for pubertal growth in females:

6214

A 16 years old girl with it 58 inches present with primary amenorrhea and rising FSH. The histological finding most consistent with her condition is:

6215

In Testicular Feminization syndrome Gonadectomy is indicated:

6216

A 45 year old lady presented with dysfunctional uterine bleeding. On transvaginal USG thickness of endometrium was found to be 8 mm. What should be the next step in the management of this patient:

6217

Young female H/o abortion and secondary amenorrhea since then. FSH 6 IU/L cause?

6218

A patient with amenorrhea had bleeding after giving a trial of progesterone. This implies all of the above except:

6219

A 20 year average weight female presented with oligomenorrhea and abnormal facial hair growth along with high serum free testosterone level. On USG the ovaries are normal. The diagnosis:

6220

What is the drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls?

6221

A 45 years old lady presented with dysfunction uterine bleeding. On transvaginal USG thickness of endometrium was found to be 8 mm. What should be the next step in the management of this patient?

6222

A 13 years old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain in the lower abdomen. She has history of cyclical pain for last 6 months and she has not attained her menarche yet. On local genital examination, a tense bulge in the region of hymen was seen. The most probable diagnosis is:

6223

Which of these is seen in Asherman syndrome?

6224

The commonest cause of primary ammenorrhoea is:

6225

Which of the following is the most common extrauterine site to be affected by endometriosis?

6226

Which of the following is the most common extrauterine site to be affected by endometriosis?

6227

Treatment of simple endometrial hyperplasia with atypia in 55 year old female?

6228

Which of the following is not seen with corpus cancer syndrome in cancer endometrium?

6229

Consider the following conditions

6230

Anti D immunoglobulin must be given to a mother of O negative group with a bay of of O positive within:

6231

Most common symptom of endometriosis is:

6232

Most common site of endometriosis:

6233

A 29 years old nulliparous woman complains of severe menorrhagia and lower abdomen pain since 3 months. On examination there was a 14 weeks size uterus with fundal fibroid. The treatment of choice is:

6234

A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

6235

A 45 year old patient presented with complaints of pain in abdomen and menorrhagia. Endometrial biopsy was normal and sonogram of uterus showed diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal mass. What is the diagnosis?

6236

A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

6237

A 20-year average weight female presented with oligomenorrhea and abnormal facial hair growth along with high serum free testosterone level. On USG the ovaries are normal. The diagnosis:

6238

A 22 years old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obes and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face. Serum LH level is 36 mIU/mL and FSH is 9 mIU/mL. Androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum DHEAS is normal. The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of her condition?

6239

All are true about polycystic ovarian disease except:

6240

A 22 years old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face. Serum LH level is 36 mlU/ mL and FSH is 9 mlU/mL.androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum Dheas is normal. The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

6241

A 16 years old girl presents with rapid onset hirsutism and amenorrhea. Best investigation is:

6242

Which of the following is most likely diagnosis in 27yr old obese female presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility, hirsuitism

6243

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease?

6244

A 29 years old lady, Rani, is suspected to have polycystic ovarian disease. Sample for testing LH and FSH are best taken on the following days of menstrual cycle:

6245

Rani a 21 years old girl presents with history of rapidly developing hirsutism and amenorrhea. To establish the diagnosis you would like to proceed with which of the following tests in blood:

6246

A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites, the probable cause is:

6247

An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next step in treatment is:

6248

According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristic of normal semen analysis:

6249

A couple complains of primary infertility inspite of staying together for 4 years and having unprotected intercourse, all tests in wife are normal. Semen analysis shows a volume of 0.8mL/sperm count is 0, fructose is absent what is done next:

6250

A 35 years old female presents with infertility and palpable pelvic mass. Her CA-125 level is 90mIU/mL, diagnosis is:

6251

Lady with infertility with bilateral tubal block at cornua; next step of management is:

6252

Semen analysis of a male of an infertile couple shows absence of spernatozoa but presence of fructose. The most probable diagnosis is:

6253

A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominalpain and distension with ascites, the probable cause is:

6254

Consider the following statements:

6255

An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next step in treatment is:

6256

A male with azoospermia. On examination size of testis normal, FSH normal testosterone normal. Most probable cause is:

6257

What is the most likely cause for beaded appearance on fallopian tubes with clubbed ends of fimbriae on HSG?

6258

A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and tension with ascites, the probable cause is:

6259

A 35 years old woman presents with infertility and palpable pelvic mass. Her CA 125 level is 90 mlU/mL, diagnosis is:

6260

Fallopian tube dysmotility is seen:

6261

Which of the following methods for assessment of female infertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict timing of ovulation:

6262

Best indicator of ovarian reserve is:

6263

The most common cause of tubal block in India is:

6264

Aspermia is the term used to describe:

6265

Oligospermia is defined as a sperm count less than:

6266

In IVF, the embryos are usually transferred back to the uterine cavity on ____ after oocyte retrieval:

6267

Implantation of blastocyst is uterine cavity is completed by:

6268

A young female was worked up for examined for infertility by HSG reveals Bead Like fallopian tube and Clubbing of Ampulla. Which of the following is most likely?

6269

WHO definition of normal sperm count:

6270

Absolute contraindication of HSG:

6271

A 35-year-old lady with post coital bleeding management is:

6272

Management of stage 1b3 Ca cervix?

6273

Which of the statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO?

6274

Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma:

6275

A female 35 years P3L3 with CIN III on colposcopic biopsy, what would you do?

6276

A 55 years old woman found to have Ca cervix, FOGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management?

6277

A 45 years old female presents with post coital bleeding. On per speculum examination a friable mass is found in cervix. Next step in management is:

6278

Sentinel biopsy most effective in:

6279

All of the following investigations are used in FIGO staging of carcinoma cervix except:

6280

A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for stage Ibca cervix. It was found that cancer extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix, next step management will be: 

6281

Commonest cause of post-menopausal bleeding in India is:

6282

A 55 years old woman was founjd to have Ca cervix FIGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management:

6283

All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma except:

6284

Which of the following is the most common pure malignant germ cell tumour of the ovary:

6285

In a suspected case of ovarian cancer, imaging work up is required for all of the following except:

6286

Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage I A grade I is:

6287

The following are indications for postoperative radiotherapy in a case of carcinoma endometrium except:

6288

A lady presented with carcinoma endometrium involving greater than 50 percent of myometrium extending to vagina and positive peritoneal cytology but no involvement of paraaortic and preaortic nodes. What is the stage of disease?

6289

Which of the following is not seen with corpus cancer syndrome in cancer endometrium?

6290

Commonest cause of post-menopausal bleeding in India is:

6291

Which of the following strategy has been recommended to reduce the heredity risk for ovariancancer in women with BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 mutations:

6292

Most common malignant ovarian Tm in young age group:

6293

A 25-year-old married nullipara undergoes laparoscopic cystectomy for ovarian cyst which onhistopathological examination reveals ovarian serous cystadenoma. What should be the next management?

6294

Smt. Pushpa is a suspected case of ovarian tumors. On laparotomy bilaterally enlarged ovaries with smooth surface was seen:

6295

A 20 years female presents with a ovarian mass 6×6×6 cm in size. Ultrasonography reveals solid structures in the mass. Her serum biomarkers such as AFP, f-hCG and CA 125 are normal, however, her serum alkaline phosphatase was found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

6296

Laparotomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascites positive for malignant cells and positive pelvic lymph nodes. All other structures were free of disease. What is the stage:

6297

Sentinal lymph node biopsy most useful in?

6298

A lady with abdominal mass was investigated. On surgery, she was found to have bilateral ovarian masses with smooth surface. On microscopy the revealed mucin secretin cells with signet ring shapes. Diagnosis?

6299

Marker for granulosa cell tumor:

6300

A 20 years old female presents with a ovarian mass 6x6x6 cm in size. Ultrasonography reveals solid structures in the mass. Her serum biomarkers such as AFP. hCG and CA 125 are normal, however her serum alkaline phosphatase was found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

6301

All of the following are used for screening cancers in females except:

6302

A patient presenting with an adnexal mass was operated and the following tumour was removed. What is the likely diagnosis?

6303

The psudomyxomaperitonei occurs as a complication of the following ovarian tumour:

6304

All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma except:

6305

Carbohydrate Antigen-125 is a marker of

6306

A 26 years old female presented with mild pain in lower abdomen. She has had 2 full term normal delivery earlier. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks back. On pelvic examination, youfind a palpable mass in the ednexa. On USG pelvis, you find a 5 cm ovarian cyst. What should be your next step?

6307

A 36 year old female, with two alive children complains of dysmennorhea and dyspareunia. TVS shows a thin walled cyst 4cm x 5cm with ecogenicfliud and no solid areas in right ovary. She dosent wish to concieve. Whichnis first line management?

6308

True about complete hydatidiform mole are all except:

6309

Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:

6310

Treatment of lutein cyst in hydatiform mole is:

6311

Mayer Rokitansly Kuster Hauser syndrome consists of:

6312

Identify the image:

6313

A 19-year old patient complains of primary amenorrhea. She had developed breast and absent pubic hair and axillary hair but on examination there was absence of uterus and vagina. Likely diagnosis is:

6314

Most common cause of ambigious genitalia in a female child is:

6315

In Testicular Feminization syndrome Gonadectomy is indicated:

6316

Androgen insensitivity syndrome true is:

6317

RokitanskyKusterHsuser syndrome is associated with:

6318

A woman presents with a fluctuant non tender swelling at the introitus. The best treatment is:

6319

Vaginal Epithelium is divided from:

6320

Most common cause of Bartholin abscesses

6321

Treatment of choice for Bartholin abscesses

6322

Which of the following condition does not present with both mullerian and wolffian duct structures?

6323

A 16 years old girl with it 58 inches presents with primary amenorrhoea and rising FSH. The histological finding most consistent with her condition is:

6324

A 48 years old lady underwent hysterectomy. On the 7th day, she developed fever, burning micturation and continuous urinary dribbling. She can also pass urine voluntarily. The diagnosis is:

6325

Most useful investigation for VVF is:

6326

Which of the following surgeries fro stress incontinence has highest success rate:

6327

Which of the following surgeries for stress incontinence has highest success rate?

6328

Most useful investigation for VVF is:

6329

Maximum chances of ureteric injury are with:

6330

Vaginal Epithelium is divided from:

6331

In ovarian cycle increased levels of LH are due to:

6332

Main estrogenic hormone in postmenopausal female in:

6333

In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?

6334

True about hCG are all expect:

6335

Consider the following hemodynamic changes occurring during pregnancy:

6336

Which of the following includes the classical triad of enlarged upper part of uterus, soft lower part of body and firm cervix during early pregnancy?

6337

In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?

6338

Which of the following mechanisms are involved in the regulation of amniotic fluid volume?

6339

True AND FALSE about hCG:

6340

When should breastfeeding be initiated to an infant born via a normal delivery?

6341

Consider the following hemodynamic changes occurring during pregnancy:

6342

The engaging diameter in deflexed head is:

6343

PROSTATE GLAND is homologous to:

6344

In ovarian cycle increased levels of LH are due to:

6345

Apoptosis can occur by change in hormone levels in the ovarian cycle. When there is no fertilizationof the ovum, the endometrial cells die because:

6346

Which of the following is responsible for pubertal growth in females:

6347

Ratio of cervix to corpus from puberty to menopause

6348

What is the treatment of choice when vaginal discharge shows picture as below?

6349

Identify the image below:

6350

Vaginal epithelium is derived from:

6351

Anatomical sphincter of fallopian tubes?

6352

In ovarian cycle increased level of LH are due to:

6353

True about timing of LH surge:

6354

A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

6355

Ovulation occurs because of a surge of:

6356

LH peak precedes ovulation by:

6357

Ph of vagina in adults:

6358

LH surge precedes ovulation by:

6359

Bartholin duct opens into:

6360

A woman presents with a fluctuant non tender swelling at the introitus. The best treatment is:

6361

A primigravida presents to casualty at 35weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by:

6362

A 35yr old G4P3L3 came at 32 weeks gestation with absent fetal movements and bleeding per vagina. Usg done shows dead fetus with complete placenta previa, what is the management?

6363

A primigravida presents to casualty at 35 weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by:

6364

A 30 years old G,F, is admitted in labor room with history of 32 weeks gestation, mild vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. 0n examination her blood pressure 140/100 mm Hg, abdomen is tense, tender and hard. Fetal heart sounds are not audible. What is the most likely diagnosis:

6365

The treatment in case of placenta accreta is:

6366

Central placenta previa in 37 weeks gestation, treatment is:

6367

A primi with vaginal bleeding at term but vitals normal. Management is:

6368

Couvelaire uterus is seen in:

6369

Abruption of placenta occurs in all except:

6370

A primigravida at 37 weeks af gestation reported to labour room with central placenta previda with heavy bleeding per vaginum. The fetalheart rate was normal at the time of examination. The best management option for her is:

6371

A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examination of the uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagnosis is:

6372

Most valuable diagnostic test in a case of suspected ectopic pregnancy:

6373

A twenty years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

6374

Most common site of implantation of tubal pregnancy is:

6375

Best modality to diagnose unruptured tubal pregnancy is:

6376

In which part of fallopian tube ectopic pregnancy will have longest survival:

6377

A female of 36 weeks gestation presents with hypertension, blurring of vision and headache. Her blood pressure reading was 180/120 mm Hg and 174/110 mm Hg after 20 minutes. How will you manage the patient?

6378

Which of the following antihypertensive is not safe in pregnancy:

6379

19 years old primigravida comes in emergency at 32 weeks of gestation. She is cornplaining of blurring of vision, gross edema. On examination her B.P is 170/115 mm Hg. What is the most likely diagnosis:

6380

All of the following are predictive tests for PIH except:

6381

In pregnancy induced hypertension, sudden vision loss is due to:

6382

A 24 years old woman with 36 weeks of pregnancy suddenly complains of headache and blurring of vision. Her BP is 170/110 mm of Hg. Urinary albumin is +++ and fundus examination shows areas of retinal haemorrhage. The line of further management would be:

6383

Which type of eclampsia has the worst prognosis?

6384

In a patient on magnesium sulphate therapy, usually at what level the patellar (knee) reflex disappears:

6385

Earliest sign of Mg toxicity:

6386

USG sign of fetal death:

6387

The earliest and most conclusive sign of intrauterine fetal death is sure sign of IUD is:

6388

An elderly multiparous woman with intrauterine foetal death was admitted with strong labour pains. The patient suddenly goes in shock with cyanosis respiratory disturbances and pulmonary oedema. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

6389

The engaging diameter in deflexed head is:

6390

A 25-year old G2P1A0 with history of previous vaginal breech delivery of a term, live baby comes with full term pregnancy with breech presentation. What is the best option?

6391

A G2P1L1 presents with full-term pregnancy with transverse lie at 36 weeks. On examination membranes are intact and fetal heart sounds are regular. What would be the appropriate management in this case:

6392

When in labour, a diagnosis of occipito posterior is made. The most appropriate management would be?

6393

Face presentation is most commonly seen in:

6394

Vaginal delivery is allowed in all except:

6395

First maneuver to be done in case of shoulder dystocia is?

6396

A G2P1A0 presents with full-term pregnancy with transverse lie in the first stage of labour. On examination, cervix is 5cm dilated, membranes are intact and fetal heart sounds are regular. What would be the appropriate management in this case:

6397

Which one of the following pairs of terminologies is not correctly matched?

6398

Best management in Mento-posterior presentation:

6399

Face to pubic delivery often occurs in:

6400

Implantation of blastocyst is uterine cavity is completed by:

6401

A woman cones with obstructed labour and is grossly dehydrate. Investigation reveals fetal demise. What will be the management?

6402

30 years old female comes with obstructed labour and is febrile ad dehydrated with IUFD and cephalic presentation. Which is the best way to manage?

6403

Induction of labour by amniotomy can lead to the following complications:

6404

Morbidly adherent placenta to the myometrium is due to lack of:

6405

Morbidly adherent placenta to the myometrium is due to lack of:

6406

A multigravida with previous 2 normal deliveries presents with unstable lie of the fetus at 34 weeks gestation. What could be the most probable cause?

6407

A 35 year old G4P3L3 came at 32 weeks gestation with absent fetal movements and bleeding per vagina. Usg done shows dead fetus with complete placenta previa, what is the management?

6408

Vaginal examination is contraindicated in pregnancy in which situation:

6409

What is the dose of misoprostol in prophylaxsis of pph?

6410

What is the capacity of bakri balloon which is used in PPH?

6411

Assertion A: In atonic post-partum haemorrhage, a syntocinon drip is started by adding 20 units of syntocinon in a pint of 5 percent glucose. Reason R: Syntocinon concentration higher than this may cause rupture of the soft uterus. Codes:

6412

A 25 years old P, cornes to emergency, after home delivery with heavy bleeding per vaginum. After evaluation and emergency resuscitation she is diagnosed as a case of uterine atony. What is the appropriate medicine in the management of this case:

6413

In which condition, postpartum haemorrhage will not occur:

6414

A 30 yrs old woman para 6 delivers vaginally following normal labour with spontaneous delivery of an intact placenta. Excessive bleeding continues, despite manual exploration, bimanual massage, intravenous oxytocin and administration of 0.2 mg methergin IV, which one of the following would be the next step in the management of this patient?

6415

A 25-year old nulliparous woman with third degree uterine descent but no cystocele or rectocele or enetrocele is best treated with:

6416

Current indications for use of use of Ring pressary are all except:

6417

The best way to treat decubitus ulcer in a case of genital prolapse is by:

6418

Which of following does not prevent prolapse of uterus?

6419

Preserved in Manchester operation:

6420

Cause of decubitus ulcer in uterine prolapse is:

6421

All of the following pelvic structures support the vagina, except:

6422

A lady with prolapsed uterus after Fothergill repair will complain of following except:

6423

Which of the following true:

6424

A young nullipamus woman has 3rd degree uterovaginal prolapse without any cystocele or rectocele. There is no stress incontinence. Uterocervical length it 3 inches, All other symptoms are normal The best treatment plan for her will be

6425

18 years old P1 presents in outpatient department ten days after delivery with tender hot painful swelling in right breast. She also complains of fever with rigors. What will be the most likely management:

6426

In normal puerperium, all true regarding involution of uterus except:

6427

The cause of postpartum blues is:

6428

Immediately following delivery the height of the uterus corresponds to _____ weeks:

6429

The uterus becomes pelvic organ after delivery in:

6430

A 23 year old primigravida with blood group of A negative underwent the procedure as shown below, what is the dose of anti D to be given to prevent isoimmunisation?

6431

A 23 year old primigravida with blood group of A negative underwent the procedure as shown below, what is the dose of anti D  to be given to prevent isoimmunisation?

6432

Assertion A: When ABO and Rh incompatibility co-exist, the resulting hemolytic disease will be more severe. Reason R: Hemolytic disease can occur due to both ABO and Rh incompatibilities.

6433

Anti D immunoglobulin must be given to a mother of O negative group with a bay of of O positive within:

6434

First maneuver to be done in case of shoulder dystocia is?

6435

Incidence of scar rupture in a pregnant lady with previous LSCS is:

6436

Vaginal delivery is allowed in all except:

6437

Identify the type of twin pregnancy as seen in the USG-plate:

6438

In multiple pregnancy, the most important complication is:

6439

Twin peak sign seen in:

6440

If division of fertilized egg occurs at 4-8th day what kind of mono twin pregnancy will it give rise to:

6441

40 year old intravenous drug abuser presents with vomiting, jaundice, and pain right hypochondrium, USG abdomen shows following result what is your diagnosis

6442

35 year old Shepherd presented with discomfort in right hypochondrium and examination shows hepatomegaly 4cm below costal margin, CT abdomen is done probable diagnosis is

6443

38 year old female presented with complain of heamoptosis, chest pain, weight loss, dyspnea and vaginal bleeding, on laboratory evaluation her beta HCG is elevated and x-ray chest was, what is CXR suggestive of?

6444

65 year old male patient presented to you with dry cough, body ache and weakness and fever of 102 degree since 5 days, RT PCR test done which was positive for covid 19, CT scan of patient is given below, what is his CORADs classification of this CT scan

6445

Patient presented to emergency with complain of sudden severe headache in morning with neck rigidity, there is no history of trauma, CT scan is done which is suggestive of

6446

Identify barium enema given in below image

6447

Patient presented with dyspnea and chest pain after an attempt of subclavian central venepuncture on examination patient is tachypnoeic and he has distended neck veins, hyper resonance on percussion on right side what is diagnosis, CXR of patient is given below

6448

3 year old child swallowed button cell 1 hour ago presented to emergency, X-ray head and neck was order, what is next line management and where is exact location of foreign body

6449

A young male was brought to casualty after blunt injury to abdomen. On examination, abdomen was distended and patient had not passed urine since trauma CT scan is suggestive of

6450

A 55 year old smoker complains of exceptional dyspnea .On examination, expansion of chest was diminished and accessory muscle of respiration were active. Percussion was resonant. Ct scan was done as shown below. Most likely diagnosis

6451

An 40 year female presented with headache which was not responding to conservative treatment, Contrast enhanced MRI was done what is probable diagnosis

6452

Barium swallow given below suggestive of

6453

50 year old male bony pain for last two year present with image shown below most probable diagnosis is

6454

What investigation is being shown in the image below

6455

A patient presented with dysphagia with pain, A barium swallow was advised. Which revealed multiple alternating constrictions and dilations, what is the diagnosis and gold standard investigation

6456

New born presented with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting, x-ray abdomen suggestive of

6457

X-ray given below suggestive of

6458

56 year old male presented to surgery emergency with severe abdominal pain initially pain was located in epigastrium then it spread throughout abdomen, on examination there is diffuse abdominal tenderness with guarding rigidity, patient has history of peptic ulcer since 2 years, X-ray abdomen erect was performed what is next line of management

6459

This barium swallow suggestive of

6460

Identify the structure

6461

60 year old male presented with dysphagia, sometimes also regurgitation, vomiting, and odynophagia and weight loss. Barium meal of patient given below suggestive of

6462

35 year old male with complain of high grade remitting fever, breathlessness, Chest pain, cough with sputum, night sweating, weight loss and rigors. Chest X-ray suggestive of?

6463

Which of the following is correct diagnosis and sign for given barium meal and follow through

6464

5 year old child presented with multiple air fluid levels on X-ray abdomen erect view what should be next step of management of the patient

6465

A 35 year old female presented with chest pain and breathlessness in causality and below is representation of CT scan what is most likely cause of her symptoms

6466

67 year old female presented with chest pain which this began 20 minutes after she received the news that her husband was in critical condition in the intensive care unit (ICU) and needed emergent surgery. The pain was described as 5/10 no radiating, sub sternal, with associated light-headedness. The patient immediately had cardiac catheterization with left ventriculography. What is probable diagnosis?

6467

A 65 year old patient presented with left lower abdominal pain with bleeding per rectum occasionally. Barium enema was done, what is the diagnosis and sign in radiograph

6468

What is grade of VUR in given MCU

6469

32 year old male presented with seizures, family member told that patient has fever and headache since 5 days, Ct scan on patient given below what is probable diagnosis

6470

A patient has undergone some procedure and after the procedure, following radiograph was obtain, what is the most likely performed procedure

6471

A 25-year-old man has a CXR (PA and lateral) performed for a chronic cough. This demonstrates a mass projected anterior to the ascending aorta and a contrast-enhanced CT chest is performed. There are no associated clinical syndromes (such as myasthenia gravis) and no CT features to suggest a thymic mass or germ cell tumour. What additional CT finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of lymphangioma?

6472

A 60-year-old woman is assessed by the Emergency Department following a fall onto her right wrist. The initial radiograph shows an extra-articular fracture of the right distal radius, with volar subluxation of the distal fragment. Which eponymous fracture type best matches this description?

6473

The velocity of ultrasound waves in the human body is:

6474

50 year old breast cancer patient on chemotherapy presented with breathlessness and tachycardia. The X-Ray showed The focal area of increased translucency (oligaemia). What is the Sign called?

6475

A 45 year old man came with dysphagia and pain in the chest. The barium follow-through is shown below. What is the radiological sign?

6476

A 60 year-old paraplegic patient presented with acute onset chest pain. He has been paralysed for 10 days. After initial evaluation an echocardiography was performed. The summery of finding is as follows. Name the right pair of sign and clinical condition:

6477

A 30 years old smoker and alcohol consumer presented with history of passing black stool and chronic dyspepsia. He underwent fluoroscopy of stomach and the image is shown in figure. What is the pathognomonic lesion seen here?

6478

35-year-old male presented with 2 weeks history of dyspnea and fever and was diagnosed with pneumonia. Frontal chest radiograph reveals (white arrow) representing the radiologic diagnosis. What is that?

6479

29-year-old male presented with 3 weeks history of fever and was diagnosed with invasive aspergillosis. Axial CT image of lung demonstrates a cavity in the left lung with a radiologic sign of

6480

A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a cough and increasing shortness of breath. A chest radiograph (CXR) reveals the presence of symmetrical hilar masses. These masses have a lobulated and well-defined outline with some fine peripheral calcification. The lesions do not appear cystic or contain any fat. The only occupational exposure of note is that the patient keeps birds in his house. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

6481

A 27-year-old, previously fit and well man presents to his GP with a short history of pyrexia, cough and haemoptysis. He has never previously been admitted to hospital. Sputum culture has grown Streptococcus pneumoniae. What is the most likely chest radiograph finding?

6482

The radiograph of an 8-year-old boy with dietary Vitamin D deficiency reveals cupping and fraying of the distal tibial metaphysis. Which radiological finding is a recognised feature of this condition?

6483

A 40-year-old woman has been admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit (ITU) with severe pancreatitis. She is currently being ventilated but has worsening respiratory failure, refractory to oxygen therapy. In addition, she has a normal capillary wedge pressure. Which of the following is the most likely radiological feature on portable CXR?

6484

An 80-year-old man has been admitted to hospital with shortness of breath and a productive, purulent cough. A CXR reveals left lower lobe consolidation. Which additional radiological finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of Klebsiella pneumoniae rather than Legionella pneumophildi

6485

A previously well 80-year-old woman sustains a subcapital fracture of the right neck of femur following a fall onto hard ground. The plain film reveals multiple lytic lesions within the pelvic bones and proximal femora, which are highly suspicious for bone metastases. What is the most likely occult primary lesion?

6486

A 30-year-old male engineer has recently returned from North America having inspected a number of construction sites. He develops flu-like symptoms and a CXR reveals the presence of a solitary well-defined nodule. What additional finding would make a diagnosis of Histoplasmosis infection more likely, rather than Cryptococcus infection?

6487

An 80-year-old lifelong male smoker presents with a cough and wheeze. A CXR demonstrates right middle lobe airspace opacification with bulging of the central oblique and horizontal fissures. The radiographic appearances fail to resolve 4 weeks later, after an appropriate course of antibiotics. CT evaluation demonstrates a large cavitating centrally placed mass. Which one of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

6488

A 7-year-old girl, who has recently migrated to this country from India, presents with a productive cough, fever, night sweats and weight loss. A CXR demonstrates marked consolidation in the right upper lobe. Sputum cytology reveals the presence of acid-fast bacilli. What additional radiological finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of current primary tuberculosis as opposed to post-primary tuberculosis?

6489

An athletic 19-year-old medical student presents to the Emergency Department after sustaining an injury to his right hip during training. A radiograph reveals a fracture of the anterior superior iliac spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6490

You are reviewing a contrast-enhanced CT chest for a suspected central bronchogenic carcinoma of the lung. You determine that the tumour is greater than 3 cm in its longest dimension, invades the mediastinal pleura but does not invade any mediastinal structures. There is an associated pleural effusion but you are informed by the clinical team that multiple cytopathological examinations reveal no tumour cells. What would be your proposed T staging?

6491

A 32-year-old builder is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall from scaffolding. He is believed to have fallen a considerable height and witnesses report that he landed on his feet. On primary survey, he is tachycardic, hypotensive and extremely tender on palpation of the pelvis and left hip. During resuscitation, a radiographic trauma series is obtained. What is the most likely pattern of pelvic injury?

6492

A 70-year-old man recently underwent a laparoscopic prostatectomy. He now presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain and haemoptysis. D-dimer levels were measured and found to be significantly elevated. A CXR is performed as part of the initial set of investigations. Which one of the following is the most likely CXR finding?

6493

A 14-year-old boy attends the Emergency Department following an injury to his right ankle in a rugby match. The radiograph shows a triplane fracture. Which fracture is likely to form part of this complex injury?

6494

A 43-year-old man is investigated for pain related to his left arm. Plain radiography demonstrates a well-defined, lytic lesion in the proximal humerus, with chondroid matrix mineralisation and a narrow zone of transition. There is deep endosteal cortical scalloping and the suggestion of bone expansion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6495

A 19-year-old man, the unrestrained driver in a high-energy road traffic accident, has been brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department. A lateral cervical spine radiograph shows an anterior wedge fracture of C5 with a retro-pulsed bony fragment. What was the likely predominant force acting on the cervical spine at the time of injury?

6496

A 30-year-old male nonsmoker presents to his GP with a three-month history of intermittent episodes of cough and wheeze. Initially diagnosed as having asthma, the patient was found to be a 1-antitrypsin deficient after mentioning that several relatives have had similar problems in the past. As part of the subsequent investigations, an HRCT chest was performed. Which finding is most consistent with this clinical scenario?

6497

A solitary, lytic lesion with aggressive features is an unexpected incidental finding on radiography of the left knee. Which radiological feature would favour a diagnosis of metastasis rather than primary bone tumour?

6498

A 16-year-old boy has been sent for a CXR by his GP. He has had a chronic cough for 3 months and the GP is concerned that there may be an underlying pneumonia. Having reviewed the film and decided that this is not the case, you note the presence of a unilateral hypertransradiant hemithorax. Which of the following causes would not be in your differential diagnosis?

6499

An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department chronically short of breath. On examination, there is dullness at the left lung base and a CXR reveals loss of the left costophrenic angle. An ultrasound is performed and demonstrates a pleural effusion with no internal echoes. Diagnostic aspiration reveals that the pleural fluid has a protein concentration of 15 g/L. Which one of the following would be the most likely cause?

6500

A young woman with Turner syndrome is found to be hypertensive. On examination, her femoral pulses are delayed, relative to the carotid pulses. In addition, there is a mid to late systolic murmur. Which one of the following is the most likely radiological finding?

6501

A 50-year-old man undergoes a routine preoperative CXR. The reporting radiologist notes that the heart is shifted to the left, the right heart border is indistinct and there is a steep inferior slope of the anterior ribs. Which one of the following syndromes may be associated with these findings?

6502

A 60-year-old man with Hodgkin disease and hypertension complains of shortness of breath. He attends the Radiology Department for a CXR and it is noted that he has bilateral pleural effusions. No lung parenchymal abnormality is identified and a recent transthoracic echocardiogram was normal. It is clinically suspected that the pleural effusions may have been caused by one of the drugs he is currently taking. Which one of his drug treatments is the most likely to have caused the pleural effusions?

6503

A pelvic radiograph reveals a symmetrical abnormality of the proximal femora characterised by thin lucent lines perpendicular to the medial femoral cortex, with a faint sclerotic margin. These linear lucent areas do not extend across the full width of the femur, and the visualised bones are otherwise of normal appearance. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

6504

A young man is involved in a road traffic accident and complains of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. An initial supine CXR performed in the Emergency Department demonstrates several left-sided posterior rib fractures. There is also the suspicion that a pneumothorax is present. Once stabilised, the patient attends the Radiology Department for an erect PA chest radiograph. Which one of the following signs not seen on the initial supine film will now predominate?

6505

A 53-year-old woman is seen in the general surgical outpatient clinic. She attended her GP with a 1-month history of upper abdominal pain and was found to have a palpable, firm mass in the epigastrium. An upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is normal and the surgical team request a contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen. This demonstrates a multicystic mass in the pancreas. Which findings would make a mucinous cystic tumour more likely than a serous cystadenoma?

6506

A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a cough, fever, dyspnoea and some chest pain. He also complains of painful wrists and hands which are worse at night. A CXR demonstrated a pleural-based left chest wall mass with a well- demarcated and slightly lobulated contour. No rib destruction is evident. A subsequent CT confirmed these findings with the mass demonstrating slightly heterogeneous enhancement after contrast administration. No pleural effusion was seen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6507

A 54-ycar-old man with hepatitis B cirrhosis attends the hepatology outpatient clinic. The patient's serum alpha fetoprotein level is found to be significantly elevated, having been normal 6 months ago. An abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a new 3-cm lesion in the right lobe of liver and a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is suspected. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding HCC?

6508

A previously fit and well 30-year-old woman undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) for suspected acute pulmonary embolism. The CTPA excludes a pulmonary embolism but an incidental mediastinal mass is noted. This solitary mediastinal mass is seen inferior to the carina with displacement of the carina anteriorly and the oesophagus displaced posteriorly. The contents of the lesion are of uniform attenuation 0 Hounsfield Units (HU). Prior to this admission the patient had not reported any symptoms of note. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6509

A 22-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of increasingly severe upper abdominal pain and vomiting. He has not opened his bowels for 24 hours but has passed flatus. The patient is usually fit and well but admits to consuming 100 units of alcohol per week. Initial laboratory investigations show an elevated white cell count and a significantly raised serum amylase. An abdominal radiograph is performed and demonstrates a single segment of dilated small bowel in the central abdomen. What name is given to this radiographic finding?

6510

A 40-year-old woman has a previous history of histoplasmosis. She undergoes a chest CT which demonstrates confluent soft tissue infiltration throughout the mediastinum. Tissue biopsy determines a diagnosis of fibrosing mediastinitis subsequent to the histoplasmosis infection. Which one of the following complications would be the most common to occur?

6511

A 19-year-old female student presents with acute abdominal pain, elevated CRP and a low-grade temperature. On clinical examination, there is tenderness to light palpation in the right iliac fossa and the patient is febrile. A graded compression ultrasound examination is performed. Which one of the following statements is true?

6512

A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing dyspepsia and weight loss. He has not experienced any other GI symptoms and physical examination is unremarkable. A barium meal is performed with the administration of intravenous Buscopan. The oesophagus is normal in appearance but a bulls eye lesion is noted in the gastric mucosa. Which one of the following is not a recognised cause of this appearance?

6513

A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of severe bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. He has previously been fit and well with no significant medical history. On examination, the patient is dehydrated with generalized abdominal tenderness but no clinical evidence of peritonism. An abdominal radiograph is performed. Which radiographic finding would be most suggestive of a toxic megacolon?

6514

A 54-year-old woman attends a well woman clinic and is found to have abnormal liver function tests. She is referred to the hepatology outpatient clinic and an abdominal ultrasound is performed. This demonstrates diffuse increased reflectivity of the liver parenchyma but no focal parenchymal abnormality. The hepatology team request an ultrasound-guided percutaneous liver biopsy. Which statement is true regarding this procedure?

6515

A 53-year-old man has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. He complains of weight loss and malaise; therefore, an abdominal ultrasound is performed. This demonstrates a 2-cm focal lesion in the liver parenchyma. Which additional findings would be most consistent with an area of focal fatty sparing in hepatic steatosis?

6516

A 26-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute epigastric pain and vomiting. The serum amylase is found to be markedly elevated and the patient is treated for acute pancreatitis. A contrast- enhanced CT of the abdomen is subsequently performed and demonstrates calcification throughout the pancreas. Bilateral renal calculi are also noted. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

6517

A 29-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of dysphagia, associated with retrosternal pain. A barium swallow demonstrates a markedly dilated oesophagus containing food debris. There is a smooth narrowing of the distal oesophagus with barium intermittently spurting into the stomach. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6518

A 68-year-old woman presents with malaise and abdominal pain and is found to have abnormal liver function tests. An abdominal ultrasound identifies multiple hyperechoic lesions in the liver and contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen demonstrates that these are hypervascular liver metastases. Given the CT findings, what is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

6519

A 35-year-old pregnant woman (28 weeks gestation) presents to her GP with right upper quadrant abdominal pain and is found to have abnormal liver function tests. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and demonstrates a diffusely hyperechoic liver with a discrete 4-cm hypoechoic lesion in the right lobe. An MRI is performed 3 weeks later, showing that the liver lesion has increased in size, now measuring 7 cm diameter. The lesion is isointense on in-phase Tlw images, losing signal on out-of-phase images. Following intravenous gadolinium there is immediate and intense enhancement with early washout. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6520

A 59-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of a rectal tumour. A contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen is performed 3 months later and demonstrates a new, solitary 3-cm liver metastasis. The lesion lies inferior to the level of the left and right portal veins and posterior to the right hepatic vein. The remainder of the CT examination is unremarkable and the patient is assessed for surgical resection of the liver lesion. Which segment of the liver does the liver metastasis lie in?

6521

A 74-year-old man presents with an 8-week history of altered bowel habit and rectal bleeding. A flexible sigmoidoscopy demonstrates a malignant stricture in the rectum and biopsies confirm rectal denocarcinoma. An MRI is performed and shows an annular neoplasm at 12 cm. The mass invades 4 mm beyond the rectal wall into the perirectal fat and infiltrates the peritoneal reflection anteriorly. There is a small volume of free peritoneal fluid. What is the radiological T stage?

6522

A 38-year-old woman receives an orthotopic liver transplant for chronic liver failure due to primary biliary cirrhosis. The patient's liver enzyme levels become markedly elevated after 24 hours and her clinical condition deteriorates. An abdominal ultrasound is performed with Doppler evaluation of the hepatic vessels. Given the clinical history, which vascular complication is most likely to have occurred?

6523

A 48-year-old man presents with a painless swelling in the right scrotum. He has a past medical history of bilateral undescended testes and subsequent orchidopexy. On examination, there is a firm right testicular lump but no inguinal lymphadenopathy. On ultrasound, a well-defined, homogeneous hyporeflective mass was found within the right testicle. The right epididymis and contralateral testicle appeared normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6524

A 65-year-old man with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder undergoes a pelvic MRI. On Tlw sequences, there is a 2-cm papillary bladder wall growth that returns signal intensity higher than that of the surrounding urine and extends into the bladder wall. On T2w sequences, an uninterrupted low signal intensity line clearly separates the tumour from the surrounding peri vesical fat. No peri vesical stranding is seen. Which one of the following options best describes the staging of the tumour?

6525

A 65-year-old man is referred to the urology outpatient clinic with a painless right testicular lump. On ultrasound, there is a 3-cm heterogeneous mass within the right testicle that has concentric rings of alternating hypo and hyperechogenicity, giving the mass a whorled appearance. A subsequent MRI shows this mass to have alternating low and high signal intensity layers on T2w sequences. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6526

A 13-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of left scrotal pain, fever and vomiting. The referring clinician suspects left testicular torsion and requests an urgent ultrasound prior to surgical exploration. Which of the following radiological findings would suggest that the left testis is still viable?

6527

A 25-year-old man presents with a tender right scrotum. Which one of the following statements best describes the expected ultrasound findings in acute, uncomplicated epididymo-orchitis?

6528

SPOT DIAGNOSIS:

6529

The specific magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) feature of spinal tuberculosis (TB) is:

6530

Diagnose the clinical condition based on the below mentioned Echo-findings:

6531

What is the ecocardiographic sign called in question number (60)

6532

When a solitary pulmonary nodule is seen on computed tomography (CT), which of the following radiological features suggest it is benign?

6533

Which statement about radiological diagnosis of PE is not correct:

6534

A 65-year-old man with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder undergoes a pelvic MRI. On Tlw sequences, there is a 2-cm papillary bladder wall growth that returns signal intensity higher than that of the surrounding urine and extends into the bladder wall. On T2w sequences, an uninterrupted low signal intensity line clearly separates the tumour from the surrounding perivesical fat. No perivesical stranding is seen. Which one of the following options best describes the staging of the tumour?

6535

In the staging of non-small cell carcinoma of the lung, which of the following are true?

6536

Which of the following are causes of superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO)?

6537

Which of the following are False regarding bronchoalveolar carcinoma?

6538

Utilizing automated Fourier analysis to convert returning sound waves into a series of individual frequencies, a special Doppler ultrasound modality yields graphical representations of flow velocity over time. Name the modality:

6539

A 48-year-old man presents with a painless swelling in the right scrotum. He has a past medical history of bilateral undescended testes and subsequent orchidopexy. On examination, there is a firm right testicular lump but no inguinal lymphadenopathy. On ultrasound, a well-defined, homogeneous hyporeflective mass was found within the right testicle. The right epididymis and contralateral testicle appeared normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6540

52-year-old female with sudden-onset chest pain and diagnosed with right pneumothorax. Frontal radiograph of chest shows right pneumothorax causing mild depression of the right costophrenic angle (white arrow) producing WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING radiologic sign?

6541

67-year-old female presented with chest pain and was diagnosed with pulmonary thromboembolism. Contrast-enhanced CT scan of chest in the lung window shows lucency (white arrow) indicating oligemia distal to the occluded pulmonary artery, and thus represents the radiologic sign. What is the radiological sign?

6542

Look at the Doppler trace, here is a mid-systolic notch. What is it due to?

6543

False deep sulcus sign can be seen in which of the following condition?

6544

Regarding the frequency of ultrasound waves in tissues. Which is correct?

6545

39-year-old male with persistent dry cough for 6 months diagnosed with pulmonary alveolar proteinosis. HRCT lung shows diffuse ground glass opacities with thick interlobular septa in both lungs representing the radiologic sign. Which is the correct nomenclature for the radiographic sign?

6546

54-year-old male presented with difficulty in breathing and was diagnosed with asthma. HRCT of lung shows dilated bronchi (white arrows) lying adjacent to the pulmonary artery (white arrowhead) producing the radiologic sign. Which of the following is true:

6547

46-year-old male who met with a road traffic accident (RTA) was diagnosed with pneumomediastinum. (a) Portable chest radiograph shows luceny below the heart border (black arrow) producing the radiologic sign. (b) Coronal CT image of chest confirming air below the heart border (black arrow). What is the sign?

6548

57-year-old male presented with shortness of breath. Transaxial CT scan of chest shows a pleural-based mass (white arrowhead) with few curvilinear vessels (white arrow) around it, appearing as the tail of a comet and thus producing the radiologic sign, comet tail sign. What is the diagnosis?

6549

What abnormality can be seen in this 65 year old man with abdominal pain?

6550

A 65 year old man presents with acute large bowel obstruction, rectal bleeding and change in bowel habit. Above (Qn No 78) is the X-Ray of abdomen. What is the most likely cause?

6551

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department with an 8- hour histoiy of profuse fresh rectal bleeding. She had been awaiting endoscopic investigation of iron deficiency anaemia, but has no other significant medical history. On examination, she is haemodynamically unstable and blood tests reveal Hb=5-0 g/dL. Following resuscitation, the patient condition stabilises and the surgical team request radiological investigation to identify the source of GI bleeding. Which statement is true regarding this clinical scenario?

6552

A 59-year-old woman is found to have several small lesions within the liver on abdominal ultrasound. The ultrasound had been requested for investigation of abnormal liver function tests. An MRI of the liver demonstrates several low T2 signal lesions within the liver parenchyma. These lesions yield high signal on Tlw images and, following intravenous gadolinium, there is avid enhancement in the hepatic arterial phase. Which diagnosis would best explain these findings?

6553

Which of the following are classically hot on a 99mTc-MDP bone scan?

6554

A 35 year old female is highly suspected of pulmonary embolism. A CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is considered. Which of the following risks is not relevant?

6555

A 65 year old woman presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. She has had an appendicectomy 20 years ago. Small bowel dilatation is observed. What is the most likely cause?

6556

A 4 day old neonate presents with bile stained vomiting. Gastric dilatation is seen on an abdominal radiograph. What is the most likely cause of these abnormalities?

6557

A 49-year-old man is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains serious head and chest injuries. He is ventilated on the intensive care unit and his injuries are managed conservatively. Ten days later, he develops a temperature of 39.5 degree, becomes tachycardic and requires inotropic support to maintain his blood pressure. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and shows a cystic structure in the right upper quadrant measuring 12x8 cm in size. The mass has a 6-mm thick wall, contains a layer of echogenic material and is surrounded by a rim of fluid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6558

An MRI of brain is requested for a patient suspected of metastatic cancer. Which of the following pieces of clinical information is a contraindication to MRI?

6559

An 83-year-old man undergoes an emergency left hip hemiarthroplasty following a fractured neck of femur. Six days after surgery, he develops increasing abdominal distension with nausea and vomiting. An abdominal radiograph is performed and demonstrates dilatation of the ascending and transverse colon with the caecum measuring 7.0 cm in diameter. The clinical team believe that the patient may have colonic pseudo-obstruction and a single contrast (instant) enema is performed using water-soluble contrast. What are the likely findings in colonic pseudo-obstruction?

6560

You are a foundation doctor on a respiratory ward and you admit a 67 year old woman for a CT guided lung biopsy to confirm suspected lung cancer. You are asked to obtain the patients consent for the procedure but are unsure of the complications when asked by the patient. What is the most appropriate next action?

6561

46-year-old male presented with severe chest pain after an episode of vomiting and was diagnosed with esophageal tear resulting in pneumomediastinum. (a) Coronal image of CT chest shows air outlining the left hemidiaphragm (white arrowhead) and left lateral wall of aorta (white arrow) appearing as V and thus producing the radiologic sign, (b) Scanogram shows air outlining the left lateral wall of the aorta (white arrow). Name the sign.

6562

Lateral resolution is:

6563

False about the typical Radiographic feature is:

6564

String sign is seen in

6565

RVOT is best assessed with:

6566

Select the most appropriate transducer for an abdominal aortic aneurysmultrasound examination

6567

The reflection coefficient between air and water is:

6568

What is the principle artefact that is evident in this image?

6569

A 24-year-old man is referred to the gastroenterology outpatient clinic. He describes intermittent bloody diarrhoea with abdominal pain and has lost 5 kg in weight over the past 6 months. His father and uncle both have inflammatory bowel disease. Routine laboratory investigations are remarkable for a moderately elevated CRP. A double contrast barium enema examination is performed. Which of the following findings would be more consistent with Crohn's disease than ulcerative colitis?

6570

A 30-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, he is afebrile with a firm mass palpable in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. A supine abdominal radiograph is performed and demonstrates dilated loops of small bowel with a large soft tissue mass in the right lower quadrant. On ultrasound, the mass has a pseudotumour appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6571

A 30-year-old male engineer has recently returned from North America having inspected a number of construction sites. He develops flu-like symptoms and a CXR reveals the presence of a solitary well-defined nodule. What additional finding would make a diagnosis of Histoplasmosis infection more likely, rather than Cryptococcus infection?

6572

A 3 5-year-old man complains of a cough and is sent for a CXR by his GP. This demonstrates a solitary cystic structure within the left lower lobe, measuring approximately 6 cm in diameter. The peripheral aspect of the cystic structure lies in contact with the chest wall and appears slightly flattened.Within this structure there appears to be a floating membrane. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6573

A 30-year-old man is HIV positive with a most recent CD4 count — 100 cells/pL. He presents to the infectious diseases team with a cough, dyspnoea and general malaise. A CXR demonstrates bilateral, diffuse, medium-sized reticular opacities. An air-filled parenchymal cavity (pneumatocoele) is seen, but there is an absence of either mediastinal lymphadenopathy or a pleural effusion. What is the most likely underlying opportunistic infection?

6574

A 38-year-old man is referred to a chest physician for evaluation of a chronic productive cough. Over the past 10 years he has experienced increased expectoration of mucoid sputum that became purulent during infective exacerbations. On plain radiography the trachea had a corrugated outline. CT evaluation revealed dilatation of the trachea and mainstream bronchi. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6575

A 20-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis undergoes an HRCT chest as a result of worsening respiratory function. Nontapering, thickened bronchi are easily seen within 1 cm of the costal pleura. The internal bronchia] diameter is greater than that of the adjacent pulmonary artery and the bronchial lumen has assumed a beaded configuration. Whilst there are V- and Y-shaped densities, the tree in bud sign and mosaic perfusion are not seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6576

A 15-year-old girl has a follow-up CXR and ultrasound scan of her liver. She is known to have had meconium ileus at birth and has subsequently suffered with recurrent chest infections, poor weight gain, loose malodorous stools and multiple gallstones. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on the CXR?

6577

A 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with a flu-like illness and nonproductive cough. Her symptoms have not responded to an appropriate course of antibiotics. An HRCT is performed and demonstrates widespread mosaic perfusion. Which additional CT finding would suggesta diagnosis of obliterative bronchiolitis rather than diffuse pulmonary haemorrhage?

6578

Axial high-resolution CT scans of the temporal bone (A-left and B-right) show the ice-cream cone appearance of the incus and malleolus (long arrow in A). The different structures of the middle and inner ear are shown in B. Name the sign:

6579

Postcontrast axial CT scan of the brain (A) shows the nonenhancing lumen of the superior sagittal sinus surrounded by enhancing dura (arrows). Name the sign:

6580

Nonenhanced axial CT scan of the brain (B) shows a hyperdense superior sagittal sinus (arrow) suggestive of thrombus within. This is called the _________________ sign (Fill in the gap)

6581

A 50-year-old lifelong male smoker has presented to his GP with increasing shortness of breath. A CXR shows that the right atrial border is a little indistinct. On the lateral view there is a triangular density with its apex directed towards the lung hilum. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6582

You are asked to review the CT scan of an elderly female patient who has evidence of left upper lobe collapse on a CXR. On CT, in which one of the following directions will the left upper lobe have collapsed?

6583

A previously fit and well 70-year-old man has a routine CXR prior to a left hip replacement. An incidental right hilar mass is noted with associated right middle lobe collapse and bulging of the oblique and horizontal fissures. Cavitation is seen within the mass and mediastinal lymphadenopathy is demonstrated on the subsequent CT examination. No calcification is demonstrated within the mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6584

A 50-year-old female patient with Cushing's syndrome presents with a wheeze and nonresolving left lower lobe consolidation. CT reveals a calcified polypoid tumour lying external to the left main bronchus, with a smaller intraluminal component causing partial left lower lobe obstruction. Marked enhancement is seen after the administration of contrast medium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6585

A middle-aged man has recently had a CT abdomen performed for chronic lower left abdominal pain. Whilst mild sigmoid diverticular disease was present, it was also noted that there was significant para-aortic lymphadenopathy. Lymphoma was the suspected diagnosis and a chest CT was performed, prior to biopsy. Which additional CT finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of non-Hodgkin lymphoma rather than Hodgkin disease?

6586

A confused 70-year-old man with a history of cough and some shortness of breath attends your Radiology Department for a CXR. It is noted that there are multiple discrete, spherical and well-defined pulmonary nodules with a peripheral distribution. Some calcification is noted within some of these nodules but cavitation is not evident. The accompanying nurse from the care home tells you that he has a growth somewhere but is not sure what this is. What is the most likely primaiy tumour?

6587

A previously fit and well 50-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnoea for one year. On CXR, there are bilateral, peripheral reticular opacities seen at the lung bases. On HRCT chest, there is a subpleural basal reticular patternwith areas of honeycomb change seen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6588

A 50-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis undergoes an HRCT chest following a gradual increase in shortness of breath. Interstitial inflammation and fibrosis is noted. What additional finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of NSIP rather than UIP?

6589

A 20-year-old woman presents with a dry cough and dyspnoea. A CXR has been performed and demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well-defined 3 mm parenchymal nodules. The diagnosis is most likely to be?

6590

In a patient of meningioma Axial (A) and sagittal (B) contrast-enhanced MRI images of the brain show an avidly enhancing lesion in the left frontal region. What is the specific radiological sign?

6591

Postcontrast axial T1W MRI image of the brain (A) shows a evelopmental venous anomaly (arrow), with multiple, small, radiating veins forming a Medusa head in the left cerebellar hemisphere. Postcontrast axial T1W MRI image of the supratentorial brain (B) shows a large developmental venous anomaly with multiple radiating veins (arrows) draining into it. Postcontrast axial T1W image of the brain (C) shows a large developmental venous anomaly and a round hyperintense lesion with a dark rim (arrow), suggestive of a cavernoma, anterior to it. The radiological sign is:

6592

A 30-year-old woman has had an HRCT as a result of increasing shortness of breath. As well as mediastinal lymphadenopathy, it demonstrates well- defined nodular opacities (approximately 3 mm in diameter) found subpleurally and along the broncho vascular bundles. There is a predominantly mid to upper zone distribution with some air trapping demonstrated. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6593

A 30-year-old man has had an HRCT reviewed at your local multidisciplinary team meeting. The HRCT demonstrates ground glass opacification throughout both lungs with a mosaic pattern on expiratory images. Which additional finding would make a diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAI) more likely than respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)?

6594

A 30-year-old patient has presented with a nonproductive cough, fatigue, weight loss and a fever. As a result of an abnormality seen on a CXR, an HRCT chest is performed and demonstrates multiple thin-walled cysts within the lung parenchyma. Which additional finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) rather than lymphangioleiomyomatosis?

6595

A 30-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath and a CXR is requested. The request form states connective tissue disease but no further medical history is provided. The CXR demonstrates mild pleural thickening with small, bilateral pleural effusions. Interstitial fibrosis, with some honeycomb formation, is seen within the lower lung zones. In addition, there is a single, well-circumscribed 2 cm lesion in the right upper zone, with an area of cavitation seen centrally. Which one of the following connective tissue diseases is the most likely diagnosis?

6596

A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of a low-grade fever, malaise, anorexia and weight loss. She also reports pleuritic type chest pain. A CXR shows bilateral small pleural effusions with linear band atelectasis at both bases. No other chest abnormality is seen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6597

Axial USG image of the fetal head at the level of the biparietal diameter (A) shows inward concavity of both frontal bones (arrows) instead of the normally seen convexity. What is the correct diagnosis:

6598

A 40-year-old man presents with rhinitis, sinusitis and otitis media. In addition, he has dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain and has had episodes of haemoptysis. His records indicate that he has had a recent renal biopsy which diagnosed the presence of focal necrotising glomerulonephritis. Which one of the following is the most likely radiological finding demonstrated on chest CT?

6599

A 63-year-old man attends the Radiology Department for a CXR. He presented to his GP with a chronic cough and breathlessness and an occupational history of having worked both in a quarry and, later on in his life, as a coal miner. Which one of the following radiographic findings is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of silicosis rather than coal worker's pneumoconiosis (CWP)?

6600

A 40-year-old former construction worker presents with increasing dyspnoea and purulent sputum production. A CXR demonstrates lobar consolidation and he is treated for community-acquired pneumonia.However, incidental note is made of the presence of pleural plaques, which are assumed to be the result of asbestos exposure. Which one of the following radiological features would be most in keeping with asbestos related pleural plaques?

6601

A 60-year-old man, with a known history of asbestos exposure, is seen in the chest outpatient clinic with increasing shortness of breath. A CT chest is performed and demonstrates a subpleural mass in the right lower lobe with thickening of the adjacent pleura. Which additional radiological finding is most likely to reassure you that this is not a bronchogenic carcinoma?

6602

A 25-year-old male pedestrian has been hit by a car and is currently being resuscitated in the Emergency Department. He complains of paraesthesia involving his left shoulder. Which one of the following radiological features is the most likely related cause?

6603

A 40-year-old male window cleaner has fallen approximately 4 m from his ladder whilst at work. He is currently on a spinal board and being assessed in the resuscitation department of your Emergency Department.  He complains of left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. A CXR demonstrates fractures of the left 3rd, 4th and 5th lateral ribs and there is strong clinical concern of a pneumothorax. If there is a left pneumothorax, which one of the following radiographic signs is most likely to be present?

6604

A 27-year-old man has been involved in a high-speed road traffic accident. There is significant diagonal bruising over the abdomen, due to the wearing of a seat belt. He is haemodynamically stable, but complains of severe abdominal pain and a CT of the chest and abdomen is performed. Which one of the following radiographic signs on a CXR would be most likely to suggest a right-sided diaphragmatic injury?

6605

A 42-year-old woman has been involved in a road traffic accident, having lost control of her car and collided with a lorry. She complains of left-sided chest and abdominal pain and was initially hypotensive, but has responded to fluid resuscitation. CT examination has demonstrated the presence of left- sided rib fractures, a left haemothorax and a splenic laceration. Which one of the following CT signs is least likely to be associated with rupture of the left hemidiaphragm?

6606

A 30-year-oid warehouse employee has been admitted to the Emergency Department, having been crushed between a reversing lorry and a wall. A supine CXR demonstrates a pneumomediastinum and a right-sided pneumothorax that has not responded to the insertion of an appropriately sited chest drain. The right lung is seen to sag towards the floor of the right hemithorax. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6607

A 49-year-old man is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains serious head and chest injuries. He is ventilated on the intensive care unit and his injuries are managed conservatively. Ten days later, he develops a temperature of 39.5 degree, becomes tachycardic and requires inotropic support to maintainhis blood pressure. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and shows a cystic structure in the right upper quadrant measuring 1 2 x 8 cm in size. The mass has a 6-mm thick wall, contains a layer of echogenic material and is surrounded by a rim of fluid. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6608

An MRI of brain is requested for a patient suspected of metastatic cancer. Which of the following pieces of clinical information is a contraindication to MRI?

6609

An 83-year-old man undergoes an emergency left hip hemiarthroplasty following a fractured neck of femur. Six days after surgery, he develops increasing abdominal distension with nausea and vomiting. An abdominal radiograph is performed and demonstrates dilatation of the ascending and transverse colon with the caecum measuring 7.0 cm in diameter. The clinical team believe that the patient may have colonic pseudo-obstruction and a single contrast (instant) enema is performed using water-soluble contrast. What are the likely findings in colonic pseudo-obstruction?

6610

You are a foundation doctor on a respiratory ward and you admit a 67 year old woman for a CT guided lung biopsy to confirm suspected lung cancer. You are asked to obtain the patients consent for the procedure but are unsure of the complications when asked by the patient. What is the most appropriate next action?

6611

Which among the following is part of McDonald Criteria 2017:

6612

Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI) is based on which radio-diagnostic equipment

6613

Name the sign

6614

In the previous question the Sign helps in demarcating Optic Meningioma from?

6615

Name the sign?

6616

McDonald Criteria is used for which of the following disease condition?

6617

Determines MCA stroke severity using available CT data:

6618

Lateral anterior oblique view (A) of an internal carotid artery (thick short arrow) angiogram shows multiple, small, tortuous collateral vessels in the distribution of the middle cerebral artery (arrows). Axial view of the MRI angiogram (B) shows complete occlusion of the middle cerebral arteries bilaterally. Arrows indicate the internal carotid arteries. What is the sign popularly known as?

6619

A 85 years old man came with presentation of stroke. CT Head revealed ICH. The man is comatose. Which is not among the named-components of the ICH Score?

6620

Axial T1W MRI images (A, B) of the brain in alobarholoprosencephaly show the following image. What is the most appropriate statement?

6621

A 60-year-old female driver lost control of her car on black ice and hit a tree at approximately 60 miles per hour. Following resuscitation in the Emergency Department, she is found to have serious head and limb injuries and complains of upper thoracic back pain. Which one of the following radiographic signs would make you most suspicious for the presence of a traumatic aortic rupture?

6622

Ultrasound is also useful for ______. i. detecting fault in metal sheets ii. imaging marine depths iii. looking for metals beneath the earth surface iv. detecting distances v. detecting earthquakes

6623

Which of the following medical imaging modality other than ultrasound does not use any form of radiation?

6624

A 30-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol abuse has been admitted to ITU with severe acute pancreatitis. He is currently ventilated and afebrile, but has worsening respiratory failure, diminished pulmonary compliance and a normal capillary wedge pressure. The clinical team suspect a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome. Which one of the following radiographic signs would you not expect to see in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

6625

An elderly alcoholic man has been admitted to hospital having been found unconscious at home by a neighbour. A CT head has found no cause for his collapse and he is admitted to a medical ward. Twelve hours later, he is found to be increasingly breathless and hypoxic and a CXR is performed. Which one of the following findings is most likely to suggest aspiration?

6626

What property of sound waves acts like the principle of ultrasound?

6627

For which of these areas can the ultrasound be taken for an infant but not for an adult?

6628

A piezoelectric crystal is used to produce the ultrasound waves. What kind of ultrasound is produced?

6629

A middle-aged woman is currently ventilated on ITU following a major episode of sepsis and multiorgan failure. Her respiratory function is declining and a mobile CXR shows patchy pulmonary infiltrates within both lungs.A diagnosis of pulmonary oedema is suspected. Which one of the following radiological findings is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of noncardiac rather than cardiogenic pulmonary oedema?

6630

A number of patients on ITU have had CXRs performed as part of their daily investigations. You have been asked to comment on the positioning of various lines and tubes. Which one of the following line/tube tip locations corresponds with the ideal position?

6631

A 25-year-old man with severe cystic fibrosis has just undergone a double lung transplant. On day 9 postoperatively, he develops diffuse, bilateral airspace opacities, interstitial lines and pleural effusions. There are no other signsto suggest that this is due to cardiac failure. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6632

A 47-year-old man complains of gradually increasing shortness of breath, a d^ cough and weight loss. His chest physician is concerned aboutthe possibility of alveolar proteinosis and is particularly keen to exclude the presence of ground glass opacification on his recently performed HRCT examination. After an initial review there are no obvious abnormalities. Which one of the following radiological signs may help diagnose the presence of subtle ground glass opacification?

6633

What property of sound waves acts like the principle of ultrasound?

6634

For which of these areas can the ultrasound be taken for an infant but not for an adult?

6635

A piezoelectric crystal is used to produce the ultrasound waves. What kind of ultrasound is produced?

6636

A 70-year-old woman complains of progressive dyspnoea. She undergoesan HRCT of the chest and this demonstrates interstitial thickening at the lung bases. Which additional radiological finding would suggest a diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis rather than congestive heart failure?

6637

A 61-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department complaining of increasingly severe shortness of breath. A CXR shows bilateral airspace opacification with a predominantly central distribution. In addition, there are thickened interlobular septa seen in the subpleural lung and the walls of the visible airways appear thickened and a little indistinct. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6638

A 43-year-old man presents with a cough, fever and two episodes of haemoptysis. As a result of changes seen on a CXR, a CT chest has been performed. This demonstrates multiple nodules throughout both lungs with no zonal predilection. Cavitation is seen in some of the nodules and others have areas of ground glass opacification surrounding them. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

6639

How is a medium characterized?

6640

The wave velocity of ultrasound in soft tissues is 1540m/s and the impedance offered by it is 1.63 X 106 kg/m2s. What is the density of the soft tissue?

6641

A 22-year-old man presents with a nonproductive cough and exertional dyspnoea, with intermittent chest pain and haemoptysis. On examination, there are inspiratory crackles and digital clubbing and a CXR reveals bilateral, symmetrical airspace opacification. Which additional finding on HRCT is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of alveolar proteinosis rather than eosinophilic lung disease?

6642

A 70-year-old man has had a routine CXR prior to an elective total hip replacement. It is noted that the heart is enlarged (the cardiothoracic ratio exceeds 50%). What is the most likely underlying pathology?

6643

A 50-year-old woman presents with increasing dyspnoea and orthopnoea. There is a significant past history of breast cancer treated with surgery and radiotherapy. Posterior to anterior (PA) and lateral CXRs are performed and demonstrate that the heart size is at the upper limit of normal. Which additional finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis rather than acute pericarditis?

6644

A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of breath following a long-haul flight. A CTPA is performed and excludes the presence of a pulmonary embolus. However, cardiac abnormalities are noted and further questioning reveals that the patienthad rheumatic fever as a child. Which additional radiologicalfinding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of rheumatic mitral regurgitation rather than rheumatic mitral stenosis?

6645

A 52-year-old man presents with a long history of right iliac fossa pain, intermittent diarrhoea and weight loss. He has also experienced episodes of flushing, wheezing and dyspnoea. A CT abdomen reveals a calcified mesenteric mass with retraction of the surrounding tissues. There is evidence of multiple liver metastases and a diagnosis of metastatic carcinoid is made. On cardiac MRI, which one of the following is the most likely radiological finding?

6646

Which of the following relations are true?

6647

When an abdominal ultrasound is done, why is it advised to have a full bladder?

6648

A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of increasing fatigue, breathlessness, chest pain and syncope. A CXR demonstrates aortic valve calcification and a rounded cardiac apex suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy. Which additional radiological finding is most likely to suggest a diagnosis of rheumatic aortic stenosis rather than calcific aortic stenosis?

6649

A 20-year-old professional footballer complains of dyspnoea and palpitations with occasional episodes of syncope. He has had an echocardiogram at another hospital which has raised the possibility of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.Which one of the following is the most likely MRI finding?

6650

A young man presents with generalised fatigue, dyspnoea and episodes of chest pain. A transthoracic echocardiogram has raised the possibility of a cardiac tumour. Which one of the following signs on CT is least likely to be seen with a malignant cardiac neoplasm?

6651

What does the red dot on the probe help within the produced image?

6652

A 72-year-old woman is seen by her GP with a history of palpitations and congestive cardiac failure. A transthoracic echocardiogram is performed and raises the concern that a cardiac tumour may be present. She attends the radiology department for a cardiac MRI examination. From this list of diagnoses and MRI findings, which one is correct?

6653

A 50-year-old man complains of increasing chest pains on exertion. He describes this as a dull crushing pain that radiates to his jaw and his GP refers him for an exercise tolerance test. This demonstrates ischaemic ECG changes with chest pain after minimal exertion. Which radiological finding is most likely to be present?

6654

A 50-year-old lifelong male smoker has had an acute episode of central crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. ECG and serum cardiac enzyme levels are consistent with an acute myocardial infarction. He undergoes a cardiac MRI for further assessment. Which one of the following is the most likely finding?

6655

A 59-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath, palpitations and dizziness. An ECG demonstrates changes consistent with coronary artery disease and a CT coronary angiogram is performed. Which one of the following is the most likely associated radiological finding?

6656

A 41-year-old man has previously had a large anterior myocardial infarction. He now presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and it is suspected that he has a degree of pulmonary venous hypertension (PVH) due to left ventricular failure. Which one of the following is the most likely radiological finding?

6657

A 27-year-old  woman is referred to the gastroenterology outpatient clinic with a 3-month history of upper abdominal pain. There is no past medical history of note, but her sister has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumour. A contrast-enhanced CT (portal venous phase) of the abdomen demonstrates a multicystic lesion in the head of the pancreas. The lesion contains 10 cysts measuring up to 15 mm in size with a small amount of calcification centrally. Several larger cysts are present in the pancreatic body and tail and both kidneys contain cortical cysts. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

6658

A 33-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with gradually increasing shortness of breath, such that now it is interfering with her daily activities. She has previously been diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus and it is thought that she may have pulmonary arterial hypertension as a result of chronic pulmonary thromboembolic disease. Which one of the following radiological signs is the most likely to be demonstrated?

6659

Whilst reporting a CXR requested by a GP, you note that the left lung demonstrates reduced pulmonary vascularity relative to the right lung and are undecided as to whether this is an apparent or real finding. Which one of the following conditions is a real cause of uneven pulmonary vascularity?

6660

A 37-year-old woman presents with episodes of dyspnoea, hypoxia and cyanosis. Initial laboratory investigations are unremarkable and a tuberculin test is negative. On her CXR, there is a lobulated opacity in the left lower lobe with an associated prominent vascular shadow. Inspiratory and expiratory films demonstrate a change in the size of the opacity. What is the most likely

6661

A 50-year-old woman has recently undergone major pelvic surgery. She was previously fit and well but now presents with acute onset of shortness of breath. The clinician suspects a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism and requests a CXR to exclude an alternative cause for the symptoms. Which of the following is the least likely radiological finding if an acute pulmonary embolus is present?

6662

A 57-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a cough. A CXR is normal and ventilation perfusion imaging using Tc-99m microaggregate albumin (MAA) and slmKr is performed. Which one of the following diagnoses is unlikely to demonstrate a reversed mismatch ventilation and perfusion defect?

6663

A 71-year-old man has collapsed at home, having complained of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has had similar episodes in the past caused by pulmonary emboli. What finding on review of his CTPA would be consistent with a diagnosis of acute rather than chronic pulmonary embolic disease?

6664

A 74-year-old woman is referred to the hepatology outpatient clinic with persistently abnormal liver function tests. There is a past medical history of myocardial infarction, atrial fibrillation and hypertension, but no previous history of liver disease. On abdominal ultrasound, the liver appears normal with antegrade portal venous flow demonstrated. A CT of the abdomen is performed and the mean density of the liver is 86 Hounsfield Units (HU) precontrast. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6665

A 68-year-old man presents to his GP with weighc loss and jaundice. Liver function tests demonstrate obstructive jaundice and an abdominal ultrasound shows mild intrahepatic biliary dilatation with a common bile ductmeasuring 12 mm in diameter. In the pancreatic head, a 3-cm hypoechoic mass is present. An ERCP is performed with insertion of a plastic stent and brushings confirm a pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. A triple-phase (precontrast, arterial and portal venous) multidetector CT of the pancreas is performed. Which finding would indicate a nonresectable pancreatic tumour?

6666

An 82-year-old woman is referred to the on-call surgical team as an emergency admission. The patient lives in a residential care home and has a 48-hour history of generalised abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, she is dehydrated and tachycardic and an abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated small bowel loops measuring up to 4.8 cm in diameter. A linear gas-filled structure is present in the right upper quadrant with short branches extending from it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6667

A 72-year-old man presents with a 3-month histoiy of significant weight loss, upper abdominal pain and pruritus. On examination the patient is clinically jaundiced and cachectic. A contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen demonstrates marked intrahepatic biliary dilatation, a dilated common bile duct and a mass in the pancreatic head. An attempted ERCP fails as the ampulla of Vater cannot be cannulated. The patient attends the Radiology Department for percutaneous biliary drainage. Which one of the following statements is true?

6668

A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of lethargy, nausea and itching. She was diagnosed with ulcerative colitis 8 years ago and has been treated with short courses of steroids and long-term oral mesalazine. Blood tests demonstrate an elevated serum bilirubin with markedly high alkaline phosphatase. MRCP demonstrates multiple biliary strictures with small diverticulae arising from the common duct. Which statement is true regarding the underlying diagnosis?

6669

A 31-year-old woman has a 6-month history of intermittent right upper quadrant pain. An abdominal ultrasound examination is performed and reveals a 3-cm hyperechoic mass in segment 6 of the liver. She undergoes an MRI examination of the liver with intravenous gadolinium. On the precontrast Tlw images, the signal intensity of the lesion is isointense to surrounding liver parenchyma. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the post-gadolinium Tlw images?

6670

A 32-year-old man attends the Emergency Department 2 hours after he was assaulted outside a night club. On examination, he is haemodynamically stable with abrasions and tenderness over the lower left chest. The patient reports that he sustained significant abdominal injuries following an assault 7 years ago. A contrast-enhanced CT of the chest and abdomen is performed and demonstrates a fracture of the left 10th rib, but no intrathoracic injury. There is no visible spleen but multiple small nodules of uniformly enhancing soft tissue are present in the left upper quadrant and extend to the left iliac fossa. No peritoneal free fluid is demonstrated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6671

2 years old boy while attending birthday party suddenly developed a widespread urticarial rash and has become flushed in the face. His vital signs are normal and have no respiratory compromise. Medication required to be given is:

6672

3 years old child had taken 10 iron tablets. On examination he is talkative, has no other medical problems. He is normally not any medication. First investigation to be done is:

6673

In which age range is greatest childhood mortality seen

6674

4 month old baby girl has history of constant crying and poor feeding. She is fed by bottle and infant formula. Mother complains it is difficult for her to cope. Child development, growth and physical examination are normal. Most likely cause of problem is:

6675

Child is having complement deficiency. All of the following vaccine are contraindicated:

6676

Recommended indications for use of intravenous immunoglobulin in children is:

6677

Vaccines containing adjuvants should be given by route:

6678

Vaccination schedule of Rota virus vaccine should be completed by age:

6679

Child is on immunosuppressive therapy for renal transplantation. True regarding vaccination in this child is:

6680

Child was diagnosed as having beta thalassemia major and splenectomy was done. In such a child:

6681

15 months old boy has received mumps, measles and rubella vaccination. He has no medical problems, no allergies and is not currently on any medication. Most appropriate next step in the pain management is:

6682

15 month old child has a fever of 38.5 degree C. He has had a runny nose, cough and a fever for 3 days. There is increased heart rate. He has rash present all are the body which does not disappear with pressure. Most likely diagnosis

6683

5-year-old boy presents with recent history of bruising easily. There is past history of upper respiratory tract infection two weeks back which resolved spontaneously. He is afebrile with some petechiae. Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time is normal. Most likely diagnosis is

6684

Organomegaly, macroglossia, hemihypertrophy all are seen in:

6685

Most important determinant of prognosis in Wilm tumour is:

6686

Deletion of chromosome 11 is involved in:

6687

Early onset renal failure and male pseudohermaphroditism are seen in syndrome:

6688

Wilms tumour is associated with all of the following except:

6689

All are true about infantile haemangioma except:

6690

Most common clinical presentation for Wilms tumor is:

6691

2-year-old boy with regular stools, abdominal mass and no hepatosplenomegaly. Abdominal mass does not cross the midline. Most likely diagnosis is

6692

Most common clinical presentation for Wilms tumor is:

6693

A child is expected to have Wilms tumor. Initial investigation of choice is:

6694

Early renal failure with renal mesangial sclerosis and male pseudohermaphroditism are seen in syndrome associated with Wilms tumour:

6695

Most common tumour with bony metastasis in children is:

6696

The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is:

6697

A child presented with abdominal mass hypertension, having calcification on X-ray and crossing the midline most probable it is:

6698

Neuroblastoma good prognosis factor is:

6699

A child presents with an abdominal swelling crossing the midline. Most likely it is:

6700

Most common malignant tumour of childhood, that metastasizes to bones is:

6701

Neuroblastoma good prognosis factor is:

6702

Most common site of metastases in neuroblastoma:

6703

Most common malignant tumour in children is:

6704

Most common solid tumour of childhood is:

6705

6 years old male presented with headache, nausea, vomiting, mental status changesand ataxia. Most likely diagnosis is:

6706

Medulloblastoma is:

6707

8 years old girl presented with midline swelling arising from cerebellum. The diagnosis is:

6708

2 year girl comes with history of developmental regression. She is very unsteady on her feet and has no obvious visual problems. There is no history of any febrile illness. Most likely diagnosis is

6709

Tumour associated with best prognosis in children is:

6710

A 10 year old child presented with headache, vomiting, gait instability and diplopia. On examination he had papilloedema and gait ataxia. The most probable diagnosis is:

6711

Which of the following childhood tumour show extracranial metastasis:

6712

Most common benign tumour in infancy is:

6713

A 18 month old child can:

6714

Child can use past tense at the age of:

6715

Child can make tower of 10 cubes, copies circle, knows age and sex, washes hands. The age of the child is:

6716

Supine position of the child at birth is:

6717

Child can transfer object from hand to hand. He or she can also:

6718

Child can crawl up the stairs at the age:

6719

Child can run well, walk up and down stairs one step at a time, can open doors, speak sentence of two words. The age of the child is:

6720

Child is able to construct a bridge of 3 cubes. The age of the child is:

6721

Child can make tower of 10 cubes, gate of 3 cubes. What other milestone will be seen in such a child?

6722

Child able to skip, draw a triangle, names heavier of 2 objects, names 4 colours by:

6723

Climbing stairs by keeping both feet on one step before climbing to next step occurs at:

6724

There is no head lag when pulled to steady position. Age of the child is:

6725

Child can go down stair one foot per step and skips on one foot. Age of the child is:

6726

18 months child has vocabulary of how many words:

6727

In a 1 year old concern is:

6728

Child can make a tower of 4 cubes, explores drawers and wastebaskets, runs, age of the child is:

6729

A three years old child can do all except:

6730

A child can speak sentence of 5 words and uses future tense. Age of the child is:

6731

Child can find object hidden under a cloth. Age of the child is:

6732

12 months old child can crawl but cannot walk. He can say two words with meaning. He impresses others by waving goodbye. Which area of development is delayed:

6733

Aryan is an active toddler. He remains dry during the day, can undress him but cannot dress himself. He does not play with his older siblings. He enjoys running and demands things by saying give me or take away. Developmental age of Aryan is:

6734

Ajay has a friend at nursery and they enjoy playing with toy cars together, developmental age of Ajay is:

6735

8 month old child was born at term. She does not crawl. She can say Dada but says it to everyone not just her father. She reaches out and grasps objects with her left hand but not with her right and puts objects in her mouth. She smiles but is not able to wave Bye-Bye. Which aspect of her development is most concern:

6736

All are the characteristic milestones in a 9 months old child except:

6737

A 18 month old child can:

6738

Child can make tower of 10 cubes, copies circle, knows age and sex, washes hands. The age of the child is:

6739

Child is able to run, does domestic mimicry the age of the child is:

6740

9 month old child can do all of the following except

6741

24 months old boy only babbles and says no distinct words. He is able to go upstairs and downstairs, draws a line and can wear shoes. Most appropriate in this is

6742

Child copies mother in dusting, washing and cleaning at the age of:

6743

Which of the following is serious concern at 1 yr of age:

6744

There is retardation of epiphyseal development in the following conditions of short stature except:

6745

Short stature, secondary to growth hormone deficiency is associated with:

6746

Reverse infantile body proportion is seen in

6747

Bone age less than chronological age is seen in all except

6748

Postnatally when is the growth velocity maximum:

6749

Approximately daily weight gain during the 1st 3 months of life is:

6750

Small fontanels can be seen in newborn in all of the following condition except:

6751

Small fontanels are seen in all of the following except:

6752

Child was short at birth but achieved normal mid parental height. Most likely due to:

6753

Intrauterine growth contributes to the final height/eventual height:

6754

9 month old female infant reports with history of not growing fast. She is only the 5th centile for height and 2nd centile for height. Greatest influence on her growth rate at her age is

6755

Deficiency of growth hormone leads to:

6756

Upper and lower portion of body disproportion with growth retardation is characteristically seen in:

6757

All are true while evaluating a case of short stature except:

6758

All are true about constitutional delay in growth and puberty except:

6759

Asymptomatic 3 year male child is brought for evaluation of short stature. His height is 80cm, upper segment measures 50cm and head circumference is 50 cm. Face is mildly dysmorphic with mild facial hypoplasia. Most likely diagnosis is:

6760

A 14-year-old girl is referred by her school nurse because she is found to be below the 0.4th centile for height. He mother is 167 cm tall and father is 175 cm tall. She was born at term, birth weight 3.2 kg. She says she has always been the shortest in the class. Physical examination reveals a girl in the early stages of puberty. Her previous history is unremarkable. Her blood pressure is 135/65 mmHg.

6761

In growth hormone deficiency there is

6762

A 9 years old girl is brought to OPD by her parents who are worried the she is shortest girl in her class. Her height is 120 cm and her weight 26 Kg. The rest of her physical examination shows nothing abnormal. Her father is 175 cm tall and her mother, who attained menarche at the age of 16 years, is 165 cm tall. The patient wrist X-ray show a bone age of 8 years, diagnosis is:

6763

Bone age is normal in:

6764

Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is:

6765

18 months old boy with history of vomiting and had diarrhea for 3 days. His stool is watery and foul smelling but has no blood in it. On examination there is mild dehydration but is otherwise normal. Most likely organism causing his symptoms is:

6766

2 years old has history of diarrhea for the last 3 months. He produces upto 4 stools a day which are loose, brown in color and usually contains undigested food. Rest of her family are well. On examination child is normal and he is growing on the 50th centile. Most likely diagnosis is:

6767

Assessment of dehydration in severely malnourished children is done by:

6768

A child having diarrhoea is said to have minimal or no dehydration if the loss of body weight is less than:

6769

One of the intestinal enzymes that is generally deficient in children following an attack of severe infections enteritis is:

6770

Oral rehydration therapy can be given in a child having diarrhea in:

6771

Best intravenous fluid for treatment of dehydration due to diarrhea is:

6772

The most common finding in children with severe viral enteritis

6773

A 6-year-old drowsy child came in emergency with history of vomiting, loose motion for 3 days. On examination he had sunken eyes, hypothermia, skin on pinching was taking 5 seconds to revert. What is your diagnosis?

6774

A child presents with malnutrition and persistent diarrhea. Apart from antibiotics what would you like to add in your prescription?

6775

Molar ratio of Sodium and Glucose in WHO ORS in

6776

Incidence of celiac disease is increased in all of the following syndrome except:

6777

Most common cause of death in celiac disease is:

6778

Most common extraintestinal manifestation of celiac disease is:

6779

The following cereals should be avoided in patients with celiac disease, except:

6780

12 years comes with complaints of gradual loss of vision, ataxia, intention tremors, loss of vibration and position sense. There is history of chronic diarrhea with passage of bulky frothy stools. His plasma cholesterol was 28 mg/dL and his serum triglycerides here 12 mg/dL. Most likely diagnosis is

6781

All are the features of abetalipoproteinemia except:

6782

A 2-year-old boy presented with abdominal distension, chronic diarrhea, severe anemia and failure to thrive. Which of the following is the investigation of choice?

6783

Most common indication for liver transplant in children is:

6784

Most common cause of cholestatic jaundice in new born is:

6785

All of the following can cause precocious puberty in males except:

6786

A 5 years old girl presents with hypertension and virilization. There is also finding of hypokalemia, what is the diagnosis?

6787

A 5 yr old boy presents with pubic hair development. He is tall and has increased pigmentation of his genitalia and phallic enlargement. Blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. Measurement of which of the following hormones would be most likely to be diagnostic:

6788

Which of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia:

6789

False statement regarding congenital adrenal hyperplasia is:

6790

15-day-old female infant, has congenital adrenal hyperplasia. There is history of vomiting since morning and tachycardia. On examination there is capillary refill time of 3 seconds. On examination there is hypoglycaemia. Out of the following best management is

6791

Baby at birth has disorder of sexual differentiation. There is suspicion of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Confirmation of diagnosis requires

6792

Hypertension with androgenisation of a female child is a feature of congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to deficiency of:

6793

Which of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia:

6794

Hypertension is seen in congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to deficiency of:

6795

Increased androgen level causing ambigious genitalia is seen in deficiency of:

6796

Pseudohermaphrodtism in a female child is most commonly due to:

6797

Most common enzyme deficiency leading to childhood hypertension is:

6798

All are the features of 21 hydroxylase deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia except:

6799

Term neonate was diagnosed to have hypothyroidism based on initial routine neonatal screening. On BERA there is bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Most likely diagnosis:

6800

All are the features of congenital hypothyroidism except:

6801

Most common cause of acquired hypothyroidism in children is

6802

Best approach out of the following to screen for congenital hypothyroidism is

6803

A 3 months old child is apathic, dull-looking, dwarf and has constipation decrease in bone age. Diagnosis:

6804

Delayed eruption of teeth seen in all except:

6805

A child is born to a mother taking anti thyroid drug during pregnancy. The screening for thyroxine hormone should be done at:

6806

8 years old child presents with lethargy multiple epiphyseal breaks, wormian bone with growth retardation and mental retardation, diagnosis is:

6807

Congenital hypothyroidism is characterized by all except:

6808

6-months-old child, with complaints of crying very less and sleeping most of the time comes in clinic. On examination the baby has poor head control and is not yet reaching for objects. Skin is dry, hypotonic muscles, mild pallor and no teeth. Rest of the physical examination is normal. Most likely diagnosis is

6809

The most common cause of Permanent Congenital Hypothyroidism is:

6810

Cornerstone of the diagnosis of neonatal herpes simplex virus is:

6811

A term baby is born to a mother via elective caesarean section. The mother is diagnosed to have HIV infection. The baby test for HIV DNA PCR positive within 48 hrs. What does it imply?

6812

Breast milk is known to transmit:

6813

Blueberry muffin rash can be seen in neonatal period due to infection by all of the following except:

6814

All are correctly matched regarding congenital infection except:

6815

Microcephaly is seen in the following congenital infection except:

6816

Rhinitis, Rhagades and Pesudoparalysis of parrot are seen in congenital infection:

6817

In an infant to mother with Hepatitis B virus infection, hepatitis B vaccine and Hepatitis B immunoglobulin should be given not later than:

6818

For the treatment of congenital toxoplasmosis pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine are given for:

6819

Most common long term sequelae in congenital cytomegalovirus infection is:

6820

Infant is most likely to have neonatal varicella if mother gets chickenpox:

6821

In herpes simplex virus II causing skin, eye and mouth lesions in neonate, drug given is:

6822

Microcephaly, cerebellar hypoplasia and subcortical calcification in neonate is seen in congenital infection:

6823

Which of the following agent is likely to cause cerebral calcification & hydrocephalus in a newborn whose mother has history of taking spiramycin but was not compliant with therapy?

6824

1 week old baby born term comes in the ophthalmology clinic because of cataract. He has a head circumference of 32 cm, weight 2.3 Kg, mild jaundice, pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. He failed his newborn screening test. Investigation of choice is:

6825

Child is 24 hrs old. Mother develops chicken pox (Varicella) 1 day after his delivery. Best advice for the mother is:

6826

Microcephaly with periventricular calcification is seen in congenital infection:

6827

All are true about clinical finding in congenital rubella syndrome except:

6828

Newborn is having cicatricial rashes in dermatomal distribution. This is suggestive of infection by

6829

Limb hypoplasia, cicatricial skin lesion, cortical atrophy are seen in congenital infection:

6830

Blueberry muffin rash is seen in intrauterine infection:

6831

Nonimmune hydrops is seen in intrauterine infection:

6832

Sensorineural hearing loss can be seen in all intrauterine infection except:

6833

Hutchinson triad seen in congenital syphilis includes all except:

6834

All are the late complications of congenital rubella syndrome except:

6835

Periventricular calcification is seen in:

6836

Baby was born at 30 weeks of gestation and head ultrasonography showed periventricular leukomalacia. On physical examination there is brisk reflexes, ankle clonus and bilateral Babinski sign. Most likely the type of cerebral palsy seen will be:

6837

Mother is having herpetic lesions on the breast in this case:

6838

Mother was diagnosed as having Hepatitis B in pregnancy. Breast feeding should be started in child:

6839

All are complications seen in infant of diabetic mother except:

6840

All are true about cephalhematoma except:

6841

Most common disorder identified by routine new born screening is:

6842

Investigation of choice to diagnose intraventricular haemorrhage in the new born is:

6843

All are components of Apgar scare except:

6844

All of the following statement about birth trauma are true except:

6845

All are helpful in diagnosis for congenital infection in new born babies except:

6846

Characteristics of caput succedaneum include all of the following except

6847

Low birth weight baby is defined as

6848

Moderate Hypothermia in a neonate is defined as an axillary temperature

6849

A baby is born with meconium stained liquor. Which of the following is taken account of terming a baby vigorous except in:

6850

Treatment modality for term babies with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy is:

6851

Most important mechanism of reducing bilirubin in phototherapy:

6852

Which should be measured in a new-born who presents with hyperbilirubinemia:

6853

Most common cause of respiratory distress in a term child born after LSCS is:

6854

Silverman and Downe scoring system is used for monitoring in new born for:

6855

All of the following are components of Kangaroo Mother Care except:

6856

Hypothermia is more commonly seen in preterm infant due to all of the following except:

6857

Microsomia is defined as:

6858

Newborn is having retinal hemorrhages. Advice to be given to parents is:

6859

Neonatal jaundice seen in all of the following congenital RBC disorder except:

6860

Large for gestational age is birth weight more than:

6861

Jaundice is most likely to be physiologic in a term infant in which of the following situations:

6862

Which of the following is not an indication to start positive pressure breaths to a baby

6863

10 days old child has increased unconjugated bilirubin. On peripheral blood smear spherocytes are present and Coomb test is negative. It is mostly seen in:

6864

True regarding development of parachute reflex in a child is:

6865

99% of term infants and 95% of premature infants pass meconium within:

6866

Most frequently associated problem with cesarean section among the following is:

6867

In a neonate heart rate less than 100 beats/min. Next line of management is:

6868

Diagnosis of Necrotizing enterocolitis is made by:

6869

All are the risk factors for development of hyperbilirubinemia in neonate except:

6870

Most important cause of neonatal jaundice presenting within first 24 hours of life is:

6871

All are the components of sepsis screen to rule out neonatal sepsis except:

6872

Severe bradycardia in neonate is heart rate below:

6873

Dilution of epinephrine used for neonatal resuscitation is:

6874

In all premature infants <32 weeks of gestation following is recommended:

6875

In an infant of diabetic mother following investigations are recommended on day 1 of life:

6876

24 hours old neonate has not passed meconium and there is suspicion of meconium ileus. Best to be done here is:

6877

All of the following can cause neonatal jaundice on day 1 of life except:

6878

Risk of development of respiratory distress syndrome increases in all of the following except:

6879

Chest compressions are given in neonate in:

6880

All are the findings seen in necrotizing enterocolitis except:

6881

Physiological jaundice in a term child can present upto:

6882

All are true about breast milk jaundice except:

6883

Late onset neonatal sepsis is defined as the onset of symptoms after:

6884

For prediction of neonatal sepsis ratio of immature to total neutrophil count is:

6885

Direct reacting hyperbilirubinemia on 10 day of life suggests all of following except:

6886

A 3600 g breast fed female 42 weeks gestational age is noted to have persistent hyperbilirubinemia at 2 weeks of age. On physical examination the infant has not gained weight since birth and has decrease tone, an umbilical hernia and an anterior fontanel measuring 4x6 cm. The most likely diagnosis is:

6887

Classic onset of hemorrghic disease of new born is due to:

6888

Resuscitation is not indicated in all of the following except

6889

A full term male Infant appears Jaundice during the first 24 hours of life due to ABO incompatibility and Coombs positive results. His serum bilirubin level is 35 mg/dl. A double-volume exchange transfusion is performed. The most likely morbidity is:

6890

A patient with apgar score 1 and 2 at 1 and 5 min, respectively appear hyper-alert and has hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and mydriasis. The most common likely diagnosis is:

6891

In all of the following skin lesion in neonate no therapy is required except in:

6892

A full term infant was born 12 hours ago. His mother is blood group O positive and her membranes ruptured 2 days before delivery. He is breast feeding well and child appears Jaundiced. Which investigation should be done first:

6893

Child was born at 37 weeks of gestation, birth weight of 2.8 kg. He had fast breathing at 2 hours of age. RR is 72/min and has moderate chest recession. Heart sounds are difficult to hear on the left and her apex beat is palpable on the right side of the chest. Probable diagnosis is:

6894

1500 gm child presented with abdominal distension & increased gastric residuals. There is history of enteral feeds present. On examination abdominal tenderness and right lower quadrant mass. There is presence of gas in portal vein on ultrasonography. Appropriate management is:

6895

All are the causes of increased unconjugated bilirubin in neonatal period except:

6896

All of the following neonatal screening is correctly matched except:

6897

35 weeks old female born via elective LSCS cried immediately after birth and did not require any resuscitation. Mother is primigravida who had no risk factors for sepsis. She developed tachypnea soon after birth with mild to moderate subcostal recessions. Likely diagnosis is:

6898

5 days old girl term child developed at home presented in emergency for bruise and gastrointestinal bleeding. There is no history of maternal drug during pregnancy. There is no family history of similar problems. Platelet count is 3 lakhs/cumm. Most likely diagnosis is:

6899

38 weeks infant is born via normal vaginal delivery. Birth weight is 3.8 kgs. He is jittery and lethargic at 24 hours of age. On examination he is plethoric. First investigation to be done is:

6900

Term neonate at birth required prolonged resuscitation. At birth he was cyanosed, with HR less than 60/min. His condition improved with IPPV. At 1 hour of age he is lethargic with diminished spontaneous movements. He has mild hypotonia with a weak suck. Most likely diagnosis is:

6901

All of the following are the respiratory problems seen in extremely low birth weight infants except:

6902

A newborn whose estimated gestational age is 42 weeks is stained with meconium. Tracheal intubation reveals meconium in the hypopharynx as well as below the vocal cords. The infant has respiratory distress. A chest radiograph is obtained. Which of the following, the MOST likely radiographic finding is

6903

All are the features of HIE except:

6904

All are the risk factors leading to increased incidence of Necrotising enterocolitis except:

6905

After finishing with the initial steps of resuscitation in a baby, you find the heart rate to be 10 beats, minute. What will be your next action?

6906

Condition commonly seen in female newborn and usually requires no treatment

6907

All are the risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome/hyaline membrane disease in new born except

6908

Antenatal steroids decrease the incidence of all of the following except

6909

Regarding use of methlyanthines in apnea of prematurity all are true except

6910

Presence of the following condition in neonate is considered to be pathological jaundice except

6911

Prophylactic antibiotics are started in the neonates in the following situation

6912

Single greatest risk factor for necrotizing enterocolitis is

6913

In case of seizures due to hypoglycaemia in a newborn treat with loading dose of the following

6914

2-day old infant, birth weight 3.5 kgs, normal vaginal delivery, apgar score of 8 and 10. On day 2 he is jittery and feeding poorly. There is abnormal movement. There is no jaundice, no dysmorphic features. Most likely is

6915

Retinal hemorrhage in a newborn is least common with:

6916

All can be physiological findings in a neonate except:

6917

Most serious complication of chronic oligohydramnios is:

6918

A mother is found to have glycosuria at 32 weeks gestation. Her glucose tolerance test and fasting glucose is abnormal. There is increased risk of following in newborn baby?

6919

Extremely preterm also called as extremely low gestational age newborns is infants born before:

6920

24 hours old neonate has respiratory distress, scaphoid abdomen and bowel sounds are present in chest. This is suggestive of:

6921

In a term child with hypoxic brain injury, most sensitive image modality is:

6922

In term infants with labored breathing after stimulation, there is no respiration. All of the following should be done except:

6923

Pulse oximeter should be placed in neonate for SpO2 monitoring on:

6924

Following chest X-ray was seen at 24 hours in preterm child born at 32 weeks of gestation. It is suggestive of:

6925

Meconium plug syndrome is seen in all except:

6926

Pathological jaundice is considered as conjugated bilirubin:

6927

All are true about breast milk jaundice except:

6928

In biliary atresia, cystic fibrosis & neonatal hepatitis there is risk of hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. It usually presents at:

6929

All of the following biochemical changes can be seen in infant of diabetic mother at birth except:

6930

Most common source of postnatal infection in hospitalized newborns is:

6931

Following picture is suggestive of neonatal reflex:

6932

All are true about mongalian spots seen in neonate except

6933

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding neonatal sepsis?

6934

A 6-day-old neonate weighing 2800 gm (Birth weight 3200 gm), was brought with c/o fever, poor feeding and poor activity. No history of vomiting or diarrhea. Axillary temperature was 39 degree C, there was depressed fontanelle, sunken eyes, decreased urine output and decreased skin turgor. Her mother has a history of decreased milk production. What is your diagnosis?

6935

A newborn presents with jaundice within 1st 24 hours. His mothers blood group is O positive. Next line of management is?

6936

All affect effectiveness of phototherapy except:

6937

Indication for surgery in Necrotizing Enterocolitis is?

6938

After the delivery of an infant of diabetic mother, glucose of the infant was 60 mg/dL. Which other investigation would you like to do?

6939

A 26-year-old third gravida mother delivered a male baby weighing 4.2 kg at 37 weeks of gestation through an emergency caesarean section, for obstructed labour. The child developed respiratory distress one hour after birth. He was kept nil per orally (NPO) and given intravenous fluids. He maintained oxygen saturation on room air. No antibiotics were given. Chest radiograph revealed fluid in interlobar fissure. Respiratory distress settled by 24 hours of life. What is the most likely diagnosis?

6940

A preterm infant with poor respiration at birth starts throwing seizures at 10 hours after birth. Antiepileptic of choice shall be:

6941

APGAR acronym stands for?

6942

What is the interpretation of Apgar score of 3?

6943

A neonate preductal SpO2 target at 10 min of life is:

6944

Out of the following the right position of head and neck to open the airway in neonate is:

6945

All of the following are indications for positive pressure ventilation in neonate except:

6946

Most important indicator of successful positive pressure ventilation in neonate is:

6947

Preterm child with respiratory distress syndrome has SpO2 less than 90 percent while breathing 40-70 percent oxygen and receiving nasal CPAP. Next step in management is:

6948

Bochdalek hernia is the following defect in diaphragm:

6949

Microscopic examination of this erythematous rash on a 5-day old infant reveals:

6950

Characteristics radiological feature of transient tachypnea of new born is:

6951

All are regions affected in brain in kernicterus except

6952

Most specific congenital heart disease in infant of diabetic mother is

6953

Most common mutation in cystic fibrosis is deletion of phenylalanine at 508 positions. The effect on CFTR gene due to this mutation is:

6954

Newborn screening for cystic fibrosis is done by measuring

6955

10-year-old female with cystic fibrosis is having pallor, hepatosplenomegaly. On further investigation there is Hb–9gm/dL, TLC–2000/cumm and platelets count 50000 cumm. Liver enzymes are moderately increased. Most likely patient has developed the complication

6956

All are true about cystic fibrosis except:

6957

Most common mutation in cystic fibrosis is deletion of phenylalanine at the position:

6958

4 year old boy presented with recurrent chest infections. Sweat chloride test was done, showed values of 36 and 42. What is the next best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

6959

Earliest pathologic lesion in the lungs in cystic fibrosis is:

6960

8-year-old girl with diagnosis of cystic fibrosis presents with 3 days history of increasing abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination there is distended abdomen with tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Plain abdomen films show dilated bowel loops with fluid levels. Possible diagnosis is

6961

Recurrent Pneumonia is defined as:

6962

All are true about acute epiglottitis in children except:

6963

What is the grade of asthma severity in a child having

6964

Humanized monoclonal antibody that provides immunoprophylaxis against serious lower respiratory tract infection caused by Respiratory syncytial virus is:

6965

10 years old boy has history of recurrent chest infection with productive cough. He has normal temperature, pink skin and mucous membranes and normal heart sounds. On auscultation bilateral basal crepts are present. Sweat test is negative and clubbing is present. It is most likely a case of:

6966

9 months old boy present with fever and difficulty in breathing for the last 3 days. On examination there is subcostal &intercostals recession and wheezes present throughout the lung field. On chest X ray there is hyperinflated chest. Best management in this child is:

6967

4 years old boy comes to hospital with shortness of breath. He is able to talk but has oxygen saturation of 90%. His capillary refill time is less than 2 second. Most appropriate step in the management is:

6968

5 year old child presents with 1 day history of sore throat and high temperature. Over the last 8 hrs he is having difficulty in breathing. He is unable to swallow his saliva. Most likely diagnosis is:

6969

3 year old boy has history of Hacking cough that started several weeks ago and failed to respond to two courses of antibiotics. His growth is normal. On examination there is decreased air entry in the right lower zone with normal percussion note. Most appropriate next step is:

6970

3 year old boy has history of recurrent wheezing associated with upper respiratory tract infections. Which of the following features most supports the diagnosis of asthma:

6971

A 2 yrs old girl came with fever, cough in emergency. She had respiratory rate 36 min, barking cough and stridor which increased on crying. Child was stable, accepting orally. Next line of management is

6972

Regarding bronchiolitis one of the following statements is not true:

6973

10 year old girl has frequent attacks of asthma. There is history of increasing difficulty in breathing over the last 12 hours. She is anxious, sitting upright and is unable to complete a sentence. Which of the following statement is most likely to be correct

6974

7-month-old female presented with recent onset of diarrhea. There is history of recurrent periods of loose stools, frequent otitis media and upper respiratory infections. There is no history of vomiting and fever. Her celiac serology and HIV elisa are negative. Most likely condition is

6975

True in RSV–positive bronchiolitis is:

6976

Steeple sign on X-ray is seen in:

6977

Treatment of mild croup is:

6978

Indication for use of long acting bronchodilators in bronchial asthma is:

6979

In all of the following steroids can be given except:

6980

A 11 months old child presents with complaints of respiratory distress. On examination there is bilateral crepitation and wheezing. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

6981

Which of the following is the aetiological agent most often associated with Epiglottitis in children:

6982

A month old HIV positive child following URTI developed sudden onset breathlessness. The chest X-ray shows hyperinflation. The O2 saturation was greater than 90%. The treatment of choice is:

6983

If a 5 year old child suddenly develops stridor, which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis:

6984

Asthma in children, to diagnose improvement in FEV1 is more than after bronchodilator therapy:

6985

A 2 yrs old girl came with fever, cough in emergency. She had resp rate 36, min barking cough and stridor which increased on crying. Child was stable, accepting orally. Next line of management is

6986

Most common cause of chronic recurrent aspiration in children is:

6987

Definitive diagnosis of tracheomalacia and bronchomalacia is made by:

6988

In treatment of bronchiolitis all of the following are given in previously healthy infant except:

6989

In management of asthma Long acting inhaled β agonists are used as:

6990

18 months old girl presents with coryza, cough and Mild fever for 3 days. Respiratory rate is normal and there is no chest recession. Most likely diagnosis is:

6991

In primary ciliary dyskinesia there is mutation in protein:

6992

4 month old infant has rapid breathing since 2 days. His temperature is 37.4 degree C and respiratory rate of 60 breaths/min. Chest is hyperinflated. There are fine crackles and wheezes. Most likely diagnosis is:

6993

Fast breathing is a child aged 6 months is respiratory rate more than:

6994

According to IMNCI all of the following are danger signs in a child except:

6995

According to IMNCI all are considered as dangerous signs except:

6996

Pneumonia in child is defined as presence of cough and child and:

6997

Bronchodilator of choice in a child having tracheomalacia or bronchomalacia is:

6998

Following drugs are not indicated in bronchiolitis caused by respiratory synctial virus:

6999

All are the features suggestive of bronchial asthma except:

7000

9 month old boy, presents with fever and difficulty in breathing for the last 2 days. There is no previous history of illness and growth is normal. On examination respiratory rate 60/min, bilateral scattered wheezes throughout both lung fields, Heart sound normal and there is no hepatomegaly. Most likely it is:

7001

Abnormal finding is:

7002

5-year-old child has history of recurrent pneumonia and history of 3 episodes of diarrhea in past. On examination there is anemiaHb 4.5 gm/dL and blood group matched blood was transfused. On transfusion there is severe reaction. Most likely it is

7003

2-year-old male child is brought to health care centre with findings of respiratory rate of 60/min without any chest indrawing. Next step in management is

7004

3-year-old boy presents with fever and cough. On examination there is temperature of 39.6 degree C. Mother complains that child is refusing fluids. Child is sitting on mother lap quietly. RR is 40 per minute and SpO2 92 percent in room air. Most likely diagnosis is

7005

8-month-old child came with worsening cough. On examination temperature is 37.6 degree C, Respiratory rate 70 per minute, moderate intercostal recession. On auscultation there is bilateral fine crepts present. Most appropriate treatment is

7006

30-month old child comes with complaint of fever 101 degree F and cough. On chest X-ray there is right middle lobe infiltrate. Patient was examined twice in last month with diagnosis of right middle lobe infiltrates. Mantoux test is negative. No other complaints. Most likely diagnosis is

7007

Most common leukemia seen in infancy in Down syndrome is:

7008

In Down syndrome incidence of the following conditions can be increased except:

7009

Most common endocrinal disorder seen in Downs syndrome is:

7010

This picture is seen in trisomy of chromosome no:

7011

Screening for Down syndrome in 1st trimester is done by:

7012

All are the feature of Down syndrome seen at birth except:

7013

There is increased risk of death in adults with Down syndrome due to all of the following except:

7014

Life expectancy for children with Down syndrome:

7015

Screening for obstructive sleep apnea in children with Down syndrome should start at:

7016

Screening for Down syndrome in 2nd trimester of pregnancy should be done in:

7017

Following is decreased in Down syndrome:

7018

4 years old girl Down syndrome has history of constipation. Her height has decreased from the 75th centile to the 25th centile. Her weight has increased from 50th centile to 75th centile. Investigation to be done is:

7019

All are true about Down syndrome except:

7020

5 year old boy with Down syndrome comes with history of loss of height and not gaining weight since last 6 months. His appetite is decreased. Most likely cause is

7021

True regarding screening in Down syndrome is all except:

7022

Following picture is suggestive of trisomy of chromosome

7023

5-year-old male child Downs syndrome and mental retardation comes in clinic. Which joint will you prefer to examine the most

7024

In a child with Down syndrome, 3 year old following examination is required routinely except

7025

All are skeletal feature seen in Turner syndrome except:

7026

True about fragile X syndrome is:

7027

All are the findings seen in Turner syndrome at birth except:

7028

Chromosome disorder not associated with increased maternal age is:

7029

Edema of hands and feet in infants is characteristic of:

7030

Short fourth metacarpal and metatarsal are seen in syndrome:

7031

Short stature female, with shield like chest, with widely spaced nipples, cubitus valgus has karyotype

7032

All of the following are true about Noonan syndrome except:

7033

Commonest cardiac lesion associated with Noonan syndrome is:

7034

Child with antimongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis, short stature and undercended testis. Diagnosis is:

7035

The adolescent is most likely having the chromosomal disorder:

7036

There is increased incidence of all of the following in Klinefeller syndrome except:

7037

Puberty in Klinefelter syndrome is:

7038

All are true about Klinefelter syndrome except:

7039

A patient of 47 XXY karyotype with feature of hypogonadism, likely diagnosis is:

7040

There is increased incidence of all of the following in Klinefelter syndrome except

7041

15-year-old male child was brought to OPD for evaluation of small testis and under developed secondary sexual characters. On physical examination the bilateral breasts are prominent. Karyotype was done and is shown below. Stature of the child is expected to be

7042

2-year-old child presented with recurrent diarrhea and failure to thrive. On examination there is edema and finger clubbing. tTG for both IgA and IgG is positive. There is high frequency of this disease is all of the following chromosomal disorders except

7043

All are the features seen in trisomy 18 Edward syndrome except:

7044

Examination of a term child at birth shows cleft lip and palate, small area of scalp where there is no skin and six toes on both feet. He has a loud systolic murmur. This is suggestive of:

7045

Clenched hand overlapping of digits, hypertonicity, narrow bifrontal diameter are seen in trisomy of chromosome no:

7046

All are the features of trisomy 13/patau syndrome except

7047

All the following linkages between childhood disorder and chromosomal locations are correct except:

7048

All are features of Turner syndrome except:

7049

Repeat sequences of codon are correctly matched in all except:

7050

Syndrome in pedigree represents:

7051

In X–Linked recessive inheritance chances of having an affected son in case of female carrier is:

7052

Criduchat syndrome is due to deletion of the chromosome:

7053

This symbol denotes ________ in pedigree analysis

7054

The pedigree below shows which phenomenon:

7055

6 years old baby with large face, large jaw and macroorchidism is:

7056

All are the characteristic features of autosomal dominant disorders except:

7057

Male to male transmission of a genetic disorder excludes:

7058

All are the features of Williams syndrome except:

7059

Proband in pedigree refers to:

7060

In all of the following malignant tumours are seen except:

7061

A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evaluation (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?

7062

14 year old girl attend clinic with complaint of shortest girl in class. She always been the shortest girl in class. Her chromosome keryotype is 46,XX. She has short webbed neck and shield like chest. Most likely it is case of:

7063

A woman with one gene for haemophilia and one gene for color blindness on one of the X chromosome marries a normal man. How will the progeny be:

7064

Identify the following pedigree. Which of the following disease is transmitted like this

7065

Normal urinary protein excretion in children is

7066

A 5 years old child suffering from Nephrotic syndrome is responding well to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy:

7067

Most common chronic glomerular disease seen in children is:

7068

All are true about acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis except:

7069

A child with nephrotic syndrome has sudden development of gross hematuria and unilateral flank mass. On ultrasonography there is marked renal enlargement and radionuclide scan shows no renal function in the affected kidney. Most likely cause is:

7070

3 year old boy comes with history of swelling on face. Mother gave history that he ate peanuts in party and it started after that. On examination there is abdominal distension, bilateral scrotal swelling and pitting edema of his lower limbs. On urine dipstick 4+ protein and leukocyte negative. Renal function tests are normal and complements are normal. Most likely diagnosis is:

7071

4 year old child with nephrotic syndrome presents with fever, vomiting, severe abdominal pain and abdominal distension. In blood tests there is peripheral leucocytosis with predominance of polymorphonuclear cells. On asctic tap there is polymorphonuclear cells > 250 cells/uL. Most common organism causing this is:

7072

Remission in nephrotic syndrome has urine protein : Creatinine ratio of:

7073

A 10 years old boy has steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome since last 3 years. On examination his B.P. is 130 by 90 mm Hg with cushingoid features. Opthalmological examination revealed posterior subcapsular cataract. The most appropriate treatment of choice for his nephrotic syndrome would be

7074

Infants who develop nephrotic syndrome within the first _____ months of life are considered to have congenital nephrotic syndrome?

7075

Urine protein to creatinine ratio < 0.2 suggests

7076

Dose of prednisolone in the initial episode of nephrotic syndrome in children is

7077

Infrequent relapses in nephrotic syndrome is

7078

Child having nephrotic syndrome was given steroids for 4 weeks. Nephrotic range proteinuria is still present. Next step in management is

7079

Nephrotic range proteinuria is defined as protein excretion of more than

7080

Best method of estimation of amount of proteinuria in a 2 year old child with nephrotic syndrome is:

7081

Child having nephrotic syndrome was given steroids for 8 weeks. Even after 8 weeks proteinuria is persisting. Such a child should now be managed with:

7082

True about minimal change nephrotic syndrome is:

7083

Best response to steroids is observed with:

7084

The finnish type of congenital nephritic syndrome occurs due to gene mutation affecting the following protein:

7085

All are feature of nephrotic syndrome in children except:

7086

All of the following are decreased in nephrotic syndrome except:

7087

A 5 year old chid suffering from nephrotic syndrome is responding well to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy:

7088

A 9 year old boy has steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome for the last 5 year. The patient is markedly cushingoid and small subcapsular cataracts. The most appropriate therapy of choice is:

7089

Steroid responsive nephrotic syndrome means that remission is seen to steroid in week:

7090

Not a feature of Henoch–Schonlein purpura:

7091

A 8 year old boy presents to casualty with history of diarrhoea, following by decreased urine output. Blood examination shows thrombocytes 90000/cm2, diagnosis:

7092

Urine analysis should be done upto _______ months after the development of rash in case of Henoch-Scholein Purpura:

7093

All are the clinical manifestation of Hemolytic Uremic syndrome except:

7094

5 year old boy with history of diarrhea for 3 days now comes with history of not passed urine for 12 hrs. His hemoglobin is 7.9gm/dL and platelet count is 50000/cumm. Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time is normal. Best management in this child is:

7095

Hemolytic uraemic syndrome can be seen in all of the following infection except:

7096

Which of the following is/are not the feature of Henoch-schonleinpurpura (HSP):

7097

An 8 year old boy presents with petechie, azotemic oliguria, altered sensorium in casualty. There is history of diarrhoea for the past 5 days. The clinical diagnosis is:

7098

All are true about Henoch-Schonlein purpura nephritis except:

7099

Henoch schonlein purpura commonly involves age group:

7100

6-year-old female has severe abdominal pain. There is rash on her legs, buttocks and extensor aspect of elbow. The complement C3 is normal. Most likely diagnosis is

7101

Which of the following is most appropriate method for obtaining a urine specimen for culture in an 8 months old girl?

7102

Following are indications of micturating cystourethrography except:

7103

Investigation of choice for assessing a child with vesicoureteric reflux is:

7104

A 6 month old male child presented with growth failure. On investigation he was diagnosed to have bilateral primary grade V vesicoureteric reflux. The treatment of choice would be

7105

Antibody titer done for evidence of cutaneous streptococcus infection in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is:

7106

Complement C3 level comes to normal in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis in:

7107

Most common underlying anomaly in a child with recurrent urinary tract infection is:

7108

Renal biopsy is required in acute glomerulonephritis if there low complement C3 levels beyond

7109

Radiological investigation to be done after first episode of UTI in a child aged 3 years is

7110

Child presents with urine output < 0.5 ml/kg/hr for 6 -12 hours. According to KDIGO staging of acute kidney injury it is stage

7111

Criteria for definition of chronic kidney disease in children is

7112

Most common cause of death in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease is:

7113

A neonate presented with abdominal mass. The most common cause is

7114

In an infant there is presence of bilateral palpable flank mass with pulmonary hyperplasia, oligohydraminos and hypertension. On ultrasonography cysts are absent in parents. This is suggestive of

7115

An otherwise healthy 1-year-old girl has had several episodes in which she becomes cyanotic and loses consciousness after crying. She is brought to the office 1 hour after an episode. She is alert, takes a few steps, and says mama to her mother. The physical examination findings are normal. Of the following, the MOST appropriate next step in the evaluation is to:

7116

Febrile seizures can evolve to or become associated with all of the following epilepsy syndrome except:

7117

All are the factors associated with increased recurrence of febrile seizure except:

7118

9 month old infant has unusual movements. There are episodes of suddenly throwing her hand and arms forward which occur in repetitive bursts. She was able to sit but has stopped doing so. This is suggestive of:

7119

15 month old boy had history of running nose and cough for 2 days. He suddenly becomes stiff, eyes rolled upwards and both arms and legs had jerking for 2 minutes. His temperature was increased and after 2 hrs he recovered fully. Milestones are normal and neurological examination is normal. Most appropriate investigation:

7120

5 years old has episodes where she stops her activity for a few seconds, stares blankly ahead and then resumes the activity as if she had never stopped. These episodes happen many times in a day. Most appropriate management in this child will be:

7121

A child presents with short episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacant episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal. The likely diagnosis is:

7122

14 year old boy gives history of regularly spilling his tea in the morning because his arms jerks involuntarily. He is doing relatively well at school. Most likely diagnosis is

7123

Child aged 4 years comes with history of waking at night with a shout. He looks awake but confused. He goes back to sleep soon afterwards and next morning cannot recall any of these night time events. There is no associated medical problem. Most likely is

7124

All are true about juvenile myoclonic epilepsy except:

7125

True about absence epilepsy is:

7126

All are the risk factors associated with recurrence of febrile seizures except:

7127

All are true about febrile convulsion except:

7128

All are the features of absence seizures except:

7129

All are true about breath holding spells except:

7130

Hallmark feature of subacute slcerosing encephalitis is:

7131

Which of the following abnormality is associated with Juvenile Myoclinic Epilepsy:

7132

Most common molecular defect seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy is:

7133

All are the features of Duchenne muscular dystrophy except:

7134

All are true about febrile seizures except:

7135

All are the features of simple febrile seizures except:

7136

True regarding benign childhood epilepsy with centratemporal spikes is:

7137

All are true about breath holding spell except:

7138

9 month old infant has unusual movements. There are episodes of suddenly throwing her hand and arms forward which occur in repetitive bursts. She was able to sit but has stopped doing so. This is suggestive of:

7139

15 month old boy had history of running nose and cough for 2 days. He suddenly becomes stiff, eyes rolled upwards and both arms and legs had jerking for 2 minutes. His temperature was increased and after 2 hrs he recovered fully. Milestones are normal and neurological examination is normal. Most appropriate investigation:

7140

5 years old has episodes where she stops her activity for a few seconds, stares blankly ahead and then resumes the activity as if she had never stopped. These episodes happen many times in a day. Most appropriate management in this child will be:

7141

2-year-old child previously asymptomatic comes with history of loos of consciousness and generalized tonic – clonic seizures lasting for 2 minutes. The child has high grade fever since 4 hours. On examination there is no neck rigidity, rash no neurological deficit. For prevention of recurrence of such seizures advice given is

7142

In a 18-month old girl there is history of 10 min long generalized seizure associated with temperature of 40.5 degree C. Out of the following factors in history which is most likely to increase the risk of future seizures

7143

6-month-old girl presents with 2 week history of decreased motor and social activity. According to parents, child extends her arms out quickly and such actions may occur 10 to 20 times consecutively. She has also become less active. Out of the following most effective treatment for this child is

7144

An infant has a seizure disorder and a large, violaceous patch that involves much of the right side of the face, including the periorbital region. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is:

7145

Which of the following is true about neurofibromatosis (type 1):

7146

All are true about tuberous sclerosis except:

7147

Posterior subscapsular lens opacities are seen in:

7148

Drug of choice for infantile spasm in a child with tuberous sclerosis is:

7149

All are the characteristic features of tuberous sclerosis except:

7150

Triad of seizure, mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma is seen in:

7151

Most common tumour associated with neutrofibromatosis I in children is:

7152

Features of Von Hipple Lindau syndrome include all except:

7153

All chromosomal location is correctly matched except:

7154

Pathognomonic features of neurofibromatosis I is:

7155

All of the following are ipsilateral in Sturge Weber syndrome except:

7156

Most common cause of death in Von Hippel Lindau disease is:

7157

8-year-old child is brought with history of delayed development milestones and generalized seizures. In infancy there is history of myoclonic seizures. Facial appearance is shown. Most likely diagnosis is

7158

3 years old boy has difficulty in climbing stairs. He always needs to hold on to the railings or to have a supporting hand. On examination the power in his legs is reduced, but his reflexes are normal. Initial investigation in this child is:

7159

10 year old boy attends special school clinic. He has just recovered from cataract surgery and has facial weakness. Mother says he struggles to release things once he grabs them. Most useful diagnostic test will be:

7160

All of the following are associated with proximal muscle weakness except:

7161

All are true about CK levels in Duchenne Muscular dystrophy except:

7162

Duchenne muscular dystrophy:

7163

Gower sign is seen in one of the following condition:

7164

Flattening of thenar and hypothenar muscles is seen in musclular dystrophy:

7165

Location of dystrophin gene is:

7166

Myotonic muscular dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder with CTG trinucleotide repeat present on chromosome:

7167

In congenital muscular dystrophy there is absence of protein:

7168

4 years old boy with history of neonatal jaundice has now abnormal movements of all his limbs. He adopts and maintains unusual postures. When he is sleep he is hypotonic. This is suggestive of cerebral palsy type:

7169

Most common type of cerebral palsy seen in child with history of kernicterus is:

7170

Child having spastic hemiplegic type of cerebral palsy has:

7171

Most common type of cerebral palsy seen in term child due to birth asphyxia is:

7172

2-year-old boy has developed a preference for using his left hand at 7 months of age. He limps with his right foot. In right upper and lower limbs deep tendon reflexes are brisk. Most likely is

7173

4 years old boy with history of neonatal jaundice has a now abnormal movement of all his limbs. He adopts and maintains unusual postures. When he is sleep he is hypotonic. This is suggestive of cerebral palsy type:

7174

In child with splenic dysfunction most common cause of meningitis is:

7175

Most common complication of meningitis in children is:

7176

In meningococcal meningitis antibiotics therapy is given for:

7177

All are absolute contraindication to perform a lumbar puncture in children except:

7178

There is increased risk of CNS infection in T lymphocyte defect due to bacteria:

7179

Most common sequelae of bacterial meningitis in children is:

7180

All are true about communicating hydrocephalus except:

7181

9-month-old girl comes in OPD for routine measles vaccination. Her height and weight is on 50th centile. She is having a large head with head circumference above 92nd centile. During her previous visit her head circumference has been between 75th to 92nd percentile. Her systemic and neurological examination is entirely normal. Next step in evaluation of the baby is

7182

6-year-old has come with history of headache, often associated with vomiting since 6 weeks. He has become irritated during this period. Out of the following most likely to be present during the physical examination is

7183

All are true of Sydenhams chorea except:

7184

The three major clinical manifestations of sydenhams chorea include all except:

7185

12-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with complaints of sudden arrest of normal activity at school, with posturing on left side, eye deviation and loss of consciousness for about 1 minute, followed by confusion. He is afebrile, fully oriented and answers questions appropriately. Results of cranial nerve examination, motor examination and gait evaluation are normal. Out of the following, the procedure most likely to establish the cause of the seizure is

7186

10 year old girl is being evaluated for new onset of school problem and occasional uncontrolled movement of the hands. She has been healthy and has not taken any medications. Further evaluation is most likely to show:

7187

2-year-old boy has spasticity in both lower limbs. Deep tendon reflexes are increased. MRI of his brain is most likely to show:

7188

5 months old male infant uses left hand and there is delay in sitting and using right hand. MRI of the brain reveals a large porencephalic cyst in the distribution of left middle cerebral artery. For establishing the cause of this disorder following information will be useful:

7189

Most common sequelae associated with bacterial meningitis is:

7190

Child aged 4 months is admitted to hospital with a 2 days history of mild coryza, tachypnea without significant intercostal recession. Child is feeding poorly for last 2 weeks. Which clinical feature most supports her having congenital heart disease rather than respiratory disease:

7191

4 year old boy comes for an ear infection. On listening to his chest a heart murmur is heard. Which one of the following features most suggests that it requires further investigation:

7192

5 month old infant has history of fever and runny nose for 2 days; tongue is pink, breathing normal and has soft systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Pulses are normal. Most likely diagnosis is

7193

The child is suspected of having congenital heart disease. Finding is

7194

NADA criteria are used for:

7195

Paradoxical S2 (second) heart sound is seen in the cardiac lesion:

7196

Tariq, who is 6 weeks old, is admitted directly from the cardiology clinic with heart failure. He has a large ventricular septal defect. The cardiologist has recommended treatment with to furosemide and spironolactone. His mother wants to know why he has only now started to have problems. Which of the following statements provides the best explanation?

7197

Features of ventricular septal defect include

7198

Symptoms of congestive heart failure in an infant with a large ventricular septal defect is seen in:

7199

All are the indications for surgery in a case of ventricular septal defect except:

7200

All are true about VSD except:

7201

Which of the following features on X-ray chest can differentiate an Atrial septal defect (ADH) from a ventricular septal defect (VSD):

7202

A very large ventricular septal defect should be operated

7203

In a child diagnosed as having coarctation of aorta, continuous murmur are heard over the left and right sides of the chest posteriorly and laterally. This is suggestive of:

7204

Child was born at term by spontaneous vaginal delivery and went home at 8 hours of age following a normal neonatal discharge examination. At 48 hours of age her mother found her looking pale and was unable to wake her. She was rushed to the Emergency Department. Her breathing was noted to be very shallow, her skin was cool and mottled and she was unresponsive to pain. She is resuscitated, and given intravenous fluids and broad- spectrum antibiotics. On examination, the only palpable pulse is the right brachial pulse.

7205

All are the characteristic features of coarctation of aorta except:

7206

All are the features of coarctation of aorta except:

7207

All are the findings in coarctation of aorta except:

7208

True about co-arctation of aorta:

7209

A 1 month old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows feature of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:

7210

Coarctation of aorta is most commonly associated with?

7211

The clinical features associated with coarctation of aorta in older children are the following except

7212

A child was diagnosed as a case of Tetralogy of Fallot. On examination the pulse is normal, venous and arterial pressures are normal. There is presence of ejection systolic murmurs at the left upper sternal border. During hypercyanotic spell all are the following seen except:

7213

The following complications are seen in Tetralogy of fallot except:

7214

A 5 month old child with Tetrology of Fallot develops cyanotic spell. Which drug should be avoided

7215

All are used in hypoxic spell of tetralogy of fallot except:

7216

Which of the following represents the additional component in pentology of fallot?

7217

Essential criteria for tetralogy of fallot includes all except:

7218

Tetralogy of fallot present with one of the following:

7219

Drug of choice for treating a newborn with presumed ductal dependent cyanotic disease

7220

All are true about D-Transposition of great arteries except:

7221

Second heart sound is widely split and fixed in cyanotic congenital heart disease:

7222

An infant was diagnosed has having total anomalous pulmonary venous return. The infant presented with severe cyanosis and respiratory distress. Murmurs are not audible and infant fail to respond to mechanical ventilation. This is suggestive of type:

7223

Presence of left axis deviation and cyanosis are suggestive of congenital heart disease:

7224

All are true about hypoplastic left heart syndrome except:

7225

In Williams syndrome type of aortic stenosis seen in:

7226

24 hrs old child appears blue around the mouth. On examination his tongue looks blue and there is peripheral cyanosis. His respiratory rate is 60/min. On auscultation of the chest there is no murmur. Pulses are all four limbs can be palpated and are equal in volume. Most likely diagnosis is:

7227

18 months old girl presents with frequent respiratory tract infections and wheeze. On examination there is a fixed and widely split second heart sound and an ejection systolic murmur best heard at the upper sternal edge. Your diagnosis is:

7228

Closure of ductus arteriosus in patent ductus arteriosus in term child is done by:

7229

A cyanotic new born is suspected of having CHD. He has a pan systolic murmur audible at left sternal border. Chest X-ray shows decreased pulmonary blood flow, oligemic lung fields. ECG shows left axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis is:

7230

Pulmonary vascularity is decreased in all of the following except:

7231

All are recognized features of atrial septal defect except

7232

A 2 days old cyanotic infant with decreased pulmonary vascular marking on X ray and left axis deviation of ECG is most likely suffering from:

7233

Patent ductus arteriosus is characterized by:

7234

Patent foramen ovale is due to failure of fusion of:

7235

Cyanosis with plethora is seen in all except:

7236

Contraindication for surgery in PDA is:

7237

Increased incidence of chest infection is seen in all congenital heart disease except:

7238

All of the following are true about ASD except:

7239

A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arterious. Its closure can be stimulated by administration of:

7240

In TGA, position aorta is:

7241

Congestive cardiac failure is diagnosed in an infant by:

7242

Which one of the following does not produce cyanosis in the first year of life:

7243

Out of the following not seen in congestive cardiac failure in newborn is:

7244

In which of the following left atrium is not enlarged:

7245

Eisemnenger physiology is not seen in:

7246

Systolic murmur in tetralogy of fallot is due to:

7247

Infective endocarditis is most commonly seen in

7248

In ostium secundum ASD, which of the following is maximally affected:

7249

True statement about ductus arteriosus is

7250

In which of the following differential cyanosis is found

7251

A five-day-old, full term male infant was severely cyanosis at birth. Prostaglandin E1 was administered initially and later balloon atrial septosomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this infant is

7252

24 hrs old child appears blue around the mouth. On examination his tongue looks blue and there is peripheral cyanosis. His respiratory rate is 60/min. On auscultation of the chest there is no murmur. Pulses are all four limbs can be palpated and are equal in volume. Most likely diagnosis is:

7253

Out of the following not seen in congestive cardiac failure in newborn is:

7254

4-week-old child is seen in emergency room with episode of cyanosis. Mother complains of similar episodes when the child is crying. On examination there is an ejection systolic murmur heard over upper sternal border. Which of the following finding you expect in heart

7255

6-month-old child presents to pediatric OPD with complaints of poor weight gain and 3 episodes of lower respiratory tract infection in past 3 months. On examination there is pan systolic murmur heard over the left lower sternal border. Most likely congenital heart disease is

7256

Ductus arteriosus closes in response to:

7257

Major criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever is:

7258

To prevent acute rheumatic fever, acute pharyngitis due to group A streptococci should be treated with antibiotics before:

7259

Out of the following not a minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever is:

7260

Following symptoms of rheumatic fever may be the only isolated manifestation:

7261

Which of the following regarding rheumatic nodules is false:

7262

Out of the following which is not present as a sole manifestation of rheumatic fever:

7263

Which of the following a minor criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever (RF) according to modified Jones criteria:

7264

Hypertension in children is defined as systolic or diastolic blood pressure more than _______ percentile for age, sex and height on greater than equal to 3 occasions:

7265

Secondary hypertension in children is most commonly due to:

7266

Children born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosis are likely to have one of the following anomalies:

7267

Classical clinical criteria for diagnosis of Kawasaki disease include all except:

7268

What is the minimal diameter of Giant coronary aneurysm in children with Kawasaki disease which pose highest risk of ruptures, thrombosis, Stenosis and myocardial infarction?

7269

The most common congenital cardiac defect associated with sudden death in children is

7270

Amount of protein presents in F-75 diet per 100 ml is:

7271

Pseudoparalysis is a feature seen in:

7272

Body stores of vitamin C are measured in:

7273

Craniotabes is seen in the following:

7274

Alopecia is associated with rickets:

7275

Which one of the following indices are not indicative of severe PEM:

7276

Most important marker for acute and chronic malnutrition is:

7277

Diagnosis of Kwashiorkor is based on:

7278

Microcytic anemia, neutropenia, hypopigmentation of hair and skin, vascular abnormalities, osteoporosis and metaphyseal fraying are seen in deficiency of:

7279

The following is the most common cause of failure to thrive in children:

7280

All are the clinical features seen in Kwashiorkor except:

7281

Sharp angular and tender costochondral junctions are seen in:

7282

Best marker for chronic PEM is:

7283

Malnourished child minimum weight gain daily should be:

7284

In malnourished children the following parameters are reliable indicator of dehydration except:

7285

In severe acute malnutrition mid-upper arm circumference is less than:

7286

Most common cause of acquired immunodeficiency all over the world is:

7287

In Refeeding syndrome there can be deficiency of the following vitamin:

7288

All are the essential diagnostic feature of Kwashiorkor except:

7289

In a child with malnutrition, the first line of management would be:

7290

In order to discharge from hospital, malnourished child should have minimum weight gain of:

7291

All of the following hormones are increased in protein energy malnutrition except:

7292

Mooning of face, dependent edema and fatty liver all are seen in:

7293

All are the features of severe acute malnutrition except:

7294

All are the causes of vitamin D deficiency in children except:

7295

Deficiency of enzyme 1 α hydroxylase is seen in:

7296

Good weight gain in malnourished child is:

7297

STOSS therapy is used in the management of:

7298

5 years old child comes with compliant of valgus deformity of the legs and increased alkaline phosphatase. Which of the following will be useful in diagnosis:

7299

Posterior column and cerebellar dysfunction and pigmentory retinopathy is seen in deficiency of:

7300

Pathognomonic for Kwashiorkor is:

7301

Hallmark feature of Refeeding syndrome is:

7302

All are the causes of vitamin D resistant/Refractory Rickets associated with increased parathormone level except:

7303

Rehydration solution for malnourished Resomal ORS has K+ meq/L:

7304

Kamla, a 7 years old girl, presents with recurrent onset of genu valgum and difficulty in walking. On X-ray there is metaphyseal widening and osteoporosis. Serum Ca 9mg/d, serum phosphorus 2.5mg/dL and alkaline Phosphatase 30 KAU. Probable diagnosis:

7305

5 year old boy has weight for age of 70% of excepted and there is no edema. According to Wellcome classification it is:

7306

In tumour induced rickets all are the finding seen except:

7307

Weight for age <60% of predicted & presence of edema is classified as:

7308

Vitamin D receptor mutation is seen in:

7309

Investigation of choice for subperiosteal hemorrhage seen in Scurvy is:

7310

In moderate malnutrition weight for height Z score is:

7311

Acute malnutrition is duration less than:

7312

All of the following can be used as a marker of nutritional status except:

7313

In malnourished child during rehabilitation F-75 diet is started. Initially calories given are:

7314

Child weight for age is 60-80% of expected and there is edema present. Clinical type of malnutrition is:

7315

All are the features of Marasmus except

7316

Mid upper arm circumference in severe acute malnutrition is less than:

7317

Child diagnosed as severe acute malnutrition, conscious, has blood sugar 45mg/dL. Next step in management is:

7318

All are the following parameters can be used for assessment of dehydration in malnourished child except:

7319

Cure weight  in severe acute malnutrition is:

7320

Sharp and angular costochondral junctions are seen in

7321

High doses of vitamin C should be avoided in

7322

Vitamin D dependent rickets type 1B is due to mutation in the gene for

7323

Burosumab is a monoclonal antibody used in treatment of

7324

Dwarfism, hypogonadism, dermatitis and T cell immunodeficiency is seen in deficiency of

7325

10-months-old child is brought with complaints of dry scaly skin around the oral cavity and on palms for the last 2 months. There is also glossitis and stomatitis. Child was breast fed upto 6 months and now is on top feeding (cow’s milk). Weight of child is 8.4kgs (Birth weight was 3.1 kg) length is 71 cm. Most probable diagnosis is

7326

X-linked hypophophatemic rickets is due to the increased levels of

7327

Mild malnutrition weight for length is

7328

Regarding treatment of infection in malnourished children which of the following is true

7329

In breast milk whey protein present is mainly:

7330

All are the contraindication to breast feeding except:

7331

All are the contraindication to breast feeding in India except:

7332

All are the endocrinal causes of obesity except:

7333

Following is least likely to be associated with obesity in 13 years old child:

7334

Caffey syndrome is related to:

7335

Radiological signs of fetal death includes all except

7336

Static test is related with:

7337

All of these are suggestive of domestic violence in a child except:

7338

All test are done to detect live birth except:

7339

The following are the characteristics of Caput succedaneum except:

7340

Sec 312 to 316 IPC deal with

7341

Superfoetation means

7342

Posthumous child means

7343

A 22 year old lady died. The postmortum appearance that will indicate that she has had delivered a child is all, except:

7344

Which of the following statements about the award of capital punishment to a pregnant woman sentenced to death is correct? Death sentence cannot be carried:

7345

Borax is

7346

Impotent female is

7347

Bluish discoloration of vagina is

7348

The high court has the power to delay the execution of a pregnant woman according to

7349

Female patient with loss of interest in sex is known as

7350

Arborescent burns are seen in:

7351

Pugilistic attitude is seen in:

7352

Joule burn is seen in:

7353

All are true about Filigree burns except:

7354

Pugilistic attitude is seen in:

7355

Joule burn is:

7356

True about Filigree burns:

7357

Sweating is not present in

7358

In hypothermia, cause of death is

7359

In a completely charred body at autopsy, medical officer can say that the burns are ante-mortem if he can find:

7360

Pugilistic attitude is seen in:

7361

Joule burn is seen in:

7362

Paradoxical undressing is seen in:

7363

A 38-year-old female presented to the emergency with extensive burns. The patient had grade 3 burns on the face, back, upper arms and forearms along with singeing of hairs. Which of these is not a proof of inhalation burns?

7364

Pugilistic attitude is due to

7365

A dead body is found to have marks like branching of a tree on front of chest. The most likely cause of death could be due to OR Arborescent marks OR Filigree burn

7366

A 30 year old female with h/o burns involving abdomen both limbs and back and presented after 8 hours. The formula for calculation of fluid infusion is:

7367

True of pugilistic attitude:

7368

Curling ulcer common in which part of duodenum

7369

Paedophile is one having anal intercourse with

7370

Female can give consent for sex, if she is above

7371

One of the following is a sure sign of rape:

7372

Tribadism means:

7373

Statutory rape is rape on girl below

7374

Identity of Rape Victim is protected under which of the following sections of IPC:

7375

Section 377 deals with

7376

Lateral traction test is done in unnatural sexual offences in:

7377

Unnatural sexual offences is/are:

7378

Sexual asyphyxia is associated with

7379

Active partner in lesbianism is called as:

7380

Quod Hanc means

7381

Chromosomal defect is a feature amongst all of the following except:

7382

Paraphilias are all except:

7383

Frigidity is

7384

According to the Criminal Law (amendment) Act 2013 the age for sexual consent is

7385

Mcnaughten rule is accepted in India and included in section:

7386

Pyromania is a type of:

7387

Testamentary capacity means:

7388

Mcnaughten is related with:

7389

Pyromania is a type of:

7390

Kleptomania is a type of:

7391

Lucid interval is seen in:

7392

Injury means harm caused to a person in

7393

Not a grievous injury

7394

Tentative cuts are suggestive of:

7395

Hesitation cuts are suggestive of:

7396

Lacerated wound appears (looks) like incised wound in all of the following sites except: OR Sites notorious for incised looking wound are all except:

7397

A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:

7398

True about Hurt and Grievous injury is all except

7399

Which of the following is a grievous injury:

7400

An artificial contusion can be produced using juice of:

7401

Ewing postulates concerns with which of the following

7402

Regarding medical termination of pregnancy, all of the following are true except

7403

Termination of pregnancy can be done as per Medical Termination of pregnancy(MTP)Act upto how much gestational age:

7404

Medical Termination of pregnancy (MTP) Act allows abortion in pregnancy as result of rape on:

7405

Declaration of Helsinki is about

7406

Ideal time to start exhumation

7407

PCPNDT Act deals with:

7408

MTP Act in India does not permit termination of pregnancy after:

7409

According to National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), most common mode of suicide in India is:

7410

Harakiri is death by

7411

Teeth bite marks is an example of

7412

Tearing of skin and subcutaneous tissue is called as

7413

A brush-burn is a

7414

Bruise attains greenish discolouration by

7415

Blue colour of bruise is due to:

7416

Blackening of eye most common because of

7417

In a lacerated wound the hair bulb is:

7418

In an incised wound, all of the following are true except:

7419

The confirmatory test for the presence of seminal stains in case of a person suffering from aspermia:

7420

Best method to prove paternity is

7421

Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except:

7422

In the forensic laboratory some samples are being examined under ultraviolet light, the doctor notices bluish white color of the sample. Which is the most probable content of the sample?

7423

Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except:

7424

Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except?

7425

Pond fracture is most common in:

7426

Fractures a la signature is:

7427

Whiplash injury is related with:

7428

Punchdrunk syndrome is associated with:

7429

Lucid Interval may be seen in:

7430

A man fell down from a height of 35 feet. Eyewitnesses say that he landed on his feet. Which of the following injury is possible?

7431

Duret haemorrhage is/are seen in:

7432

Primary impact injury in case of road traffic accident is seen commonly in?

7433

Contrecoup injuries are seen in:

7434

A man fell down from a height of 35 feet. Eyewitnesses say that he landed on his feet. Which of the following injury is possible?

7435

Bevelling of the outer table of the skull is seen in:

7436

The most frequently damaged abdominal organ in blunt force injury is:

7437

Punch drunk syndrome is associated with:

7438

Orbital blow fracture involves

7439

Whiplash injury is caused due to:

7440

A man was hit by a car and thrown up. He hits the road, divider and falls on the ground and sustains head injury then run over by another car. The head injury is classified as

7441

Two bodies were found outside the car following an accident. The autopsy was able to decide who the driver was based on all of the following features except:

7442

Marshall triad is seen in

7443

(First) Commonest organ to be injured in primary blast injuries is:

7444

Sparrow foot marks are characteristic of?

7445

A bomb blast took place in Delhi following which 2 persons died. All of the following are true about their injuries except

7446

The most frequently damaged abdominal organ in blunt force injury is:

7447

Blunt abdominal trauma commonest site of GI ruptures is

7448

Battle Sign is

7449

Stellate wound is seen in

7450

Which of the following statement is false regarding Choke-bore gun:

7451

Dermal nitrate test detects:

7452

A man fires a gun but the bullet is deviated (deflected) from its path after striking an intermediate object and hit anywhere else. This is known as:

7453

All are features of a contact shot Rifle injury except:

7454

Smudge collar is associated with:

7455

Calibre is defined as:

7456

Choking is constricting device within the barrel at the muzzle end of:

7457

An autopsy was performed on a case of accidental death. It showed two linear fractures on petrous part of temporal bone. Which of the following rules gives the sequence of fractures

7458

Visualization of gunpowder residue on blood stained clothes can be facilitated by?

7459

All about rifled arm weapons is correct except:

7460

All are features of a Rifle injury except:

7461

Grease collar is associated with:

7462

Puppe Rule is related with determination of:

7463

A man fires a gun but the bullet gets stuck. When he fires again two bullets come out one after another. This is known as:

7464

Dermal nitrate test detects:

7465

All about rifled arm weapons is correct except:

7466

Grease collar is associated with:

7467

Full dispersion is seen in:

7468

True about tandem bullet

7469

Rat Hole appearance of firearm entry wound is seen in

7470

Bevelling of the outer table of the skull is seen in:

7471

Calibre is defined as

7472

Following are features of gunshot wound except:

7473

Surgical alteration or suturing of gunshot wound may create problems in distinguishing entry from exit. This is called as

7474

An eleven year old rape victim is brought to casualty for a medical examination. The medical officer required to do the following except:

7475

All of the following are Infamous Conduct except:

7476

The Professional Death sentence is:

7477

Person above 18 yrs of age can give valid consent to suffer any harm which may result from an act done and not known to cause death/grievous hurt is stated under section

7478

Doctor is bound by law to maintain medical record of in-patients for

7479

Which of the following is/are examples of Res Ipsa Loquitor

7480

All of the following conditions are defense available for a doctor against allegation of negligence except:

7481

Dichotomy means

7482

Burden of proof lies with the patient in case of

7483

Vicarious responsibility pertains to

7484

A doctor has to do an urgent operation on an unconscious patient to save his life. But there are no relatives to take consent from anyone, he is using the principle of:

7485

Blanket consent is consent taken

7486

What is false about informed consent?

7487

Which of the following statements about consent is not true?

7488

A person was advised by his orthopedic surgeon to get regular dressing of his wound done. But the patient did not give much care. During follow up, patient was repeatedly told to get the dressing done timely but the patient didn not do the dressing himself, saying that he was busy. Finally the wound enlarged and the underlying bone developed osteomyelitis. Which of the following statement is true regarding above mentioned situation?

7489

A case of suspected homicide comes to a doctor. He is supposed to inform the police under:

7490

If the death of a patient occurs during surgery due to the negligence of the surgeon, then he can be charged under

7491

Punishment under 304-A IPC

7492

False about informed consent

7493

A doctor while examining the patient without consent in an emergency is protected under:

7494

Which of the following statement regarding Factory Act is correct:

7495

How many teeth a 2 years old child has

7496

Second molar erupts at the age of

7497

Pre-auricular sulcus is useful in determination of

7498

Best bone specimen for sex determination is

7499

Dactylography is

7500

Locard system is

7501

To make a positive identification with the help of a partial finger print, the points of similarity should be at least:

7502

Corneal tattooing is done by

7503

Best method to determine age upto 14 years is:

7504

Number of milk teeth

7505

Ashley rule is for determination of what:

7506

Pre-auricular sulcus helps in detection of:

7507

Rule of Hasse is used to determine

7508

The first decidious tooth to erupt is:

7509

The first permanent tooth to erupt is:

7510

The most reliable criteria in Gustafson method of age determination from teeth is:

7511

Hess rule is used for Foetus:

7512

The most common pattern of finger print is:

7513

True about skull bone of female in comparison to male:

7514

Male pelvis differs from female:

7515

Cheiloscopy is the study of:

7516

Which of the following is not a feature of deciduous tooth in comparison to permanent tooth?

7517

Female pelvis differs from male in all of the following aspects except:

7518

The cephalic index of Indian population is between

7519

A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped from the jail. A dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest. But due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by

7520

The most reliable method of identification of an individual is:

7521

Gustafson method is used for determination of:

7522

Which of the following fingers is not used in finger printing system:

7523

All of the following about Turner Syndrome are true except:

7524

Ashley rule is used for the determination of:

7525

Palato-print is usually taken from which part of the palate

7526

A square headed person with cephalic index 84, rounded horse-shoe palate, small round orbits and nasal openings is

7527

Which is incorrect

7528

Absent fragmented medulla of hair is seen in all except:

7529

Animal hair are

7530

Crural index is

7531

Species identification is done by OR Which test is used to check if blood is of human origin

7532

According to Galstaun, iliac crest fuses in females at the age of:

7533

Cafe coronary is due to:

7534

Fractures of hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage along with extensive bruising of neck muscles suggest a diagnosis of

7535

Paltaufs haemorrhages are seen in

7536

Horizontal ligature mark in neck is seen in

7537

Hanging is defined as

7538

Cutis anserine is seen in

7539

Presence of diatoms in bone marrow are characteristic of?

7540

Best indicator of antemortum drowning is

7541

Cause of death in judicial hanging is:

7542

Dry drowning is

7543

In a typical hanging, the knot of ligature is  placed:

7544

Le facie sympathique is suggestive of:

7545

Emphysema aquosum is seen in:

7546

Cause of death in judicial hanging is:

7547

Ballooning of lung is seen in:

7548

If the ligature is found intact during the autopsy, it should be always preserved by:

7549

Diagnostic feature indicative of ante-mortem drowning is:

7550

For diatoms test the best site for taking sample is

7551

Diatoms are

7552

Cafe coronary commonly occurs when a person is

7553

Hanging with the feet touching the ground is seen in:

7554

Burking consist of:

7555

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatoms?

7556

The conclusive post mortem finding of death by drowning:

7557

Hydrocution or Immersion syndrome is:

7558

Jack knife position cause death due to:

7559

On external examination there was an oval mark on the chin. On internal examination there was extra-vasation of blood and bruising on anterior surface of the neck. Cause of death:

7560

Gettler test is done to

7561

A 5 year old boy suddenly becomes aphonic & is brought to the casualty with the complaint of respiratory distress. Immediate management should be:

7562

Incorrect about Paltauf hemorrage

7563

Thanatology is the study of:

7564

After drowning body floats after sometime due to:

7565

Rigor mortis first evident in

7566

First sign of decomposition in a dead body is

7567

Casper dictum is for evaluation of

7568

Immediate stiffness post-mortem occurs in

7569

Postmortem rigidity disappears first in

7570

Suspended animation is seen in all except

7571

After death, Livor mortis is caused because of

7572

Chief agent for bacterial putrefaction is

7573

A 39 year old Carpenter has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop. After about an hour, he develops confusion, vomiting and blurring of vision. He has been brought to the emergency department. He should be given

7574

Exhumation is usually done in:

7575

Suspended animation may occur after:

7576

Post mortem caloricity is seen in poisoning from:

7577

When group of muscles of a dead body were in state of strong contraction immediately prior to death and remain so even after death, thecondition is termed as:

7578

Post-mortem staining is see in:

7579

Following are features of adipocere except:

7580

Last organ to putrefy in man is:

7581

Tache noire refers to

7582

In vitrous what is measured for time since death

7583

Postmortem caloricity may be seen in all the following causes of death except:

7584

Rigor mortis starts in:

7585

Cadaveric spasm true is all except:

7586

Putrefaction is delayed in poisoning due to all except:

7587

In a decomposed body the first sign seen is OR Colour change of putrefaction are first observed in the:

7588

Kevorkian sign is seen in

7589

During autopsy for virology study, which agent is used for storing tissue:

7590

True regarding the progression of rigor mortis:

7591

Foamy liver is seen in

7592

Segmentation of blood in blood vessels after death

7593

Major bacterial enzyme responsible for putrefaction:

7594

Transmission rate of HIV by needle prick incident in health care professional is:

7595

Autopsy specimen of heart of a patient who died due to MI was stained with TTC (Triphenyl Tetrazolium Chloride) dye. The colour of normal part of heart will be:

7596

All of the statements regarding atherosclerosis is true:

7597

Smell of mummified body is

7598

First organ to putrefy

7599

True about Somatic death is all except

7600

In which of the following conditions, postmortem caloricity is seen?

7601

The ideal place to record body temperature in a dead body is:

7602

Mark the incorrect colour change in PM lividity

7603

Which of the poisoning favours mummification?

7604

After drowning body floats after sometime due to:

7605

A dead person holding the pistol in his hand, this is due to

7606

Ideal place to record temperature in dead body of burned anus is from:

7607

True statement regarding postmortem wounds is

7608

Conduct money is paid to expert witness with summons

7609

Leading questions are permitted during

7610

When someone illegally harms property, body or someone reputation, it is known as:

7611

Inquest of Dowry death is done by:

7612

Time limit for cross-examination is

7613

A dying declaration can be recorded by

7614

Police inquest is done in all except

7615

Perjury is:

7616

A non-cognizable offence signifies:

7617

Subpoena is a kind of:

7618

Oral testimony is exempted in the following conditions except:

7619

Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because:

7620

Death sentence can be awarded by:

7621

A cognizable offence signifies:

7622

Punishment of imprisonment upto 3 years and fine upto Rs 5000 can be awarded by:

7623

Exhumation is usually done in

7624

Which is not true of dying declaration

7625

Sec 176 CrPC is related to:

7626

Juvenile court is presided by:

7627

Incorrect about oral evidence in court

7628

Duces tecum is

7629

Sec 142 IEA is related to

7630

After post-mortem examination, body has to be handed over to:

7631

Subpoena is a kind of

7632

Punishment of imprisonment upto 3 years and fine upto Rs 5000 can be awarded by:

7633

Conduct money is money to tender to

7634

Consent given by a person who at the time of giving it was intoxicated without his knowledge/against his will is invalid under

7635

Lowest court to give imprisonment upto 10 years:

7636

A witness who after taking oath willfully makes a statement which he knows or believes to be false is guilty of offence under section:

7637

The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is:

7638

Subpoena is a kind of:

7639

Powers of a 1st class magistrate include(s):

7640

Miscarriage due to negligence of doctor is seen under which IPC

7641

The high court has the power to stay the execution of a pregnant woman according to which section of Criminal Procedure Code?

7642

In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except

7643

Perjury means giving willful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to 7 years. This falls under which section of IPC?

7644

Criminal responsibility is under which section of Indian penal code?

7645

The legal responsibilities of an intoxicated person is given under section ______ of IPC

7646

True about dying declaration:

7647

Mr A fired a gun at Mr B who moved and escaped with the bullet only grazing his thigh. There was only a little bleeding without significant injury. Mr B is liable for arrest under which section of IPC

7648

All of the following methods are used in heavy metals detection except

7649

A narcotic abuse can presents with jet black tongue. The most likely cause is

7650

A child with miosis, bradycardia, sweating and lacrimation should be suspected of poisoning with

7651

Acute arsenic poisoning is often confused with

7652

Concentrated resin obtained from cannabis plant is called as

7653

Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the following poisonings?

7654

Cobra snake venom is

7655

Amyl nitrate is used as an antidote in poisoning for

7656

Brown discoloration of mucosa of stomach is seen in poisoning due to

7657

Prolonged exposure to inorganic lead causes all except

7658

Magnan phenomenon is seen in addiction of:

7659

Leathery stomach is seen in poisoning of

7660

Features of opioid intake include all except

7661

Specific antidote for opiate poisoning is

7662

Yellow fatty liver is characteristic in which poisoning

7663

A middle-aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of Mees lines in nails and rain drop pigmentation in hands. Most likely causative toxin is

7664

Fomepizole as an antidote is used in the poisoning of

7665

Pin point pupils are seen in:

7666

Burtonian line is seen in chronic poisoning of

7667

Death in copper sulphate poisoning occurs due to

7668

Hairs are preserved in which poisoning:

7669

All of the following are features of Dhatura poisoning except

7670

Antidote for copper poisoning is:

7671

Not used for treating acute iron poisoning:

7672

Which of the poisoning favours mummification?

7673

Perforation of stomach is common after ingestion of:

7674

Which of the following poison can be detected in burnt bones?

7675

Erethism is seen in poisoning by:

7676

Plumbism is the chronic poisoning of:

7677

Mee Lines are seen in:

7678

Venom of sea snake is mostly:

7679

Dryness of mouth, dilated pupil and delirium are seen in poisoning by:

7680

Run Amok is seen in cases of chronic addiction to:

7681

Tactile hallucination is seen in chronic addiction with:

7682

Magnan symptom is:

7683

All are features of strychnine poisoning except:

7684

All of the following are the feature of cyanide poisoning except:

7685

Complication of Kerosene poisoning is:

7686

Tactile hallucination is seen in chronic addiction with:

7687

Post mortem caloricity is seen in poisoning from:

7688

Ideal place to record temperature in dead body of burned anus is from:

7689

Post-mortem staining in Carbon Mono-oxide poisoning is:

7690

Mee line is seen in chronic poisoning of:

7691

Homicidal impulse is seen in cases of chronic addiction to:

7692

Artificial bruise is produce by:

7693

All of the following are characteristic of Dhatura poisoning except

7694

Clinical features of organophosphorous poisoning are all except

7695

The earliest manifestation of chronic lead poisoning is

7696

Mc Ewan sign is associated with:

7697

Delirium tremens is seen in:

7698

The brick red colour of post mortem lividity is seen in poisoning due to?

7699

Danbury tremor is seen in

7700

The combination of alopecia and skin rash, painful peripheral neuropathy and confusion with lethargy are seen in?

7701

A 34 year old rickshaw puller has taken two bottles of liquor from the local shop. After about an hour, he develops confusion, vomiting and blurring of vision. He has been brought to the emergency department. He should be given

7702

Which of the following is the most reliable method for estimating blood alcohol level?

7703

A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most probable diagnosis is:

7704

Which among the following is a waxy, luminous and translucent poison?

7705

Rave drug is?

7706

Which is not a feature of aconite poisoning?

7707

A poison which is illuminous, translucent and waxy?

7708

A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and loss of appetite. The most likely poisoning is

7709

What acts as both poison and antidote:

7710

Dhatura seeds resemble:

7711

A farmer visiting a orchard gets unconscious, excessive salivation, constricted pupils and fasciculation of muscles, treatment started with

7712

Priapism occur with:

7713

Viper snake venom is:

7714

Which of the following is neurotoxic or produce convulsions and paralysis

7715

Sin needle used to kill animals made of:

7716

The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning is:

7717

St Anthony fire refers to poisoning by:

7718

Incorrect about active principle

7719

Signs of chronic as poisoning are

7720

Widmark formula is for

7721

Smell of burnt rope due to poisoning with

7722

A doctor bound to inform police in case of homicidal poisoning under section

7723

Boiled Lobster appearance seen in poisoning with

7724

Ochronosis seen in poisoning with

7725

Find the incorrect match

7726

Glove stocking numbness is seen in poisoning with:

7727

Monday morning fever is a feature of:

7728

Cadmium causes:

7729

A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. Her examination showed generalized flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG showed multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes within ST-T. Serum Potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. the most likely ingested poisoning is:

7730

Hunan hands occur due to

7731

Which of the following statement about ophitoxemia is incorrect:

7732

A 28 year old male patient is brought to causality in comatose state with pin-point pupil, reduced respiratory rate and bradycardia. Most likely diagnosis

7733

Which of the following about ethyl alcohol poisoning is incorrect:

7734

Breathing in barbiturate poisoning:

7735

At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except:

7736

Acetyl salicylate poisoning causes

7737

A woman consumes several tablets of amitryptilline. All of the following can be done except

7738

A 40 year old male has a history of taking marijuana since 20 years comes with withdrawal features. Most frequently encountered symptom is:

7739

Speedball is cocaine mixed with

7740

True about MDMA

7741

A man throws sulphuric acid on the face of his wife after a fight following which she comes in the emergency for supportive treatment. All of the following are true except

7742

Boiled Lobster Syndrome is seen in poisoning of:

7743

Which of the following statements is false about snake bite

7744

Acrid smell or pear like smell is seen in

7745

What is the most common cause of parasuicide?

7746

Shoe polish like smell is seen in

7747

Which acid does not show coagulation necrosis

7748

A structural component that is found in all viruses is:

7749

A chemical component that is found in all viruses is:

7750

Which of the following is not an RNA virus?

7751

The cell wall of gram-positive bacteria may contribute to the development of septic shock. Identify the component which is most associated with the induction of septic shock

7752

A 34 year old man with diabetic ketoacidosis develops headache, nasal congestion, periorbital swelling and a bloodstained nasal discharge. Over a period of a week he becomes drowsy and unresponsive. ENT examination shows black, necrotic lesions on the nasal septum, which is perforated. A lumbar puncture is performed but the CSF findings are entirely normal. Culture of the nasal discharge shows a heavy growth of Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus. Select the most likely diagnosis

7753

Many antiviral drugs act by inhibition of a viral DNA polymerase enzyme. Select the virus for which this class of drugs would be effective

7754

A 5 year old boy is seen in the paediatric respiratory clinic for regular review of his cystic fibrosis. He has a productive cough and a specimen is forwarded to the laboratory. Select the culture medium which would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenzae from this patient

7755

A male baby is born at 39 weeks gestation with a petechial rash, low birthweight, hepatosplenomegaly and bilateral cataracts. This is thought to be due to an infection acquired while the baby was still in utero. Select the condition which is most likely to cause this clinical presentation

7756

A 35-year-old woman presented with a 3-day history of productive cough, breathlessness and rigors. She was treated empirically with intravenous vancomycin. What is the site of action of vancomycin?

7757

Which of the following is a segmented ds-RNA virus?

7758

Certain viruses have been associated with birth defects, these teratogenic viruses include all the following EXCEPT:

7759

Which of the following statements best describes rotavirus?

7760

Coxsackie B virus has major target organ as _____

7761

Which of the following virus affects the testes?

7762

HIV is not transmitted through _______

7763

Oncogenes are ______

7764

The normal protein form of prion is designated as _______

7765

The incubation period of COVID 19 is

7766

What are the precautions that need to be taken to protect from the corona virus?

7767

If u are posted in PHC and, you suspect a case of COVID19

7768

Which of the following vaccine stored at normal freeze temperature

7769

Which of the following having true cell walls?

7770

Who accidentally identified the antimicrobial action of penicillin?

7771

Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?

7772

Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?

7773

The process which cannot takes place in absence of virus id

7774

Growth rate greater than death rate is found in

7775

Generation time of E. coli is _________ minute

7776

The organisms can be acid fast stained is

7777

19-years-old girl suffering from burning micturition, fever from last 2 days, urine sample has been taken and send for bacterial identification. The cultured bacteria shows Urease test positive, The causative organism is

7778

In autoclave, the principle involved is

7779

Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is based on

7780

Clsotridiumwelchii is positive for

7781

The antibody that is first formed after infection is

7782

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by

7783

First line of body defence is

7784

Antibody having high valency is

7785

Active immunity is induced by

7786

T-cells are produced from

7787

Basophils have receptors for antibodies

7788

Which is most antigenic?

7789

Immediate type of hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by

7790

Immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity reaction

7791

The causative agent of scrub typhus:

7792

Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by

7793

Enteric bacteria are mainly classified based on their ability to ferment various sugars including lactose. Which of the following bacteria is a non-lactose fermenter?

7794

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC) produces two major types of toxins, heat-labile (LT) and heat-stable (ST) toxins. LT or cholera-like toxin activates adenylate cyclase (cAMP) whereas ST activates ____ that causes Travelers diarrhea

7795

Which of the following is not the general characteristics of spirochetes?

7796

The RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) is a nontreponemal test method used as a screening test for syphilis, which of the following statements is correct about the test?

7797

Which of the following properties are the characteristics of tetanospasmin?

7798

The following are true about Clostridium tetani except:

7799

Which of the following is true about Treponema pallidum:

7800

All of the following are true about Onchocerciasis except:

7801

The following are true about leprosy except:

7802

The following are true about disinfectants that can be used effectively for skin:

7803

Viral with oncogenic properties in humans include all except:

7804

Which of the following Antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis

7805

With regard to Neisseria gonorrhea all are true except:

7806

All of the following Stains mainly useful for identifying fungus except:

7807

Chlamydia trachomatis with serogroups A-C cause:

7808

The following can be used to identify Staphylococcus aureus except:

7809

The following substances are used in Gram staining:

7810

If a culture starts with 50 cells, how many cells will be present after five generations with no cell death?

7811

Four tubes are illustrated with cultures grown in a medium that slows oxygen diffusion. Match the culture tube with the correct type of obligate aerobe

7812

Brucella is

7813

Brucella is transmitted by all expect:

7814

Which of the following parasites is responsible for the cause of African sleeping sickness or Gambiense fever?

7815

Schaffner dots are related to ________

7816

The malignant tertian malaria is caused by

7817

Dracunculiasis is caused by the __________ worm and transmitted by the __________ vector

7818

Filarial larva can be collected from man

7819

Enterobiasis diseases is caused by

7820

All of the following enters through dermal route except:

7821

Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following helminthic disease:

7822

Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of

7823

A girl who pricked her finger while pruning some rose bushes develops a local pustule that progresses to an ulcer. Several nodules then develop along the local lymphatic drainage. The most likely agent is

7824

Infection with dermatophyte is most often associated with

7825

Coccidioidomycosis has the lesions the same as that of the lesion caused by which of the following infections?

7826

The combination of Christensen's urea agar is useful in the identification of which of the following fungi?

7827

Which of the following fungi is a common opportunistic pathogen to cause meningitis in AIDS patients?

7828

True regarding Na+ ion

7829

Following a natural disaster in Gujarat, there is an outbreak of cholera among displaced persons living in a tent encampment. The affected individuals display severe diarrheal symptoms because of which of the following changes in intestinal transport?

7830

On weight basis, the membrane contains protein and lipid in the ratio of

7831

Which of the following statements about facilitated diffusion is true

7832

What is/are effect on membrane when extracellular concentration of K+ is decreased

7833

Action potential is initiated at the initial segment of motor neuron because

7834

Neurapraxia is a type of

7835

The increase in threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are applied in succession is called

7836

Person wakes up with pain, paresthesia, tingling of the arms. He had slept with arm below the head. Which fibers are involved

7837

A man slept with head over forearm, next morning he complains of tingling, numbness over forearm. It is caused by

7838

The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of smooth muscle contraction

7839

An 83-year-old woman with constipation is prescribed a high-fiber diet, which leads to an increased production of short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs). SCFA absorption occurs almost exclusively from which of the following segments of the GI tract

7840

During the cardiac cycle, the opening of the aortic valve takes place at

7841

Which of the following items is the type of neuron whose axon forms synaptic junctions with the skeletal muscle cells (extrafusal fibers) that comprise the major part of a muscle?

7842

All of the following factors normally increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers except

7843

A 22-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 25 U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?

7844

Baroreceptor reflex: true is

7845

During heavy exercise the cardiac output increases up to five-fold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by

7846

Set of data which correctly defines restrictive lung disease is

7847

False about the O2 dissociation curve

7848

In hyperventilation

7849

Golgi tendon apparatus conveys message to CNS, depends upon

7850

The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as

7851

What are the EEG waves recorded for parieto-occipital region with subject awake and eye closed

7852

Any spectral color can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the color for matching than a normal person, then he has a color anomaly. More red color is needed in the case of

7853

Cyanosis or bluish coloration of skin and mucus membrane depends upon

7854

Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15% of the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism

7855

An 85 year old man is brought to his doctor by his daughter. She reports that he has memory loss, is often confused, and has been having increasing difficulty with routine activities that he used to do on his own. She wonders if this is just because of old age or a more serious problem. Which of the following would provide the definite diagnosis of Alzheimer disease

7856

The morning after a rock concert, a 20-year-old college student notices difficulty hearing his professor during lecture. The physician at the student health center suspects possible damage to his hair cells by the loud music. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of which of the following

7857

A 49-year old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

7858

The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is

7859

To produce a concentrated urine, vasopressin

7860

An abdominal computed tomography (CT) in a 50 year old patient with Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) shows multiple small adrenocortical masses. Which of the following clinical findings are most likely present

7861

Test for detecting field of vision is

7862

Which of the following compound antagonizes the action of insulin

7863

Percentage change in the concentration of a substance of a substance necessary before an intensity difference in taste can be detected

7864

Which of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in tubules is true

7865

Which of the following would you expect to find in a patient whose diet has been low in calcium for 8 weeks

7866

In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contraction in this situation is

7867

Out of the various phases of the action potential (recorded with one electrode inside the cell), which one has the longest duration?

7868

Which of the statements regarding the T tubules is correct

7869

The correct sequence regarding the tonicity of tubular fluid from PCT-Descending limb of Henle loop-Ascending limb of Henle loop is

7870

Cardiac output can be measured by except

7871

All are true of axon reflex except

7872

The physiological response to the heat as shown in the picture is due to the release of which neurotransmitter

7873

Identify the type of blood cell shown by arrow in the picture

7874

The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle

7875

Which of the following physiological processes is not correctly paired with a structure?

7876

A 40-year-old male, employed as a road construction worker for nearly 20 years, went to his physician to report that he recently began to notice difficulty hearing during normal conversations. A Weber test showed that sound from a vibrating tuning fork was localized to the right ear. A Schwabach test showed that bone conduction was below normal. A Rinne test showed that both air and bone conduction were abnormal, but air conduction lasted longer than bone conduction. The diagnosis was:

7877

Cutting which structure on the left side causes total blindness in the left eye?

7878

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his

7879

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

7880

Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high-frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which of the following?

7881

Broca area is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to Broca area?

7882

At a first-grade parent-teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones?

7883

Visual contrast is enhanced due to lateral inhibition by which retinal cells:

7884

Stimulation of stretch receptors present in the left ventricle causes hypotension and bradycardia. This phenomenon is known as

7885

A cerebrovascular accident that effects forced expirations during rest and exercise most likely damaged which neural area

7886

A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior venacava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5mmHg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure

7887

The absorption of glucose from the lumen into the intestinal epithelial cells is through

7888

In a normal healthy person, which of the following blood components has the shortest life span

7889

Salivation by dog seen when food is given along with ringing of bell is

7890

The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of all the following except:

7891

An example of neuronal replacement in the adult human involves the

7892

A 42 year old patient is scheduled for surgery that will likely require a transfusion. Because the patient has a rare blood type, an autologous blood transfusion is planned. Prior to surgery, 1500 mL of blood is collected. The collection tubes contain calcium citrate to prevent coagulation. Which of the following is the mechanism for citrate’s anticoagulative action?

7893

Several hormones regulate the tubular reabsorption of water and electrolytes at different sites in the nephron. Which of the following combination is correct

7894

Sleep spindles appear in

7895

The method given in the picture is used to do which of the following test

7896

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the

7897

A 30-year-old female enters the emergency room and has been experiencing severe vomiting. She has pale skin, tachycardia, and arterial pressure of 80/50, and has trouble walking. What therapy do you recommend to prevent shock?

7898

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58%, WBC 13,300/(Mu)l, and platelets 600,000/(Mu)l. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?

7899

If a patient undergoing spinal anaesthesia experiences a large decrease in arterial pressure and goes into shock, which of the following would be the therapy of choice?

7900

A 45-year-old male had a meal containing wild mushrooms that he picked in a field earlier in the day. Within a few hours after eating, he developed nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, sweating, and salivation. Which of the following statements about the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

7901

A 32-year-old female received an injection of a local anesthetic for a tooth extraction. Within 2 h, she noted palpitations, diaphoresis, and dizziness. Which of the following ionic changes is correctly matched with a component of the action potential?

7902

A man who has been exposed to high levels of gamma radiation is sterile due to destruction of the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules, although he has normal levels of testosterone. Which of the following would be found in this patient?

7903

During the week following ovulation, the endometrium increases in thickness to 5 to 6 millimeters. What stimulates this increase in thickness?

7904

Which of the following contributes to sodium escape in Conn syndrome?

7905

If a woman hears her baby cry, she may experience milk ejection from the nipples even before the baby is placed to the breast. What is the explanation for this?

7906

A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected?

7907

Very early in embryonic development, testosterone is formed within the male embryo. What is the function of this hormone at this stage of development?

7908

All of the following are developed up to the adult size at birth except:

7909

The incision used in endomeatal approach to the ear is

7910

Weber test is best elicited by:

7911

High frequency sound waves are given to test auditory function in

7912

All of the following are Topodiagnsotic tests of Facial nerve except:

7913

Iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused during:

7914

True about Gradenigo syndrome are all except

7915

In which of the following conditions, cortical mastoidectomy is indicated:

7916

Why is it preferable to perform a stapedotomy with the patient under local anaesthesia?

7917

Otosclerosis is a hereditary disease that affects women and men at a ratio of:

7918

The earliest feature of tuberculosis of vocal cords is?

7919

Identify the Cartilage marked by arrow:

7920

Zenker diverticula are also known as ________ diverticula

7921

Inspiratory stridor tends to occur when there is an obstruction:

7922

A cricothyrotomy is indicated for

7923

Which site in the larynx is most commonly affected by tuberculosis?

7924

What structure is visible in the wall of the sphenoid sinus?

7925

The frontal sinus is fully developed by _______ year(s) of age

7926

The uncinate process is a portion of which bone?

7927

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is classically associated with all of the following except:

7928

Which of the following nasal arteries arises from the internal carotid artery?

7929

In which situation is immunotherapy least appropriate?

7930

In managing nasal fractures

7931

Quadripod fracture is seen in

7932

Androphonia can be corrected by doing:

7933

Method of speech communication after laryngectomy include all except:

7934

Tonsillectomy is indicated in:

7935

Treatment of Choice for Ca Glottis T3N0M0:

7936

Moure sign can be detected in:

7937

What is the most common site of fixation of the stapes?

7938

Which of the following cochlear components is most sensitive to acoustic overstimulation?

7939

The frequency region first affected by habitual exposure to excessive sound is typically ______ kHz

7940

Which recently discovered objective measure of cochlear function promises to be capable of detecting noise-induced hearing loss at an early stage of development that precedes detection by the pure-tone audiogram?

7941

False about Meniere’s Disease

7942

Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid:

7943

Bezold abscess results when mastoid infection

7944

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of acute serous labyrinthitis?

7945

Politzer bag maneuver used to test

7946

Patient presents with severe hearing loss. For the amount of decibel loss he has, which of the following sound can be heard by him?

7947

False regarding hearing assessment in newborn:

7948

Abductor of vocal cord is:

7949

Young operation done in:

7950

Neutral position of Vocal cord is:

7951

Findings of BERA in vestibular schwannoma:

7952

Optic nerve injury following sinus surgery is due to removal of which ethmoidal cells?

7953

In Peritonsillar abscess pain is referred to the ear by:

7954

Impedance Audiometric response in serous otitis media:

7955

Columella effect is seen in which type of tympanoplasty

7956

Target sign is seen in?

7957

A steel worker presented with noise induced hearing loss, which part of inner ear is most likely affected?

7958

Which of the following represents lateral semicircular canal during cortical mastoidectomy:

7959

Which of the following is not the branch of external carotid artery in Kiesselbach plexus?

7960

Which of the following sinus grows till early adulthood

7961

An infant is brought with inspiratory stridor, increasing during effort and relieving on placing child prone. Laryngoscopy revels following finding: All of the following things about the above disease are true except:

7962

Which of the following regarding the given image is false?

7963

Identify the given PTA audiogram?

7964

A 27 yr old pregnant patient presented with complaint of worsening of hearing since the onset of pregnancy. On PTA the following graph was obtained. Which of the following statement regarding the disease is true?

7965

All are true regarding following condition of vocal folds except?

7966

A three year old boy gets high fever then associated with difficulty in swallowing and strider, the resident pediatrician sent for lateral X-ray Soft Tissue Neck. Which of the following sign is seen on Xray:

7967

Identify the Air cell shown in the CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinus:

7968

Politzer bag maneuver is used to test:

7969

A patient presented with 2 days history of fever. On examination there was a swelling in the neck and one side tonsil was pushed to midline. What is the most likely diagnosis:

7970

Trotter triad consists of all of the following except:

7971

Prussak space is bounded below by?

7972

All of the following are extrinsic laryngeal membranes/ligaments, except:

7973

What test is being done on the child?

7974

Patient presents with severe hearing loss. For the amount of decibel loss he has, which of the following sound can be heard by him?

7975

Young operation done in:

7976

Neutral position of Vocal cord is:

7977

Optic nerve injury following sinus surgery is due to removal of which ethmoidal cells?

7978

In Peritonsillar abscess pain is referred to the ear by:

7979

Impedance Audiometric response in Serous Otitis Media:

7980

Target sign is seen in?

7981

A steel worker presented with noise induced hearing loss, which part of inner ear is most likely affected?

7982

Gelles test is done in?

7983

Gold Standard Treatment for intractable vertigo in a Patient of Meniere disease is:

7984

A 14 year male presents with recurrent spontaneous bleeding from left nose. On examination a pink mass covered with mucosa is found in the Nasopharynx. Which of the following is not to be done?

7985

Caloric test was done on right side with cold water. Eyes moved to the opposite side. Which of the following corresponds to correct interpretation of nystagmus in this test?

7986

Best patient position for Ryle tube insertion

7987

A person presented to OPD with complaints of rotatory vertigo and nausea in the morning on change in position of the head. What is your diagnosis?

7988

What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis:

7989

Barotraumatic otitis media is a result of:

7990

Which of the following is a cochleotoxic drug:

7991

The incision used in endomeatal approach to the ear is

7992

All of the following is seen in superior laryngeal nerve palsy EXCEPT:

7993

High frequency sound waves are given to test auditory function in

7994

Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all EXCEPT:

7995

Most common tumor from Rathke Pouch

7996

Long term complication in a child with upper respiratory blockage due to enlarged tonsils and Adenoids:

7997

Androphonia can be corrected by doing:

7998

Rhinolalia clausa occurs in all except

7999

A 2-years-old child presents with c/o fever, barking cough and stridor for 2days, what is the diagnosis

8000

Which of the following nerve is damaged in Frey syndrome:

8001

Ludwig angina occurs due to infection of:

8002

Pharyngeal bursa infections leads to:

8003

What is the tensor of vocal cords:

8004

Nasopharyngeal chordoma arises from:

8005

High tracheostomy is done in:

8006

Site for placing an electrode in auditory brain stem implant is:

8007

Which of the following is true regarding Singer nodule?

8008

A 35 years old female patient present with hearing loss with improvement in hearing in noisy environment. On examination Rinne’s is negative and weber is centralized. Following is the audiometry report. What is the most likely diagnosis:

8009

A 2 months old child who was born by normal delivery to a primigravida lady presented with below hoarseness and below finding on Laryngoscopy. What could be possible diagnosis?

8010

An unimmunized 2 years old girl presents with high grade fever and sore throat. On examination she is toxic in appearance and having bilateral Cervical lymphadenopathy. Throat examination showed below finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8011

Name the maneuver shown in the image:

8012

A patient presented after RTA with left sided epistaxis and diplopia. On performing CT scan following finding is noted. What would be the cause for Diplopia?

8013

Dohlman surgery in Zenkers diverticulum is

8014

The following instrument is being used by the patient for:

8015

Nerve supply of the area marked by Black arrow is?

8016

What is type of joints between the ossicles of ear marked by arrow?

8017

All of the following are Topodiagnsotic tests of Facial nerve except:

8018

A patient facial nerve is transected in the cerebellopontine angle. Electric stimulation over the stylomastoid foramen will fail to elicit facial movement

8019

In addition to facial nerve paralysis, the most common finding in Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is

8020

Which of the following is least likely to be seen in association with a longitudinal temporal bone fracture?

8021

Key-hole appearance of glottis is seen on laryngoscopy in:

8022

DOC for malignant otitis externa is:

8023

Identify the structure marked X?

8024

Iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused during:

8025

Otosclerosis is a hereditary disease that affects women and men at a ratio of:

8026

Quadripod fracture is seen in

8027

A three year old boy gets high fever then associated with difficulty in swallowing and strider, the resident pediatrician sent for lateral X-ray Soft Tissue Neck. Which of the following sign is seen on Xray:

8028

The treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:

8029

Which of the following drug causes cochleotoxicity:

8030

All of the following are seen when superior laryngeal nerve is damaged EXCEPT:

8031

All of the following muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT:

8032

Most common site for laryngeal web is:

8033

Most common cause of facial nerve palsy:

8034

A 15 years old presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination a right neck swelling is noted posterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle with right tonsil shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:

8035

A male trauma patient admitted to hospital with clear watery discharge from nose. Glucose level in the discharge was about 65 mg/dl. What is the possible diagnosis?

8036

Juvenile recurrent laryngeal papillomatosis is caused by:

8037

Young operation is done in:

8038

Flamingo pink appearance of tympanic membrane is seen in:

8039

Which of the following arteries is a branch of ICA in Kiesselbach plexus:

8040

Ossicles lever ratio is:

8041

Endolymph secreted by:

8042

A patient has Rinne test +ve for left ear and weber test is lateralized to right ear, what type of deafness may be seen in this case?

8043

Inspiratory stridor is seen in lesions of:

8044

Ludwig angina occurs due to infection of:

8045

Pharyngeal bursa infections leads to:

8046

Which cranial nerves affected in Mobius syndrome?

8047

Carhart notch in audiometry is seen in:

8048

Most common cause of otomycosis is:

8049

Caldwell view is best for:

8050

What is the tensor of vocal cords:

8051

During acute tonsillitis pain in the ear due to effects of which nerve:

8052

Nasopharyngeal chordoma arises from:

8053

High tracheostomy is done in:

8054

Which of the following is true about Torus tubarius?

8055

Site for placing an electrode in auditory brain stem implant is:

8056

Which of the following is true regarding Singer nodule?

8057

Hallpike maneuver is done for:

8058

Meniere disease is manifested by all of the following symptoms EXCEPT:

8059

CSF Otorrhea is due to trauma of:

8060

Eustachian tube develops from:

8061

Otomycosis is commonly caused by:

8062

Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part of the semicircular canals:

8063

Recruitment phenomenon is seen in:

8064

Tobey-Ayer test is done for:

8065

A patient hears better in noise. The diagnosis is:

8066

Referred ear pain in a patient of base of tongue malignancy is due to?

8067

Angiofibroma bleeds profusely because:

8068

Young operation is done for:

8069

Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in:

8070

Most common malignancy of maxillary antrum is:

8071

Laryngocele arises from:

8072

Eustachian tube opens due to contraction of which of the following muscles:

8073

Sensory supply of middle ear cavity is by:

8074

Jacobson nerve is a branch of

8075

Tensor tympani muscle attaches to which ossicle

8076

Stapedius is supplied by

8077

A newborn with Bilateral microtia should be operated at what age?

8078

Narrowest part of middle ear is:

8079

Total Surface area of tympanic membrane

8080

Meningitis spreads from CNS to Inner ear through

8081

All are true about tympanic membrane except:

8082

Which of the following is not an ototoxic drug

8083

In which of the following conditions, cortical mastoidectomy is indicated:

8084

DOC for malignant otitis externa is:

8085

A 38 years old man had labyrinthine fistula with positive fistula sign. Two weeks later fistula sign became negative without any treatment. Which of the following will be the Rinne test (tuning fork e) finding

8086

A young man met with an accident leading to loss of hearing in the right ear. On  otoscopyexamination the tympanic membrane was intact. Pure tone audiometry showed AB gap of 55 dB on the right ear with normal cochlear reserve. Which of the following will be probable tympanometry finding

8087

During evoked potential study of brain stem, wave V corresponds to:

8088

A 23 years old patient has fever with chills and headache since 7-8 days. Patient gives history of purulent ear discharge on and off. He has retro-orbital pain. On examination he has mild ptosis. What is the likely diagnosis?

8089

A 27yr old pregnant female patient has bilateral conductive deafness, tinnitus with positive family history. The diagnosis is;

8090

Hypoesthesia over the area of posterosuperior aspect of the external auditory canal (Hitzelberger sign) is feature of:

8091

A 38 year old gentleman reports of decreased hearing in the Left ear for the last two years. On testing with a 512 Hz tuning fork the Rinne test [without masking] is negative on the left ear and positive on the right ear. With the Weber test the tone is perceived as louder in the right ear. The most likely patient has:

8092

Multiple perforations in TM are seen in

8093

Commonest complication of CSOM

8094

PARACUSSIS is seen in

8095

The following is seen in glue ear

8096

Most reliable landmark in OTOSCOPY

8097

Utricle detects

8098

Weber test is best ellicitedby:

8099

What is type of joints between the ossicles of ear marked by arrow?

8100

Identify the space marked with an arrow in the figure:

8101

Identify the boundary of trautmann triangle marked in the diagram with an arrow?

8102

Which of the following structures develop from the Area marked with Arrow in Diagram

8103

A female patient was on warfarin therapy for prosthetic valves. What advice should be given to her regarding use of this drug during early pregnancy:

8104

A patient presented after road traffic accident. This patient is having raised ICP but no intracranial hematoma was seen. Which is the best drug to start in this patient to manage his condition:

8105

Which of the following drug is best to be used for medical closure of patent ductus arteriosus:

8106

A female presented with pain and redness in her great toe. Serum uric acid level was 9.7 mg/dl. Apart from analgesic, one more drug was prescribed to her that decreases the formation of uric acid. Which enzyme is likely to be inhibited by this drug:

8107

Which of the following antimicrobial agent is contraindicated in a patient with seizure disorder:

8108

A patient having h/o travelling to Assam, developed fever, chills, rigors and altered sensorium. Peripheral smear shows presence of plasmodium falciparum. What is the treatment of choice for this patient:

8109

Which of the following radioactive iodine used in treatment of thyroid carcinoma:

8110

Which antidiabetic drug does not require dose reduction in renal failure patients:

8111

Hormones involved in the regulation of calcium balance in the body are:

8112

Which of the following is the longest acting PDE V inhibitor:

8113

Which of the following is a long acting bronchodilator?

8114

Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agent can cause hepatitis on repeated use

8115

Preferred drug for the treatment of ventricular tachycardia is

8116

Which of the following is used for day care surgery

8117

A female with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with fever and dysuria. A preliminary diagnosis of cystitis was made. Which of the following drug will be safe to use for this patient

8118

Insulin of choice for the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis?

8119

Which of the following is long acting insulin that never attains a peak concentration in plasma?

8120

Praziquantal is used for the treatment of

8121

Drug of choice for nasal carriers of MRSA is

8122

Anti-depressant drug which is used for smoking cessation is

8123

Which of the following drug is selective COX-2 inhibitor

8124

Aerosol drug used for treatment of RSV infection in a child is?

8125

Drug of choice for treatment of Alzheimer disease is

8126

Mechanism of action of atropine in treatment of organophosphate poisoning is

8127

Secretion of prolactin in inhibited by

8128

True statement is:

8129

Which one of the following vitamin will increase absorption of iron from stomach:

8130

Dopamine in low doses acts on which receptor and causes which action:

8131

A patient having weakness in the limb muscles and it is more in the evening time after work exertion. Edrophonium was used for diagnosis. Condition of the patient improving after giving edrophonium. This patient is likely to be suffering from:

8132

A child was brought to the emergency department after eating an unknown plant. Skin was dry, high body temperature; pupils were dilated and raised heart rate. Which of the following poisoning occurred to this child:

8133

A farmer presented to emergency with garlic odour breathing, pin point pupil and excessive salivary secretion. Drug of choice to treat this condition is:

8134

Drug used in emergency management of asthma but not having bronchodilator property:

8135

Which combination of seizures and it is first line treatment drug is false?

8136

One pregnant lady on lithium therapy came for antenatal visit in OPD. What is the risk the exposed fetus is having by this drug:

8137

An elderly patient is diagnosed with Alzheimer disease due to his symptoms of dementia. Which neurotransmitter is important for causing these symptoms:

8138

An elderly patient presents with tremors, hypokinesia and muscular rigidity was diagnosed as Parkinsonism. Which neurotransmitter is responsible for causing these symptoms:

8139

Which antidepressant acts via inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine:

8140

One patient developed muscular rigidity and hyperthermia after giving Halothane anaesthetic drug. Which ion is responsible for these symptoms?

8141

One drug addict person presented with ulceration over skin. This patient also having itching and scratch marks over skin. He is having tachycardia, hypertensin and mydriasis. Which substance is causing these symptoms:

8142

Drug of choice to treat digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmia:

8143

A 4 year boy drank full bottle of iron syrup. Which is the best antidote for this acute poisoning of iron:

8144

Patient underwent surgery and during recovery he was shouting and having hallucinations. Which anaesthetic drug was used?

8145

Selective estrogen receptor modulator is?

8146

A patient having unilateral headache, associated with nausea and vomiting. Which drug can be used to decrease this headache episode?

8147

Best treatment of this condition:

8148

What is suitable emergency contraception for a 23 year old female within few hours of sexual assault on 13th day of menstrual cycle:

8149

After which phase of drug trial, post marketing surveillance starts?

8150

Patient with BPH taking prazosin attended the OPD with low BP. Which drug you will prescribe to him now?

8151

A 14 year old child presented with proteinuria 4+, no hematuria. Drug preferred in this case would be?

8152

Patient presented with 6 episodes of depression, mania and hypomania in last 1 year with recovery phase in between. What is the probable diagnosis and drug used is?

8153

A 34-weeks pregnant lady presented with seizures. Her blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Which drugs should be used for the treatment of this patient?

8154

All of the following drugs are used for prophylaxis of migraine except

8155

Find therapeutic index of a drug from the information given below in the graph

8156

A farmer presented with pin point pupil and increase in secretions. Likely poisoning is

8157

A lady has taken medication of ameiobiasis infection. In a party she drank alcohol. She has nausea vomiting and dizziness. Which anti-amoebic drug could have lead to interaction with alcohol to produce these symptoms?

8158

Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for which of the following drugs

8159

Mechanism of action of allopurinol is

8160

Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

8161

Which of the following is an oral direct thrombin inhibitor?

8162

Which anti-asthma drug is avoided with Erythromycin?

8163

A child brought to emergency with seizures. Airways have been secured and antiepileptic was given. What is the first line drug to control seizures?

8164

A person on DMARD therapy requires regular monitoring of visual acuity and fundus examination. Which drug has maximum adverse effect on this?

8165

An elderly patient came with features of Parkinsonism like rigidity, hypokinesia etc. Which of the following is not prescribed to this patient:

8166

A patient of pancreatic carcinoma (clinical case was given). You gave morphine for relieving pain. After few days, the pain is not relieved as relieved earlier. Why?

8167

Histamine through H1 receptors to cause bronchoconstriction and adrenaline via beta 2 receptors cause bronchodilation to reverse this action. Which type of antagonism is this?

8168

First sign of MgSo4 toxicity?

8169

Female having 14 week of missed abortion. Agent to be used in this case:

8170

A 62 year old male patient came with backache. His PSA levels is greater than 100 ng/mL. Which of the following drug is to be given for treatment in this case:

8171

A young male patient is on prolonged oral steroids since more than 10 years. Now having loss of vision in both the eyes. What is the possible reason for this?

8172

A person from nonendemic area visited India and was given prophylaxis for malaria. How long the person should continue the drug after leaving from India:

8173

A patient after valve replacement will require follow up treatment with

8174

Monoclonal antibody used in cancer is

8175

All of the following can result in gynaecomastia except

8176

Hydrochlorothiazide works by inhibiting

8177

Drug of choice for hyperthyroidism in third trimester of pregnancy is

8178

Mechanism of action of exenatide in diabetes mellitus is

8179

Least teratogenic antiepileptic drug in pregnancy is

8180

Shortest acting corticosteroid among the following is

8181

Healthy volunteers are recruited in which phase of clinical trials

8182

Long term use of which of the following drug is most likely associated with development of tremors

8183

71 year old male has a difficulty in passing urine. On digital rectal examination, there is diffuse enlargement of prostate. This pathological change is due to

8184

In the following pathway of apoptosis arrow point to the caspase

8185

17 year old adolescent male received whole body radiation as a part of regimen for bone marrow transplantation. Following tissue is going to be unaffected by this radiation

8186

50 year old man has traumatic injury leading to extensive blood loss. On physical examination his blood pressure is 80/30mm Hg. Which of the following represents irreversible cell injury

8187

60 year old male has chronic cough and was diagnosed squamous cell carcinoma in his left lung. During surgery hilar lymph nodes were enlarged and jet black in colour throughout. Appearance of hilar lymph nodes is due to:

8188

Uterus enlargement during pregnancy is an example of:

8189

True about metastatic calcification is:

8190

Following pathological change is seen in cigarette smoker. It is suggestive of:

8191

60 year old male, on examination of the foot, the toes are cold and have no sensation to touch. The dorsalispedis and posterior tibial pulses are not palpable. The findings are most typical for a patient with which of the following:

8192

30 years old female has the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. On physical examination there is diffuse tenderness in all abdominal quadrants. On laboratory findings there is lipase 415 U/L and LDH 630 U/L. Most likely changes present in pancreas is:

8193

40 year old male had cough with fever for 5 days. On chest radiograph there is consolidation in right lower lobe. On sputum culture there is Streptococcus pneumonia. The microorganism would be cleared by the generation of:

8194

25 year old female is claiming that her husband has abused her for the past 2 years. On examination there is a 2 cm left breast mass. There is no lymphadenopathy, no skin lesion are seen. On microscopy of breast there is fatty necrosis. It is most likely due to:

8195

25 year old motorcyclist had blunt force abdominal trauma. In response to this injury, cells in tissues of abdomen are stimulated to enter the G1 phase of the cell cycle from the G0 phase. Which of the following cell types is most likely to remain in G0 following this injury:

8196

In acute inflammation which of the following will be last to occur:

8197

A patient has surgical wound site following suturing. An in growth of new capillaries is seen within the first week. This capillary proliferation is due to the substance

8198

10 year old boy sustained a 1 cm long laceration to her left middle finger.  Which of the following substance, on contact with injured vascular basement membrane, activates both coagulation sequence and Kinin system as an initial response to this injury

8199

20 year old man has stab wound on the chest.  After 3 months there is firm, nodular mass with intact overlying epithelium in the region of the wound. This mass shows fibroblast with collagen on microscopic examination. This is most likely due to

8200

Following picture is of tuberculosis granuloma showing necrosis surrounded by giant cells. These giant cells are called:

8201

50 year old female took a direct flight from Delhi to Chicago. On arrival at Chicago she cannot put her shoes back on. There is no pain or tenderness. It is most likely due to

8202

50 Year old man has pain in left thigh for 3 months. On X-Ray there is presence of solid mass. On microscopic examination, mass is formed of highly pleomorphic spindle cells. Which of the following immunohistochemical marker is seen in this mass

8203

66 year old man complains of hematuria for the last 2 weeks. On examination there is urothelial carcinoma. Which of the following oncogene is involved in pathogenesis

8204

65 year old male has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of urinary bladder. On microscopic examination cells have hyperchromatism and increased nuclear: Cytoplasmic ratio involving the full thickness of the epithelium. These changes are limited to the epithelium above the basement membrane. Following term best describes these biopsy findings

8205

Patient had palpable mass on digital rectal examination. Out of the following microscopic findings, which is most likely to indicate that the neoplasm is malignant

8206

There is high incidence of cancers due to ultraviolet rays in patient of xerodermapigmentosum. This is due to defect in

8207

Patient is suspected to have lung carcinoma. On examination serum calcium levels are elevated. Most likely lung carcinoma is

8208

9 year old boy has acute pharyngitis. On throat culture there is growth of group A hemolytic streptococci. After 10 days he develops dark colored urine. On Urinalysis there is 3+ blood. This is an example of hypersensitivity type

8209

40 year old female had lump in her left breast, firm, irregular and non-movable. Mass was removed with lumpectomy along with an axillary lymph node dissection. Predictor of better prognosis is:

8210

22 year old female has a palpable nodule in the thyroid gland. There is no lymphadenopathy. On fine needle aspiration cytology following picture was seen. Which of the following findings would you consider in her past history to indicate a risk factor for this neoplasm:

8211

10 year old healthy girl has reddish, raised nodule on the skin of the upper part of her chest. It has been present for years and has not appreciably changed in size or color. It is most likely:

8212

Hereditary renal cell cancer, pheochromocytomas, hemangioblastoma of the central nervous system, retinal angioma are associated with the loss of tumour suppressor gene:

8213

65 year old man, heavy smoker has history of chronic cough for the past 5 years. On chest radiograph there is right hilar mass. On sputum cytology there are atypical hyperchromatic squamous cells. What is the most common initial pathway for metastases from this lesion:

8214

Following gene is absent that would stop the cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. Due to absence increased exposure to ionizing radiation is resulting in damage to cellular DNA. Out of the following gene is:

8215

In grading of the tumour following are used except:

8216

There are some pre-existing chronic medical conditions that carries the risk of following significant risk of malignancy. It is seen in:

8217

Male infant was born at term. At 1 year of age he has failure to thrive and recurrent pneumonias. Which of the following disease is the most likely have:

8218

Increased hydrostatic pressure is the pathological cause of edema in:

8219

Nutmeg liver is the name given to:

8220

Thrombi occurring in heart chambers or in the aortic lumen are called:

8221

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is an example of inheritance:

8222

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. If both parents are carrier what percentage change is of having the disease in child:

8223

21 year old man has chest pain which is relieved by sublingual nitroglycerine. On lab studies total serum cholesterol is 350mg/dL and blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. His brother died of myocardial infarction at the age of 30 years. He is most likely having:

8224

On examination of abdominal aorta, there is dilation present below the origin of renal arteries. Most common cause for this:

8225

Serum marker that is synthesized and released from liver and is a risk factor for atherosclerosis is:

8226

70 year old man had suffered a myocardial infarction 2 months ago. Now he has increasing dyspnea and orthopnea and on echocardiography ejection fraction is 30 percent. On chest X-Ray, there is pulmonary edema. Which of the following will be increased in this person at this time:

8227

55-year-old male complains of chest pain after climbing up stairs. He smokes 10 cigarettes per day, BP 155/95 mmHg and serum cholesterol 245 mg/dL. He is most likely to have following vascular anomalies

8228

50 year old male during hospitalization, develops thrombophlebitis. He is discharged after recovery. Following term would be applied to the process in vein after recovery from thrombophlebitis:

8229

A patient died of chest pain is suspected to have had myocardial infarction. Following picture shows pale area on statining by triphenyltetrazolium chloride. It is due to leakage of following enzymes from myocardium

8230

50 year old female was diagnosed to have adenocarcinoma of lung. There is presence of following vegetations in the heart. There is no history of fever, no history of pharyngitis. Most likely it is

8231

60-year-old man has cough and shortness of breath for 2 years. On examination there is hepatomegaly and pitting edema. Most likely cause is

8232

50-year-old male has the sudden loss of movement on right side of the body. He is smoker and BP 160/100mmHg, HbA1C 8.6 percent. Cerebral angiogram shows occlusion of a branch of middle cerebral artery. Following component of blood lipids is most likely causing this

8233

Maccallum patch is seen in rheumatic fever in

8234

Following picture of acinus is seen in a chronic smoker. It is suggestive of emphysema

8235

In a patient of Silicosis there is increased incidence of all of the following except

8236

Following inclusion bodies were seen in lung along with non caseating granulomas. It is suggestive of

8237

All are true about adenocarcinomas of lung except

8238

Mycoplasma pneumonia causes lung infection resembling

8239

Diffuse bronchiectasis involving upper lung fields is mainly seen in:

8240

All are seen in hypersensitivity pneumonitis except:

8241

35 year old female has history of intermittent bloody diarrhea for 5 years. Stool sample is positive for occult blood. On colonoscopy there is friable, erythematous mucosa that extend from the rectum to the mid transverse colon. On microscopic examination there is superficial mucosal ulceration. This patient is at greatest risk for development of which of the following condition:

8242

A healthy 20 year old man has a family history of colon cancer with onset at a young age. There are no other abnormal physical findings. On colonoscopy there are 200 adenomas present in colon. It is due to involvement of:

8243

10 year old boy has jaundice. On laboratory studies there is total bilirubin 5.8mg/dL, AST  130 IU/L and ALT 140 U/L. The serum ceruloplasmin is decreased. Antimitochndrial antibody test is negative. Ocular findings are shown in figure. It is due to involvement of gene:

8244

Most frequently affected tumor suppressor gene in pancreatic carcinoma is

8245

Pathological change of liver cells in acute viral hepatitis is

8246

Most common tumor of liver is secondary tumours. It most commonly arises from

8247

33 year old female presented with swelling in her neck. On examination there is nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid. On congo red stained there is birefringent amyloid stroma. Most likely diagnosis is:

8248

55 year old male had renal transplantation 3 years ago. He was started on glucocorticoids therapy to prevent the rejection of transplantation. He came to the hospital for screening and the adrenal biopsy was done. Most likely finding to be present is:

8249

1 year old female, who has two healthy children, came with history of amenorrhea for the past 6 months. Pregnancy test is negative and for last 2 weeks there is milk production from her breasts. There is history of headache for the past 3 months and there is also difficulty in vision. Most likely diagnosis is:

8250

26 year old primigravida has vaginal bleeding after the onset of labour at 38 weeks gestation. She was diagnosed placenta previa and caesarean section was done. She remained hypotensive and 6 units of packed RBC were transfused. Postpartum she is unable to breast fed the infant. She has become more sluggish and tired. Which of the following pathologic lesions is she most likely to have had following delivery:

8251

40 year old female has painless swelling of her neck for the past 2 months. On physical examination there is diffuse enlargement of thyroid. On laboratory studies there is an increased titer of anti-thyroid peroxidase and anti thyrobulin antibodies. Which of the following complication is she most likely to develop:

8252

15 year old boy has history of headaches for 2 months and difficulty in vision. Head CT scan shows 4 cm mass expanding the sellaturcica with calcification. Most likely diagnosis is:

8253

50 year old female came with history of flank tenderness and abdominal pain. On physiological examination there is palpable kidney and ultrasound showed cystic changes in both kidneys. Urinalysis showed 2+ proteinuria. Gross image of the kidney is given. Mode of inheritance of this disease is:

8254

A 7-year-old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is true:

8255

A 21-year-old man presents with painless haematuria which he has noticed in the last 3 days. He suffers from type 1 diabetes which is well controlled, but is otherwise fit and healthy. Patient has recently recovered from a mild throat infection. Urine dipstick analysis reveals blood and protein in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

8256

A 68-year-old woman has used large amounts of analgesic for years to relieve severe headaches and arthritis. She now has an elevated urea and creatinine consistent with chronic renal failure. Which of the following changes in the kidney is most likely seen with her diagnosis?

8257

Patient has complaint of headache and seizures. On X-ray calcification present in brain. On biopsy brain following picture is seen. It is most likely

8258

A tumor found attached to dura membrane, which consists of elongated cells, psammoma bodies most probably, it is

8259

The following list of primary malignancies accounts for the majority of metastatic brain tumors:

8260

2 year old child has history of diarrhea since the age of 6 months when complimentary feeds were introduced. On examination iron deficiency anemia is present. Biopsy of small intestine shows following features. Likely diagnosis

8261

50-year-old male with diabetes mellitus develops swelling in the lower limbs. On urinalysis there is 3+ proteinuria and 3+ glycosuria. Serum albumin is 3g/dL and serum cholesterol is 350 mg/dL. On renal biopsy following glomerular changes will be seen

8262

A 24-year-old woman present with nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and gross hematuria. She had a sore throat 2 weeks ago that resolved on its own. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, there is 1+ pedal edema. She has a renal biopsy. Which of the following electron microscopy findings on the renal biopsy is most likely in keeping with poststreptococcal GN

8263

Hour glass stenosis is related with infection of

8264

Identify the epithelium

8265

Identify the cell

8266

Muscle used for Tendon grafting operation in lower limb is

8267

Achalasia cardia is due to

8268

Morphine acts on

8269

Which of the following is incorrect option

8270

Vth ventricle of the brain is related to

8271

All of the following statements regarding brain sections are correct except

8272

In given surface anatomy landmark image the operative procedure for Extradural hemorrhage is done at

8273

The Frankfurt plane in given image

8274

In given radiological anatomy image identify the thalamus

8275

Lesion to indicated structure will result in paralysis of which of the following muscle

8276

Lesser curvature of stomach is formed by

8277

Final lymph node of stomach is

8278

In given image which lobe is considered as hidden lobe of liver

8279

Which of the following is the action of indicated muscle:

8280

Which nerve is known as pregnant nerve

8281

In Pringle menuvere method which anatomical structure is mainly compressed

8282

How many valves are present at opening of CBD

8283

Portal vein is formed at level of

8284

Axillary sheath is an extension of

8285

Structures pierced by parotid duct are all except

8286

Parotid duct pierces

8287

Total length of colon

8288

Phrenic nerve is covered by which fascia

8289

Which nerve is not related in posterior surface of kidney

8290

What is the anatomical characteristic of Brodel line

8291

Which muscle is related on posterior surface of ureter

8292

Nerve supply of circumvallate papillae is

8293

Which structure is considered as vagina in males

8294

Waldayer fascia is situated

8295

The appearance of the colon on double contrast barium enema examination is shown in image Identify the A,B and C respectively

8296

Glans penis is continuation of

8297

Long spinous process is seen in

8298

Lateral leminiscus terminates into

8299

Which is a typical intercostal nerve

8300

At which level of brain the nucleus supplying to the marked muscle is situated

8301

Valve present in gall bladder is

8302

Nervi terminalis is

8303

Dawbarn sign is positive in

8304

In adults, spinal cord in adults ends at

8305

Which among the following muscles receives Dual Nerve Supply?

8306

Root value to axillary nerve:

8307

Musculocutaneous nerve arises from which cord:

8308

Which structure is responsible for dimpling over the skin in case of breast carcinoma

8309

Most lateral nucleus of cerebellum

8310

A kind of hernia is shown in the image. Which anatomical structure is not present in the boundary of related space

8311

Chassaignac tubercle is related with which vertebra

8312

Inferior sagittal sinus is situated at

8313

Which artery supplies the paracentral lobule

8314

Supratrochlear and supraorbital nerves are branches of

8315

Which of the following is the Widow artery

8316

Thinnest cranial nerve is

8317

Which nerve is most susceptible to get damage in head injury

8318

Which cranial nerve does not passes through lateral wall of cavernous sinus

8319

Chorda tympani is

8320

Which of the following is not a hybrid muscle

8321

3rd lumbrical is supplied by

8322

Eye of the hand is

8323

Grave yard of ulnar nerve is

8324

Which of the following is not the action of Sartorius muscle

8325

Anti-rape muscle is

8326

Lesion to the mid line part of medulla will result into which of the following condition

8327

Handle bar palsy syndrome is related with

8328

NECKLACE OF VIEUSSENS is formed by anastomosis between:

8329

Nervi hesitance is

8330

Which vessels helps to identify the gastroguodenal junction

8331

Initiation of abduction is done by

8332

Identify the related syndrome

8333

Lateral displacement of patella is prevented by

8334

Hand to Knee gait in polio paralysis in poliomyelitis is due to weakness of

8335

Turkish saddle is part of

8336

Meralgia parasthesia is due to compression of

8337

Middle meningeal artery passes through

8338

Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inhibits the enzyme:

8339

All take place in mitochondria except

8340

Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is correct?

8341

The glycolytic degradation of ingested glucose commences with the action of which of the following enzymes?

8342

Which of the following statements about the citric acid cycle is correct?

8343

False about Glucogenesis:

8344

A disaccharide linked by a alpha-1-4 glycosidic linkage is

8345

The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for

8346

Alpha-D-glucose + 112degree -7 + 52.5degree f- + 19degree Beta- D-glucose for glucose above represents

8347

A number of compounds inhibit oxidative phosphorylation-the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate linked to oxidation of substrates in mitochondria. Which of the following describes the action of an uncoupler?

8348

As cells in the erythrocytic lineage mature and lose their nuclei, mitochondria, and ribosomes, which of the following pathways can still be used to produce ATP?

8349

Which one of the following metabolites is used by all cells for glycolysis, glycogen synthesis, and the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway?

8350

A firefighter is brought to the emergency room (ER) from the scene of a fire complaining of headaches, weakness, confusion, and difficulty in breathing. His skin and mucous membranes appear very pink/red. The causative agent of these symptoms inhibits electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation by which one of the following mechanisms?

8351

The pentose phosphate pathway protects erythrocytes against hemolysis by assisting the enzyme:

8352

A triose sugar is?

8353

The sugar found in DNA is?

8354

Osazones are not formed with the

8355

Starch consists of

8356

The above radiograph shows the Narrowing of joint spaces due calcification of intervertebral disc this condition is seen in?

8357

A young adult with albinism is found to be at increased risk for skin cancer. Which of the following is the precursor of melanin?

8358

An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be expected to be deficient in which of the following nonessential amino acids, assuming that it is not obtained from dietary sources?

8359

A peptide bond

8360

The extremely potent vasodilator nitric oxide (NO) is produced naturally by the body from which of the following amino acids?

8361

Albinism is a disorder involving what substance?

8362

Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic process?

8363

An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following?

8364

A patient has an inherited disorder in which the administration of aspartame could be detrimental to her health. This patient most likely has which of the following genetic disorders?

8365

Which of the following statements about the metabolism of amino acids is correct?

8366

Which of the following amino acids is post-translationally hydroxylated in the cytoplasm of fibroblasts?

8367

Which of the following is a common compound shared by the TCA cycle and the Urea cycle?

8368

In a 55-year-old man, who has been diagnosed with cirrhosis of liver, Ammonia is not getting detoxified and can damage brain. Which of the following amino acids can covalently bind ammonia, transport and store in a nontoxic form?

8369

A 3-month-old child is being evaluated for vomiting and an episode of convulsions, Laboratory results show hyperammonemia and Orotic aciduria. Which of the following enzyme defect is likely to be there?

8370

Urea is synthesized in-

8371

The two nitrogen of urea are derived from

8372

The first line of defense in brain in conditions of hyperammonemia is-

8373

Which out of the followings is required as a coenzyme for the transamination reactions?

8374

In a patient suffering from Cystinuria, which out of the following amino acids is not seen in urine of affected patients?

8375

A child was brought to paediatric OPD with complaint of passage of black colored urine. A disorder of Phenylalanine metabolism was diagnosed. A low phenylalanine diet and a supplementation of vitamin C were recommended. Which enzyme defect is expected in this child?

8376

Dopamine is synthesized from which of the following amino acids?

8377

An amino acid not involved in urea synthesis is:

8378

The biochemical structure of all the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary, and pancreas can best be described as which of the following?

8379

Which of the following amino acids is most responsible for the buffering capacity of hemoglobin and other proteins?

8380

The bond in proteins that is not broken under usual conditions of denaturation:

8381

Foetal haemoglobin contains

8382

The most of the ultraviolet absorption of proteins above 240 nm is due to their content of

8383

The lone pair of electrons at one of the ring nitrogens in the given amino acid makes a potential ligand, which is important in binding the iron atoms in hemoglobin:

8384

The cholesterol molecule is

8385

B-Oxidation of fatty acids requires all the following coenzymes except

8386

A fatty acid with 15 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation and produce how much acetyl CoA molecule?

8387

All the following statements about ketone bodies are true except

8388

Carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA requires the enzyme:

8389

An important finding in Tay-sach disease is

8390

During each cycle of Beta-oxidation

8391

Iodine number denotes

8392

Enzyme activity measured in beriberiis?

8393

Competitive inhibitors stop an enzyme from working by

8394

Estimation of the gamma glutamyltransferase is useful to detect one of the following conditions

8395

Multiple forms of the same enzymes are known as

8396

Nyctalopia is

8397

Nowadays it is thought that this vitamin is very much necessary to withstand stressful conditions

8398

A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature messenger RNA is known as:

8399

Shine Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

8400

Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?

8401

An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as:

8402

A patient has Lesch-Nyhan syndrome caused by an absence of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase. The patient condition is caused by an enzyme deficiency in which of the following biochemical pathways?

8403

Genes are

8404

Euchromatin is in the region of DNA that is relatively

8405

The enzyme DNA ligase

8406

Direction of DNA synthesis is

8407

DNA fragments are sealed by

8408

The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

8409

An increased melting temperature of duplex DNA results from a high content of

8410

In purine biosynthesis carbon atoms at 4 and 5 position and N at 7 positions are contributed by

8411

Which of the following is true for ALL nucleotides?

8412

End product of pyrimidine metabolism is

8413

The following typical findings in seen in

8414

Cause of the following finding can be

8415

A 68 year old male presented to emergency department with severe pain and swelling in the knee joint. X rays were taken which returned the following findings. Likely diagnosis

8416

A 16 year old female attending the orthopaedics clinic presented with following findings. The deformity is usually associated with

8417

The following finding can be seen in

8418

Loosser zones are predominantly seen in:

8419

Wimberger sign is seen in:

8420

A 9 year old child attending orthopaedics clinic presented with pain in the hip join exacerbated by activity. X rays were taken which returned the following findings. Likely diagnosis

8421

Tuberculosis of bone is characterized by:

8422

Chondroma:

1. Most common site is lower end of femur

2. It is actually a malignant tumour

 

8423

The following appearance is seen in

8424

The common age of presentation of the following condition is

8425

Drugs which can give rise to the following findings include:

8426

The trunk of brachial plexus most prone to injury is:

8427

Artery to ligamentum teres is a branch of:

8428

A 40 year old male presented to causality department with history of road side accident. X-rays were taken which returned the following picture. The clinical features include

8429

Most common and 2nd most common nerve to be involved in supracondylar fracture of humerus respectively are:

8430

Histopathological examination of a tibial diaphyseal lesion returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis

8431

Medial meniscus is prone to injury because:

8432

The following test is used to check the integrity of

8433

All are Seen in ankylosing spondylitis except:

8434

Muller lines are seen in

8435

A 56 year old patient presents with pain right hip for several months with associated limp. There is no history of trauma. Preferred treatment is

8436

Identify the following device:

8437

Which of the following fracture is extra-articular?

8438

Toddler fracture is a _______ fracture:

8439

The following condition develops due to

8440

Most common position for shoulder joint to dislocate is:

8441

The following clinical examination is useful for

8442

All of the following are similar except:

8443

Strongest ligament of knee is

8444

Scissor gait is seen in

8445

Schmorls nodes are seen in

8446

Wide intercondylar notch is seen in

8447

During college hours, two rogue students got involved in a fist fight and one of the students sustained the following injury. Instability was also noticed on different X-ray views. Preferred treatment is

8448

A 55 year old staff nurse presented to orthopaedics OPD with painful right knee joint. On examination some restriction of movement was noticed. Also noticed was some degree of varus deformity and crepitus on palpation. X-ray was done which returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis

8449

Congenital dislocation of hip: in neonates, preferred investigation is:

8450

Shenton line is broken in

8451

Montegia fracture dislocation involves all except:

8452

Myositis ossificans:

8453

Pulled elbow: commonest age group is:

8454

Commonest cause and commonest site in case of pathological fracture is:

8455

Multiple myeloma: all are true except

8456

A middle aged woman slipped on a frozen path and landed on her right shoulder. She developed a persistent severe ache. X-ray showed no fracture. She was given NSAIDs. Her pain subsided, but she does, however, have a markedly reduced range of movement, particularly with external rotation. There are no associated neurological or vascular deficits. Likely diagnosis

8457

A motor mechanic develops pain in his right elbow. The pain gets worst as day progresses. On palpation there is a point of maximal tenderness just distal to the lateral epicondyle. His pain is reproduced on extension/flexion of his affected wrist. Optimum treatment:

8458

A young motor mechanic slipped on an oily floor and landed on his left hand. He immediately felt some wrist pain. The pain did not improve by the following day too. The pain is aggravated when the thumb or wrist is moved and when the man tries to grip objects. Likely diagnosis

8459

The following sign may be elicited in which of the following conditions

8460

A fresh pass out college graduate presents with a 6-month history of back and buttock pain and stiffness. The pain never spreads down the back of the leg and he has not noticed any change in sensation or loss of power. He is self-employed with two children and smokes heavily. His right hip is irritable with reduced range of movement, particularly external rotation. There is a small effusion of the left knee with evidence of Achilles tendinopathy and plantar fasciitis on the left foot. Optimum management would include

8461

In a patient suffering from septic arthritis of hip: hip would be held in the position of

8462

Recurrent dislocation of shoulder management: Bristow operation is:

8463

CASPAR criterion is used for:

8464

Most common cause of loose bodies in joints is:

8465

Not useful in management of osteoporosis:

8466

Paget disease: pick incorrect

8467

Club foot management: evan Dillwyn procedure is used in the age group

8468

Most common cause of pseudoarthrosis is:

8469

Most common is idiopathic:

8470

Motor march is seen in:

8471

Predominant collagen in meniscus is:

8472

Scaphoid fracture: most common site is:

8473

Which of the following epidermal layer is dead layer?

8474

Identify the Morphology of Skin lesion shown in Photograph:

8475

What are these lines called?

8476

Which of the following stages have longest duration in hair cycle

8477

A 23-year-old female patient on cancer chemotherapy presented with severe diffuse hair fall for last 1 month. She started her cancer chemotherapy 2 months back. Most likely diagnosis is?

8478

An 8-year-old child present with localized with non-scarring alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. What is the treatment of choice?

8479

The following patient came with history of hair loss. There were no complaints of erythema, scarring and scratching. The clinical image of  the patient is shown below, Diagnosis is:

8480

Wrong statement regarding nail is

8481

The image below represents:

8482

Regarding this disease, all are true except:

8483

A 24-year-old man has these lesions on face for 2 years. The drug of choice for treatment:

8484

Common complication associated with the condition shown in the image?

8485

A 3 months old male infant developed otitis media. A few days later, he developed extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions. The most likely diagnosis is:

8486

The Woods lamp examination of a lesion in axilla is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

8487

A young adult presents with hypopigmented scaling macules over the back as seen in the following Image. The likely diagnosis is:

8488

A farmer presented with lesion as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

8489

Identify the arthropod shown in image?

8490

All except true about Pediculosis capitis:

8491

A 5 year old girl with lesions since 3 months. What is the diagnosis?

8492

A Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

8493

Child presents with fever and pleomorphic rash as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

8494

A 5 year old child presented with multiple ulcers with violaceous margins and  discharging sinuses in neck. What is diagnosis?

8495

A case of Leprosy on multidrug therapy develops lesions. Treatment of choice is:

8496

A 23-year-old male presented with a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans. Inguinal lymph nodes in the groins were enlarged and not tender. What is the diagnosis?

8497

Cutaneous horn as shown in the image is associated with which of the following skin cancer?

8498

Treatment of choice for the condition shown in the image is?

8499

Identify the condition shown in the image:

8500

A patient was treated with steroids for Psoriasis. On stopping the treatment, he develops fever and pustular lesions on body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

8501

Identify the phenomenon shown in the image:

8502

Which of the following nail deformity is pathognomic for lichen  planus

8503

A person develops pruritus on exposure to sun, following exercise, under the clothes. What is the probable diagnosis?

8504

Which disease has the DIF pattern shown in the image below:

8505

A newborn child presents with history of recurrent blistering of hands and feet. His father also gives history of recurrent blisters of hands, feet and trauma prone sites. The diagnosis is:

8506

A 30 year old woman with multiple episodes of GTCS was prescribed phenytoin by district hospital physician. After 7 days she presents with a single skin lesion on her arm as shown below. What is the diagnosis?

8507

Identify the below condition which is present from birth:

8508

A patient presented with the following lesion. What is the diagnosis?

8509

A 25-year man c/o recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:

8510

An 8 year old girl presented with hypopigmented scaly lesions on face. What is the diagnosis?

8511

A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous popular lesions on face, neck, V area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75 percent in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would  be:

8512

A male child with cryptorchidism presents with large black scales on body flexures, as shown in picture Probable diagnosis is:

8513

Cutaneous horn as shown in the image is associated with which of the following skin cancer?

8514

The lesion shown below is seen in:

8515

Identify the malformation shown in Photograph:

8516

The following lesion appears on the cheek of a patient, suffering from ulcerative colitis. What is the diagnosis?

8517

The given condition is caused due to deficiency of which of the following?

8518

Identify the lesion in the image:

8519

Identify the Dermatological test shown in Photograph:

8520

Identify the condition shown in the image:

8521

A 7 years old child (see picture) comes with light to dark brown freckles over face, with photosensitivity and dry skin. The diagnosis is:

8522

What is the diagnosis of this asymptomatic lesion shown in the image below?

8523

Which of the following is most commonly used X-ray film for mammography:

8524

On the basis of below X-ray image, what is the probable diagnosis?

8525

The X-ray shown below is most likely to be that of a patient with?

8526

A 65 year old man presented with clinically significant functional limitation. What is the diagnosis?

8527

Following investigation is done after?

8528

Least radiation dose is with?

8529

Which of the following is not a recognized cause of unilateral hyper-transradiant hemithorax of chest radiograph?

8530

A middle-aged man is found to have a small pulsating mass at the level of the umbilicus during a routine abdominal examination. What is the best initial test to establish the diagnosis?

8531

PANDA sign is sarcoidosis is seen in?

8532

A 44-year-old woman is found to have elevated serum calcium of 11.3 mg/dL during a routine physical examination. It remains elevated after 3 months and serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are also high. You suspect a parathyroid adenoma. The best test to localize the lesion preoperatively is:

8533

PAIR stands for:

8534

MRI findings given below point to the diagnosis of:

8535

A 3 year old boy presents with occasional episodes of passing urine after very long durations, going up to as long as 12 hours. Since the child cries due to discomfort and then passes urine with straining, a VCUG is ordered. What is the diagnosis?

8536

The following X-ray abdomen is diagnostic of:

8537

A child presents in the first week of life with recurrent vomiting, failure to thrive. On examination enlarged liver and spleen are palpated. Blood work shows hyperlipidemia and deranged LFT. CT abdomen was performed. What is the clinical diagnosis?

8538

A patient presented with worsening exercise tolerance, chronic uncontrolled hypertension and rapid onset of shortness of breath. Chest X ray shows the following features. What can be the most probable diagnosis?

8539

CT scanning is superior to MRI of the spine in which setting?

8540

A patient presented with shortness of breath. There is a history of radiation therapy for lung carcinoma. Chest X-ray shows the following features. What can be the most probable diagnosis?

8541

Most Sensitive investigation to detect minimal intra-peritoneal free air:

8542

Radiological Contrast to be preferred for demonstrating TO fistula:

8543

A patient presented with complains of crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, constipation, and inability to pass gas. Abdominal X-ray shows the following features. What can be the most probable diagnosis?

8544

A 75 year female, a known case of psychiatric illness presented with severe distention of abdomen with pain. An abdominal radiograph was obtained. Diagnosis?

8545

A young female presented with hypertension of unknown cause. On evaluation, the right kidney was slightly smaller as compared to left. Angiogram showed the following picture which clinched the diagnosis as?

8546

First dermatological sign after radiation treatment is:

8547

Excretory urogram in a two year old child with recurrent UTI shows:

8548

Egg shell calcification in lymph nodes can be caused by all except?

8549

Bracket-like intracranial calcification is seen in:

8550

A 35 year old hypertension patient has the following CXR in annual medical checkup. What does it show?

8551

What is your diagnosis?

8552

What is the sign? What is the diagnosis?

8553

A 33 year old gentlemen presents with headaches which are frequently worse on leaning forward. He undergoes a non-contrast CT scan of his brain which shows a dense round mass in the midline in the region of the Foramen of Munro. On MRI, the lesion is high signal on T1 and on T2w images. What is the likely diagnosis?

8554

Identify the disorder seen in the X-ray below:

8555

45 year old man, chronic smoker, progressive jaundice with pruritus and clay stools for 2 months, h/o waxing of jaundice. On CT common bile duct and main pancreatic duct dilated. What is the diagnosis?

8556

Investigation of choice for glass foreign body in finger?

8557

Central Dot sign is seen in

8558

Identify the diagnosis in the given image?

8559

The given X-ray is suggestive of which of the following congenital abnormality?

8560

The given X-ray knee is suggestive of which of the given diagnosis?

8561

The following sign on X-ray is suggestive of which given disease?

8562

PACS is acronym for?

8563

The most common facial abnormality in Gardner syndrome is:

8564

Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypertension:

8565

Investigation Of Choice For Small Intestinal Tumor:

8566

All is true regarding Digital Radiography except?

8567

Yin-Yang sign is classical in?

8568

String of beads appearance on angiography suggests diagnosis of:

8569

Classification systems for Aortic dissection are?

8570

Mount Fuji Sign is seen in?

8571

Highly ionizing radiation:

8572

Imaging modality that permits best degree of differentiation between Radiation necrosis and recurrence of a brain malignancy?

8573

The person who coined the name anesthesia

8574

Which one is not a goal of anaesthesia

8575

The following image is-mallampatti grade

8576

ASA grading is related to

8577

Fasting time before surgery for clear liquids

8578

Which one of the following drugs is essentially stopped before anaesthesia?

8579

Atropine in anaesthesia has all the following uses except

8580

Midazolam is used as premedication because of which property

8581

Elderly patient with fracture right hip, anaesthesia of choice is

8582

Best anaesthesia technique for 25 year female with heart disease for LSCS

8583

Identify the following

8584

Rotameter is a part of

8585

The doctor on duty asks the technician to get a black cylinder that has a white shoulder. Which cylinder is the doctor asking for?

8586

Best anaesthetic breathing circuit used for spontaneously breathing adult

8587

Which one of the following is stored in a cylinder?

8588

Minimum alveolar concentration is associated with

8589

Diffusion hypoxia is seen with which of the following?

8590

Which of the following agents is hepatotoxic?

8591

Bone depression is seen with which one of the following?

8592

Which of the following produces maximum bronchial irritation?

8593

Induction agent of choice for pediatric patient undergoing general anaesthesia is?

8594

Which one of the following is not a barbiturate

8595

Administration of Thiopentone can cause

8596

Drug of choice for electro convulsive therapy

8597

Drug of choice for induction in a patient of cirrhosis of liver for liver transplant

8598

Which of the following anesthetic is safe in heart failure?

8599

IV induction agent with maximum incidence of vomiting

8600

Ketamine acts on which receptor?

8601

Anti-convulsant in nature

8602

Which one of the following should be avoided in a patient of asthma?

8603

Site of action of atracurium

8604

Which one of the following produces depolarizing block

8605

All of the following release histamine except

8606

Atracurium is known to cause

8607

The following device is

8608

Most common mode of NM monitor used to monitor the action of pancuronium

8609

True about EMLA

8610

Which one of the following is amino-ester?

8611

Local anesthesia has its effect by action at

8612

Shortest acting local anaesthetic out of the following

8613

The spread of the spinal anesthetic solution is not affected by

8614

One of the commonest intra operative complication seen immediately after spinal anaesthesia

8615

Most common post-operative side effect of spinal anaesthesia

8616

Contraindications to epidural includes all of the following except

8617

Local anaesthetic contra-indicated in biers block

8618

A patient during pre-anesthetic checkup gives a family history of sudden rise in temperature during surgery that had happened to his father 20 years ago. Which of the following should not be used in this patient

8619

The adjacent graph indicates which of the following

8620

Pulse-oximeter shows in-accurate reading in which of the following?

8621

The size of this endotracheal tube is

8622

Kindly identify the laryngoscope blade

8623

The device shown is a

8624

This device shown is best used during

8625

All the following are complications of central line insertion in the IJV except

8626

During the 2 rescuer CPR of a child, chest compression to ventilation ratio is

8627

During the 2 rescuer CPR, the rescuers change roles approximately

8628

The heimlich maneuver is done during

8629

The following may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except

8630

Vagolytic property is seen with

8631

Suggamadex is related to which of the following

8632

Which of the following can cause allergic reactions?

8633

Extremely preterm also called as extremely low gestational age newborns is infants born before:

8634

All of the following respiratory disorders are seen in preterm child except:

8635

Large for gestational age (LGA) have birth weight more than:

8636

24 hours old neonate has respiratory distress, scaphoid abdomen and bowel sounds are present in chest. This is suggestive of:

8637

All are true about caput succedaneum except:

8638

For intraventricular hemorrhage in preterm infants, investigation of choice is:

8639

First line anti-epileptic drug for neonatal seizures is:

8640

In term infants with labored breathing after stimulation, there is no respiration. All of the following should be done except:

8641

Pulse oximeter should be placed in neonate for SpO2 monitoring on:

8642

Following chest X-ray was seen at 24 hours in preterm child born at 32 weeks of gestation. It is suggestive of:

8643

Diagnosis of necrotizing enterocolitis is made by:

8644

Pathological jaundice is considered as conjugated bilirubin:

8645

All are true about breast milk jaundice except:

8646

In biliary atresia, cystic fibrosis and neonatal hepatitis there is risk of hemorrhagic disease of the newborn. It usually presents at:

8647

All of the following biochemical changes can be seen in infant of diabetic mother at birth except:

8648

Most common source of postnatal infection in hospitalized newborns is:

8649

Limb hypoplasia, cicatricial skin lesion, cortical atrophy are seen in congenital infection:

8650

Nonimmune hydrops is seen in intrauterine infection:

8651

Sensorineural hearing loss can be seen in all intrauterine infection except:

8652

Hutchinson triad seen in congenital syphilis includes all except:

8653

Following picture is suggestive of neonatal reflex:

8654

In moderate malnutrition weight for height Z score is:

8655

Acute malnutrition is duration less than:

8656

All of the following can be used as a marker of nutritional status except:

8657

In malnourished child during rehabilitation F-75 diet is started. Initially calories given are:

8658

Child weight for age is 60-80 percent of expected and there is edema present. Clinical type of malnutrition is:

8659

All are the features of Marasmus except

8660

Mid upper arm circumference in severe acute malnutrition is less than:

8661

Child diagnosed as severe acute malnutrition, conscious, has blood sugar 45mg/dL. Next step in management is:

8662

All are the following parameters can be used for assessment of dehydration in malnourished child except:

8663

Cure weight  in severe acute malnutrition is:

8664

9 month old boy, presents with fever and difficulty in breathing for the last 2 days. There is no previous history of illness and growth is normal. On examination respiratory rate 60/min, bilateral scattered wheezes throughout both lung fields, Heart sound normal and there is no hepatomegaly. Most likely it is:

8665

18 months old girl, presents with coryza, cough and mild fever for 3 days. Her respiratory rate is normal and there is no chest recession. Most likely diagnosis:

8666

12 month old infant presents with a 2 days history of fever and runny nose. He has harsh cough, noisy inspiration, respiratory rate 30/min. his capillary refill time is normal. His oxygen saturation is 96 percent in air. Next step in management is:

8667

Abnormal finding is:

8668

12 months old child has history of cough and cold for 2 days. He is conscious and accepting orally. His respiratory rate is 40/min and there is chest in drawing present. Next step in management is:

8669

High doses of vitamin C should be avoided in

8670

Vitamin D dependent rickets type 1B is due to mutation in the gene for

8671

Dwarfism, hypogonadism, dermatitis and T cell immunodeficiency is seen in deficiency of

8672

All are true about mongolian spots seen in neonate except

8673

1 year child can do all of the following except

8674

Child can lift head and chest with head in vertical axis. Age of the child is

8675

24 months child can do all of the following except

8676

Child can speak sentence of 2 words. Age of the child is

8677

8 week old child who was born at term comes for a routine development check. Which of the following is of concern in child

8678

2-year-old boy has developed a preference for using his left hand at 7 months of age. He limps with his right foot. In right upper and lower limbs deep tendon reflexes are brisk. Most likely is

8679

Growth velocity is maximum in which of the following period

8680

In growth hormone deficiency there is

8681

In a 3-year-old upper to lower segment ratio is

8682

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis mainly affects the children in the age group

8683

Renal biopsy is required in acute glomerulonephritis if there low complement C3 levels beyond

8684

All are the feature of immunoglobulin A nephropathy except

8685

Dose of prednisolone in the initial episode of nephrotic syndrome in children is

8686

Infrequent relapses in nephrotic syndrome is

8687

Child having nephrotic syndrome was given steroids for 6 weeks. Nephrotic range proteinuria is still present. Next step in management is

8688

Radiological investigation to be done after first episode of UTI in a child aged 3 years is

8689

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adolescentsis

8690

Following picture is suggestive of trisomy of chromosome

8691

Clenched hands with over lapping digits are seen in

8692

There is increased incidence of all of the following in Klinefelter syndrome except

8693

Short stature female, with shield like chest, with widely spaced nipples, cubitus valgus has karyotype

8694

9 month old infant has unusual movements. There are episodes of suddenly throwing her hand and arms forward which occur in repetitive bursts. She was able to sit but has stopped doing so. This is suggestive of:

8695

3 years old boy has difficulty in climbing stairs. He always needs to hold on to the railings or to have a supporting hand. On examination the power in his legs is reduced, but his reflexes are normal. Initial investigation in this child is:

8696

4 years old boy with history of neonatal jaundice has a now abnormal movement of all his limbs. He adopts and maintains unusual postures. When he is sleep he is hypotonic. This is suggestive of cerebral palsy type:

8697

15 month old boy had history of running nose and cough for 2 days. He suddenly becomes stiff, eyes rolled upwards and both arms and legs had jerking for 2 minutes. His temperature was increased and after 2 hours he recovered fully. Milestones are normal and neurological examination is normal. Most appropriate investigation:

8698

5 years old has an episode where she stops her activity for a few seconds, stares blankly ahead and then resumes the activity as if she had never stopped. These episodes happen many times in a day. Most appropriate management in this child will be:

8699

In child with splenic dysfunction most common cause of meningitis is:

8700

24 hours old child appears blue around the mouth. On examination his tongue looks blue and there is peripheral cyanosis. His respiratory rate is 60/min. On auscultation of the chest there is no murmur. Pulses are all four limbs can be palpated and are equal in volume. Most likely diagnosis is:

8701

18 months old girl presents with frequent respiratory tract infections and wheeze. On examination there is a fixed and widely split second heart sound and an ejection systolic murmur best heard at the upper sternal edge. Your diagnosis is:

8702

Child was born at term by spontaneous vaginal delivery and went home at 8 hours of age following a normal neonatal discharge examination. At 48 hours of age her mother found her looking pale and was unable to wake her. She was rushed to the Emergency Department. Her breathing was noted to be very shallow, her skin was cool and mottled and she was unresponsive to pain. She is resuscitated, and given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. On examination, the only palpable pulse is the right brachial pulse.

8703

All are the characteristic features of coarctation of aorta except:

8704

10 years old boy has history of recurrent chest infection with productive cough. He has normal temperature, pink skin & mucous membranes and normal heart sounds. On auscultation bilateral basal crepts are present. Sweat test is negative and clubbing is present. It is most likely a case of:

8705

Following is not a major Nada criteria for diagnosis of congenital heart disease:

8706

Most common type of Atrial septal defect is:

8707

Drug used to keep ductus arteriosus patent is:

8708

Out of the following not seen in congestive cardiac failure in newborn is:

8709

In which of the following left atrium is not enlarged:

8710

Obstructive type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:

8711

Major criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatic fever is:

8712

Out of the following not a minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever is:

8713

A child presented with swelling in the neck region with white membrane over tonsils. A throat swab made of plastic was obtained and sent for culture. Swab should be discarded in which color bin?

8714

Which phase of clinical trial checks the efficacy and monitors the adverse reactions of a new drug?

8715

Following admission of a RTA case, there is spillage of blood on hospital floor. Which disinfectant will you use to clean the floor?

8716

A farmer is having complaints of skin rash which increases on skin exposure. There is also redness of tongue. Maize is his staple diet. Which of the following vitamin deficiency can cause these features?

8717

In a 10 year school child under school health program, which vaccine has to be given?

8718

Global hunger index does not include

8719

There is an outbreak of encephalitis in a community. According to universal immunization schedule, the route of administration of vaccine for the likely infection is

8720

The epidemiological rule of which of the following non communicable diseases is represented by following figure?

8721

Which of the following is the route for administration for the Inactivated polio vaccine

8722

Which of the stage is represented by following vaccine vial monitor?

8723

Identify the following epidemiological study design?

8724

What is the purpose of randomization in a clinical trial?

8725

Serial interval is

8726

A 2 Year old child was brought to health center, with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, weight of child is 5 kgs, and respiratory rate is 45/min. The drug of choice for this child will be

8727

Which epidemiological study gives the most accurate result?

8728

The most important measure to establish a causal relationship is

8729

According to suraksha clinic of NACP, a women coming with lower abdominal pain, the color code of kit in treatment is

8730

All of the following are voluntary targets under Comprehensive global monitoring framework for the prevention and control of non-communicable diseases except

8731

Match the colors of triaging and select the correct option

8732

All children between 9 months to 10 years will receive a supplementary dose of measles regardless of previous measles vaccination or measles illness comes under which of the following vaccination strategies

8733

The duration of quarantine is

8734

Best way to study relationship between two variables is

8735

For a negatively skewed data, mean will be

8736

Which is not a measure of Dispersion

8737

In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test which would give its significance is

8738

Protein content in Human milk is (in gms/lit)

8739

Screening for breast cancer using mammography is

8740

People were separated into 5 sub-groups. People were selected randomly from these sub-groups. What type of sampling was done?

8741

Best way to plot the change of incidence of disease over time is

8742

All of the following regarding health planning committees in India is true except

8743

Reduction of premature mortality from Non Communicable diseases is part of which target under Sustainable Development Goals?

8744

One subcentre for hilly area should serve a population of

8745

Sensitivity of test is

8746

The maximum hours of work per week according to factories act is

8747

Diseases transmitted by louse

8748

Urban malaria is spread by

8749

The maximum permissible level of fluorine in drinking water is

8750

The cu T 380 A is approved for use for

8751

Child sex ratio includes

8752

India new born action plan aims to achieve single digit still birth rate by

8753

Responsibilities of ASHA include all, except

8754

Prevention of emergence of risk factor is

8755

In a cohort study to study the association between factor and disease, the risk ratio was calculated to be equal to 1. What does this signify?

8756

Prevalence is

8757

PQLI, includes all except

8758

Disability adjusted life years is

8759

Drug of choice for a patient tested positive with rk-39 is

8760

The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called

8761

Dose of IFA under Anemia Mukt Bharat Campaign for adolescent group is

8762

Mission Indradhanush is for

8763

Which among the following cannot be used as post coital contraceptive?

8764

The main disinfecting action of bleaching powder is due to

8765

A study was undertaken to assess the anemia among adolescent girls. A sample of 200 girls from rural areas and 300 girls from urban areas was selected. Out of these, 80 girls from rural and 150 girls from urban areas were found to be anemic. The statistical test used to compare the data is?

8766

Additional calorie requirement for a female who has a 9 month child is?

8767

ANMOL is

8768

Disinfectant used for fumigation of isolation rooms of COVID–19 patients

8769

Most common cause of post neonatal mortality in India is

8770

Combined parameter for pediatric and obstetric care in country is

8771

Which disease is notifiable under International Health Regulations?

8772

Training of medical officers in immediate newborn care is objective of

8773

Correct combination of vaccine is

8774

Standardized index of fertility is

8775

Fibrosis of lower lobe of lung is caused by

8776

N in N95 stands for

8777

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension is coded as _______ color under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana

8778

The following graph represents

8779

New born Stabilization unit are established at the level of

8780

A study began in 2000 with a group of 2000 individuals who were asked about dietary fat consumption. The occurrence of coronary heart disease was studied in this group from 2010 – 2015. This is an example of

8781

The disease spread by the following vector

8782

TNM staging of cancer is ________ data and can be measured on _________ scale

8783

Open vial policy applies to which one of the following vaccines?

8784

A group of 6 experts discussing and interacting about COVID–19 for public awareness is

8785

The following is app logo of which national health programme?

8786

Which of the following is not a feature for vector of malaria

8787

The reference weight of male and female as per recent guidelines is

8788

Which among the following is the most common cause for blindness in the age group of 0 – 49 years?

8789

Which among the following disease has been recently added to national health programme for prevention and control of cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular diseases and stroke (NPCDCS)?

8790

The recommended dietary folate per day for lactating women is

8791

Kangaroo mother care helps in preventing

8792

All of the following facilities are provided under Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram except

8793

All are primordial prevention strategies against Coronary Heart disease except

8794

If a study shows that among smokers, 80 percent of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking, it is indicative of

8795

SAANS is an initiative to reduce the deaths due to

8796

Disability Limitation is mode of intervention for

8797

Phases of disaster cycle before disaster impact include

8798

Ujjawala scheme is for prevention of

8799

At PHC, vaccine storage is done in

8800

Most common cause of LBW in India is

8801

MTP amendment act 2021 allows termination of pregnancy until a maximum gestational age of

8802

As per Jan 2020 guidelines, HIV post exposure prophylaxis includes the following regimen

8803

COVID 19 Kavach ELISA test, developed by ICMR, detects which immunoglobulins?

8804

WHO T3 initiative for COVID–19 is

8805

Most common cancer in world among both sexes as per Globacon 2020 report is

8806

As per latest guidelines, the protein requirement in g/day is

8807

Minimum number of antenatal care visits are

8808

MONICA is an initiative to lower the deaths of

8809

Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana provides a cover of _______

8810

Which among the following is not a component of Primary Health care?

8811

A worker in wheat storage facility developed hepatic carcinoma. The most probable agent could be

8812

A child presents to OPD with signs of irritability, sunken eyes and restlessness. The treatment plan for this child is

8813

A 22-year-old woman suffering from asthma was prescribed albuterol by inhalation. Albuterol is bronchodilating drug with a molecular weight 239 daltons. Which of the following permeation processes most likely accounted for the transfer of the drug through the bronchial mucosa?

8814

A 12-year-old boy recently diagnosed with type I diabetes started a therapy with two daily subcutaneous administrations of insulin. Which of the following permeation processes best explains the absorption of insulin from the site of injection

8815

A 17-year-old boy took a tablet of naproxen for a headache. Naproxen is a weak acid with a pKa of 5.2. What percentage of the drug was most likely water soluble in the patient plasma

8816

During a phase 1 clinical trial, for different oral dosage forms of the same dose of a drug were administered to a healthy volunteer on four separate occasions. The plasma concentration-time curves are plotted below

8817

A 44-year-old man took a large dose of acetaminophen in aqueous solution to treat an excruciating headache. Two hours later, the pain was not diminished. Because acetaminophen should be effective in about 30 minutes after its oral administration, which of the following conditions most likely delayed the oral absorption of the drug in this patient?

8818

A 14-year-old girl suffering seasonal rhinitis started a therapy with loratadine, a drug that binds to H1 histamine receptors. Which of the following terms describes a characteristics

8819

A new drug was tested in an in vitro system. The relationship between the concentration of the drug and the association and dissociation of the drug–receptor complex was evaluated. Which of the following factors regulates this relationship?

8820

A 69-year-old man presented to the hospital with a skin eruption over his neck, arms and legs. The patient reported that he was diagnosed with senile pruritus 3 week earlier, and he had been applying a topical doxepin cream to relieve itching. Physical examination revealed red, swollen skin covered with blisters, and a patch test confirmed that the skin eruption was due to doxepin. Which of the following adverse drug reactions best explains the patient disorder?

8821

A new hypnotic drug was tested in laboratory animals. It was found the ED50 for inducing sleep was 2mg/kg. Which of the following best explains the meaning of that dose?

8822

A 64-year-old man was hospitalized for treatment of Staphylococcus aureus bacteraemia and was given an intravenous infusion of vancomycin. A few minutes later he developed symptoms of an anaphylactic-like reaction. The patient was not aware of previous exposure to vancomycin, and a search for antibodies to the suspected drug was negative. Which of the following types of drug reaction was most likely experienced by the patient?

8823

A 55-year-old woman suffering from postural hypotension started a treatment with an alpha 1-adrenergic drug. Which of the following is a body site where autonomic receptors are primarily alpha 1 adrenergic

8824

A 35-year-old farmer was brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal cramps and vomiting. He reported that he was working in the field with an organophosphate pesticide. The physician observed all of the typical symptom s of acetylcholine excess. Which of the following symptom s of the patient were most likely due to the activation of nicotinic Nm receptors only?

8825

A 25-year-old healthy male volunteer received an intravenous infusion of a new drug in a phase 1 clinical trial. It was found that the drug causes an increase in cardiac contractility, a slight increase in heart rate, and no major changes or a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. Which of the following drugs does the new agent most resemble?

8826

An intravenous injection of drug X was given to a laboratory animal before and after the administration of atropine, and the heart rate was recorded. The results are depicted below. Which of the following drugs was most likely drug X in given below image?

8827

A 64-year-old woman, recently diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, started a topical therapy with timolol and apraclonidine. Which of the following was the most likely site of action of both drugs?

8828

A 58-year-old man recently diagnosed with exertional angina started treatment with atenolol. Which of the following cardiovascular parameters was most likely decreased in this patient?

8829

A 74-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes complained to his physician of difficult urination. Further examination led to the diagnosis of a disorder, and treatment with bethanechol improved the symptoms. Which of the following was most likely the patient disorder?

8830

A 59-year-old man underwent surgery to remove a colon carcinoma. Three days after surgery, he developed fever (103 degree F, 39 .4 degree C), abdominal distention, and vomiting. Palpation showed tenderness over the entire abdomen, and auscultation revealed no bowel sounds. Which of the following therapeutic measures would be absolutely contraindicated in this case?

8831

A 67-year-old man recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia was scheduled for surgery. Which of the following drug classes would be absolutely contraindicated in this patient?

8832

A 44-year-old man collapsed at work and was found to be unresponsive. When the paramedics arrived, he had ventricular fibrillation and was cardioverted successfully. He was admitted to the coronary unit, but shortly thereafter he developed a systole. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation was started, and escalating doses of epinephrine were given without success. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriately administered at this point?

8833

A 52-year old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of facial swelling around her lips and eye. On her last visit 3 weeks ago she was diagnosed with hypertension and appropriate pharmacotherapy was initiated. An image of the eyes of woman is shown. Which of the following agents could account for the adverse drug reaction in this patient?

8834

A 36-year old woman who is pregnant is diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following agents would be the most suitable to treat her hypertension?

8835

Which of the following increases the risk of digoxin induced arrhythmias?

8836

An old female patient on antihypertensive suddenly develops skin rashes with swelling of tongue, lips and eyes causing her difficulty in breathing. Which drug can cause this dangerous side effect

8837

A 62 years old patient presents with chest pain of more than 24 hours. ECG showing signs of myocardial infarction. All of the following drug can be used except

8838

A patient presents with chest pain. ECG showing ST segment depression in leads V1–V4. All of the following can be given except

8839

A 60-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with acute heart failure and pulmonary edema. Which of the following drugs would be most useful in treating the pulmonary edema?

8840

A 68-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and started on monotherapy designed to reduce peripheral resistance and prevent sodium and water retention. Since commencing treatment he has developed a persistent cough. Which of the following drugs would have the same benefits but would not cause the cough?

8841

A 53-year-old woman is being treated for atrial flutter subsequent to a myocardial infarction. After commencing treatment she experiences prolonged depression, bradycardia and wheezing. Which of the following agents was the patient prescribed?

8842

Appropriate interventions in the management of cardiogenic shock:

8843

Which of the following anticonvulsant drugs has been most associated with an idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity that is severe and has resulted in deaths, particularly in children?

8844

A patient comes to your office complaining of daytime sleepiness. On questioning you find that he has been taking a benzodiazepine in order to go to sleep at night. He is in the process of discontinuing the use of this agent but needs some assistance for the next week. The most appropriate agent to prescribe is

8845

A 60-year-old man in good health comes to you complaining of daytime sleepiness. On taking a history you find that he is being treated for insomnia with a benzodiazepine, chiordiazepoxide and diazepam. The most likely explanation for this problem is

8846

In the current climate of drug abuse, young people attend parties known as raves. At these parties the drug of choice is referred to as ecstasy. This drug is a

8847

LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide), mescaline, and psilocybin are all agents that have psychotomimetic effects. These agents

8848

In considering the antidepressant drug classes, which class has the greatest potential to cause death if taken in excessive quantities?

8849

What is the most likely mechanism of the antiseizure activity of phenytoin?

8850

Which of the following neurological side effects of antipsychotic agents may manifest soon after administration of the drug as facial grimacing, torsion of the neck or back due to muscle spasm, spasm of tongue muscles, or abnormal eye movements?

8851

A patient on antipsychotic develops high grade fever, raised BP and abnormal behavior. What is the likely diagnosis

8852

All of the following are correctly matched for drug side effects except

8853

All of the following DMARD requires LFT monitoring except

8854

11-year-old child has severe asthma, now under the treatment which has reduced the frequency, of attacks of severe asthma. All of the following treatment options suitable for this conditions except

8855

Which of the following 2nd generation antihistaminic is the active metabolite of 2nd generation antihistaminic

8856

Most specific drug for the treatment of NSAIDs chronic use causing peptic ulcer is

8857

Cyproheptadine has all of the following antagonist actions except

8858

All of the following statements about theophylline are true except

8859

Inhibitor of platelet aggregation is

8860

Release of leukotrienes and histamine from mast cells is prevented by

8861

Which of the following effect of aspirin manifested at the lower doses (62–325 mg)

8862

Drug used in prophylaxis of migraine are all except

8863

Characteristic symptoms of acute manic psychosis include:

8864

Nightmares occur in:

8865

Delusion of infidelity on part of the sexual partner is called as:

8866

A useful diagnostic procedure for distinguish psychogenic and organic impotence is:

8867

Squeeze technique is used for:

8868

The essential ingredient of Master and Johnson treatment of impotence is:

8869

A 30-year-old unmarried woman from a low socioeco¬nomic status family believes that a rich boy staging in her neighborhood is in deep love with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family. She also develops sadness at times when her effect to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She however remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering from:

8870

The following are psychotic disorders except:

8871

A patient came with complaints of having a deformed nose and that nobody took him seriously because of this deformity. He has visited several cosmetic surgeons there was nothing wrong with his nose. He is most likely suffering from:

8872

Who is the father of psychoananlysis?

8873

The one who coined the word schizophrenia is:

8874

A middle-aged man is chronically preoccupied with his health. For many years he feared that his irregular bowel functions meant he had cancer. Now he is very preoccupied about having a serious heart disease, despite his physician assurance that the occasional extra beats he detects when he checks his pulse are completely benign. What is his most likely diagnosis?

8875

A 35-year-old man with bipolar disorder, most recent episode mixed, comes to the clinic for routine follow-up examination. His condition has been difficult to control and has required treatment with multiple medications during the past two years. The patient says his mood has been stable with his current regimen, but for the past three months, he has had tremor primarily affecting his hands. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of this patient tremor?

8876

Allodyniais:

8877

Confabulation means:

8878

The wife of a man in a hilly area has died 7 days back. He has since seen his dead wife twice and she asked him to die, the diagnosis is:

8879

A 37-year-old man comes to the office after he experienced what he says was a nervous breakdown. The patient says that after he recently declared bankruptcy, losing his home and his business, he became very depressed. During this time, he began to hear voices telling him that he was useless and should kill himself. The patient says his symptoms stopped after Sample Psychiatry Questions and Critiques  NCCPA. 2011-2015. All rights reserved. Approximately one week. He has had no similar episodes. Medical history includes no psychiatric conditions. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and results of laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

8880

The active substance in hashish is:

8881

Physical withdrawal symptoms are absent in patients

8882

False regarding Histrionic personality disorder

8883

While driving, a 40-year-old man with no previous history refused to stop for the traffic police. He was subsequently brought into the accident and emergency department (AED) by them. You are the resident working in the AED. When you assess him, he states that he was hearing voices in clear consciousness. He admits to a history of alcohol use. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

8884

Treatment of alcohol dependence is by all except?

8885

A husband and wife, both in their mid-thirties, have been patients of yours for over 10 years. In the past, the husband has unsuccessfully been treated for alcohol abuse. The wife has asked that the two of them be seen together to discuss what might be of help with any of their related health problems. In the discussion the husband asked if medicine had anything to offer for his condition. As you are explaining the benefits and risks of disulfiram, the wife explains that her husband now drinks even more than before. At this point, the husband becomes angry and shouts, I do not need Antabuse, Alcoholics Anonymous, or anything else! I know I may have a drinking problem, but I can handle it myself without anybody help. In the above scenario, the hus- band is demonstrating

8886

A person drinking alcohol says that he is doing so to overcome family problems. The defense mechanism involved is:

8887

Which of the following is seen associated with alcoholic paranoia?

8888

Drug abuse of which substance shows symptoms similar to Schizophrenia:

8889

The drug of choice in alcohol withdrawal is:

8890

Sexual infidelity is commonly associated with:

8891

Amotivational syndrome is seen in:

8892

A 40 year old man who become sweaty with palpitation before giving a speech in public otherwise he does very good at his job, he is having:

8893

40 year old female came to the OPD with complaints of with depressed mood, insomnia, loss of appetite and lack of interest in surroundings for the past 1 year. These symptoms appeared after loss in a business deal 1 year ago. Which is correct regarding the management?

8894

Disulfiram acts by:

8895

To become unfamiliar of familiar situation is called:

8896

Bad trips are characteristically associated with the addition of:

8897

A female presents with the history of slashed wrists and attempted suicide, now she presents with similar history. The diagnosis is?

8898

One of the following usually differentiates hysterical symptoms from hypochondriacal symptoms:

8899

Clinical features of narcolepsy include the following

8900

All are features of autistic disorders except?

8901

Drug used for treatment of nocturnal enuresis is?

8902

Most common cause of premature death in schizophrenia is?

8903

A patient presents with persistence, perfectionism and body image distortion. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely to be associated with the above clinical features?

8904

A 30-year-old man suffered from eight episodes of mood disturbances within a single year. These mood episodes met the diagnostic criteria for major depression, mania and hypomania. These episodes were separated by remission. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

8905

Which of the following symptoms is MOST LIKELY to persist when a young person suffers from Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) becoming an adult?

8906

Systemic desensitization is done in:

8907

An absolute contraindication to ECT is:

8908

Visual hallucinations are characteristic for which of the following conditions?

8909

An 11-year-old child was found to be very restless and hyperactive in the classroom, making it difficult for the other students to concentrate. He ran around the class all day long and could not sit in one place for a long time. He got very agitated when the toy in his hand was taken away. The most likely diagnosis is:

8910

Who described the concept of Guru-chela relationship?

8911

Symptoms of narcolepsy include all of the following, ex¬cept:

8912

Culture bound syndrome seen in India are the following:

8913

A 10-year-old child was having right mucopurulent otorrhea for the last 4 years. One week ago, he became dizzy with a whirling sensation, nausea, vomiting and nystagmus to the opposite side and now his deafness became complete. What will be the Rinne test on Right Side?

8914

A 9-year-old child has been complaining of right continuous offensive ear discharge for the last 3 years. A month ago, he began to suffer from headache, fever and some vomiting for which he received symptomatic treatment.  The patient condition was stable for a while, then after 2 weeks he started to suffer from severe headache and drowsiness. The patient also noticed difficulty going up and down the stairs due to weakness in the left arm and left leg. What is the most likely complication in this patient?

8915

A 35 year old male patient had been complaining of a right continuous offensive otorrhea for the last 10 years. One month ago he had a very high fever and became drowsy. This condition lasted for 5 days, after which the fever dropped and the drowsiness disappeared. The patient kept complaining of a mild non continuous headache. One week ago the patient felt that he could not go up and down the stairs easily. Neurological examination revealed right side body weakness in the upper and lower limbs. There was also nystagmus and a difficulty on grasping objects by the right hand. Temperature was 36 degree C, pulse 80/min. The patient was slightly disoriented to his surrounding and was slow in his responses. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8916

A 30-year-old female patient presented with vertigo lasting for a few seconds associated with movement of Head posture. The condition was treated with EPLEY Manoeuvre. What is the diagnostic test?

8917

A 2-year-old child presents with High Grade Fever, Inspiratory Stridor and Develops Swallowing Difficulty with Drooling Of Saliva since Last 4-6 Hours. Which of the Following treatment is recommended Apart from General Airway Management?

8918

A 2-year-old child developed runny nose. After 2 days there was an inability to respire followed by severe respiratory distress. He was admitted to a paediatric hospital and received medical treatment and kept under close observation. Then 2 hours later he became cyanosed, and the attending ENT surgeon found it necessary to perform a surgical procedure to relieve the respiratory distress. Another 2 hours later the distress recurred but was rapidly corrected by a minor interference by the paediatric intern. Two days later the child condition improved remarkably and was discharged from hospital in a healthy condition. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8919

A 2-year-old child presents with complaints of fever, barking cough and stridor for 2 days. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8920

A 5-year-old boy borne to a primigravida mother by normal vaginal delivery developed change of his voice that was followed by stridor. The stridor was severe enough to necessitate a tracheostomy. 2 years later the tracheostomy site was not fit for respiration, another tracheostomy was done at a lower level. A reddish tissue that was polypoid in nature filled the tracheostomes. The child died a year later when his tracheostomy tube became obstructed at home. What was the most likely diagnosis for this child?

8921

A 2-year-old girl presented with hoarseness. On examination laryngoscopy revealed following findings. Which of the following is the most suitable treatment for this condition?

8922

A 37-year-old male patient presented with parotid swelling and was diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma of superficial lobe of parotid. Superficial Parotidectomy was done. Following parotidectomy, patient complains of numbness on face while shaving. Which of the following Nerves is most likely Injured?

8923

A 37-year-old male patient presented with parotid swelling and was diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma of superficial lobe of parotid. Superficial Parotidectomy was done. Following parotidectomy, patient complains of flushing and sweating on face while eating due to aberrant misdirection of fibres from salivary glands to sweat glands. These fibres come from which of the following Nerves?

8924

During ENT Viva, the external examiner places Temporal Bone on the table and asks each student a different set of question. Your friend was asked What is the surgical landmark of Mastoid Antrum and your crush was asked What are the boundaries of MacEwan Triangle. You frantically go through all the topics awaiting your turn. The Consultant asks you this question-When does Mastoid Antrum reaches Adult Size?

8925

A 25 year old male patient complained of sore throat and fever of 3 days duration. He then developed very high fever at 40 degree C, severe left earache, inability to open the mouth, drooling of saliva and a minimal difficulty in respiration. A surgical intervention was given which gave him relief of all symptoms except the sore throat. Identify the procedure?

8926

A 10-year-old male child suffered from marked difficulty in swallowing, drooling of saliva of 48 hours duration followed by severe respiratory distress. On examination he was very toxic, feverish 40 degree C with a flexed neck and neck muscle spasm. Oropharyngeal examination showed swelling in posterior pharyngeal wall as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8927

A 17-year-old male complained of severe epistaxis and was packed to control bleeding and after its removal the bleeding recurred again in a more severe manner. He also complained of nasal obstruction more on the right side together with decreased hearing in the right ear. One month later he developed proptosis of the right eye with no limitation of movement and no affection of vision. There was no swelling in the neck. Which of the following investigations must not be done to confirm diagnosis in this patient?

8928

A 47-year-old male patient presented to the otologist because of pain in the left ear of 2 days duration. Pain was throbbing in character and increased in severity during mastication. The patient gave a history of 2 similar attacks in the last six months. On examination, movements of the left auricle were painful, and a circumscribed reddish swelling was found arising from the outer portion of the posterior meatal wall. A painful tender swelling obliterated the retro-auricular sulcus. Tuning fork testing revealed positive Rinne on both sides and Weber was centralized. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the above patient?

8929

A 50-year-old male patient presented with nasal obstruction and impairment of hearing in the right ear of 4 months duration. On examination, the patient had nasal tone of voice and on asking him to say AAA the right side of the soft palate was found immobile. Examination of the neck revealed bilateral enlargement of the upper deep cervical lymph nodes which were hard in consistency. Examination of the right ear showed retraction, loss of luster and a waxy appearance of the tympanic membrane. What of the following investigations in not useful in management of this condition?

8930

A 35 years old female patient presented with bilateral hearing loss with improvement in hearing in noisy environment. On examination Rinne is negative and weber is centralized. Following is the audiometry report. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8931

An unimmunized 2-year-old girl presents with high grade fever and sore throat. On examination she is toxic in appearance and having bilateral Cervical lymphadenopathy. Throat examination showed below finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8932

A 70 year old patient developed following lesion over nose for last 2 years. What is the most likely Diagnosis?

8933

A 50-year-old male presented with tinnitus, ear-fullness and hearing loss in his right ear. Seven years later, he began to experience vertigo, headache. Audiometry showed moderate SNHL in the right ear. The histopathology of the condition is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8934

A 10 years old child presented to the outpatient ENT clinic because of severe headache of 5 days duration which did not respond to the usual analgesics. His mother reported that her son had some right ear discharging for the last 2 years. On examination, the child general health was bad, he was irritable, and his temperature was 39 C, pulse 100/min and there was marked neck stiffness. Examination of the right ear revealed fetid aural discharge from an attic perforation, pars tensa was normal. MRI Brain Showed following findings. Which of the following should not be done in this patient?

8935

A 30 years old female patient presented with vertigo lasting for a few seconds associated with movement of Head posture. Name the maneuver done, as shown in image to treat the patient:

8936

A 40 year old female is complaining of attacks of lacrimation and watery nasal discharge accompanied by sneezing. She had a severe attack one spring morning that was accompanied by respiratory difficulty, and she was admitted to hospital. She received the proper treatment and her condition improved. On examination she had bilateral nasal obstruction by bluish pedunculated masses that were covered by a clear mucous discharge. All of the following are part of management of this patient except:

8937

A 16-year-old male complains of nasal obstruction and recurrent epistaxis for several months. On CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinuses, an enhancing mass is seen in the nasopharynx with minimal extension into sphenoid sinus and no lateral extension. Which of the following scans correctly display the stage of this lesion?

8938

A 9-year-old child was brought to the emergency having headache and vomiting. The attending physician examined him and found neither surgical nor medical gastrointestinal causes for such vomiting. Temperature was 40 C and blood picture revealed leucocytosis. A neurologist was consulted who discovered slowness of speech and weakness in the right upper limb. The patient parents reported that he has been staggering for the last 2 weeks. They also reported right offensive ear discharge since early childhood. Otologic examination showed a left retracted tympanic membrane and a right red fleshy pedunculated mass with an offensive otorrhea. Which of the following should not be done in this patient?

8939

A labourer fell from a height and lost consciousness. On examination, he was found comatose with bleeding from the right ear. Few days later he recovered his consciousness and the bleeding from his ear stopped but a clear watery fluid continued to pour from the ear especially on straining. This watery otorrhea continued for one month during which he developed recurrent attacks of fever and headache that recovered with medical treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8940

A 7-year-old boy was seen by an ophthalmologist for headache that has been present for the last few months. Headache was maximum between the eyes. However, there was no ocular cause for such a headache. The child was referred to an ENT specialist who noticed nasal intonation of voice and bilateral nasal obstruction. The mother reported that her child snores during his sleep and has repeated attacks of chest infection. Following findings were seen on X-ray of this boy. What is the most likely diagnosis in this child?

8941

A male patient 23 years old presented with impairment of hearing in both ears of about 4 years duration. Hearing impairment was more noticed in the right ear. He gave a history of longstanding on and off yellowish discharge from both ears. He had no vertigo or tinnitus. Examination of the ears revealed bilateral dry central kidney shaped perforations of both drum membranes. Oto-endoscopy revealed possible erosion of lenticular process of Incus on right side with ossicular discontinuity. Tuning fork testing demonstrated bilateral negative Rinne test and Weber test lateralized to the right ear. What is the next line of management?

8942

A 23-year-old male patient presented with impairment of hearing in right ear of about 4 years duration. He gave a history of longstanding on and off yellowish discharge from right ear. He had no vertigo or tinnitus. Examination of the right ear revealed following findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

8943

A 32-year-old male patient was referred from Emergency for ENT evaluation. The patient had a motor car accident 2 days before. He gave a history of loss of consciousness for a few minutes together with bleeding from the right ear. The patient stated that he could not move the right side of his face since the recovery of consciousness. On examination, the patient could not close the right eye or move the right angle of his mouth. Nasolabial fold was absent on rest. HRCT of Temporal Bone revealed following findings. What is the next step in management?

8944

A 19-year-old girl presented to the ENT specialist because of bleeding from the left ear, impairment of hearing and tinnitus following a slap on the left ear one hour before. On examination of ear, following findings were seen. Tuning fork testing revealed Rinne test negative in left ear and positive in right ear and Weber lateralized to the left ear. What is the next line of treatment?

8945

An infant is brought with inspiratory stridor, increasing during effort and relieving on placing child prone. Laryngoscopy revels following finding. All of the following things about the above disease are true except:

8946

Which of the following represents lateral semicircular canal during cortical mastoidectomy?

8947

Identify the given PTA audiogram?

8948

A 27 yr old pregnant patient presented with complaint of worsening of hearing since the onset of pregnancy. On PTA the following graph was obtained. Which of the following statement regarding the disease is true?

8949

All are true regarding following condition of vocal folds except?

8950

A 3-year-old boy gets high fever then associated with difficulty in swallowing and strider, the resident paediatrician sent for lateral X-ray Soft Tissue Neck. Which of the following sign is seen on Xray:

8951

Identify the Air cell Marked with red arrow in the CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinus:

8952

Which of the following regarding the given image is false?

8953

The marked structure in the Waldeyer ring is:

8954

In serous otitis media, Myringotomy incision is done in which quadrant?

8955

True about the marked area in the given picture:

8956

Identify the thickened nerve in a leprosy patient shown here:

8957

Identify the structure in middle ear marked with an arrow:

8958

Identify the structure marked X?

8959

Interpret the following audiogram

8960

Identify the cause of hearing loss in a 30 yrs old pregnant female who pure tone audiogram image given below:

8961

A patient hearing loss on right side is 60 dB, 60dB and 90 dB on 500, 1000 and 200Hz respectively and on left side is 30dB, 40dB and 50 dB on 500, 1000 and 200Hz respectively. How much is the percentage of handicap?

8962

A child presented with ear infection with foul-smelling discharge. On otoscopy, a perforation is found in the pars flaccid of the tympanic membrane. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

8963

A 7-year-old male presents to the ER with a two day history of worsening ear pain and drainage. He was evaluated in the clinic 5 days ago and diagnosed with an acute right otitis media. He was placed on amoxicillin and he initially appeared to improve until two days ago when his ear pain recurred and this is now accompanied by ear drainage, redness behind his right ear, and a prominent right pinna which is pointing up and out as shown below. The most likely diagnosis?

8964

Identify the Foramen marked in the picture with green arrow:

8965

All of the following structures pass through the opening marked with an arrow except:

8966

Identify the type of fracture:

8967

Name the structure that passes through the opening marked with an Arrow:

8968

Identify the space marked with letter X in the given diagram?

8969

Identify the space marked in the diagram with an arrow:

8970

Which of the following statements about the given laryngoscopic finding is incorrect:

8971

The following instrument is being used by the patient for:

8972

Which of the following statements about the given pure tone audiogram is not incorrect:

8973

Which of the following is not a feature of tumor lysis syndrome

8974

A patient of acute kidney injury presented in emergency ECG shows. Best modality of treatment for such cardiac changes:

8975

A patient of CKD on peritoneal dialysis is taking warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. She noticed a small painful nodule on abdomen which is followed by progressive skin necrosis and ulceration. Diagnosis is:

8976

Malignancies common after renal transplant are all except

8977

A 24 year old man is planning an expedition to the andes. He asks for advice on preventing acute mountain sickness (AMS), other than gradual ascent. What is the most appropriate advice?

8978

You are the team doctor with a mountaineering expedition. The group has ascended to a height of 5000m and has set up a forward camp. One mountaineer complains of a headache and nausea that she had initially dismissed as she was keen to make the summit but have been getting worse. The headache is now very server and other climbers become concerned when she is seen to stagger about the camp. When you see her she confirms that she has a severe headache and is feeling unsteady on her feet. You note that her gait is ataxic. What is the recommended management of this patient

8979

A 43 year old woman with a history of poorly controlled asthma is reviewed in the chest clinic. Tests showed an eosinophilia associated with a raised IgE level. Given the likely diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, what is the most appropriate treatment to control her symptoms?

8980

An elderly patient presented with 14 days after streptococcal phoryngitis. He has hematuria, pyuria, pyuria, edema, hypertension and renal failure. Kidney biopsy shows. All are true about management except

8981

Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in patient with COPD

8982

A 78 year old male with long standing acromegaly comes in with his wife to the respiratory clinic for follow up. He had been recently diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. Despite various lifestyle modifications which he has undertaken such as losing weight and exercising regularly he still reports being tired when he comes home from work, he has restless sleep during the night with his wife often been disturbed by his loud snoring. What would be the next step to consider in the management of his obstructive sleep apnoea?

8983

A 24year old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100 percent oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone. Despite initial treatment there is no improvement. what is the next step in management

8984

Investigation with highest diagnostic value to be done in a case of 50 year old chronic smoker with mild recurrent hemoptysis without fever or weight loss. Chest X-ray is normal

8985

A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation presented in emergency. Patient was conscious, alert, PR=110/min, on chest examination there were B: wheeze. ABG shows pH=7.3, PCO2=58, HCO3=20. Which is not true in management

8986

A patient of bullous emphysema presented with difficulty in breathing. CXR-PA shows. First step in management is

8987

A patient presented with swelling in neck. Later it ulcerate producing ulcer with undermined edge. most likely diagnosis

8988

Common complication associated with the following condition?

8989

Presence of which of the following serological marker represents chronic hepatitis B infection or recovery from chronic hepatitis B:

8990

A patient who is HBsAg+ and HBeAg+. Most likely diagnosis is:

8991

The pic shows:

8992

Indications of eradication of H. Pylori includes all except:

8993

Which of the following tests are used in inflammatory bowel disease (uc/cd) to rule out active inflammation versus symptoms of irritable bowel:

8994

A patient of rheumatoid Arthritis is treated with DMARDS. Regular monitoring of visual acuity and fundus examination is required in which drug:

8995

A patient on anticancer therapy developed infection. Total leukocyte count was 2000/mm3. Which of the following drug is likely to be effective:

8996

Most common complication after blood transfusion:

8997

A child presented in emergency with GTCS since 30 mins. After airways, what is the 1st drug given to control seizures

8998

A 71 year old man is admitted to the emergency department. His family reports that since yesterday he has been very clumsy and unsteady on his feet. This morning he started to complain of numbness down his left side. On examination you notice that he has a right sided Horners syndrome and horizontal nystagmus. Examination of the peripheral nervous system confirms the sensory loss on the left side. where is the lesion most likely to be

8999

You are asked to perform a neurological exam of the lower limbs on a patient with multiple sclerosis. Which one of the following findings is least typical?

9000

A 39 year old man is diagnosed as having cluster headaches. He has received subcutaneous sumatriptan on two occasions but would like to start medication to help prevent further attacks, of the following options, which one is the most suitable treatment?

9001

A 45 year old male with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with increasing confusion. On assessment, he is noted to be obtunded with a glasgow coma scale of 14 out of 15 has a wide based gait and nystagmus. There is no history or signs of recent trauma. What is the most specific finding on brain MRI for this patient condition?

9002

An 18 year old male gives a history of early morning jerking movements of his arm. After a night of heavy drinking and sleep deprivation, he has a generalised spike and wave discharge. What is the most appropriate choice of anti-epileptic?

9003

A 54 year old man who is about to start chemotherapy for a high grade lymphoma is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome. What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

9004

A 40 year old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. A CT scan reveals no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones. He also has a history of parotiditis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

9005

A patient develops rash, hypotension, bronchospasm after I.V. antibiotic. Dose of adrenaline is:

9006

For dengue ha hemorrhagic shock, discharge criteria is

9007

Principle treatment of dengue fever with warning signs without shock or haemorrhage is

9008

Pegloticase is used in the treatment of

9009

A new-born baby presented with congenital heart blocks. Which disease you will suspect in mother?

9010

In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?

9011

Morbidly adherent placenta to the myometrium is due to lack of:

9012

Which of the following mechanisms are involved in the regulation of amniotic fluid volume?

9013

A multigravida 32 years old female presents at 30 weeks of pregnancy for routine examination. She has history of type-2 Diabetes Mellitus, Hypercholesteremia and hypertension and has a 5back years smoking history. She is Rh positive and husband Rh status is unknown. USG shows AF I 27cm. Modification of which of the following would most likely have helped to prevent this condition:

9014

When should breastfeeding be initiated to an infant born via a normal delivery?

9015

Consider the following hemodynamic changes occurring during pregnancy:

9016

What is the name of the manoeuvre given in the Image below?

9017

At full term pregnancy all of the following parameters are raised except:

9018

Which of the following includes the classical triad of enlarged upper part of uterus, soft lower part of body and firm cervix during early pregnancy?

9019

Identify the image. What is the cut off for normal NT?

9020

What is the dose of misoprostol in prophylaxsis of PPH?

9021

The latest addition to treatment of PPH according to WHO 2017 recommendations?

9022

True about partograph is all except

9023

A 23 year old primigravida with blood group of A negative underwent the procedure as shown below, what is the dose of anti D to be given to prevent isoimmunisation?

9024

The engaging diameter in BROW

9025

A 25-year-old women whose antenatal period was uncomplicated is in labour. She has a single foetusin cephalic presentation. The head is not engaged. The foetal heart rate is 130 beats per minute. The cervical dilatation is 5 cm; the membranes are absent and the pelvis is adequate. It is decided to perform a caesarean section immediately. Which one of the following findings is the most likely cause for this decision?

9026

A G2P1L1 presents with full-term pregnancy with transverse lie at 36 weeks. On examination membranes are intact and fetal heart sounds are regular. What would be the appropriate management in this case:

9027

When in labour, a diagnosis of occipitoposterioris made. The most appropriate management would be?

9028

Face presentation is most commonly seen in:

9029

A multigravida with previous 2 normal deliveries presents with unstable lie of the fetus at 34 weeks gestation. What could be the most probable cause?

9030

What is the capacity of bakri balloon which is used in PPH?

9031

Assertion A: In atonic post-partum haemorrhage, a syntocinon drip is started by adding 20 units of syntocinon in a pint of 5% glucose

Reason R: Syntocinon concentration higher than this may cause rupture of the soft uterus. Codes:

9032

A primigravida presents to casualty at 35weeks gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by:

9033

A 35 year old G4P3L3 came at 32 weeks gestation with absent fetal movements and bleeding per vagina. USG done shows dead fetus with complete placenta previa, what is the management?

9034

Trial of labour is contraindicated in all except?

9035

A female of 36 weeks gestation presents with hypertension, blurring of vision and headache. Her blood pressure reading was 180/120 mm Hg and 174/110 mm Hg after 20 minutes. How will you manage the patient?

9036

Most common cause of abortion:

9037

Young female H/o abortion and secondary amenorrhea since then. FSH 6 IU/L cause?

9038

Identify the image below?

9039

In a case of recurrent spontaneous abortion, following investigation is unwanted:

9040

See image below 

9041

A twenty years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

9042

Assertion A: When ABO and Rh incompatibility co-exist, the resulting hemolytic disease will be more severe

Reason R: Hemolytic disease can occur due to both ABO and Rh incompatibilities

9043

If a patient comes with complaints of postdated pregnancy what is the first thing that you will do:

9044

First maneuver to be done in case of shoulder dystocia is?

9045

Normal auscultatory finding in pregnancy?

9046

The following NST indicates:

9047

What is the rate of cervical dilatation in active phase first stage of labour in primigravida?

9048

All are correct about the management of heart disease during labour EXCEPT:

9049

Internal rotation of the fetal head occurs when the head touches

9050

Quadraple test includes all except?

9051

AMTSL includes all except?

9052

Identify the type of twin pregnancy as seen in the USG-plate:

9053

Which of the following hepatitis virus have significant perinatal transmission:

9054

A pregnant lady with persistent late, variable deceleration with cervical dilation of 6 cm shifted to OT for surgery. Which of the following is not done in M/n:

9055

Patient with MR on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin, when should it be shifted from warfarin to heparin?

9056

35 year old primigravida with chronic hypertension at 35 weeks of gestation came to OPD. USG done revealed AFI OF 5 CM and estimated fetal weight of 1.8kg. Umbilical artery Doppler reveals the finding as below. What should be management?

9057

TTTS is seen in which type of placentation?

9058

A 28 years old female with a history of 8 weeks amenorrhoea complains of vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On USG examination there is gestational sac with absent fetal parts. The diagnosis is:

9059

Which of the following is not a contraindication of vaginal delivery after previous cesarean?

9060

ANEMIA MUKTH BHARATH recommendation for FE and Folic acid supplementation is:

9061

Identify the maneuver:

9062

Which of the statement regarding anemia in pregnancy is NOT true

9063

A patient had full-term normal delivery 10 days back. She comes back with fever for last 3 days with rigors and foul smelling lochia. There is lower abdominal tenderness and rigidity. Uterus is mid-way between symphysis pubis and umbilicus. On per vaginal examination, vagina is found to be hot, the cervix admits one finger and placental bits are felt. Which of the following do these findings suggest?

9064

A 17-year-old female presents with delayed puberty. Her mother reports her daughter has never menstruated. On examination, the patient is 4 feet 11in tall. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

9065

A 23-year-old female came with complaints of 4 months amenorrhea. The FSH and LH were elevated above the normal value, thyroid function test were normal. Which is the next step in management?

9066

A 13 years old young girl presents in the casualty with acute pain in the lower abdomen. She has history of cyclical pain for last 6 months and she has not attained her menarche yet. On local genital examination, a tense bulge in the region of hymen was seen. The most probable diagnosis is:

9067

35 year old, mother of two children is suffering from amenorrhea from last 12 month. She has a history of failure of lactation following second delivery but remained asymptomatic thereafter. Skull X-ray shows empty sella diagnosis is:

9068

Identify?

9069

What is the best way to differentiate between class 4 and class 5?

9070

32 year old becomes pregnant with IUCD insitu, tail of IUCD being seen next course of action is?

9071

All the following are emergency contraception except?

9072

Identify?

9073

Pulsatile Gnrh is indicated in?

9074

Where is the following instrument used?

9075

A 24 year old woman with her 35 year old partner has been referred to the infertility clinic because of 2 years of primary infertility. The woman has an irregular menstrual cycle every 2-4 months and her partner semen analysis is normal. The womans BMI is 26 and there is no significant past medical history. Investigations have confirmed a diagnosis of polycystic ovary. The couples have not achieved a pregnancy despite a 6 months course of clomiphene citrate with evidence of ovulation based on day 21 progesterone concentration and ultrasound scanning?

9076

A 43 year old mother of 5 children complains of a 5 year history of progressively heavy periods that have failed to respond to medical treatment. Trans-vaginal ultrasound scan performed in the proliferative phase shows a normal pelvis with a regular 14mm endometrium?

9077

A patient with discharge per vagina was evaluated and on endocervical biopsy Chlamydia was found. Treatment to be given in this case is:

9078

Identify the structure?

9079

Patient in infertility treatment with hMG and USG given below diagnosis?

9080

33 year old female case of heavy menstrual bleeding managed initially with non-hormonal treatment failed, next management is?

9081

Following instrument is used for?

9082

30 year old woman with complaint of dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia with chronic pelvic pain undergoes hysterectomy. From the cut section of hysterectomy specimen below identify the condition:

9083

Which of the following is best  marker of ovarian reserve:

9084

A: Pregnancy favours monilial vaginitis

R: Vaginal pH decreases during pregnancy

9085

A 59-year-old female with history of ovarian carcinoma in the mother achieved menopause with smooth transition. And she is on hormone replacement therapy. She developed abdominal pain and the right adnexal mass was palpable, non-tender. On routine examination she has a 3×3 cm smooth cyst in her ovary. Which is the next step?

9086

Lady with infertility with bilateral tubal block at cornua; next step of management is:

9087

Which is an epithelial cancer?

9088

What is the treatment of choice when vaginal discharge shows picture as below?

9089

A 25-year old nulliparous woman with third degree uterine descent but no cystocele or rectocele or enetrocele is best treated with:

9090

Ranula most commonly arises from:

9091

Cystic hygroma: 1: Is never present at birth. 2: Most commonly located in anterior triangle of neck

9092

Sternomastoid tumour : pick correct. 1: Is present since birth. 2: Is commonly seen after breech delivery

9093

In a patient suffering from buergers disease. On exercise ABPI

9094

In pregnancy, changes associated with raynaud syndrome

9095

Sapehnous vein pierces ______ fascia to join femoral vein

9096

Name the following investigation

9097

Identify the following typical appearance

9098

Major trauma is defined as a injury severity score of

9099

A 48 year old electrician falls from first floor of a house and develops difficulty in breathing. He is taken to hospital immediately, where a primary survey is done by the attending clinicians, and a diagnosis is immediately established. Most likely cause of death in cases presenting with this clinical condition is

9100

A 26 year old male presented to surgery emergency with alleged history of assault by unidentified miscreants. Identify the injury based on contrast studies

9101

32 year old auto rickshaw driver presented to surgery OPD with history of sustain pelvic fracture in a road side accident, which of the following should be avoided in management of the patient:

9102

Appendectomy in acute appendicitis produces a wound of which type:

9103

Name the artery

9104

Panda eye: pick correct

9105

The fracture depicted below is

9106

Massive blood transfusion may cause:

9107

Gynaecomastia commonly is seen in

9108

Pathological nipple discharge is:

9109

Male breast cancer : pick correct

9110

Beneficial effects of Tamoxifen include:

9111

Carcinoma breast in pregnancy : Radiotherapy is done during

9112

DCIS is diagnosed most frequently by:

9113

Contra-indications of breast conservation surgery

9114

Van nuyi prognostic index is used for

9115

Structures preserved in extended mastectomy include all except:

9116

A 56 year old female patient suffering from carcinoma breast has enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes. Histopathological examination revealed presence of carcinoma. Lowest possible stage of the disease is

9117

Early breast carcinoma is

9118

A 46 year old patient underwent screening mammography, which shows extensive micro calcification. Biopsy from the area confirmed the presence of DCiS, comedo type. Management is:

9119

Most common method of autologus reconstruction in a patient undergoing reconstructive surgery is:

9120

Chest wall fixity includes all of the following except

9121

A women presents with history of chronic non healing rash involving her left nipple. Rest of the general physical examination and local examination were found to be unremarkable. Mammography was advised, which did not turn out to be informative. Next step in management shall be

9122

A 52 year old female patient suffering from carcinoma breast has clinical involvement of both level 1 and level II axillary nodes. However both are mobile. Contralateral breast  and axilla are found to be normal. Highest possible stage of the disease is

9123

Identify the pathology: Pt presented with a lump in the hypogastrium. On palpation, a soft fluctuant lump was noticed. On Percussion, a zone of dullness was found surrounded by a zone of hyper-resonance. Likely diagnosis:

9124

Most common clinical feature of the following condition is

9125

Iodine-131: pick incorrect

9126

Which of the following are in-correctly matched: preferred mode of spread

9127

Pick correct statement: 1: Follicular carcinoma forms characteristic pulsating secondaries in flat bones. 2: Follicular carcinoma is the commonest form of thyroid carcinoma

9128

Anaplastic carcinoma: most common site of metastasis is:

9129

Thyroid cyst: require surgery if it is more than

9130

Thyroid storm: all are used in management except:

9131

Name the following position:

9132

A child of 5 years has multiple abscesses cone-shaped, with infected fluid pockets in the center. Long sub-acute course. This state is MOST characteristic of?

9133

The child has redness and swelling around the nail fold. At the edge of the nail, there is pus under the skin. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

9134

32 years old patient has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear black and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. Most likely the burns are?

9135

A 44 year old fire safety officer sustained an inhalation injury, has been wheezing. After a few hours wheezes are no longer heard. What is the best action?

9136

Which of the following suture has best strength and minimal tissue reaction

9137

Catgut suture from bovine source is derived from which layer

9138

Analyse the following CT findings. The patient suffers from:

9139

A 28-year-old woman is an unrestrained driver in a motor vehicle crash. She has stable vital signs and left upper quadrant tenderness without signs of peritonitis. Select the most appropriate next step in management of the abdominal pain?

9140

A 21-year-old man is taken to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the right side of his chest. The first wound is located 2 cm lateral to the right nipple, and a second wound is present just medial to the tip of the right scapula. Vital signs on initial evaluation are a heart rate of 126 beats/min and a systolic blood pressure of 88 mm Hg. A right-sided chest tube is placed, with return of 1200 mL of blood. He is resuscitated with 2 L of lactated Ringer solution, and his vital signs return to within normal limits. His chest tube output is rechecked 4 hours later, and the total amount in the collection container is 2300 mL. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

9141

A 50-year-old man is undergoing partial hepatectomy for secondary metastasis. The operation proceeded smoothly for the first couple of hours, after which the surgical team noticed unusual bleeding in the form of oozing from all the wound sites. The patient has two intravenous cannula sites through one of which he is on his first unit of blood. What could have happened?

9142

Most common cause of retroperitoneal fibrosis is

9143

Urgent surgical intervention is required in

9144

Identify the following typical finding developing 24-48 hours after trauma. Likely diagnosis:

9145

Most common cause of lymphodema is

9146

Subclavian steal syndrome:obstruction commonly occurs at

9147

A 48 year old construction worker presented to surgery emergency with history of sustaining head injury after he had a fall from a high ladder. He was immediately rushed to the hospital. Upon admission his GCS was found to be 12. NCCT confirmed the presence of an extra dural hematoma. Management of the patient should include all except

9148

A 44 year old motorist sustained high speed collision. He was wearing a seat belt and his car air bags deployed on time. But his head banged against the metal pillars of the car as his car overturned. On examination the patient is conscious and oriented. His blood pressure is 136/86 and heart rate is 84 beats per minute. Local examination revealed a boggy swelling over his forehead. Further the patient had no Battle sign (i.e., bruising over the mastoid process). The fluid from his ear dripped onto the bed sheet. As shown below. After initial resuscitation of the patient, which is the logical next step in management?

9149

All are correct about motility except

9150

Bacteria divide rapidly in

9151

All are correct cholera pandemics except

9152

Plague is transmitted by

9153

Staph aureus is the most common cause of all except

9154

All are non-suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes except

9155

All cause enteric fever except

9156

Quellung reaction is seen in all except

9157

All of the following are included in Jones major criteria except

9158

All are neurotoxins except

9159

All are correct intestinal ulcers except

9160

Black fever and black water fever are seen in

9161

Accole forms are seen in

9162

Albendazole is the drug of choice except

9163

Rhinoscleroma and atrophic rhinitis are caused by

9164

Man is the intermediate host in all except

9165

Anchovy sauce pus is seen in

9166

Flesh eating bacteria is

9167

Recommended sputum sample for TB is

9168

Meningococcal vaccine given to Hajj travelers includes the following serotypes of Neisseria meningitides

9169

All are correct about Babes-Ernst granules except

9170

Which of the following reduces toxin synthesis in bacteria

9171

Drugs of choice for MRSA for empirical therapy, in skin-soft tissue infections and serious infections are

9172

Milk ring test and Whey agglutination tests are done for

9173

Vietnam Time Bomb is related to

9174

All are louse borne diseases except

9175

Most difficult to kill are

9176

Dettol and savlon contain

9177

Relapse in malaria is seen in _________ due to ________ and treated by _________

9178

All are correct diagnostic stages except

9179

All are correct modalities of vector control except

9180

DEC provocation test is done in

9181

DOTS plus and 99 DOTS are for

9182

All are features of Trichomoniasis except

9183

Biotypes of Vibrio cholera O1 are

9184

Reason for cut off titres in Widal test is

9185

All are complications of Neisseria gonorrhoeae except

9186

All are matched syndromes except

9187

All are correct tests except

9188

Oroya fever is caused by

9189

Tetanus toxin acts by preventing release of

9190

Fecal transplant is indicated in

9191

All are correct except

9192

All are correct except

9193

All parasites are carcinogenic except

9194

A 32 year old male with no known history of any diseases suddenly presents with generalized tonic clonic seizure. What would be the most common cause

9195

A 45 year old patient presented with myonecrosis, crepitus and compartment syndrome after a road traffic accident. Likely causative organism

9196

A 51 year old patient had a history of foul smelling non sticky stools, for which no treatment was taken. Later he had pain in the right hypochondrium. Liver aspirate showed Anchovy sauce pus. Diagnosis?

9197

A 35 year old male patient with a 15 day old history of severe purulent urethral discharge after unprotected sexual contact. Likely diagnosis and etiology?

9198

Two patients in acute medical ward presented with fever, jaundice, hypotension, hemolytic uremic syndrome and renal shutdown. One was a rice farmer and another was a sewer worker. Microscopy revealed the following. All are correct combinations except?

9199

23 valent Pneumococcal vaccine is indicated in all except

9200

A 28 year old male presented with painless chancre on external genitalia along with painless lymphadenopathy. Smear from chancre stained by Fontana stain revealed thin spirally coiled bacilli. How will you screen, confirm and treat?

9201

A 9 year old boy presented with effects of a toxin mediated diseases. Which of the following is a not a toxigenic infection?

9202

A 44 year old patient came with an old piece of paper on which the intern doctor could read Duke’s criteria. Most common cause is

9203

A 21 days old neonate was brought with history of fever, tachycardia, vomiting and bulging fontanelle. What would be your provisional diagnosis, suspected causative organism, and investigatory procedure

9204

A 25 year old female presented with fever and pain in throat. Throat examination revealed the following. Diagnosis, most common causative organism and treatment?

9205

A 12 year child came with complaints of helminthiasis with history of flat tape like worms seen in stools. Drug of choice is 

9206

A 52 year old man complained of fever, hepatosplenomegaly and weight loss of 1 year duration. Bone marrow examination revealed amastigotes. Drug of choice is

9207

A 65 year old female was AFB+ even after 6 months of treatment with first line ATT. What is the probable diagnosis, testing modality and treatment at this stage?

9208

Botulinum toxin is used for all except

9209

A 20 year old 3rd year medical student complained of fever and vomiting 5 hours after having Chinese fried rice. Diagnosis?

9210

A 55 year old lady was found to have larva in stools. Diagnosis and treatment?

9211

Most common respiratory sample for diagnosis of pulmonary TB in toddlers is

9212

A 13 year old girl residing in Delhi presented with 7 day history of fever with rash. All are possible except

9213

A 56 year patient stopped ATT on his own due to hepatotoxicity. What is the correct sequence of restarting ATT?

9214

This is sterilized by _______________ and disposed in ___________ bags

9215

What is mechanism of action of the following method used for hand hygiene?

9216

A 34 year old with crush injury pelvis had a full bladder on presentation. Catheterization was not possible. What is this procedure for urine sample collection?

9217

Which organism is cultured in this animal, what is the generation time, and treatment?

9218

All are correct combinations except

9219

A 12 year old child presented with anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly and dark pigmented skin. He belonged to an endemic area where the following vector is frequently found. Identification, disease transmitted and testing?

9220

A 32 year old male presented with fever, sore throat and toxicity. Oral examination revealed the following. Identify? Which strain is used for vaccine?

9221

A 19 year old male was brought in a paralyzed state 96 hours after road traffic accident in a rural area. Toxin and mechanism of action?

9222

Match the following

9223

Match the following Rickettsiae

9224

Aerosol generating procedures while nursing Covid-19 patients where doctors have to extra careful are all except

9225

Quinolones act on

9226

Mandatory screening of blood and blood products in India includes all except

9227

All are correct except

9228

All are EBV associated malignancies except

9229

Haemagglutinin and neuraminidase are found in

9230

Average incubation period of HIV is

9231

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by

9232

Ringworm is caused by

9233

Life threatening fungal infection in diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by

9234

Most medically important fungi belong to

9235

All are correct intestinal ulcers except

9236

Precipitation and agglutination are caused by

9237

Pentavalent includes all except

9238

Most common cause of encephalitis in India is

9239

Amsel criteria and Nugent score used in

9240

Type of diarrhoea in cholera and Rotavirus is

9241

All are infectious except

9242

Most common cause of bronchiolitis is

9243

Which of the following is wrong

9244

All are correct except

9245

Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are all except

9246

All are true about pathogenesis of Dengue except

9247

Varicella zoster virus becomes latent in

9248

All are correct except

9249

Principal cytokine in Gram negative sepsis

9250

All are correct except

9251

All are correct except

9252

All are clinical features of polio except

9253

All are clinical features of congenital rubella except

9254

All are passive immunity except

9255

All diseases have been eradicated except

9256

Drugs used for Post Exposure Prophylaxis of HIV are

9257

Most common acute hepatitis and epidemic hepatitis are

9258

All are correct disease-etiology pairs except

9259

Primary receptor and co-receptors are

9260

Drug acting on CD4 receptor is

9261

New drug approved for treatment of Covid-19

9262

All are correct disease days except

9263

All are matched syndromes except

9264

Mickey mouse appearance is seen in

9265

Fluid resuscitation in septic shock in Covid-19 is monitored by target ______ except

9266

All coronaviruses epidemics started in respective years and places except

9267

Which drug is not indicated in Omicron variant of Covid-19

9268

Current R0 of Omicron variant in Jan 2022 in India is

9269

A 32year old pregnant female reported to antenatal OPD. Which strategy for HIV testing will be followed

9270

A 20 year old patient admitted with Type I diabetes mellitus gave a history of fever with centripetally distributed and centrifugally spreading rash. Diagnosis?

9271

Parents of a newborn came for counselling for diseases transmitted by breast feeding All diseases can be transmitted by breast feeding except

9272

There was an outbreak of a rapidly spreading unknown disease transmitted by respiratory route. A team of experts were airlifted for outbreak investigations. As the head of the team what would your opinion be on highest R0

9273

Vaccine that should not be given after 5-6 years of age

9274

All conditions increase susceptibility to infections except

9275

A 17 year old underwent spontaneous abortion. How will the abortus be discarded?

9276

A newly formed nation was developing its health system. Epidemiological consult was sought for protection against vaccine preventable diseases. Herd immunity can be established through vaccination in all diseases except

9277

Interleukine therapy is given in all except

9278

N95 is recommended for protection against all the following diseases except

9279

All are neurotropic viruses except

9280

Which of the following herbal products have been found to be effective against Covid-19 coronavirus through randomized control clinical trials?

9281

A 32 year old American traveler to India was bitten by Tiger mosquito. All are possible except?

9282

A 17 year old MBBS 2nd year student was diagnosed with seborrheic dermatitis. Etiology and treatment?

9283

A newborn baby kept in isolation and not given any vaccine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

9284

A 3 year old child was brought with dyspnoea, wheeze and fever. Paediatrician suspected bronchiolitis. Most common cause of bronchiolitis and treatment is

9285

A 49 year old renal transplant recipient reported with fever, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, frequency and dribbling incontinence. Diagnosis, most common cause and treatment?

9286

A 35 year old male presented with pus from urethra which was culture negative and did not respond to beta lactam antibiotics. Most common cause of would be

9287

All diseases require isolation except

9288

A 34 year oldorthopaedic surgeon suffered an inoculation exposure while doing joint replacement surgery of a Hepatitis Bpositive patient. He had no prior immunity to Hepatitis B. What is appropriate action?

9289

A 48 year old resident of Shimoga district of Karnataka bitten by the following vector in a forest, was brought in a comatose state. Whats your provisional diagnosis and what would you advise to the relatives?

9290

Smears from three patients presenting with tinea infections revealed the following. Identify macroconidia from left to right

9291

A 12 year old child in Gorakhpur was transferred to a tertiary care hospital for oxygen support during coma. What is the reservoir, amplifier host, vaccine and vector for this disease?

9292

WHO administered an unapproved vaccine to 100000 people in Congo in 2018-2019 as outbreak preparedness-response for the following filamentous virus. Name of the virus, disease manifestation and vaccine?

9293

A 33 year old Indian female presented with fever, rash, headache and weakness since 3 days. Identify the test, diagnostic criteria and etiological applicability

9294

A 34 year old presented with the following condition. Diagnosis? What is the likely etiology?

9295

The symbol stands for prevention of

9296

A syringe with open needle was found on a bedside trolley. How will you dispose it?

9297

Match the following Viruses

9298

Match the following Covid variants of concern

9299

Out of the following most resistant to ischemic damage is:

9300

Following change of reversible cell injury is seen under light microscope:

9301

Liver necrosis due to viral hepatitis is an example of necrosis:

9302

All are the morphological features of apoptosis except:

9303

Most reactive free radical is:

9304

Most common form of lipid accumulation in cell is:

9305

Desmin are the intermediate filaments present in:

9306

In all of the following dystrophic calcification is seen except:

9307

Most common site affected by metastatic calcification is:

9308

Which of the following cellular adaptation may be irreversible:

9309

Organelle playing a important role in apoptosis is:

9310

Annexin V is a marker of:

9311

Brown atrophy is due to accumulation of:

9312

Werner syndrome is:

9313

Activation of caspase 1 and 11 is seen in:

9314

Diapedesis/Transmigration occurs by the molecule:

9315

Most potent chemotactic complement is:

9316

Major basic protein is cytotoxic to parasite. It is present in cell:

9317

Most common mode of inheritance of chronic granulomatous disease is:

9318

All of the following are produced by the action of enzyme cyclo-oxygenase on Arachidionic acid except:

9319

In complement C5-9 deficiency there is increased incidence of infection by:

9320

All of the following cells are present in granuloma except:

9321

Most important cofactor for the enzyme matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) is:

9322

Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract is an example of:

9323

Macrophages are converted to epitheloid cells by cytokine:

9324

Following enzyme is present in neutrophils which produce reactive oxygen species which helps in killing of bacteria:

9325

All are the following causes vasodilation except:

9326

Fibroblast migration and proliferation is mediated by:

9327

Major collagen producing cells in liver causing cirrhosis is:

9328

In filarasis cause of edema is:

9329

All are true about transugate except:

9330

All are present in dense granules in platelets except:

9331

Out of the following platelet antiaggregator is:

9332

All are the acquired causes of hypercoagulability except:

9333

Most common site of origin of arterial thrombi is:

9334

Embolism which can be seen after fracture of long bones is:

9335

White or pale or anemic infarct are seen in all organ except:

9336

Which of the following coagulant factor is produced by platelets?

9337

Most common cause of intracardiac mural thrombi is:

9338

Decompression sickness is form of which embolism?

9339

Desmoplasia is seen in the following carcinoma:

9340

Hallmark of malignant transformation is:

9341

Gene also called as governor of cell cycle is:

9342

Mutation is BRAF gene is associated with:

9343

Most common nuclear transcription factor involved in human cancer is:

9344

All are the genes causing breast cancer except:

9345

Defect in Nucleotide excision repair pathway is seen in:

9346

Ultraviolet rays are carcinogenic due to formation of:

9347

Epstein Barr virus infects the B cells through the marker:

9348

Most common paraneoplastic syndrome is:

9349

Staging of tumour is done by all of the following except:

9350

Lactate dehydrogenase is a tumour marker of:

9351

Major contribution to cachexia with advanced cancer:

9352

In a chronic alcoholic with elevated serum fetoprotein level, most likely neoplasm is:

9353

Following gene is called as Gatekeeper of Colonic neoplasia:

9354

Class I – Major histocompatibility complex is encoded by following genes except:

9355

Type I (Immediate) hypersensitivity is mediated by cell:

9356

Casoni test is an example of hypersensitivity reaction type:

9357

All are correctly matched except:

9358

Lupus anticoagulant is the name given to antibody seen in systemic lupus erythematosis:

9359

Antibodies diagnostic of Drug – Induced lupus is:

9360

Most common extraglandular involvement seen in Sjogren syndrome:

9361

In Digeorge syndrome there is hypoplasia of pharyngeal pouches:

9362

Type of amyloidosis seen in Hodgkins Lymphoma and Renal cell carcinoma is:

9363

In liver amyloid first deposits in:

9364

Sickle cell anemia is an example of:

9365

Different effects caused by same mutant gene is called:

9366

Duchenne muscular dystrophy pattern of inheritance is:

9367

GAA trinucleotide repeats are seen in:

9368

Mechanism of genomic imprinting is:

9369

Deletion of paternal 15q12 results in syndrome:

9370

Both parents are carrier of an autosomal recessive disorder. Chanses of offspring to get affected:

9371

Two siblings with achondroplasia, but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is:

9372

Gene involvement Rett syndrome:

9373

Microarray is:

9374

Lower basal zones are commonly involved:

9375

Charcot Leyden crystals seen in bronchial asthma are formed of:

9376

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis causes bronchiectasis mainly affecting lobes of lungs:

9377

Most common lung carcinoma associated with asbestosis is:

9378

Increased susceptibility to tuberculosis is seen in:

9379

Most common manifestation of asbestosis is:

9380

Caplan syndrome is co-existence of pneumoconiosis with:

9381

Stellate inclusion seen within giant cells in Sarcoidosis are called:

9382

Most common cause of pneumonia associated with bronchiectasis is:

9383

Cytokeratin is the tumour marker of lung carcinoma:

9384

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is classically described as a:

9385

Onion skin appearance is seen in blood vessels in:

9386

In hyperplasic arteriolosclerosis necrosis present is:

9387

Out of the following vessel least commonly affected in atherosclerosis is:

9388

Anti proteinase – 3 antibodies are present in:

9389

Raised serum level of lipoprotein – A is a predictor of:

9390

Ascending aorta involvement is the commonest site of which aneurysm:

9391

Hallmark of right sided heart failure is:

9392

Cavernous hemingioma of liver are seen in:

9393

All are correctly matched except:

9394

Which of the endocarditis has vegetation on both sides of the valves?

9395

Flipping of LDH means LDH1>LDH2. It is suggestive of:

9396

Rheumatic fever is excluded if there is absence of:

9397

Earliest finding in myocardial infarction under electron microscope is:

9398

Least commonly affected valve in Rheumatic fever is:

9399

Aschoff bodies does not contain:

9400

Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis and scleroderma can cause cardiomyopathy type:

9401

In hemochromatosis type of cardiomyopathy seen is:

9402

Causative organism in prosthetic heart valve infective endocarditis is:

9403

Vegetations present on mitral valve usually do not embolises to:

9404

Most common primary malignant tumour of heart in adult is:

9405

Streptococcal pharyngitis causing acute rheumatic fever is seen in:

9406

Most common deposition seen in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis is:

9407

All types of Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis show on electron microscopy:

9408

Earliest finding on electron microscopy in Alport syndrome is:

9409

Hallmark of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is:

9410

Plasmodium associated with nephrotic syndrome is:

9411

Most common cause of renal papillary necrosis is:

9412

Most common histological finding seen in diabetic nephropathy is:

9413

Berger nephropathy is due to mesangial deposition of:

9414

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is due to infection by:

9415

Least common site of involvement in Crohn disease is:

9416

Decreased or absent UGT1A1 activity is seen in all of the following except:

9417

DOG-1 is the best and specific marker for:

9418

Presence of macrophages in lamina propria of intestine showing PAS positive, diastase resistant granule is suggestive of:

9419

Peutz–Jeghers syndrome–There is involvement of gene:

9420

All are the risk factor for adenocarcinoma of colon except:

9421

Most susceptible to ischemic damage in Liver lobule is:

9422

All chromosomal location are correctly matched except:

9423

All are true about primary biliary cirrhosis except:

9424

30 year old female, with history of taking oral contraceptives has a mass in liver with no vascular invasion. It is suggestive of:

9425

True about cholangiocarcinoma is:

9426

Onion Skin fibrosis of bile duct is seen in:

9427

True about Hashimoto thyroiditis is:

9428

Sheehan syndrome is postpartum necrosis of:

9429

Definitive diagnosis of malignant pheochromocytoma is based on the presence of:

9430

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease. Antibodies are present against the antigen:

9431

Most favorable prognosis in thyroid carcinoma is:

9432

Carcinoembryonic antigen is a tumour marker of thyroid carcinoma:

9433

Most common cause of primary acute adrenocortical insufficiency is:

9434

Familial syndrome associated with pheochromocytoma include all except:

9435

Most common manifestation of multiple endocrine neoplasia 1:

9436

Mucosal neuromas and marfanoid habitus are seen in:

9437

Most common site of juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma is:

9438

Glioblastoma most commonly arises from lobe of brain:

9439

Most common site of ependymoma in adults is:

9440

Homer-Wright rosettes are seen in:

9441

Which of the following brain tumours does not spread via cerebrospinal fluid:

9442

In meningioma there is involvement of chromosome No:

9443

Increased vascularity and glomeruloid body formation is seen in astrocytoma:

9444

In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase 1 increases?

9445

Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of

9446

The Michaehis-Menten hypothesis:

9447

When a molecule binds to an area of an enzyme that is not the active site, and changes the shape of the enzyme so that it no longer can work, this is called

9448

Estimation of the gamma glutamyl transferase is useful to detect one of the following conditions

9449

Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?

9450

Kinase reactions:

9451

Which of the following enzymes is stimulated by glucagon?

9452

Spermatozoa in seminal fluid utilizes the following sugar for metabolism:

9453

Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except:

9454

Cellulose products are often used as solids (vehicles, binders) in pharmaceutical tablets and to provide texture in food products. They are inert ingredients because animals cannot metabolize cellulose, for which of the following reasons?

9455

Glycogen while being acted upon by active phosphorylase is converted first to

9456

Two conditions in which gluconeogenesis is increased are:

9457

As cells in the erythrocytic lineage mature and lose their nuclei, mitochondria, and ribosomes, which of the following pathways can still be used to produce ATP?

9458

Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic process?

9459

Absence of which of the following enzymes would impair the rate-limiting step of glycogenolysis?

9460

In conversion of Lactic acid to Glucose, three reactions of Glycolytic pathway are circumvented, which of the following enzymes do not participate?

9461

A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared with a normal person, after eating a bowl of milk and oatmeal sweetened with table sugar, this patient will have higher levels of which one of the following? Choose the one best answer.

9462

The following are false  about the oxidation of glucose:

9463

The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for

9464

Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of:

9465

The conversion of one molecule of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate results in the net formation of:

9466

Glucose enters neuron cells mostly by:

9467

McArdle disease is due to the deficiency of

9468

Which of the following auticoagutant used in estimating blood glucose prevents glycolysis

9469

A dipeptide has

9470

The bond in proteins that is not broken under usual conditions of denaturation:

9471

All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct except

9472

Cystinuria results from inability to

9473

All the following statements about albinism are correct except

9474

The symptom of ammonia intoxication includes

9475

Which of the following contributes only nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?

9476

Tyrosinosis is due to defect in the enzyme:

9477

Mechanism by which NH3 is removed from the LIVER is

9478

Among the following which is the wrong statement

9479

An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following?

9480

An adolescent female develops hemiballismus after anaesthesia for a routine operation. She is tall and lanky, and it is noted that she and her sister both had previous operations for dislocated lenses of the eyes. Which of the following statements is descriptive of this disease?

9481

Parents of a newborn baby girl were concerned when they saw black spots in her diaper after the child had urinated. At their next meeting with the pediatrician, they were told that the disorder is one that can lead to arthritis in the spine and large joints, and the child may have heart problems and a propensity for kidney stones. The child has inherited an inborn error in the metabolism of which one of the following amino acids?

9482

Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase causes

9483

Which of the following is non polar unchagerd non essential amino acids?

9484

Special arrangement of subunits of proteins that consists of more than one monomer is referred to as:

9485

An important feature of maple syrup urine disease is

9486

The most of the ultraviolet absorption of proteins above 240 nm is due to their content of

9487

In starvation, the major nutritional supply of the brain comes from

9488

An 8-month-old baby girl had normal growth and development for the first few months, but then progressively deteriorated with deafness, blindness, atrophied muscle, inability to swallow, and seizures. Early on in the diagnosis of the child, it was noticed that a cherry red macula was present in both eyes. Considering the child in the above case, measurement of which one of the following would enable one to determine whether the mutation were in the hex A or hex B gene?

9489

The essential fatty acids retard

9490

HMG-CoA is formed during metabolism of all except

9491

Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver is found in

9492

The regulatory enzyme in the biosynthetic pathway of Cholesterol is correct

9493

Which of the plasma lipoproteins is best described as follows: synthesized in the intestinal mucosa, containing a high concentration of triacylglycerol and mainly cleared from the circulation by adipose tissue and muscle?

9494

Unpleasant odours and taste in a fat (rancidity) can be delayed or prevented by the addition of

9495

The enzyme acyl-CoA synthetase catalyses the conversion of a fatty acid of an active fatty acid result in

9496

Long chain fatty acids penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane

9497

Gaucher disease is due to deficiency of the enzyme:

9498

Characteristic finding in Gaucher disease is

9499

An important finding in Neimann-Pick disease is

9500

All the following statements about carnitine are true except

9501

The lipoprotein richest in cholesterol is

9502

All the following statements about ketone bodies are true except

9503

A digestive secretion that does not contain any digestive enzyme is

9504

Pyrimidine and purine nucleoside bio-synthesis share a common precursor:

9505

Methotrexate blocks the synthesis of thymidine monophosphate by inhibiting the activity of the enzyme:

9506

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked, recessive absence of HGPRTase, may lead to

9507

Shine Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

9508

A febrile 45-year-old man who has been an alcoholic for the past 3 years reports severe pain in the right metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. Findings on physical examination include erythema and heat over the joint. A complete blood cell count shows an absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis with greater than 10 percent band neutrophils in a 100-cell count. Synovial fluid shows needle-shaped crystals that have been phagocytosed by neutrophils. What finding best describes the pathophysiologic process?

9509

The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of

9510

In purine nucleus nitrogen atom at 1 position is derived from

9511

5 Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped with

9512

IN a DNA molecule, the guanine content is 40%, the adenine content will be

9513

The T ΨC arm in the tRNA molecule possesses the sequence

9514

In RNA molecule guanine content does not necessarily equal its cytosine content nor does its adenine content necessarily equal its uracil content since it is a

9515

Deficiency of Vitamin A causes

9516

Thiamin deficiency includes

9517

Increased glucose consumption increases the dietary requirement for

9518

Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic acid in blood is increased due to deficiency of the vitamin

9519

Vitamin K deficiency is indicated by:

9520

A 7-year-old boy is hospitalized with chronic renal failure. Which form of vitamin D is the best replacement therapy to combat renal osteodystrophy in this patient?

9521

What disease is caused by Vitamin B2 deficiency?

9522

Which of the following vitamins has antioxidant properties, reduces the incidence of heart attacks and deficiency of which can lead to hemolysis and neurological problems

9523

A eats a very poor diet and consumes two bottles of vodka a day. He is admitted to a hospital in coma. He is hyperventilating and has low blood pressure and high cardiac output. A chest x-ray shows that his heart is enlarged. Laboratory tests show that he is suffering from thiamin (vitaminB1) deficiency. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be affected?

9524

The given instrument is used in which of the following:

9525

Identify the Instrument:

9526

Identify the Instrument:

9527

The ocular instrument can be used for:

9528

Which cataract surgery is being done if the incision has been given at point A?

9529

Which procedure is being done in the patient?

9530

This instrument is used for:

9531

Identify:

9532

Identify:

9533

Identify the instrument:

9534

It has first angle at a distance of:

9535

It is used for:

9536

Identity the instrument:

9537

Indentify the instrument:

9538

This instrument is used in:

9539

Angle in side part blade:

9540

Which of the following is not used in DCR?

9541

In chalazion clamp ring is applied on:

9542

Which of the following will be used to do PI?

9543

It is used for all except:

9544

Identify the investigation being done:

9545

The optical instrument seen in the image is used for:

9546

The test done by the instruments in the above photograph can be used for diagnosing all of the following conditions except:

9547

The optical instrument in the above image is used for diagnosing all except:

9548

The investigation being done in the above patient is used to:

9549

Diagnose:

9550

Identify the test being undertaken by the patient in the above image:

9551

Which is not correct about the above instrument?

9552

A young female came with complaints of diminished vision. The right eye (6/18) and left eye (6/6). Which layer of the retina is most likely involved to be involved in the pathology?

9553

What is the cause for enlargement of muscle shown in this CT–scan?

9554

The instrument in the above photograph is used for which of the following tests:

9555

Test done in the image is used for diagnosis of:

9556

Component of Worth four dot test:

9557

The optical procedure being done is used for:

9558

Identify the investigation being done:

9559

What will be the prescription for spectacles in a patient having Simple myopic with the rule astigmatism?

9560

A patient presented with his head tilted towards right. On examination, he was having left Hypertropia which is increased on looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed is:

9561

Above is a common instrument used in ophthalmology. In order to view the entire retina what is the power of lens you would like to attach to the instrument:

9562

A 45-year-old male patient complains of loss of vision in his left eye. He has history of trauma to the head a few months back. His anterior segment is normal, fundus also normal. 45 degree esotropia in the left eye. The patient will see:

9563

The optical instrument seen in the image is used for:

9564

The instrument is used:

9565

Which of the following is not true?

9566

What is the most likely diagnosis?

9567

All of the following are true except:

9568

Which of the following tests is inadequate during early screening in the above patient?

9569

It is used to evaluate:

9570

A patient developed proptosis and diplopia of 2 months duration following injury. On examination there is chemosis, conjunctival redness, and external ocular nerve palsy. Investigation of choice is:

9571

The optical instrument shown in the image is used for evaluation of:

9572

Patient with history of hepatic dysfunction. On ocular examination, the image given below is seen. Which of the following investigations should be done to confirm the diagnosis?

9573

All of the following are true about below procedure, except:

9574

The given instrument is used in which of the following:

9575

Infant in the image is most likely suffering from:

9576

This is PBS of a male 6 years old. Which investigation will confirm the diagnosis?

9577

Identify the test:

9578

Retinoscopy is done on a 0.5D myopia patient at a distance of 1 metre. Movement of the image will be:

9579

Methods to measure error of refraction are all except:

9580

Axial length of eye for cataract surgery is measured by which of the following?

9581

Identify the test shown below:

9582

Indocyanine Green Angiography (ICG Angiography) is most useful in detecting:

9583

A 60 year old man presented with watering from the left eye since one year. Syringing revealed a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done by:

9584

Antidepressants drugs acts via inhibiting reuptake of serotonin is having which side effects:

9585

Drug acting via nuclear receptor is:

9586

A patient on bipolar disorder treatment developed hypertension. He was started on thiazides for hypertension. After few days, he developed coarse tremors, confusion and weakness of limbs. Which drug toxicity occurred?

9587

A female developed pain and insect crawling like sensation on legs at night which is relieved by shaking her legs. Which of the following is drug of choice for this condition?

9588

At a high altitude of 3000 m, a person complains of breathlessness and headache. Which of the following can be used for management of this person:

9589

True about competitive inhibition is:

9590

Sympathomimmetic used in urge incontinence is:

9591

Nurse has to give an eye ointment and drop to a patient. How to give these:

9592

Not a prodrug:

9593

Chronic alcoholic suddenly stops drinking and getting is in Delirium. Best management is:

9594

All are the newer modalities in epilepsy treatment except:

9595

Neostigmine used in all these conditions except:

9596

Anti-glaucoma drug that causes macular edema side effect is:

9597

Morphine is contraindicated in all except:

9598

Most important investigation for monitoring of clozapine therapy:

9599

Which of the following short-acting selective beta-blocker drug is used in the management of arrythmia:

9600

Which of the following drug is not given in acute mania:

9601

Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular blocking agent used in day care surgeries:

9602

Drug used during status epilepticus attack is/are:

9603

Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:

9604

Dopamine, in less than 2mcg/kg/min dose, in shock leads to:

9605

Area under time and plasma concentration curve signifies:

9606

First order kinetics: True is

9607

Steady state concentration of a drug is achieved after how many hours if half life of the drug is 2 hours and following first order kinetic elimination:

9608

Tolerance develop to all of the following action of opioids except?

9609

Which of the following medications would be preferred as monotherapy for the treatment of a 53-year-old man with moderate hypertension and mild benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

9610

Drug used to perform stress echo is:

9611

All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of anterior uveitis except:

9612

Antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is:

9613

Belladona poisoning, All are seen except:

9614

Which of the following anti-glaucoma medication not safe in newborns:

9615

Which of the following anti-epileptic drug has highest teratogenic potential

9616

Healthy volunteers are recruited in which phase of clinical trials

9617

Anti-depressant drug which is used for smoking cessation is

9618

Which of the following drug causes postural hypotension commonly?

9619

Which of the following agent is DOC for NSAID induced gastric ulcer

9620

What is true about ondansetron except

9621

A 45-year-old woman presented to her physician because of a 2-week history of painless diarrhea that was urgent and usually occurred during meals. After physical examination, lab tests, and colonoscopy, a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was made, and the woman was prescribed an appropriate therapy that included loperamide. Direct activation of which of the following receptors most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in this patient?

9622

A 50-year-old woman complained to her physician of regurgitation of foul tasting fluid into her mouth and occasional nausea and vomiting. The physician prescribed a drug that can both prevent nausea and vomiting and promote upper gastrointestinal motility. Blockade of which of the following receptors most likely contributed to the therapeutic effect of the drug in the patient’s disease?

9623

A 34-year-old hospitalized male patient complained of torticollis, grimacing, and spasm of the ocular muscles 1 day after surgery. The man had received an intravenous drug soon after surgery to treat nausea and vomiting. Which of the following antiemetic drugs most likely caused the symptoms of patient?

9624

A 43-year-old man recently diagnosed with testicular cancer was in the hospital for his second cycle of chemotherapy. A three-drug combination was given to prevent chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. The combination included a drug that blocks NK1 neurokinin receptors in the area postrema. Which of the following drugs has this molecular mechanism of action?

9625

A 41-year-old woman complained to her physician of increasing frequency and urgency of bowel movements that she attributed to increased stress at work. The woman was diagnosed with spastic colon 4 years ago but was able to tolerate the symptoms until recently, when she noted the increasing frequency of bowel movements. A drug from which of the following classes could be appropriate to treat the disorder of patient?

9626

A 64-year-old man complained to his physician of burning and substernal pain for about 3 weeks. The pain usually occurred after dinner when he was lying on the couch watching television and was sometimes accompanied by regurgitation of foul-tasting fluid into his mouth. The man had been suffering from Parkinson disease for 1 year and was currently receiving pramipexole and selegiline. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to treat the symptoms of patient?

9627

A 53-year-old woman complained to her physician that the drug she was taking did not work and that she was still suffering from obstinate constipation. The woman had a long history of irritable bowel syndrome and took several drugs in the past with limited success. She was presently taking lactulose. The physician decided to try another drug recently approved for irritable bowel syndrome with constipation in adult women. The drug is a prostanoid derivative that acts by opening type 2 chloride channels in the small intestine. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?

9628

A 46-year-old woman recently diagnosed with classic migraine had a headache attack at least once a week. Ergotamine was prescribed to prevent the impending attacks. Which of the following actions most likely contributed to the therapeutic effect of the drug in the disorder of patient?

9629

A 64-year-old man suffering from benign prostatic hyperplasia presented to his physician complaining of generalized itching. The problem began 1 week earlier, after an afternoon of prolonged sun exposure. The patient reported that the itching was distressing, especially during the night. Physical examination showed an enlarged prostate and no other evidence of ongoing disease. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

9630

A 30-year-old primipara woman had visible vaginal bleeding within a few hours after delivering her baby. Uterine massage and infusion of oxytocin did not control the bleeding. Up on examination, it was felt that the hemorrhage was due to uterine atony. An intramuscular injection of ergonovine was given. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in this patient?

9631

A 47-year-old man presented to the clinic complaining of a recent onset of repeating episodes of vertigo associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient was otherwise healthy and denied use of alcohol or illicit drugs. Physical examination was unremarkable, but a provocative test elicited severe vertigo. A diagnosis was made, and a pharmacotherapy was prescribed. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

9632

A 54-year-old man at a scheduled ophthalmic check-up was found to have increased intraocular pressure. The man had been suffering from open-angle glaucoma for 2 years, but up until the current visit, the disease was found to be well controlled by local treatment with timolol and latanoprost. Drugs taken recently by the patient included over-the-counter preparations for episodic headache, heartburn, cough cold and insomnia. Which of the following drugs could have caused the patient’s increased intraocular pressure?

9633

A 2-day-old premature male baby, born by normal vaginal delivery, presented with severe cyanosis. Chest X-rays and echocardiography confirmed the diagnosis of congenital transposition of the great arteries, and the baby was scheduled for surgery. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered by intravenous infusion to the baby until surgery?

9634

A 48-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department because of serious breathing difficulty. Two hours earlier, she had taken a drug for a headache. The patient had been suffering from sinusitis and nasal polyps for 6 months. Physical examination showed severe bronchospasm. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the signs of the patient and symptoms?

9635

A 39-year-old woman who has been suffering from myasthenia gravis for 4 years developed progressive dyspnea several days after an upper respiratory tract infection. Physical examination disclosed bilateral ptosis, bilateral facial weakness, and diminished upper and lower motor strength. An intravenous edrophonium injection improved muscle strength. A serum assay for anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody was 4.8 (normal less than 0.5). A promptly instituted treatment included a parenteral injection of prednisone. Which of the following statements best explains the most likely mechanism of action of the drug in this case?

9636

A 55-year-old man complained to his physician of blurred vision, night blindness, light flashes, and photophobia. The man was diagnosed with mild rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago and was taking a combination therapy that included a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). Ophthalmoscopy disclosed a macular area of hyper pigmentation surrounded by a zone of hypopigmentation on the left retina. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the signs of patient and symptoms?

9637

A 53-year-old woman recently diagnosed with gouty arthritis started a treatment with a drug that inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to inhibition of tubulin polymerization. Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely take?

9638

A new autonomic drug was administered locally in the conjunctival sac of a healthy volunteer during a phase 1 clinical trial. Twenty minutes later, measurement of several eye parameters gave the following results:

9639

A 34-year-old woman was at the dentist for an endodontic procedure. Before starting the procedure, the dentist injected a solution of lidocaine plus epinephrine near the tooth in order to provide local anesthesia. The epinephrine-induced increased duration of the lidocaine effect was most likely mediated by the activation of which of the following adrenoceptors?

9640

A 60-year-old man hospitalized following a myocardial infarction showed a pronounced decrease in blood pressure and urine output 2 hours after the admission. A diagnosis of cardiogenic shock was made, and an emergency therapy was started. An adrenergic drug was given by intravenous infusion. Which of the following drugs fitting this profile would be appropriate for the patient?

9641

A 57-year-old homeless alcoholic man was brought to the hospital by the police; who had found him lying on a side-walk. Physical examination showed clear signs of alcohol withdrawal. Therapy was started that included clonidine. Which of the following best explains the most likely mechanism of action of clonidine in this patient?

9642

A 51-year-old man, recently diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, was scheduled for surgery to remove the tumor. One week before surgery, phenoxybenzamine was prescribed. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the disease of patient?

9643

A 62-year-old woman had no bowel movements 4 days after surgery to remove a colon cancer. A diagnosis of adynamic ileus was made, and an intramuscular injection of neostigmine was given. The activation of which of the following pairs of receptors most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the disorder of patient?

9644

A 49-year-old farmer came to the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, nausea, and painful muscle contractions in his legs. He said the symptoms started soon after coming in from his soybean field. The attending physician appropriately administered pralidoxime intravenously soon after the man arrived. An agent from which of the following drug classes most likely caused the symptoms of patient?

9645

A 74-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes complained to his physician of difficult urination. Further examination led to the diagnosis of a disorder, and treatment with bethanechol improved the symptoms. Which of the following was most likely the disorder of patient?

9646

A 63-year-old man underwent surgery to remove a laryngeal carcinoma. Before surgery, the anesthesiologist administered a drug intramuscularly to decrease bronchial secretions and to prevent bradycardia due to manipulation of the vagus nerve. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate in this situation?

9647

A 55-year-old man was admitted to the coronary unit following a myocardial infarction. Four hours after admission, the electrocardiogram indicated bradycardia that disappeared after an intramuscular injection of atropine. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of atropine in the disorder of patient?

9648

A 14-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by his mother, who tells you that her son has been losing control of his bladder several times during the day over the past couple of weeks. Upon speaking with the boy, he tells you that he has been feeling depressed since he is being bullied at school. After a lengthy workup rules out an organic cause for his enuresis, you decide to treat the boy for depression. Which drug is this?

9649

A 36-year-old woman is seen in psychiatry clinic for a follow-up appointment. She was recently discharged from a psychiatric hospital, where she was admitted for auditory hallucinations. The admitting psychiatrist diagnosed her as having atypical depression with psychotic features. She was started on a new medication to help control her illness. In your office, she asks you about the possible side effects of her new medication. You tell the patient that it is important to avoid certain foods, such as cheese, red wine, and smoked sausage. Which drug was started to her?

9650

48-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by his concerned wife, while he is having convulsions. According to her, the patient suffers from severe alcoholism, but he stopped drinking 2 days ago. He has no history of seizures and she does not take any medications. On physical examination, the patient appears agitated, diaphoretic, and confused. You immediately start intravenous administration of a medication that will treat the patient and you admit her to the hospital for further monitoring. Which medication was given?

9651

A 35-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis presents to your clinic complaining of shooting pains in her face. She tells you that whenever she brushes her teeth or chews vigorously, she feels a burst of searing pain on her left cheek. You reassure her that you can prescribe a drug that will treat her symptoms, but you also warn her that this medication may cause low white blood cell counts and thus she will need to be monitored closely while taking this drug. Which drug you want to prescribe?

9652

A concerned mother presents to your pediatric neurology clinic with her 1-year- old son, who suffers from Down syndrome. You perform a diagnostic electroencephalography test and observe a hypsarrhythmia pattern on the test. You suspect that the boy has West syndrome. You tell the mother that you would like to start her son on a medication that can effectively treat him, but you warn her that this medication could cause visual field loss. Which medicine you told to her?

9653

A 47-year-old woman presents to neurology clinic, complaining of several neurological symptoms. The patient reports episodes of inexplicable fear and sadness as well as a concurrent feeling of an altered sense of smell and a sense of spatial distortion. She denies any loss of consciousness during these episodes. You diagnose her with simple partial seizures and prescribed a medication. You explain that the exact mechanism of the medication is unknown; however, it likely interrupts nerve conduction across the synapse by binding to synaptic vesicle proteins. Which drug is this?

9654

A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic, complaining of severe lower back pain that developed after she tried to pick up a heavy box. Examination and imaging is suggestive of a herniated disc in the lumbar spine. You begin the patient on a high-dose NSAID and suggest physiotherapy. After 3 days, she is saying that the pain is unbearable and not controlled. She is very reluctant to try an opioid, so you decided to prescribe a medication that acts as a very weak opioid agonist and also inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synaptic junction. Which medicine was tried?

9655

A 32-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a routine physical examination. Overall, she feels well and has no complaints. She has no past medical history other than tobacco use. She states that she has been smoking about 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the last 10 years. You strongly encourage her to quit smoking and she seems willing to try to stop using tobacco. You offer to prescribe her a medication that has been shown to aid in smoking cessation by acting as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors. What is that?

9656

An 86-year-old man is brought to your geriatric clinic by his daughter. He was diagnosed with Alzheimer disease 1 year ago and has been treated with one medicine. His daughter reports that her father dementia has continued to worsen. He often forgets who she is and has been found wandering the streets twice in the last 2 weeks. You tell the daughter that her father will likely need full-time care at this point. In the meantime, you also prescribe another medication that acts as an NMDA receptor antagonist in the hopes of providing some symptomatic improvement. What is that?

9657

A 73-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is transferred to your hospice for palliative care. Upon physical examination, the patient appears to be in severe pain, but he does not exhibit any signs of respiratory distress. In order to control his pain, you provide the patient with a self-controlled pump containing an analgesic that binds to specific receptors in the brain and spinal cord involved in pain transmission. Which analgesic you gave?

9658

A 36-year man came with reddening of the conjunctiva suspected of taking drug. On examination having increased pulse rate and decreases in blood pressure and in psychomotor performance but pupil is normal. His signs and symptoms are likely to be due to:

9659

Which of the following drugs is used as nail lacquer for onychomycosis:

9660

At a high altitude of 3000 m, a person complains of breathlessness and headache. Which of the following can be used for management of this person:

9661

Antidiabetic drug not required dose adjustment in a patient of diabetes having chronic renal disease is:

9662

2nd line anti-TB drugs is:

9663

Which of the following is best to give to newborn for 6 weeks for preventing the vertical transmission of HIV:

9664

CB-NAAT is done to detect resistance due to mutation in:

9665

Pregnant women with graves disease took anti thyroid medication through entire pregnancy. Child born with aplasia cutis congenita. Which drug she was taking:

9666

Breast cancer treatment given was tamoxifen, causes which cancer:

9667

In a patient with NSTEMI, all of the following would be given except:

9668

Antidote for overdose of fibrinolytic drugs is:

9669

Which of the following drug can cause the side-effect given in the picture:

9670

Which of the following is best to be used for induction of ovulation in polycystic ovarian disease patients:

9671

Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis is

9672

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After few years, he developed eye of bull maculopathy and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this:

9673

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug is contraindicated in a patient who is taking metoprolol:

9674

Which of the following is a late inward sodium channel blocker approved for angina treatment:

9675

Which of the following is bacteriostatic:

9676

A bed ridden female patient with catheter related UTI by klebsiella pneumoniae; which of the following drug you choose if carbapenems are resistant:

9677

What is the MOA of sacubitril:

9678

Long QT syndrome caused by all except:

9679

Lemon on stick appearance seen with which therapy:

9680

MOA of Rivoraxaban is:

9681

Drug which lacks intrinsic activity against anaerobes is:

9682

Which antiviral drug is use in both HIV and hepatitis B:

9683

Which of the following antimicrobial is not given in pregnancy:

9684

Anticancer drug not given via rapid iv injection to avoid emesis risk is:

9685

Which of the following insulin may be given via intravenous route:

9686

Which of the following antihypertensive medications would be preferred for the treatment of chronic hypertension in a 33-year-old pregnant woman?

9687

All of the following are Beta-lactamase inhibitors except:

9688

Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a predominant peripheral vasodilator action and tocolytic effect:

9689

A 56-year-old woman complains of chest pain following any sustained exercise. She is diagnosed with atherosclerotic angina. She is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest pain. Which of the following adverse effects of sublingual nitroglycerin can be prevented by atenolol?

9690

Which of the following antihypertensive agents would decrease renin release?

9691

A 53-year-old woman is being treated for atrial flutter subsequent to a myocardial infarction. After commencing treatment she experiences prolonged depression, bradycardia and wheezing. Which of the following agents was the patient prescribed?

9692

Drug of choice for neurogenic diabetes insipidus is?

9693

Praziquantal is used for the treatment of

9694

Drug of choice for nasal carriers of MRSA is

9695

A-28-year-old intravenous drug user complains about severe epigastric pains, nausea and vomiting. He has upper GI endoscopy which shows small areas of ulceration and white plaques. Following is the best treatment option

9696

A 34-year-old woman who has been suffering from persistent asthma for 4 years was admitted to the emergency department because of impending respiratory failure. She was treated with oxygen, nebulized albuterol, IV theophylline, and IV hydrocortisone. A half hour later, a substantial clinical improvement was noted. Blockade of which of the following receptors most likely contributed to the bronchodilating effect of theophylline in this patient?

9697

A 30-year- old woman recently diagnosed with moderate intermittent asthma started a treatment with inhaled albuterol as needed. Which of the following effects on pulmonary function testing most likely occurred soon after drug administration?

9698

A 54-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was diagnosed with an upper respiratory tract infection, and erythromycin was prescribed. Her COPD was reasonably well controlled on oral theophylline and inhaled albuterol. Which of the following would be an appropriate change in the patient therapeutic regimen at this time?

9699

A 65-year-old man suffering from lung cancer was admitted to the hospital for a cycle of chemotherapy. After completion of the cycle, a treatment with oprelvekin was started. The therapeutic effect of the drug is most likely mediated by activation of specific receptors located mainly on which of the following cells?

9700

A 13-year-old boy suffering from acute lymphoblastic leukemia was admitted to the hospital for the third cycle of anti-cancer therapy, which included high-dose methotrexate. Which of the following drugs should be given to the patient to counteract methotrexate toxicity?

9701

A 33-year-old woman who had been unable to conceive a baby for 3 years started a controlled ovarian hyper stimulation treatment for in-vitro fertilization. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered daily to suppress the luteinizing hormone surge that could prematurely trigger ovulation?

9702

An 8-year-old boy was referred to a pediatric endocrinologist because of growth retardation. Lab tests showed increased serum growth hormone levels but very low serum levels of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). Further exams led to the diagnosis of Laron dwarfism. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for this boy?

9703

A 51-year-old woman suffering from chronic asthma was admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting, extreme restlessness, insomnia, tremor, mental confusion, and fever (103.1 degree F, 39.5 degree C). After her sister died a few days ago, she experienced increased hunger, dyspnea on exertion, palpitations, and diarrhea. Laboratory data on admission included a free thyroxine (FT4) level of 11 ng/d L (norm al 0.9−2.0 ng/d L) and undetectable thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH, thyrotropin) levels. Which of the following drugs should be included in the emergency treatment of the patient?

9704

A 44-year-old woman recently diagnosed with Graves disease started a therapy with methimazole. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the patient disease?

9705

A 50-year-old woman complained to her physician of sleepiness, fatigue, cold intolerance, weigh gain, and constipation. Medical history was significant for a reentrant supraventricular tachycardia presently treated with amiodarone and for type 2 diabetes presently treated with metformin. Further exams led to the diagnosis of mild hypothyroidism, and an adequate treatment was planned. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial therapeutic step for this patient?

9706

A 43-year-old man was admitted unconscious to the emergency department. The man had been suffering from bronchogenic carcinoma for 8 months. Vital signs on admission were blood pressure 90/50 mmHg, pulse 95 bpm, respirations 10/min. Physical examination revealed signs of increased intracranial pressure, and a computed tomography scan disclosed diffuse cerebral edema due to brain metastases. The appropriate emergency treatment of this patient should include which of the following drugs?

9707

A 40-year-old man complained to his physician that the drug he was taking caused an abnormal increase in the size of his breasts. Medical history of the patient was negative for past diseases or use of alcohol or drugs. Two weeks earlier, the man was diagnosed with bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and had started an appropriate treatment. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the adverse effect in this patient?

9708

A 63-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital because of severe thoracic pain after a fall at home. Medical history was significant for mastectomy for breast cancer 8 years ago. An X-ray showed fracture of three ribs and diffuse and advanced osteoporosis. An appropriate therapy was started that included a drug that could lead to an increase in the bone mass index and could also decrease the risk of breast cancer reactivation. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?

9709

A 10-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department with the admitting diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Further exams confirmed the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis, and a drug was given prophylactically to all the heath personnel assisting the boy. The female personnel were instructed that hormonal contraceptives were not effective when taken with the given drug; as that drug was able to significantly reduce plasma concentration of estrogens and progestins. Which of the following was most likely the drug used to prevent the infection in close contacts of this boy?

9710

A 61-year-old woman, suffering from severe osteoporosis, sustained a tibial fracture, and her physician decided to add teriparatide to the current therapy. Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of teriparatide in this patient?

9711

A 56-year-old woman complained to her physician of frequent heartburn and pain in the substernal region. The woman had started an appropriate therapy for osteoporosis 2 weeks earlier. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient symptoms?

9712

A 24-year-old obese woman in her 26th week of pregnancy was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus after a positive glucose tolerance test. She was otherwise healthy, and her past medical history was unremarkable. Dietary management failed to control the blood glucose, and her physician decided to prescribe antidiabetic therapy. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for the patient at this time?

9713

A 54-year-old man complained to his physician of an annoying dry cough over the past few days and an unexpected weight gain over the past few weeks. The patient had been suffering from type 2 diabetes for 3 years, presently controlled with a combination of oral antidiabetic agents. Physical examination showed evident peripheral edema, mild jugular venous distention, and rales on both lungs. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient signs and symptoms?

9714

A 13-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes received his morning injection of a mixture of insulin lispro and glargine. A few hours later, he was found unconscious in his room. His heart rate was 120 bpm and body temperature 94.7 degree F (34.8 degree C), and tetanic contractions of skeletal muscles were present. Which of the following would be the immediate appropriate treatment for this patient?

9715

A 59-year-old man suffering from type 2 diabetes had been receiving an oral antidiabetic therapy that included a drug that closes adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-sensitive K+ channels on pancreatic beta-cell membranes. Which of the following drugs most likely uses this mechanism of action?

9716

A 69-year-old depressed man with a 10-year history of glaucoma was admitted to the emergency department after he took several tablets of one of his medications in a suicide attempt. The patient was drowsy and complained of nausea, paresthesias, and tiredness. Physical examination revealed erythematous skin eruptions. Lab tests indicated hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. Which of the following medications might have caused the patient symptoms?

9717

A 52-year-old alcoholic man suffering from liver cirrhosis was admitted to the emergency department because of a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting, and lowers abdominal cram ps. Physical examination showed a tense abdomen with prominent veins, and 3+ ascites was noted by shifting dullness and a fluid wave. A diagnosis of ascites was made, and an appropriate therapy was started. Which of the following diuretics would be contraindicated for this patient?

9718

A 48-year-old woman presented to the clinic because of chest pain on exertion for the past 2 days. Physical examination showed a woman in no apparent distress. Physical signs were blood pressure 105/60mmHg, pulse 85 bpm, respirations 15 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation revealed a regular rhythm with no abnormal cardiac sounds or murmurs. An electrocardiogram after exercise stress testing confirmed the diagnosis of exertional angina, and therapy with sublingual nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate was started. Which of the following adverse effects would be most likely to occur in this patient?

9719

A 48-year-old man was brought to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). The man regularly used sildenafil in preparation for sexual intercourse because of an erectile dysfunction. He had recently been diagnosed with exertional angina, and he had been taking an appropriate prescribed therapy. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient MI?

9720

A 61-year-old man presented to the hospital with shortness of breath, decreased exercise capacity, and distended neck veins. The man had a history of severe hypertension currently treated with hydrochlorothiazide and captopril. Despite the treatment, his blood pressure was still 170/110. After physical examination and laboratory tests, a diagnosis of diastolic cardiac failure was made. Which of the following would be a useful drug to add to the patient’s therapeutic regimen?

9721

A 52-year-old woman suffering from hypertension still had a blood pressure of 156/92mmHg after 3 months of therapy with hydrochlorothiazide and losartan. Her physician decided to add a third drug that acts by decreasing central sympathetic outflow. Which of the following adverse effects was most likely to occur after a few days of therapy with the new drug?

9722

A 47-year-old man with a history of hypertension had been taking hydrochlorothiazide for 1 month, but his blood pressure was not controlled despite adherence to medication and nonpharmacologic measures. The patient was also trying to quit smoking without success. The physician decided to add a second drug to the therapeutic regimen that could help the patient as an adjunct to a smoking cessation program. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?

9723

A 67-year-old woman complained to her physician of frequent palpitations for the past 2 weeks. The woman had been suffering from severe asthma for 5 years and from exertional angina for 2 years. An electrocardiogram showed absence of P waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular rate. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

9724

A 20-year-old woman with recurrent sinusitis has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment she developed a severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. Sigmoidoscopy revealed colitis and pseudomembranes, were confirmed histologically. Which of the following drugs, administered orally, is most likely to be effective in the treatment of colitis due to Clostridium difficile?

9725

A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of right upper quadrant abdominal pain. On examination, he has significant right upper quadrant tenderness as well as fever up to 101 degree F and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. Blood cultures reveal Klebsiella. You decide to start the patient on a combination of two medications-one drug to treat the infection and the second drug to prevent inactivation of the first drug in the renal tubules. Which is the first drug?

9726

A 64-year-old man with a history of mitral regurgitation presents to the emergency room with a temperature of 102.5 degree F over the last 3 days. Physical examination is significant for a loud systolic murmur at the apex as well as the presence of splinter hemorrhages on several nail beds. Blood cultures are drawn and he is started on antibiotics. Given his antibiotic regimen, he needs to be carefully monitored for renal failure. Which antibiotic is this?

9727

A 54-year-old HIV positive man arrives at your clinic. His mother was just hospitalized 2 days ago for fevers and a productive cough with sputum that demonstrated acid-fast bacteria. He reports no concerning symptoms and her physical examination is unremarkable. Given the history of mother, you decide to place the man on a prophylactic pharmacologic regimen to prevent active tuberculosis?

9728

A 30-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of eye pain over the last week. Besides eye pain, he also reports to you that he has noticed transient spots in the center of his visual fields and that he feels as if he is unable to see as well as he used to. His medical history is significant for active tuberculosis, for which he has been taking several medications for the past 3 weeks. You tell the patient that you believe his symptoms are related to one of the medications that he is taking to treat his tuberculosis?

9729

A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatric clinic by her mother, who states that the child has been experiencing hair loss over the last week. The child has no systemic symptoms. On physical examination, you find several ring-shaped lesions with raised papules along its rim and notable alopecia near the lesions. There is no sign of inflammation at the lesions and the child denies pruritus. You begin the patient on oral treatment with a medication that interferes with microtubule function?

9730

A 44-year-old man with a history of chronic hepatitis C reports that he has been feeling more fatigued than usual. Laboratory studies demonstrate a detectable HCV viral load as well as elevated ALT and AST levels. The patient states that he has been taking his ribavirin as instructed. After confirming the patient viral genotype, you decide to prescribe a medication that is often given as part of combination therapy with ribavirin for the treatment of chronic HCV?

9731

A 32-year-old male physician from Paris, is planning to participate in a medical conference to india. In addition to a hepatitis vaccine, he wishes to take prophylactic medications for other serious illnesses that he may encounter. You advised him a medication that will serve as chemoprophylaxis for malaria. It should start 1 week before and it should be continued for?

9732

While on a rural health mission, you come across a group of villagers camped by a river, all of whom are suffering from the same ailment. Some of these children have infections in the areas of their eyes and they tell you that they feel extremely itchy. You note that all of these children exhibit disfiguring skin nodules over the surfaces of their body. You immediately give this medication to these children in hopes of preventing blindness that acts via influx of chloride ions, thereby leading to worm paralysis?

9733

Dr. Ram requests your help in prescribing a protease inhibitor for his patient. He has heard that not all agents are the same and asks for your recommendation as to which agent would penetrate the blood-brain barrier. Which agent would you recommend?

9734

Which of the following drugs is used as nail lacquer for onychomycosis:

9735

At a high altitude of 3000 m, a person complains of breathlessness and headache. Which of the following can be used for management of this person:

9736

Antidiabetic drug not required dose adjustment in a patient of diabetes having chronic renal disease is:

9737

2nd line anti-TB drugs is:

9738

Which of the following is best to give to newborn for 6 weeks for preventing the vertical transmission of HIV:

9739

The salivary glands are:

9740

The feature of skeletal muscle cell is all except:

9741

The collagen fiber in smooth muscle is:

9742

The surgical neck of the humerus is related to:

9743

The axilla contains all of the following except:

9744

The branch of second part of axillary artery is:

9745

The brachial plexus has:

9746

The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the:

9747

Lymphatics from medial zone of the breast drain into the:

9748

The nerve supply of trapezius muscle is:

9749

Paralysis of Deltoid muscle causes:

9750

The action of Latissimusdorsi:

9751

Triangle of auscultation is associated with all of the following except:

9752

The cubital fossa contains all of the following except:

9753

Structures crossing superficial to flexor retinaculum:

9754

The dermatome of middle finger is:

9755

The muscle of arm having two nerve supply is:

9756

The musician nerve is:

9757

The corocoid process of scapula gives attachment to all except:

9758

The MCP joint is:

9759

The false rib is:

9760

The intercostals nerve is a branch of:

9761

Superior intercostals artery is a branch of:

9762

The opening in central tendon of diaphragm transmits:

9763

The right costo-phrenic line of reflection extends upto the level of which rib in mid axillary line?

9764

The hilum of right lung is arched by:

9765

The bronchial artery supplies lung unto:

9766

Which bronchopulmonary segment is absent in left lung?

9767

All are true about atrioventricular groove except:

9768

The posterior surface of heart is formed by:

9769

The upper part of crista terminalis contains:

9770

The coronary dominance is determined by:

9771

The arterial supply of ventral 2/3rd of interventricular septum of heart is:

9772

True about coronary sinus:

9773

Oesophagus is present in all except:

9774

Attachment of Sibson fascia is at vertebra:

9775

All are true about vertebral column curvature except:

9776

Which of the following structure is not present in left ventricle?

9777

The vein open directly into right atrium is:

9778

The membranatectoria is derived from:

9779

The muscle of tidal expiration is:

9780

Which fascia form the posterior wall of femoral sheath:

9781

All are the content of femoral sheath except:

9782

The nerve supply of long head of biceps femoris is:

9783

Saphenous nerve is a branch of:

9784

The first web space of toes is supplied by:

9785

The Clergyman knee is:

9786

The largest branch of lumber plexus is:

9787

The muscle which can both flex the hip and extend the knee is:

9788

The nerve of lateral compartment of leg is:

9789

The pesanserinus includes following three muscle except:

9790

In walking hip bone of suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscle acting on the supported side of the body:

9791

The crural joint is on example of:

9792

The dermatone of big toe is:

9793

True about the deltoid ligament of ankle joint:

9794

Injury to which nerve would result in foot drop:

9795

The hip flexion is done by all except:

9796

Which structure lies deepest in the popliteal fossa?

9797

The peripheral heart is:

9798

The longest muscle in the body is:

9799

The lateral umbilical fold of peritoneum is produced by which structure:

9800

The content of rectus sheath are all except:

9801

The inferior pencreaticoduodenum artery is a branch of:

9802

All are the anterior visceral branches of abdominal aorta except:

9803

The right middle suprarenal vein open into:

9804

All are primary retroperitoneal organ except:

9805

The lesser omentum connect:

9806

At the time of puberty the capacity of stomach is:

9807

The chief cells of are present in which part of gastric glands:

9808

The length of jejunum is:

9809

The cardinal feature of large intestine are all except:

9810

The blood supply of gall bladder is by cystic artery, branch from:

9811

The portal vein formed at:

9812

According to Courad classification the 1st segment of liver is:

9813

All are the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery except:

9814

The pericentral zone of liver acinus is more prone to:

9815

The transpyloric plane lies at:

9816

The uretic constrictions are present at all except:

9817

The number of nephron in each kidney:

9818

The white pulp is present in:

9819

The foramen ovale transmit all except

9820

Scaphocephaly is an early closer of

9821

All of the following are pneumatic bones except

9822

The skin at angle of jaw is supplied by

9823

Which suprahyoid muscle is supplied by both facial nerve and mandibularnerve

9824

False about sternocleidomastoid muscle is

9825

The common carotid artery divides at the level of

9826

All of the following are branches of external carotid artery except

9827

All are the tributeries of cavernous sinus except

9828

Taste from circumvallate papillae of tongue goes through

9829

True about parotid gland are all except

9830

Which of the following structure is seen in Nasopharynx

9831

The Killian dehiscence is in

9832

The safety muscle of larynx is

9833

During thyroid surgery, a nerve coursing along with the superior thyroid artery is injured. What can be the possible consequences?

9834

How many anterior ethmoidal air sinuses are

9835

The little area is

9836

Muscle which opens mouth is

9837

The nerve of third pharyngeal arch is

9838

Thymus develops from

9839

The diameter of neurofilament is:

9840

All are bipolar neuron except:

9841

The neurilema is a component of:

9842

The upper motor neuron lesion present with all except:

9843

The development of central nervous system appears at ______ of intrauterine life:

9844

All are neural crest derivatives except:

9845

During CNS development the cervical flexure presents in between:

9846

The CSF from lateral ventricle to 3rd ventricle moves via which foramen?

9847

The cervical enlargement in spinal cord is present in which spinal segments:

9848

The substatiagelatinosa is present in which Raxed lamina of spinal cord:

9849

The pain and Temperature sensation is carried out by which tract:

9850

The cranial nerve attached at ventro-lateral sulas of medulla oblandata is/are:

9851

The frontal eye field corresponds to which Brodmann number:

9852

The most abundant cerebral cortex is:

9853

The paleostriatum include:

9854

The blood supply to temporal pole cerebral hemisphese is by:

9855

On day 25 of intrauterine life which pharyngeal arch is not appear:

9856

The nerve of second pharyngeal arch is:

9857

The unilateral cleft lip appear due to the failure of the fusion of:

9858

The somite develops from:

9859

A 40 years old female Vimla, presented with road traffic accident with brief loss of consciousness. Fatigue, pallor and weakness on general examination. She was also having mild jaundice and gall stones. Massive hepatosplenomegaly with hypersplenism was also found. On skull radiography widening of diploic spaces was found. On previous history she was reported to have failure to thrive in early childhood, growth retardation, and delayed puberty. Other findings are leg ulcer and skin bronzing. After the RTA she is having headache and also presenting with lucid interval, nausea, vomiting focal neurological deficits. On plain X-ray skull fracture is visible and on CT scan hyperdense biconvex opacity is visible on temporal region. What is your single best diagnosis for current presentation?

9860

In adults, lumbar puncture is done at?

9861

Handle bar palsy occurs due to compression of which nerve?

9862

In given MRI image identify the marked structure?

9863

Superior, inferior and facial colliculus are indicated respectively as?

9864

Identify the long head of biceps?

9865

Grave yard of ulnar nerve is?

9866

Identify the ligaments?

9867

Ulnar nerve test is

9868

Given below image is 3 dimensional CT imaging of arterial supply of lower limb. Identify the posterior tibial artery?

9869

Identify the spinal segment

9870

In shown clinical disease which of the following cells are damaged in Spinal cord

9871

A patient visited the OPD with following symptom. Which nerve is damaged

9872

Following clinical situation occurs due to

9873

Indicated clinical condition is known as

9874

Indicated test is for

9875

Point of maximum tenderness in acute appendicitis is

9876

Extra rib present above 1st rib and below 12th rib are known as

9877

All of the following are example of left to right shunt except

9878

Identify the marked structure?

9879

An allosteric enzyme influences the enzymes activity by:

9880

The repeating unit in hyaluronic acid is:

9881

Newborn with severe acidosis and vomiting has elevated serum levels of lactate and alanine. This suggests a deficiency in which enzyme?

9882

A patient has been exposed to a toxic compound that increases the permeability of mitochondrial membranes for protons. Which of the following events in liver cells would you expect to occur?

9883

In Galactosemia the Cataract is due to the production of

9884

Some amino acids are termed non-essential as they:

9885

An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following?

9886

All of the following are associated with formation of methaemoglobinaemia, except:

9887

The sulphur containing side chain of cystine is

9888

Hopkins-Cole test is for identification of

9889

A membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is

9890

Which of the following not participate in the synthesis of fatty acids?

9891

Chylomicrons core is formed by?

9892

A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is:

9893

Following enzymes are used in DNA synthesis are all except

9894

Which of the following statement describing restriction endonuclease is true

9895

Beta alanine is an end product of

9896

Which coenzyme is not involved in oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid?

9897

Increased carbohydrate consumption increases the dietary requirement for:

9898

A vitamin K which is obtained from plants is

9899

All are toxigenic diseases caused by Staph aureus except

9900

Tetanus and botulinum toxins acts by preventing release of

9901

A young child in Yemen was brought to a hospital with history of seven episodes of acute watery diarrhea, sunken fontanelles and decreased skin turgor. Which media will you choose for transport and enrichment

9902

All are correct except

9903

A letter suspected to contain white powder was sent to National Centre for Disease Control under triple layer packaging. What is your clinical suspicion, what are you expecting to see in Gram stain and which media will you use for culture?

9904

All are correct except

9905

A 45 year old female with dyspepsia, allergic to Clarithomycin, came after a positive urea breath test. What would you prescribe?

9906

All are correct antigens except

9907

Principle cytokine in Gram negative sepsis

9908

All are correct drugs of choice in pregnancy except

9909

All are correct except

9910

All are viral haemorrhagic fever except

9911

Black fever and black water fever are seen in

9912

Which of the following is incorrect

9913

All are correct about the Trichophyton, Trichuris, Trichosporon, Trichomonas except

9914

Protoplast and spheroplast

9915

All are correct except

9916

All are correct except:

9917

Identify:

9918

All are correct diseases for advice to international travelers except

9919

Mallory Denk bodies seen in alcoholic liver disease is formed of intermediate filaments:

9920

Most important adhesion molecule for diapedesis:

9921

Hallmark of wound healing is:

9922

Glomerulonephritis seen in systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of hypersensitivity reaction:

9923

Most commonly amyloidosis is seen in:

9924

Red or hemorrhagic infarct are seen in:

9925

Most common paraneoplastic syndrome seen is:

9926

Oncoprotein E6 human papilloma virus causes carcinogenesis by inactivating gene:

9927

Inheritance of a functional allele from one parent is called:

9928

Cri-du-chat syndrome is due to:

9929

Caplan syndrome is co-existence of pneumoconiosis with:

9930

Out of the following vessel least commonly affected in atherosclerosis is:

9931

Which of the endocarditis has vegetation on both sides of the valves?

9932

In hemochromatosis type of cardiomyopathy seen is:

9933

Earliest finding on electron microscopy in Alport syndrome is:

9934

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is due to infection by:

9935

All chromosomal location are correctly matched except:

9936

Definitive diagnosis of malignant pheochromocytoma is based on the presence of:

9937

Mucosal neuromas and marfanoid habitus are seen in:

9938

Increased vascularity and glomeruloid body formation is seen in astrocytoma:

9939

IFN-alfa is used in treatment of

9940

Which anti-depressant drug also possesses anti-obesity action?

9941

Which tobacco dependence treatment drug is Risk for seizure patient?

9942

Which antibiotics work on bacterial outer cell membrane structure in gram negatives?

9943

Following drugs are protease inhibitors exception:

9944

Which type of conjugation of IFNs have a longer lifetime in the circulation?

9945

Which 5HT drug use in depression?

9946

Which drug possesses highest dependence liability?

9947

Which prostanoids use in primary pulmonary hypertension?

9948

Following drugs are used in pruritus disease exception:

9949

Which neuromuscular blocking drugs possess Hypotension side effect?

9950

Which of the following is/are antiplatelet drugs?

9951

Following drug used in myocardial ischemia exception:

9952

Which is phosphodiesterase V inhibitor?

9953

Which diuretic compete with aldosterone?

9954

Which drug used in hyperthyroidism?

9955

Nicotinic acid lipid lowering property produced by which receptor activation?

9956

Following are statins action exception:

9957

Which hypoglycaemic drug class possesses neutral action on weight?

9958

Which antidiabetic drug effect only if Beta cells are functional in pancreases?

9959

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) in megaloblastic anemia is:

9960

Red cell distribution width (RDW) is used for estimation of:

9961

Red cell distribution width (RDW) is increased in all of the following except:

9962

Six year old child is having increasing pallor and diagnosed as having lead poisoning. On peripheral blood examination following picture is seen. Identify the intracellular inclusion:

9963

24 years old female had spherocytes in the peripheral blood and direct coomb test is positive, next line of management is:

9964

Which of the following conditions is associated with Coomb positive hemolytic anemia:

9965

On peripheral blood film following cell is seen. It can seen in the following:

9966

Type of RBC seen in this peripheral blood film is called:

9967

Type of RBC seen in this peripheral blood film is called:

9968

A 59 year old man with a history of coronary artery disease and a severe mitral regurgitation has surgery to replace his mitral valve. Post operatively there were no complications until 6 months after the surgery when he presented with increasing fatigue. Workup finds a normocytic normochromic anemia that is due to fragmentation of RBCs by his artificial heart valves. Which of the following abnormality is indicative of intravascular hemolysis and is most likely to be seen in peripheral blood film of this patient?

9969

Anemia characterized by increased RBCs production is:

9970

5 year old child complains of repeated pain in limbs. On examination of peripheral blood following picture is seen. It is suggestive of:

9971

10 year old girl presents with fatigue and tingling sensation from last one month. On examination pallor is present and peripheral blood film is given below. It can be seen in:

9972

An alcoholic presents with diarrhea and weight loss. He states he drinks alcohol and eats fast food burgers as his main dietary intake. Blood tests show anemia and a mean corpuscle volume of 130fl. Which of the following is most likely?

9973

What vitamin deficiency is associated with pernicious anemia, Bacterial overgrowth syndromes. Gastrectomy, ileal resection, achlorohydria and chronic pancreatitis?

9974

Earliest neurological sign of megaloblastic anemia is:

9975

A premature baby suffers from necrotizing enterocolitis and undergoes surgery to remove the ischemic terminal ileum. As this baby matures, which of the following is most likely to occur?

9976

All are true about anemia of chronic inflammation except:

9977

Red cell protoporphyrin levels are increased in all of the following except

9978

Child presented with microcytic hypochromic anemia with normal levels of RBC protoporphyrin. Most likely diagnosis is:

9979

All of the following are helpful in differentiating iron deficiency anemia from anemia of chronic inflammation except

9980

Iron is transferred across the intestinal epithelial cells by:

9981

All of the following features can be seen in aplastic anemia except:

9982

Patient was diagnosed as a case of macrocytic anemia. On biochemical studies, there is homocystinuria and normal methylmalonate level. Therapy for this:

9983

In all anemia ESR is increased except in:

9984

In alpha Thalassemia trait there is deletion of α globin chains:

9985

NESTROF test (Naked Eye Single Tube Red cell Osmotic Fragility Test) is used for screening of:

9986

All of the following are the features of thalassemia major except:

9987

Most common cause of death in thalassemia major is due to:

9988

In beta Thalassemia there is

9989

All of the following red cell enzyme deficiency are inherited as autosomal recessive except:

9990

All are the features of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria except:

9991

Gold standard for diagnosis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is:

9992

Eculizumab, C5 convertase inhibitor is used as a treatment in

9993

4 year old child presented with history of fever, petechial spots and fatigue. There is presence of pallor, hepatosplenogaly and sternal tenderness. Most likely diagnosis:

9994

4 year old male child presents with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and petechial rash over body. Most likely it is suggestive of:

9995

Most common cytogenetic change in acute lymphoblastic leukemia is:

9996

All are good prognostic factors in acute lymphoblastic leukemia except:

9997

Conditions which can cause acute myeloid leukemia include all except

9998

Investigation of choice to diagnosis chronic lymphocytic leukemia is:

9999

Sea blue histocytes or pseudo Gaucher cells are seen in:

10000

Patient presents with abdominal lymphoadenoapthy Immunophenotype is CD22+, CD5+ and CD23 negative. Translocation present is 11:14. Most likely diagnosis is:

10001

Following X-ray of skull is indicative:

10002

In multiple myeloma all of the following features are seen:

10003

In multiple myeloma, higher value of serum Beta2 microglobulin is:

10004

Intrapulmonary haemorrhage or intracranial haemorrhage is seen in acute myeloid leukemia type:

10005

Increased incidence of atypical mycobacterial infection is seen in

10006

Most specific marker for the diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia is:

10007

Most common type Hodgkins lymphoma seen in HIV infection is

10008

Lymphocytic and histocytic variant of Reed Sternberg cells are positive for:

10009

Popcorn appearance of Reed Sternberg cell is seen in Hodgkin lymphoma type:

10010

All of the following are true about Reed-Sternberg cell except:

10011

A 15 year old boy had arthritis as shown. His maternal uncle also had similar disease. Which type of inheritance it is?

10012

Prolongation of both prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time suggests deficiency of clotting factor

10013

In thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura:

10014

Drug Eltrombopag is used for:

10015

All of the following are seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura except:

10016

All are features of disseminated intravascular coagulation except:

10017

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is associated with all of the following obstetrical complication except

10018

Most severe form of Von Willibrand disease is:

10019

Identify the following fracture

10020

Identify the fracture

10021

Identify the following pathology

10022

Identify the following device

10023

Most common bone to undergo non union is

10024

Skin traction requires the following

10025

Identify the deformity: This type of deformity is most commonly seen in

10026

The following fracture is commonly seen in which age group

10027

Identify the pathology

10028

Most commonly injured nerve in such kinds of fracture is

10029

Identify the following pathology

10030

The following type of fractures are seen in

10031

The following device is used for

10032

Identify the amputation

10033

Identify the following amputation

10034

Identify the test being performed

10035

Identify the deformity caused

10036

Mechanism of the foece which causes the following fracture is

10037

Identify the associated pathology

10038

The following is the commonest elbow fracture:

10039

The following is the commonest bone in the upper limb to fracture at birth:

10040

The commonest method for reduction of the shoulder is:

10041

The following tumour shows a soap bubble appearance:

10042

Acute osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by the following:

10043

The following is the commonest Primary malignant tumour arising from bone producing cells:

10044

The worst complication of chronic osteomyelitis is:

10045

Identify the pathology

10046

Fish tail sign is seen in fractures around

10047

The following cast is used for fracture of which bone

10048

Most common cancer having bone to bone spread is

10049

Identify the marker(s) of bone formation

10050

Bone predominantly contains

10051

Most common primary organ for bone secondaries is

10052

Identify the pathology

10053

Caspar criterion is used for

10054

The following sign is seen in

10055

The following device is

10056

Identify the pathology

10057

Identify the test

10058

Identify the following pathology

10059

Identify the pathology

10060

Most common pattern seen in tuberculosis is

10061

The classification system used is

10062

Identify the pathology

10063

Identify the pathology

10064

Identify the device

10065

Identify the pathology

10066

The following typical appearance on microscopy  is seen in

10067

Club foot is common in

10068

Lasegue test is performed in

10069

Rolando fracture: pick incorrect

10070

Clinical feature of anorexia nervosa may include

10071

Active Principle in cannabis is

10072

A 42-year-old man says that his roommates in his hostel are spying on him by listening to him through television sets. For this reason he has changed room number of times in past 4 years. He also believes that a few of them want to kill him. He dresses strangely, has poor grooming and talks to himself. He says he was not able to talk to the doctor as he was listening to Modi ji talking to him in his head. The symptoms indicate that the patient is most likely suffering from

10073

A 34-year-old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past 10 years. On evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty. On examination he had shallow breathing, constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?

10074

Mania is characterized by all of the following except

10075

A 21 year Mr Pankaj complaining since last 3 months that his neighbours are plotting to kill him. He hears voices discussing about him. He had been repeatedly assured by family members that there is no such problem but he strongly believes all these things. Most likely diagnosis is:

10076

Morbid jealousy is most often seen in patients taking

10077

Cataplexy is characterized by

10078

pseodologia fantastica is characteristically seen in

10079

Sonu, a 5-year-old boy was referred for psychiatric evaluation by a school teacher who reported that Sonu was unable to follow direction, did not communicate well with his classmate and was hyperactive, aggressive. On psychiatric evaluation, it was found that his language skills were poor for his age, I.Q. was 105. His social skills were marked by deficits-in responding facially to the effect of examiner or playing in reciprocally. He appeared to be preoccupied with pendulum clock hanging in the office. The most likely diagnosis is

10080

A 45-year-old woman believed she had no brain, nerves, chest and intestine, that neither God nor the devil exists and she is eternal. This is

10081

A 60 year old man presented to emergency with severe alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the form of tremulousness of body parts, nausea, transient tactile, auditory hallucinations and anxiety. There is no time to carry out investigations even liver function tests. The most appropriate Rx is

10082

A 19-year-old man is brought to emergency by volunteer by homeless shelter. The man claims that he cannot remember who he is. He says that he found himself in Lucknow but he cannot remember where he comes from, the circumstance of his trip, or any other information about his trip. He has neither identification nor money but he has but ticket from Delhi. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

10083

Forgetting whatever was once part of our conscious mind but no longer is: which defense mechanism?

10084

Attachment of a female child sexual interest primarily to her father, accompanied by aggressive feelings towards her mother is called

10085

All of the following are impulse control disorder EXCEPT

10086

Bright Light therapy is used in Treatment of

10087

A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with a temperature of 1010F and a large suppurating ulcer on her left shoulder. This is the third such episode for this woman. Her physical exam is otherwise normal, other than the presence of multiple scars on her abdomen. The woman is admitted to the hospital and is observed to be holding her thermometer next to the light bulb to heat it up. When confronted, she angrily denies any such behaviour and signs out of the hospital against medical advice. The patient most likely has which of the following diagnosis?

10088

Child not eating vegetable. His mother starts giving chocolate each time he finishes vegetables in the diet. The condition is

10089

A medical student finds it hard to follow a patient train of thought because he gives very long, complicated explanations and much unnecessary detail before finally answering the original questions. In his report, the medical student writes that the patient displayed:

10090

A female of lower socioeconomic status believes that film actor Shahrukh Khan is in love with her. Whenever she watches his movie, she feels that he is inclined towards her and keeps sending love messages. The diagnosis is

10091

All of the following are features of hallucination, except

10092

Which of the following features differentiates dependence from other forms of substance abuse

10093

A 24-year-old a woman comes to you with C/O that my stomach is rotting out from the inside. She states that for the last 6 months she has been crying on a daily and she also report sadness of mood, lack of interest and that she has lost 10 kg during that time. She is wakes up early in the morning. For the past weeks, she has become convinced that she is dying of cancer and is rotting on the inside of her body. She also complaints of hearing voice calling her name for past 2 weeks when no one is around. Diagnosis is

10094

A 20-year-old boy was all right 2 days back. Since then he feels that people are abusing him and he c/o hearing of faint voices when no one around, aggressive behaviour since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. He has no past history of any such episode. Family members also reported that he has been muttering to self. Likely diagnosis is

10095

Pseudodementia is commonly seen in

10096

Which part of brain is involved in narcolepsy

10097

After witnessing a violent argument between her parents, a young woman develops sudden blindness, but does not appear as distraught as would be expected by this development. Her pupils react normally to light, and she manages to somehow avoid obstacles when walking. Her parents, who are in middle of bitter divorce, put aside their difference to focus on their daughter illness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10098

A schizophrenic patient has a history of multiple relapses caused by non-compliance with his antipsychotic medication. Which is the best option for treating this type of patient?

10099

Which medication is used for treatment of nicotine dependence

10100

Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) of brain is used in treatment of

10101

Following are positive features of Schizophrenia except

10102

A 17–year–old boy is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What is the risk that one of his siblings will develop the disease?

10103

A 30-year-old man for last 6 months believes that his wife and boss have an affair, he also thinks that his friend is also involved in this and he provides them support. Otherwise he is wearing good clothes and shining shoes and his interaction with the people is normal

10104

A man feels that his nose is too long; friends feel otherwise. He is consulted 3 plastic surgeons but all have refused to treat him. He suffers from what conditions?

10105

The following is suggestive of an organic cause of the behavioural symptoms

10106

Best drug to treat depression is

10107

A patient c/o sadness of mood, lack of interest, crying spells, pessimistic view of future, lethargy, sleep disturbances and feels that he has committed sins though out life, he contemplated about suicide but has not thought how to do it, he also consulted his spiritual guru. What is the best treatment to this patient

10108

Early morning awakening is seen characteristically in:

10109

A 28-year-old taxi driver is chronically consumed by fears of having accidentally run over a pedestrian. Although he tries to convince himself that his worries are silly, his anxiety continues to mount until he drives back to the scene of the accident and proves to himself that nobody lies hurt in the street. This behaviour is an example of which of the following?

10110

Best treatment for obsessive compulsive neurosis is

10111

Flooding is type of behaviour therapy used in treatment of

10112

A 56-year-old man is brought to the physician clinic by his wife because she has noted a personality change in the past 3 months. While the patient is being interviewed, he answers every questions with the same three words. Which of the following symptoms best fits this patient behaviour?

10113

A 25-year-old female was brought to the casualty after she allegedly attempted suicide, her wrists are slashed. She has a past h/o difficulty in maintaining interpersonal relationships and also recurrent mood function episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10114

An attractive and well–dressed 22-year-old woman is arrested for prostitution, but on being booked at the jail, she is found to actually be a male. The patient tells the consulting physician that he is a female trapped in a male body and he has felt that way since he was a child. He has been taking female hormones and is attempting to find a surgeon who would remove his male genitals and create a vagina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

10115

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the psychiatrist because he has difficulty paying attention in school. He fidgets and squirms and will not stay seated in class. At home he is noted to talk excessively and has difficulty waiting for his turn. His language and motor skills are appropriate for his age. Which of the following is most likely this child diagnosis?

10116

A young male is started on high-potency anti-psychotics medication (i.e. injectable Haloperidol of 5 mg twice a day), patient develops tongue protrusion and impaired swallowing, Rx is

10117

First ranks symptoms of Schneider for schizophrenia include all except:

10118

Cause of premature death in schizophrenia?

10119

Vidaan, a 45-year-old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaining of continuous, dull, non-progressive headache for the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerus neurologists in the belief that he has a brain tumor even though all his investigations have been normal. The patient insisted that he had brain tumor and requested yet another workup. Psychiatry evaluation reveals disease conviction in the background of normal investigations. The most probable diagnosis is

10120

Identify the Morphology of Skin lesion shown in Photograph:

10121

What are these lines called?

10122

Which of the following stages have longest duration in hair cycle:

10123

A 23-year-old female patient who gave birth to a baby 4 months back presented with severe diffuse hair fall for last 1 month. Most likely diagnosis is?

10124

An 8-year-old child present with localized with non-scarringalopecia over scalp as shown below. What is the next investigation that should be done?

10125

A 25 year old girl presented with following clinical presentation. What is the best course of treatment?

10126

A patient presented with the following lesions on the nails. What is the next blood test that can be done?

10127

Regarding this disease, all are true except:

10128

The disease shown in the image below is due to involvement of:

10129

A 24-year-old man has these lesions on face. The drug of choice for treatment:

10130

Common complication associated with the condition shown in the image?

10131

A 3 months old male infant developed otitis media.A few days later, he developed extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions. The most likely diagnosis is:

10132

The Wood lamp examination of a lesion in axilla is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

10133

A young adult presents with hypopigmented scaling macules over the back as seen in the following Image. Causative agent is:

10134

A farmer presented with lesion as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

10135

Identify the arthropod shown in image?

10136

A 5 year old girl with lesions since 3 months. What is the diagnosis?

10137

A Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

10138

Child presents with fever and pleomorphic rash as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

10139

A 5 year old child presented with multiple ulcers with violaceous margins and discharging sinuses in neck. What is diagnosis?

10140

A case of Leprosy on multidrug therapy develops lesions. Treatment of choice is:

10141

A 23-year-old male presented with a painless ulcer on the penis. What is the diagnosis?

10142

Treatment of choice for the condition shown in the image is?

10143

Identify the condition shown in the image:

10144

A 25 year old female came with chief complaint of vaginal discharge with lower abdominal pain and tenderness, which colour kit will you prescribe to her:

10145

Identify the phenomenon shown in the image:

10146

A patient was treated with steroids for Psoriasis. On stopping the treatment, he develops fever and pustular lesions on body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

10147

Patient presented with lesions as shown in the image, later patient also developed arthritis. Treatment?

10148

All are seen in this condition except?

10149

Which of the following nail deformity is pathognomic for lichen planus?

10150

A person develops lesions on exposure to sun, following exercise, under the clothes. What is the probable diagnose is?

10151

Which disease has the DIF pattern shown in the image below?

10152

A newborn child presents with history of recurrent blistering of    hands and feet. His father also gives similar history. The diagnosis is:

10153

A 30 year old woman with multiple episodes of GTCS was prescribed phenytoin. After 7 days he presents with a single skin lesion on her arm as shown below. What    is the diagnosis?

10154

Identify the below condition which is present from birth:

10155

A patient presented with the following lesion. What is the diagnosis?

10156

A 25-yr man C/O recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:

10157

An 8 year old girl presented with hypo pigmented scaly lesions on face. What is the diagnosis?

10158

A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous popular lesions on face, neck, V area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75 percent in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:

10159

A male child with cryptorchidism presents with large black scales on body flexures, as shown in picture Probable diagnosis is:

10160

Cutaneous horn as shown in the image is associated with which of the following skin cancer?

10161

The lesion shown below is seen in:

10162

Identify the malformation shown in Photograph:

10163

The following lesion appears on the cheek of a patient, suffering from ulcerative colitis. What is the diagnosis?

10164

The given condition is caused due to deficiency of which of the following?

10165

Identify the lesion in the image:

10166

Identify the condition shown in the image:

10167

A7 years old child (see picture) comes with light to dark brown freckles over face, with photosensitivity and dry skin. The diagnosis is:

10168

Identify the Dermatological test shown in Photograph:

10169

What is the diagnosis of this asymptomatic lesion showing the image below?

10170

Ranula most commonly arises from:

10171

Cystic hygroma:

10172

Sternomastoid tumour:pick correct

10173

In a patient suffering from buerger disease. On exercise ABPI _____

10174

In pregnancy, changes associated with raynaud syndrome

10175

Sapehnous vein pierces ______ fascia to join femoral vein

10176

Name the following investigation

10177

Identify the following typical appearance

10178

Major trauma is defined as an injury severity score of ________

10179

A 48 year old electrician falls from first floor of a house and develops difficulty in breathing. He is taken to hospital immediately, where a primary survey is done by the attending clinicians, and a diagnosis is immediately established. Most likely cause of death in cases presenting with this clinical condition is

10180

A 26 year old male presented to surgery emergency with alleged history of assault by unidentified miscreants. Identify the injury/injuries based on contrast studies:

10181

32 year old auto rickshaw driver presented to surgery opd with history of sustain pelvic fracture in a road side accident, which of the following should be avoided in management of the patient:

10182

Appendectomy in acute appendicitis produces a wound of which type:

10183

Name the artery

10184

Panda eye: pick correct

10185

The fracture depicted below is

10186

Massive blood transfusion may cause:

10187

Gynaecomastia commonly is seen in

10188

Pathological nipple discharge is:

10189

Male breast cancer: pick correct

10190

Beneficial effects of Tamoxifen include:

10191

Carcinoma breast in pregnancy : Radiotherapy is done during

10192

DCIS is diagnosed most frequently by:

10193

Contra-indications of breast conservation surgery

10194

Van Nuys Prognostic Index (VNPI) is used for

10195

Structures preserved in  extended mastectomy include all except:

10196

A 56 year old female patient suffering from carcinoma breast has enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes. Histopathological examination revealed presence of carcinoma. Lowest possible stage of the disease is

10197

Early breast carcinoma is

10198

A 46 year old patient underwent screening mammography, which shows extensive micro calcification. Biopsy from the area confirmed the presence of DCIS, come do type. Management is:

10199

Most common method of autologous reconstruction in a patient undergoing reconstructive surgery is:

10200

Chest wall fixity includes all of the following except

10201

A women presents with history of chronic non healing rash involving her left nipple. Rest of the general physical examination and local examination were found to be unremarkable. Mammography was advised, which did not turn out to be informative. Next step in management shall be

10202

A 52 year old female patient suffering from carcinoma breast has clinical involvement of both level 1 and level II axillary nodes. However both are mobile. Contralateral breast and axilla are found to be normal. Highest possible stage of the disease is

10203

Identify the pathology: Patient presented with a lump in the hypogastrium. On palpation, a soft fluctuant lump was noticed. On Percussion, a zone of dullness was found surrounded by a zone of hyper-resonance. Likely diagnosis:

10204

Most common clinical feature of the following condition is

10205

Iodine -131: pick incorrect

10206

Which of the following are in-correctly matched: preferred mode of spread

10207

Pick correct statement:

10208

Anaplastic carcinoma: most common site of metastasis is:

10209

Thyroid cyst: require surgery if it is more than

10210

Thyroid storm: all are used in management except:

10211

Name the following position:

10212

A child of 5 years has multiple abscesses-cone-shaped, with infected fluid pockets in the center. Long sub-acute course. This state is MOST characteristic of?

10213

The child has redness and swelling around the nail fold. At the edge of the nail, there is pus under the skin. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

10214

32 years old patient has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear black and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. Most likely the burns are?

10215

A 44 year old fire safety officer sustained an inhalation injury, has been wheezing. After a few hours wheezes are no longer heard. What is the best action?

10216

Which of the following suture has best strength and minimal tissue reaction?

10217

Catgut suture  from bovine source is derived from which layer

10218

Analyze the following CT findings. The patient suffers from:

10219

A 28-year-old woman is an unrestrained driver in a motor vehicle crash. She has stable vital signs and left upper quadrant tenderness without signs of peritonitis. Select the most appropriate next step in management of the abdominal pain?

10220

A 21-year-old man is taken to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the right side of his chest. The first wound is located 2 cm lateral to the right nipple, and a second wound is present just medial to the tip of the right scapula. Vital signs on initial evaluation are a heart rate of 126 beats/min and a systolic blood pressure of 88 mm Hg. A right-sided chest tube is placed, with return of 1200 mL of blood. He is resuscitated with 2 L of lactated Ringer solution, and his vital signs return to within normal limits. His chest tube output is rechecked 4 hours later, and the total amount in the collection container is 2300 mL. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

10221

A 50-year-old man is undergoing partial hepatectomy for secondary metastasis. The operation proceeded smoothly for the first couple of hours, after which the surgical team noticed unusual bleeding in the form of oozing from all the wound sites. The patient has two intravenous cannula sites through one of which he is on his first unit of blood. What could have happened?

10222

Most common cause of retroperitoneal fibrosis is

10223

Urgent surgical intervention is required in

10224

Identify the following typical finding developing 24-48 hours after trauma. Likely diagnosis:

10225

Most common cause of lymphedema is

10226

Subclavian steal syndrome : obstruction commonly occurs at

10227

A 48 year old construction worker presented to surgery emergency with history of sustaining head injury after he had a fall from a high ladder. He was immediately rushed to the hospital. Upon admission his GCS was found to be 12. NCCT confirmed the presence of an extra dural hematoma. Management of the patient should include all except:

10228

A 44 year old motorist sustained high speed collision. He was wearing a seat belt and his car air bags deployed on time. But his head banged against the metal pillars of the car as his car overturned. On examination the patient is conscious and oriented.  His blood pressure is 136/86 and heart rate is 84 beats per minute. Local examination revealed a boggy swelling over his forehead. Further the patient had no Battle sign (bruising over the mastoid process). The fluid from his ear dripped onto the bed sheet. As shown below. After initial resuscitation of the patient, which is the logical next step in management?

10229

A young female presented to surgical OPD with complaints of acute pain breast, more so confined to lateral aspect. On examination a tender firm cord like structure is found, following distribution of a superficial vein. Management now includes all of the following except:

10230

Male breast cancer:

10231

A patient complained of pain right iliac fossa, and history of increased frequency of micturition. Patient also complains of hematuria. Suitable investigation to arrive at a diagnosis is:

10232

A patient suspected to be suffering from Appendicle perforation is admitted in surgery emergency. His X-ray abdomen erect view reveals air fluid levels too. Incision most suitable for this patient is:

10233

A patient presented to medicine OPD with complaint of Low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea with abdominal pain, weight loss, and generalized fatigability. Investigations advised included colonoscopy, which revealed yellowish exudates at multiple sites: most likely diagnosis is:

10234

A young male presented to OPD with complaint of persistent diahorrea and fatigue. He was put on medications after establishing the diagnosis. However the patient later developed muscle weakness, centripetal obesity and rounded face. Drug most commonly incriminated in this condition is:

10235

42 year old, chronic smoker male patients presented to surgical OPD with a groin swelling. The swelling is compressible, reducible and reveals cough impulse too. Most likely diagnosis is

10236

Femoral hernia vs Inguinal hernia: pick correct

10237

A 5 year old underwent inguinal hernia repair surgery, most commonly indicated surgery for such population is

10238

Read the following statements:

10239

Following a major surgery, a patient presents with cool clammy extremities, tachycardia, weak peripheral pulses, and hypotension. The blood volume loss would be a minimum of

10240

A: Modified shock index is a better predictor in emergency patients

R: Modified shock index is based on readings of both systolic as well as diastolic blood pressure

10241

Which of the following drugs are useful in cardiogenic shock?

10242

A 55 year old, otherwise healthy, male presented to surgical emergency with complaint of acute retention of urine. He was catheterized. The procedure was uneventful. In due course USG KUB was performed which revealed an enlarged prostate, management of the case would involve:

10243

An Anxious patient, presents with complaint of greatly decreased ejaculate. He also complains of smoky urine at times. Patient had undewent TURP and recovered well. Management includes

10244

A 58 year old patient underwent TURP and recovered well. 3 year after the surgery, the patient is due to visit his urologist yet again for follow up. He explains to the attending doctor that he is uncomfortable with Digital Rectal examination. The urologist should

10245

A patient was wheeled in to surgery emergency with alleged  history of sustaining injuries in a brawl, He is conscious oriented and his Blood pressure was found to be 114/70 and pulse rate of 96 per minute. He was admitted and to monitor input and output, it was decided to catheterize him, however blood was noticed oozing out from urethra, management now includes:

10246

A 21 year male presented to emergency room with complaints of severe pain right testis radiating to lower abdomen, upon examination right testis was hanging at a level lower than left testis. Most suitable Management option is

10247

A 21 year old patient presents to surgical emergency with complaint of excruciating pain right testis. Medical officer in charge suspected it to be a case of torsion testis. How will the diagnosis be established clinically, pick correct option

10248

Undescended testis vs retractile testis: pick correct

10249

A young man was wheeled in emergency room with alleged history of sustaining thermal burn injuries allegedly in a domestic accident. After emergency resuscitation, he was found to be having mottled painful burnt area, blisters were developed soon after. He was given prompt treatment and was discharged soon after.  During his follow up visit after 3 weeks, it was noticed that his wounds have healed causing some pigmentation with almost no evidence of scarring. The type of wounds sustained by young man most likely were:

10250

Identify the following medical device:

10251

A 54-year-old man is being assessed for colicky abdominal pain and occasional nonbilious emesis. There is no history of fever. There is past history of melanoma that was resected from his arm a few years ago. His TLC is not raised. X-ray abdomen is performed which reveals an elongated soft tissue mass. What is the next best step in this patient management?

10252

Congenital hyper trophic pyloric stenosis:which of the methods of clinical examination is most helpful in diagnosis:

10253

Preferred surgery for the following condition is

10254

The following sign is seen in which of the conditions

10255

A morbidly obese man is in the ICU 12 h after a separation of components hernia repair for a large hernia with loss of abdominal domain. He is intubated and sedated. The nurse calls you to the bedside because of worsening abdominal distension. Which of the following is not a sign of developing an abdominal compartment syndrome?

10256

A 60-year-old man is admitted for cellulitis, Antibiotics are started, and the patient is observed. On hospital day 5, he is febrile, coughing up thick green sputum, and dyspneic. A chest radiograph shows an infiltrate in his right lower lobe, and laboratory tests show a WBC count of 18,000/mm3. Which characteristic of nosocomial pneumonia listed below is not correct?

10257

All of the following drugs are associated with renal calculi formation except

10258

For most of ureteric calculi primary approach towards management is

10259

A middle age patient underwent ERCP for CBD calculi, now presents with fever, right hypochondrium pain and jaundice. USG shows hypoechoic lesion in liver. There was no evidence of cholelithiasis. TLC was found to be 13,000 /mm3 and alkaline phosphatase 240 IU/l. Treatment of choice in this condition is

10260

A 45 year old house wife, living in a rural household of eastern India presented to surgery OPD with complaint of dull pain abdomen, associated with nausea. General physical examination revealed mild hepatomegaly. A provisional diagnosis was reached at after performing the USG. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done by

10261

CT scan was performed in a post-menopausal woman while undergoing metastatic work up for carcinoma breast. She was found to harbor a 6 cms lesion in right lobe of liver. On 3 phases CT it was found to have features suggestive of hemangioma. Appropriate management would be:

10262

Pseudopancreatic cyst:pick incorrect

10263

A 32 year old male presented to emergency department with history of sharpnelle injury. Appropriate management for the following wound of his would be

10264

Investigation of choice to assess vascularity of a flap is

10265

A 38 year old female with history of laparoscopic gastric banding positioning five years earlier, presented to surgery OPD with complaints of decreased food intake, vomiting and sudden weight loss since 3 weeks. Laboratory values show evidence of dehydration and malnutrition, specifically hypokalemia (2.5 mmol/L). X ray was taken which returned with following picture. The complication which the patient is suffering from

10266

A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and obstipation. He reports taking laxatives off and on for chronic constipation. On examination, the abdomen is mildly distended, tympanic to percussion, and there is mild tenderness in the lower abdomen in particular. Per rectal examination shows and empty rectum. An abdominal X-ray shows sudden cut–off the sigmoid gas at its lower end and proximal dilation of the colon. Which one of the following is the most accurate tool to reach a diagnosis with high certainty?

10267

A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuretic chest pain. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 130/89mmHg, pulse rate of 102bpm, and respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute. Neck forehead veins are flat and the trachea is slightly deviated to the left side. Her right-lung field has reduced breath sounds and is hyper-resonance to percussion. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

10268

A 65-year-old female patient undergoes stent placement through femoral artery, and is started on aspirin and clopidogrel. After 24 hours, she develops a pulsatile painful mass in the groin though which the catheter was sent in. Which one of the following is the definitive treatment of this mass?

10269

A middle aged man presents with constipation and abdominal distention for last 3 days. On examination, a non-tender lump is noted in the left inguinal region. The lump has no cough impulse. Which one of the following is the best investigation to consider in this patient?

10270

A 52 year old man presents to surgical OPD with complaint of fresh rectal bleeding covering his stools. He has long-standing history of constipation. He mentions no pain on defecation. Which one of the following can be the most likely cause?

10271

Most common long term complication of colostomy is

10272

An elderly woman presents to the emergency department with a painful discrete swelling below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. On examination, the swelling is non-reducible and mildly tender to touch. Further there is no cough impulse. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this woman?

10273

The following photograph is one cut from an abdominal CT scan in a 68-year-old man. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

10274

Valentino syndrome is usually seen in association with

10275

Carcinoma stomach: pick incorrect

10276

A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic man presents to surgery OPD with a 6-week history of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and bowel motions that are difficult to flush down the toilet. The abdominal pain is described as a constant and disabling radiating to back. The pain is unrelated to eating. Which one of the following investigations is preferred initially?

10277

A 36 year old sales manager complained of abdominal pain and diarrhea one week after returning from an extensive tour. He first noticed abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa which resolved subsequently. On examination, the abdomen is non-tender and soft with no rigidity or guarding. However, digital rectal exam is tender. Which of the following investigation would be confirmatory?

10278

A 26 year old male patient, presented to surgery emergency with complaints of pain right iliac fossa.  After clinical examination, a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis was made. Laparoscopic appendectomy was planned. While performing the procedure, the base of appendix was found to be healthy. All of the following are correct, except

10279

A retired employee of an insurance company, 62 years of age was diagnosed to be suffering from carcinoma caecum. Which of the following would have been initial symptoms which he may have ignored?

10280

A 75-year-old man, follow up case of carcinoma prostate presented to surgery OPD with complaints of anaemia and tenesmus.  As a part of management for carcinoma prostate he was given radiotherapy 2 year ago. Flexible sigmoidoscopy was done, which revealed mucosal pallor and vascular telangiectasia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10281

An elderly woman undergoes major abdominal surgery. After four days, she develops a swollen right leg. Her leg is found to be swollen and edematous. On further examination, her right leg is warm to touch and is slightly tender. Which one of the following is most appropriate diagnostic tool to use for a diagnosis?

10282

A 55 year old male is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a diffuse axonal injury after a motor vehicle crash. The attending clinicians noticed coffee ground material coming through the Ryle tube. What is the best intervention to prevent this complication?

10283

A 64-year-old male with severe pancreatitis is transferred to the ICU from an outside hospital, with a file noting in his clinical records that patient has already undergone large-volume resuscitation. He is afebrile, has tachycardia (120 beats per minute), and has a BP of 120/60 mmHg. His abdomen is tense and full; he has a Foley in place but no urine in the bag. What is the mechanism of his oliguria?

10284

An obese patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 50 underwent billion-pancreatic diversion. The procedure lasted for 8 h. postoperatively, the attending clinicians noted a change in the urine color from yellow to dark brown. Further, it was also noticed that patient had developed oliguria. His creatinine increased from 1.0 to 1.5. Which test would confirm the cause of these findings?

10285

A middle aged male with Crohn disease involving colon was being managed with 40 mg prednisone daily for the past one year. As the condition did not respond favorably to medical management, Elective colectomy was planned. The procedure was uncomplicated, and he was adequately resuscitated. In the post-operative period, the patient developed fever and became hypotensive (mean arterial pressure dropped to 54mm/hg). What is next step in management?

10286

A patient with a previous history of ischemic bowel requiring extensive bowel resection, now with only 100 cm of bowel remaining and dependent on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), presents to surgery OPD with complaint of hair loss, rash on the extremities, and dry skin. Which nutrient deficiency is this patient most likely suffering from?

10287

All of the following are indications of Placement of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter in patients with proximal lower extremity deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), except:

10288

A Patient underwent emergency surgery for acute choleycystitis. Pericholeycystic edema and dense adhesions were noticed intra operatively. Post operatively the patient developed gram-negative sepsis. During course of treatment the patient begins to bleed from peripheral IV catheter sites. Further, he was noted to have prolonged PT and aPTT. The most effective treatment for this patient coagulopathy is:

10289

A 47 year-old married woman is involved in a road traffic accident but has no serious injuries, because she was wearing a seatbelt. She later notices a lump in her left breast with associated with skin retraction, ecchymosis, and erythema. FNAC was done and it shows a nuclear fat cells often surrounded by histolytic giant cells and foamy phagocytic histiocytes. Preferred Management is

10290

After her close friend was diagnosed with carcinoma breast, a 35-year-old woman presents to surgery OPD, anxious about her own lifetime chance for the development of breast cancer. On detailed history taking, it was noticed that she has no personal or family history of breast disease. Her menarche occurred at age 11, and her first child was born when she was 27. She only used barrier methods for contraception. Which of the following is not a factor in estimating the Gail risk?

10291

After her sister was diagnosed to be suffering from ovarian carcinoma, A 36-year-old woman was reviewed at a genetics clinic. She was found to carry a BRCA1 gene mutation. She underwent clinical examination, which was unremarkable. What is the recommended surveillance that she should be offered to this patient?

10292

A peri-menopausal woman underwent mammogram, which returned with the pictures showing extensive micro calcifications involving the entire upper aspect of her right breast. Biopsy was performed, and pathologic analysis revealed grade 3 DCIS with comedo features. What is the appropriate management?

10293

A 42 year old school teacher, mother of two, underwent her 1st mammogram as she had a history of long standing lump in her left breast which had history of slow growth. She could not recall exact duration of her symptoms. Following finding was noticed. She should be advised:

10294

A 42 year old patient, follow up case of triple negative carcinoma breast operated about 18 months ago, presented to the surgery OPD describing right upper quadrant pain that had evolved over several weeks. Laboratory testing disclosed abnormal liver function tests and a mild elevation of liver enzymes (aspartate aminotransferase [AST] 225 U/L, alanine aminotransferase [ALT] 302 U/L, with normal total bilirubin). Pain is controlled with NSAIDs. She was sent for cross-sectional CT imaging, which returned the following picture. All of the following can be used except:

10295

A 45 year old primary school teacher underwent laparoscopic hernia repair. Post-operative hospital stay of 2 days was uneventful. He was discharged on oral NSAIDs. However he complained of continuous groin pain, unrelated with activity. To avoid such post-operative condition, during surgery, the surgeon should give specific attention to which anatomical structure

10296

A 56 year old farmer is undergoing laparoscopic hernia repair (TAPP). Based on the information obtained from the following intra operative image, it can be inferred that patient is suffering from

10297

Most of the renal injuries:pick correct

10298

A 28-year-old woman fell from a moving bus. She was immediately rushed to emergency department by passerby. She is opening her eyes to speech, moves in response to painful stimuli by withdrawing her arms and is using inappropriate words. Rest of her general physical examination is unremarkable. What is her current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

10299

A 42-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after falling from a high staircase. He sustained an open fracture of the right tibia. Further, he laid there at the site of accident, calling for help which arrived an hour later. At the time of his examination, His HR is 110 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 108/85, respiratory rate (RR) 28; urine output is 25 mL in the last hour. Which class of haemorrhagic shock does he fall into?

10300

A 72 year old patient presented to surgery emergency with history of sustaining injuries in a road side accident. It took several hours before the patient could reach tertiary care centre. At the time of examination his GCS score was 12. CT scan was advised. While awaiting CT scan all of the following are correct except:

10301

A street vendor sustained severe injuries and was wheeled in to surgical emergency. At the time of examination he was conscious and oriented to time place and person.  His blood pressure was 80/60 mmHg, and pulse rate was 120/min. Further his pulses were feeble. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage was positive. Laparotomy was performed, which showed liver injury. To control bleeding pringle maneuver was performed. However the bleeding continued. This bleeding could be from

10302

A motorist sustained a high velocity crash. He was wheeled into emergency department. At the time of his examination, he is conscious, oriented to time place and person. However he has severe pain in chest. His blood pressure is 136/90, PR is 98 bpm, and Respiratory rate is 24/min. On palpation, bony crepitus is noticed at multiple levels. FAST was done, which ruled out intra-abdominal injury. Confirmatory investigation to rule out flail chest in this patient is

10303

A 42-year-old woman presents to surgery OPD with complaints of a palpable nodule in the anterior triangle of neck. She has clinical features suggestive of hyper thyroidism. However she does not have any evidence of exophthalmos. She does have pretibial myxedema though. Her laboratory workup reveals a suppressed thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level with elevated free T3. Which of the following is not an acceptable indication for surgical treatment of this patient?

10304

Identify the diagnosis in this barium enema image

10305

The Chest X-Ray here shows evidence of

10306

The USG image given here denotes

10307

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well-defined parenchymal nodules implies which stage of sarcoidosis?

10308

A plain radiograph of the hand shows evidence of sub periosteal erosion along the radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the middle and index fingers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10309

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot?

10310

Which one of the following radiological findings would favor a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 2 over neurofibromatosis type 1?

10311

The most common extra-axial intracranial mass lesion showing intense post contrast enhancement is

10312

Investigation of choice for studying renal scarring and renal structure is

10313

Suprasellar calcification on skull X-Ray is a feature of

10314

Which of the following is the least likely radiological finding if an acute pulmonary embolus is present?

10315

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Transposition of Great Vessels?

10316

Which of these is the screening modality of choice for DCIS (Ductal carcinoma in-situ) of breast?

10317

Breast within a breast appearance on mammography is seen in

10318

In a 40-year-old woman complaining of ankle pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of the navicular bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10319

Identify the diagnosis

10320

Identify the diagnosis on this image

10321

The X-Ray here is suggestive of

10322

A barium swallow examination demonstrates oesophagus giving the appearance of a cork screw. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10323

Identify the diagnosis

10324

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrine disturbance and cafe-au-lait spots form a classical triad of?

10325

What would be the expected imaging findings in diaphyseal aclasis?

10326

In a 40-year-old woman complaining of wrist pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of the lunate bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10327

In which part of the prostate gland is BPH most likely to arise?

10328

A diagnosis of Tuberous sclerosis is being considered. The presence of which of the following intracranial tumours would be strongly supportive of this diagnosis?

10329

Minimum radiation exposure is seen in

10330

Identify the image

10331

Identify the image

10332

Identify the image

10333

Identify the image

10334

The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:

10335

Sclerotic type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:

10336

The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in:

10337

The most common location of hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage is:

10338

Which of the following causes inferior rib-notching on the chest radiography?

10339

The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:

10340

Which of these uses ionizing radiation?

10341

Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?

10342

Typically bilateral superolateral dislocation of the lens is seen in:

10343

The gold standard procedure for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:

10344

The most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

10345

Spalding sign occurs after:

10346

Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?

10347

Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in:

10348

Brown tumours are seen in:

10349

IVP in a patient with Ureterocele will show

10350

Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass with calcification seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child

10351

Investigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is:

10352

Figure of 8 in Chest X-ray is seen in

10353

The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except:

10354

A 30-year-old female patient presented with vertigo lasting for a few seconds associated with movement of Head posture. The condition was treated with EPLEY Manoeuvre as shown below. What is the diagnostic test?

10355

A 2-year-old child presents with High Grade Fever, Inspiratory Stridor and Develops Swallowing Difficulty with Drooling of Saliva since Last 4-6 Hours. Which of the Following treatment is recommended Apart from General Airway Management?

10356

A 2-year-old child developed runny nose. After 2 days there was an inability to respire followed by severe respiratory distress. He was admitted to a paediatric hospital and received medical treatment and kept under close observation. Then 2 hours later he became cyanosed, and the attending ENT surgeon found it necessary to perform a surgical procedure to relieve the respiratory distress. Another 2 hours later the distress recurred but was rapidly corrected by a minor interference by the paediatric intern. Two days later the child condition improved remarkably and was discharged from hospital in a healthy condition. What was the minor procedure done by paediatric intern?

10357

A 2-year-old child presents with complaints of fever, barking cough and stridor for 2 days. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10358

A 5-year-old boy borne to a primigravida mother by normal vaginal delivery developed change of his voice that was followed by stridor. The stridor was severe enough to necessitate a tracheostomy. 2 years later the tracheostomy site was not fit for respiration, another tracheostomy was done at a lower level. A reddish tissue that was polypoid in nature filled the tracheostome. The child died a year later when his tracheostomy tube became obstructed at home. What was the most likely diagnosis for this child?

10359

A 2-year-old girl presented with hoarseness. On examination laryngoscopy revealed following findings. Which of the following is the most suitable treatment for this condition?

10360

A 37-year-old male patient presented with parotid swelling and was diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma of superficial lobe of parotid. Superficial Parotidectomy was done. Following parotidectomy, patient complains of numbness on face while shaving. Which of the following Nerves is most likely Injured?

10361

A 37-year-old male patient presented with parotid swelling and was diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma of superficial lobe of parotid. Superficial Parotidectomy was done. Following parotidectomy, patient complains of flushing and sweating on face while eating due to aberrant misdirection of fibres from salivary glands to sweat glands. These fibres come from which of the following Nerves?

10362

During ENT Viva, the external examiner places Temporal Bone on the table and asks each student a different set of question. Your friend was asked What is the Surgical landmark of Mastoid Antrum and your crush was asked What are the boundaries of MacEwan Triangle. You Frantically go through all the topics awaiting your turn. The Consultant asks you this question: When does Mastoid Antrum reaches Adult Size?

10363

A 25 year old male patient complained of sore throat and fever of 3 days duration. He then developed very high fever at 40 C, severe left earache, inability to open the mouth, drooling of saliva and a minimal difficulty in respiration. A surgical intervention was given which gave him relief of all symptoms except the sore throat. Identify the procedure?

10364

A 10-year-old male child suffered from marked difficulty in swallowing, drooling of saliva of 48 hours duration followed by severe respiratory distress. On examination he was very toxic, feverish 40 C with a flexed neck and neck muscle spasm. Oropharyngeal examination showed swelling in posterior pharyngeal wall as shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10365

A 17-year-old male complained of severe epistaxis and was packed to control bleeding and after its removal the bleeding recurred again in a more severe manner. He also complained of nasal obstruction more on the right side together with decreased hearing in the right ear. One month later he developed proptosis of the right eye with no limitation of movement and no affection of vision. There was no swelling in the neck. Which of the following investigations must not be done to confirm diagnosis in this patient?

10366

A 50-year-old male patient presented with nasal obstruction and impairment of hearing in the right ear of 4 months duration. On examination, the patient had nasal tone of voice and on asking him to say AAA the right side of the soft palate was found immobile. Examination of the neck revealed bilateral enlargement of the upper deep cervical lymph nodes which were hard in consistency. Examination of the right ear showed retraction, loss of luster and a waxy appearance of the tympanic membrane. What of the following investigations in not useful in management of this condition?

10367

An unimmunized 2-year-old girl presents with high grade fever and sore throat. On examination she is toxic in appearance and having bilateral Cervical lymphadenopathy. Throat examination showed below finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10368

A 7-year-old boy was seen by an ophthalmologist for headache that has been present for the last few months. Headache was maximum between the eyes. However, there was no ocular cause for such a headache. The child was referred to an ENT specialist who noticed nasal intonation of voice and bilateral nasal obstruction. The mother reported that her child snores during his sleep and has repeated attacks of chest infection. Following findings were seen on X-ray of this boy. What is the most likely diagnosis in this child?

10369

An infant is brought with inspiratory stridor, increasing during effort and relieving on placing child prone. Laryngoscopy revels following finding. All of the following things about the above disease are true except:

10370

All are true regarding following condition of vocal folds except?

10371

A 3-year-old boy gets high fever then associated with difficulty in swallowing and strider, the resident paediatrician sent for lateral X-ray Soft Tissue Neck. Which of the following sign is seen on Xray:

10372

True about the marked area in the given picture:

10373

Identify the thickened nerve in a leprosy patient shown here:

10374

Identify the structure in middle ear marked with an arrow:

10375

Identify the structure marked X?

10376

Identify the Foramen marked in the picture with green arrow:

10377

Name the structure that passes through the opening marked with an Arrow:

10378

Identify the space marked in the diagram with an arrow:

10379

The following instrument is being used by the patient for:

10380

Caloric test was done on right side with cold water. Eyes moved to the opposite side. Which of the following corresponds to correct interpretation of nystagmus in this test?

10381

Identify the structure marked in the diagram marked below with an arrow:

10382

A 65 years old patient presents with hyposthesia of the posterior aspect of the external auditory canal. This may be an early sign of

10383

A 2 year old child presents with foreign body in Right Ear. On examination foreign body was found to be impacted as it was medial to Isthmus. What is the distance of foreign body from Tympanic Membrane?

10384

A 35yrs old patient comes to you with complaints of hearing loss. He was recently discharged from the hospital where he was given multiple antibiotics. Which of the following antibiotic is least likely to have caused his ototoxicity?

10385

All of the following nerves supply tympanic membrane except:

10386

A 10-year-old child was having right mucopurulent otorrhea for the last 4 years. One week ago, he became dizzy with a whirling sensation, nausea, vomiting and nystagmus to the opposite side and now his deafness became complete. What will be the Rinne’s test on Right Side?

10387

A 9-year-old child has been complaining of right continuous offensive ear discharge for the last 3 years. A month ago, he began to suffer from headache, fever and some vomiting for which he received symptomatic treatment. The patient condition was stable for a while, then after 2 weeks he started to suffer from severe headache and drowsiness. The patient also noticed difficulty going up and down the stairs due to weakness in the left arm and left leg. What is the most likely complication in this patient?

10388

A 35 year old male patient had been complaining of a right continuous offensive otorrhea for the last 10 years. One month ago he had a very high fever and became drowsy. This condition lasted for 5 days, after which the fever dropped and the drowsiness disappeared. The patient kept complaining of a mild non continuous headache. One week ago the patient felt that he could not go up and down the stairs easily. Neurological examination revealed right side body weakness in the upper and lower limbs. There was also nystagmus and a difficulty on grasping objects by the right hand. Temperature was 36 C, pulse 80/min. The patient was slightly disoriented to his surrounding and was slow in his responses. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10389

A 47-year-old male patient presented to the otologist because of pain in the left ear of 2 days duration. Pain was throbbing in character and increased in severity during mastication. The patient gave a history of 2 similar attacks in the last six months. On examination, movements of the left auricle were painful, and a circumscribed reddish swelling was found arising from the outer portion of the posterior meatal wall. A painful tender swelling obliterated the retro-auricular sulcus. Tuning fork testing revealed positive Rinne on both sides and Weber was centralized. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the above patient?

10390

A 70 year old patient developed following lesion over nose for last 2 years. What is the most likely Diagnosis?

10391

A 50-year-old male presented with tinnitus, ear-fullness and hearing loss in his right ear. Seven years later, he began to experience vertigo, headache. Audiometry showed moderate SNHL in the right ear. The histopathology of the condition is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10392

A 10 years old child presented to the outpatient ENT clinic because of severe headache of 5 days duration which did not respond to the usual analgesics. His mother reported that her son had some right ear discharging for the last 2 years. On examination, the child general health was bad, he was irritable, and his temperature was 39 C, pulse 100/min and there was marked neck stiffness. Examination of the right ear revealed fetid aural discharge from an attic perforation, pars tensa was normal. MRI Brain Showed following findings. Which of the following should not be done in this patient?

10393

A 40 year old female is complaining of attacks of lacrimation and watery nasal discharge accompanied by sneezing. She had a severe attack one spring morning that was accompanied by respiratory difficulty, and she was admitted to hospital. She received the proper treatment and her condition improved. On examination she had bilateral nasal obstruction by bluish pedunculated masses that were covered by a clear mucous discharge. All of the following are part of management of this patient except:

10394

A 9-year-old child was brought to the emergency having headache and vomiting. The attending physician examined him and found neither surgical nor medical gastrointestinal causes for such vomiting. Temperature was 40 C and blood picture revealed leucocytosis. A neurologist was consulted who discovered slowness of speech and weakness in the right upper limb. The patient parents reported that he has been staggering for the last 2 weeks. They also reported right offensive ear discharge since early childhood. Otologic examination showed a left retracted tympanic membrane and a right red fleshy pedunculated mass with an offensive otorrhea. Which of the following should not be done in this patient?

10395

A labourer fell from a height and lost consciousness. On examination, he was found comatose with bleeding from the right ear. Few days later he recovered his consciousness and the bleeding from his ear stopped but a clear watery fluid continued to pour from the ear especially on straining. This watery otorrhea continued for one month during which he developed recurrent attacks of fever and headache that recovered with medical treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10396

A male patient 23 years old presented with impairment of hearing in both ears of about 4 years duration. Hearing impairment was more noticed in the right ear. He gave a history of longstanding on and off yellowish discharge from both ears. He had no vertigo or tinnitus. Examination of the ears revealed bilateral dry central kidney shaped perforations of both drum membranes. Oto-endoscopy revealed possible erosion of lenticular process of Incus on right side with ossicular discontinuity. Tuning fork testing demonstrated bilateral negative Rinne test and Weber test lateralized to the right ear. What is the next line of management?

10397

A 23-year-old male patient presented with impairment of hearing in right ear of about 4 years duration. He gave a history of longstanding on and off yellowish discharge from right ear. He had no vertigo or tinnitus. Examination of the right ear revealed following findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10398

A 32-year-old male patient was referred from Emergency for ENT evaluation. The patient had a motor car accident 2 days before. He gave a history of loss of consciousness for a few minutes together with bleeding from the right ear. The patient stated that he could not move the right side of his face since the recovery of consciousness. On examination, the patient could not close the right eye or move the right angle of his mouth. Nasolabial fold was absent on rest. HRCT of Temporal Bone revealed following findings. What is the next step in management?

10399

A 19-year-old girl presented to the ENT specialist because of bleeding from the left ear, impairment of hearing and tinnitus following a slap on the left ear one hour before. On examination of ear, following findings were seen. Tuning fork testing revealed Rinne test negative in left ear and positive in right ear and Weber lateralized to the left ear. What is the next line of treatment?

10400

A 27 year old pregnant patient presented with complaint of worsening of hearing since the onset of pregnancy. On PTA the following graph was obtained. Which of the following statement regarding the disease is true?

10401

Identify the Air cell Marked with red arrow in the CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinus:

10402

Which of the following regarding the given image is false?

10403

In serous otitis media, Myringotomy incision is done in which quadrant?

10404

Identify the cause of hearing loss in a 30 yrs old pregnant female who pure tone audiogram image given below:

10405

A patient hearing loss on right side is 60 dB, 60dB and 90 dB on 500, 1000 and 200Hz respectively and on left side is 30dB, 40dB and 50 dB on 500, 1000 and 200Hz respectively. How much is the percentage of handicap?

10406

A child presented with ear infection with foul-smelling discharge. On otoscopy, a perforation is found in the pars flaccid of the tympanic membrane. What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

10407

A 7-year-old male presents to the ER with a two day history of worsening ear pain and drainage. He was evaluated in the clinic 5 days ago and diagnosed with an acute right otitis media. He was placed on amoxicillin and he initially appeared to improve until two days ago when his ear pain recurred and this is now accompanied by ear drainage, redness behind his right ear, and a prominent right pinna which is pointing up and out as shown below. The most likely diagnosis?

10408

In a classical case of Meniere disease which one of the following statements is true:

10409

Which of the following Cranial Nerves is most commonly affected by Vestibular Schwannoma:

10410

A 38yr old patient has presented in Casualty after RTA (Road traffic Accident) few hrs back with CSF Rhinorrhoea. Next line of Management is:

10411

A 10-year-old boy presents with torticollis, a tender swelling behind the angle of mandible and fever. He had history of ear discharge for the past 6 years. Examination of the ear showed purulent discharge and granulations in the ear canal. Most probable diagnosis is:

10412

Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for rehabilitation of a patient, who has bilateral profound deafness following surgery for bilateral acoustic schwannoma.

10413

Identify the instrument shown in the photograph?

10414

A 36 year old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:

10415

A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking a paracetamol tablet for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:

10416

An otherwise healthy male presented to the OPD with a curdy white patch on the tongue. The most probable diagnosis is?

10417

Which of the following is not a cutaneous marker of internal malignancy?

10418

Neoplastic dyskeratosis is seen in?

10419

A 16 year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a collarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:

10420

A 45 year old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face, neck, V area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summer and improve by 75 percent in winter. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:

10421

A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?

10422

The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction:

10423

Chancre redux is a clinical feature of:

10424

What is type of joints between the ossicles of ear marked by arrow?

10425

Identify the space marked with an arrow in the figure:

10426

A 38 year old gentleman reports of decreased hearing in the Left ear for the last two years. On testing with a 512 Hz tuning fork the Rinne test [without masking] is negative on the left ear and positive on the right ear. With the Weber's test the tone is perceived as louder in the right ear. The most likely patient has:

10427

Identify the boundary of trautmann triangle marked in the diagram with an arrow?

10428

Which of the following structures develop from the Area marked with Arrow in Diagram

10429

A 15 years old presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination a right neck swelling is noted posterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle with right tonsil shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:

10430

Endolymph secreted by:

10431

Most common cause of otomycosis is:

10432

Site for placing an electrode in auditory brain stem implant is:

10433

Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part of the semicircular canals:

10434

Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in:

10435

Stapedius is supplied by

10436

In which of the following conditions, cortical mastoidectomy is indicated:

10437

Hypoesthesia over the area of posterosuperior aspect of the external auditory canal (Hitzelberger sign) is feature of:

10438

Weber test is best ellicitedby:

10439

Spherocytes are seen in all of the following except:

10440

Cold immunohemolytic anemia is seen in all of the following except:

10441

Beta Thalassemia intermedia true is:

10442

Gastrectomy results in anemia type:

10443

Earliest response to iron therapy is:

10444

ECULIZUMAB – monoclonal antibody is used in:

10445

Lymphocytic and histocytic variant of Reed Sternberg cells are positive for:

10446

Investigation of choice to diagnosis chronic lymphocytic leukemia is:

10447

Most common presentation of hairy cell leukemia is:

10448

First joint to be affected in hemophilia A:

10449

A 7-year-old boy fell from his bicycle on his outstretched right arm in abduction with the elbow in extension. Examination of his right elbow reveals some swelling. On palpation of the elbow, he has localised tenderness, associated with a significant reduced range of motion of the elbow flexion and extension. He has no neurovascular deficit of the arm. Radiograph is shown as below. Preferred management of the condition is:

10450

A middle aged woman joined a gym to reduce extra weight.  After few weeks of working out she developed right lateral hip pain which was not improving. The pain aggravated by lying on the right side. She could remember no trauma, fever or stiffness in her hips. She also denied any pain in her back or knees. Assessment of her gait reveals no limp and she has a negative Trendelenburg sign. On palpation of her right greater trochanter she complains of marked tenderness. Examination of her hip reveals a full range of movement. Plain X-rays do not show any signs of arthritis, with good joint space in the hip joint. Preferred investigation should be

10451

A 60 year old male patient presented with pain in the region of right hip radiationg to groin and buttock. He also complains of limp. On examination, all extremes of movements were found to be painful. X ray was done which returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis:

10452

A middle aged man suffers from obesity and DM type 1 for around 10 years now. He noticed a moderate deformity and a significant amount of swelling in his left foot. he also noticed that the foot appears flatter when he is standing on examination an area of ulceration on the sole of this man’s left foot was also found. Preferred treatment includes all of the following except

10453

Pathological fractures are common if T score is

10454

A 19-year-old man is referred to orthopaedics OPD after successfully recovery from an event of spontaneous Pneumothorax, as during his admission it was noted that he has hypermobile joints, long digits and possible skin laxity. Likely diagnosis

10455

Investigation of choice for early diagnosis of stress fracture is

10456

Identify the following instrument

10457

Surgery performed for the below mentioned condition is

10458

Pelvic fracture, bleeding most commonly occurs from:

10459

A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies?

10460

Hypochondriasis is

10461

The most frequent symptom in schizophrenia is:

10462

A 55-year-old man with no history of mental illness presents with recent onset of disorientation, fluctuating mental status, abnormal autonomic signs, poor coordination, tremor, and seeing snake in his bedroom. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10463

A 20 year old girl enjoys wearing male clothes. It gives her more confidence and after these episodes she is absolutely normal girl. The likely diagnosis is:

10464

A patient on antidepressant developed sudden hypertension on consuming wine. Responsible drug is

10465

A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after police were called to her home by a neighbor, who witnessed rape and robbery by two intruders. The patient is fully alert and oriented to person, place, and time. She cannot remember anything about the incident. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

10466

Somatic passivity is seen in?

10467

Medications of choice for the initial treatment of long-standing anxiety disorder include all the following, except:

10468

All are true for conversion reaction except

10469

70 years old patient came with complaints of chronic abdominal pain. Identify the following investigation done:

10470

Patient presented with lethargy, loss of appetite and low grade fever. Chest x ray was done. It is suggestive of:

10471

60 year non smoker male presented with on and off productive cough for 6 months. There is no history of fever. On physical examination there is clubbing of fingers and causes crepitations over the lung base. CT was done and is as shown. Probably diagnosis is:

10472

Newborn male baby presented with there is congestive heart failure. On examination enlarged fontanelles, loud cranial bruit and following radiological finding was seen. Most likely diagnosis is:

10473

30 year old primigravida came with complains of vaginal bleeding, pain abdomen and vomiting. Uterus is enlarged, soft, non tender. Ultrasonography was done and is as follow. Most likely diagnosis is:

10474

35 year old, alcoholic came with complaint of severe abdominal pain in epigastrium radiating to the back. Pulse rate is 124/min, Blood pressure is 96/62 mmHg. CT abdomen is as shown. Probable diagnosis is:

10475

Identify the structure marked on MRI brain:

10476

Following imaging findings is not seen in patient of primary tuberculosis:

10477

Best investigation for detection of renal scars in a known case of vericoureteric reflex is:

10478

Ultrasonography done in pregnant female, following picture is shown. This is known as:

10479

A 60-year-old otherwise healthy woman presents to her physician with a 3-week history of severe headaches. A contrast CT scan reveals a small, circular, hypodense lesion with ring-like contrast enhancement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

10480

A 42-year-old woman presents to the ER with the worst headache of her life. A noncotrast CT scan of the head is negative for lesions or hemorrhage. She thenundergoes a lumbar puncture, which appears bloody. All 4 tubes collected have red blood cell counts greaterthan 100,000/mL. Which of the following steps is themost appropriate management of this patient?

10481

Following are true about MRI breast except?

10482

A 50-years-old male presented in the emergency with high BP (160/100) and heart rate of 120. A CECT is done which is given below. What is the management of the given below:

10483

Claudication symptoms are most improved with the use of:

10484

All of the following structures pass through the inguinal canal in females except:

10485

Investigation of choice for GERD is

10486

Identify the surgical procedure shown below?

10487

All are seen in carcinoid syndrome except:

10488

In a newborn child there is respiratory distress and scaphoid abdomen. X-ray of the abdomen and chest is shown, what is the most likely diagnosis

10489

Study the Fig, comment on the incision No-1

10490

A 35-year-old man has known ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is an indication for total proctocolectomy?

10491

A 27-year-old homosexual male presents with a foreign body in the rectum. During the extraction of the foreign body, a large tear in the sigmoid colon with extensive devitalization and contamination is observed. What is the preferred method of treatment?

10492

All are true except for the following condition

10493

What is the difference between a standard right hepatectomyand extended right hepatectomy?

10494

Which of the following is an exception of Courvoisier law?

10495

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial test forthe evaluation of obstructive jaundice?

10496

Which among the following is a clean surgery?

10497

A 44 year old male presents to casuality with complaints of pain abdomen and obstipation for one day. As a part of his workup, a CT scan was done which returned the following picture. Likely cause is

10498

Identify the condition shown in following CT image. Apart from the mentioned condition, the patient is prone to develop:

10499

Preferred treatment of the condition

10500

Identify the surgery being performed:

10501

Following wound of his would be

10502

A 38 year old female with history of laparoscopic gastric banding positioning five years earlier, presented to surgery OPD with complaints of decreased food intake, vomiting and sudden weight loss since 3 weeks. Laboratory values show evidence of dehydration and malnutrition, specifically hypokalemia (2.5 mmol/L). X-ray was taken which returned with following picture. The complication which the patient is suffering from

10503

Identify the following instrument

10504

The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is

10505

During a nerve action potential, a stimulus is delivered as indicated by the arrow shown in the following figure. In response to the stimulus, a second action potential

10506

A newly developed local anesthetic blocks Na+ channels in nerves. Which of the following effects on the action potential would it is expected to produce?

10507

Which of the following temporal sequences is correct for excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle?

10508

A 68-year-old man with oat cell carcinoma of the lung has a grand mal seizure at home. In the emergency room, based on measurement of the man plasma osmolarity, the physician diagnosed him with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and treated him immediately with hypertonic saline to prevent another seizure. Which of the following is the most likely value of the man plasma osmolarity before treatment?

10509

Patients are enrolled in trials of a new atropine analogue. Which of the following would be expected?

10510

A 66-year-old man, who has had a sympathectomy, experiences a greater than-normal fall in arterial pressure upon standing up. The explanation for this occurrence is

10511

A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine (lying down), her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats/min (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate further increases to 120 beats/min. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing?

10512

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the patient enddiastolic volume?

10513

A 38-year-old woman has a bout of intestinal flu, with vomiting and diarrhea for several days. Although she is feeling better, when she stands up quickly, she feels faint and light-headed. Which of the following explains why she is light-headed?

10514

In which vascular bed does hypoxia cause vasoconstriction?

10515

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (VT) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

10516

A 42-year-old woman with severe pulmonary fibrosis is evaluated by her physician and has the following arterial blood gases: pH=7.48, PaO2=55 mm Hg, and PaCO2=32 mm Hg. Which statement best explains the observed value of PaCO2?

10517

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the

10518

Which of the following substances is released from neurons in the GI tract and produces smooth muscle relaxation

10519

A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

10520

Which of the following explains the suppression of lactation during pregnancy?

10521

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his

10522

A key difference in the mechanism of excitation–contraction coupling between the muscle of the pharynx and the muscle of the wall of the small intestine is that

10523

Weightlifting can result in a dramatic increase in skeletal muscle mass. This increase in muscle mass is primarily attributable to which of the following?

10524

A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior vena cava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure?

10525

A 65-year-old man is suffering from congestive heart failure. He has a cardiac output of 4 L/min, arterial pressure of 115/85 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Further tests by a cardiologist reveal that the patient has a right atrial pressure of 10 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected in this patient?

10526

A 60-year-old man had a heart attack 2 days ago, and his blood pressure has continued to decrease. He is now in cardiogenic shock. Which of the following therapies is most beneficial?

10527

A 20-year-old man enters a local emergency room and has been hemorrhaging due to a gunshot wound. He has pale skin, tachycardia, and arterial pressure of 80/50, and has trouble walking. Unfortunately, the blood bank is out of whole blood. Which of the following therapies would the physician recommend to prevent shock?

10528

A 65-year-old man has a heart attack and experiences cardiopulmonary arrest while being transported to the emergency room. The following laboratory values are obtained from arterial blood: plasma pH=7.12, plasma PCO2=60mm Hg, and plasma HCO3− concentration=19 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes his acid-base disorder?

10529

A 26-year-old man develops glomerulonephritis, and his GFR decreases by 50 percent and remains at that level. For which of the following substances would you expect to find the greatest increase in plasma concentration?

10530

If the average hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 50 mm Hg, the hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman space is 12 mm Hg, the average colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 30 mm Hg, and there is no protein in the glomerular ultrafiltrate, what is the net pressure driving glomerular filtration?

10531

Which of the following is true of the tubular fluid that passes through the lumen of the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa?

10532

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58 percent, WBC 13,300/mul, and platelets 600,000/mul. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97 percent on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?

10533

During an inflammatory response, which is the correct order for cellular events?

10534

In a normal healthy person, which of the following blood components has the shortest life span?

10535

What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway?

10536

When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, a special set of respiratory neurons that are inactive during normal quiet breathing then becomes active, contributing to the respiratory drive. These neurons are located in which of the following structures?

10537

Forced rapid breathing results in alkalization of the blood which would lead to which of the following changes in neuronal activity?

10538

Which of the following statements concerning the transmission of pain signals into the central nervous system is correct?

10539

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

10540

Light entering the eye passes through which retinal layer first?

10541

Which of the following molecules moves from the endolymph into the stereocilia and depolarizes the hair cell?

10542

Which of the following retinal cells have action potentials?

10543

Cells of the adrenal medulla receive synaptic input from which of the following types of neurons?

10544

Which of the following statements concerning electroencephalogram activity is correct?

10545

The brain use of energy is among the highest of any organ in the body, but unfortunately the storage of glycogen in the brain is minimal and thus anaerobic glycolysis is not a significant source of energy. Considering this information about brain metabolism, which of the following statements is correct?

10546

A tsunami tidal wave hits the coast of India and the people living there are forced to drink unclean water. Within the next several days, a large number of people develop severe diarrhea and about half of these people expire. Samples of drinking water are positive for Vibrio cholerae. Which of the following types of ion channels is most likely to be irreversibly opened in the epithelial cells of the crypts of Lieberkühn in these people with severe diarrhea?

10547

A 45-year-old man presents with abdominal pain and hematemesis. An abdominal exam was relatively benign, and abdominal x-rays were suggestive of a perforated viscus. Endoscopy revealed a chronically perforated gastric ulcer, through which the liver was visible. Which of the following is a forerunner to gastric ulcer formation?

10548

A newborn boy has a distended abdomen, fails to pass meconium within the first 48 hour of life, and vomits repeatedly. Analysis of a rectal biopsy provides a definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. The absence of which type of cell is diagnostic for Hirschsprung disease?

10549

A 65-year-old man has a 25-year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician because of swelling in his legs. A decrease in which of the following is likely to contribute to the development of edema in his legs?

10550

The transport of glucose through the membranes of most tissue cells occurs by which of the following processes?

10551

A 57-year-old obese woman on hormone replacement therapy develops gallstones. Her gallstones are most likely composed of which of the following substances?

10552

A man eats a low carbohydrate meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids that stimulate insulin secretion. Which of the following responses accounts for the absence of hypoglycemia?

10553

Why is it important to feed newborn infants every few hours?

10554

A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected?

10555

A 30-year-old woman is administered cortisone for the treatment of an autoimmune disease. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

10556

Infants of mothers who had adequate nutrition during pregnancy do not require iron supplements or a diet rich in iron until about 3 months of age. Why is this?

10557

A sustained program of lifting heavy weights will increase bone mass. What is the mechanism of this effect of weight lifting?

10558

Inhibition of the iodide pump would be expected to cause which of the following changes?

10559

A 50-year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/85 and weighs 200 lb. He reports that he is not feeling well, his EKG has no P-waves, he has a heart rate of 46, and the QRS complexes occur regularly. What is his likely condition?

10560

A 48-year-old woman complains of severe polyuria (producing about 0.5 L of urine each hour) and polydipsia (drinking two to three glasses of water every hour). Her urine contains no glucose, and she is placed on overnight water restriction for further evaluation. The next morning, she is weak and confused, her sodium concentration is 160 mEq/L, and her urine osmolarity is 80 mOsm/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

10561

Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high-frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which of the following?

10562

Neurological disease associated with the cerebellum produces which of the following types of symptoms?

10563

Which of the following is filtered most readily by the glomerular capillaries?

10564

A 32-year-old female experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. Visceral pain

10565

A 48-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. She is not undergoing chemo-therapy currently. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum-ionized calcium. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are undetectable, but there is an increase in PTH-related peptide PTHrP. The increased flow of calcium into the cell is an important component of the upstroke phase of the action potential in which of the following

10566

A 2-day-old infant starts having brief tonic–clonic seizures throughout the day. His neurological function in between seizures is normal, and he has no other medical or neurological problems. The history reveals no readily apparent causes for the seizures, though the mother recalled that her first baby also developed seizures shortly after birth that only lasted for 2 weeks, with no subsequent episodes or developmental problems. Genetic analysis revealed a mutation of voltage-gated K+ channels consistent with a diagnosis of benign familial neonatal seizures. Which of the following would cause an immediate reduction in the amount of potassium leaking out of a cell

10567

A 72-year-old man visits his physician because he finds it difficult to hold his hand steady when painting. Examination reveals a resting tremor and rigidity. The symptoms are relieved by a single dose of levodopa. This patient neurological signs are most likely related to a lesion within which of the following?

10568

At a first-grade parent–teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones

10569

A 19-year-old man severs an artery in a motorcycle accident. A bystander applies a tourniquet to stop the bleeding. When the paramedics arrive, the blood pressure of the injured man was only slightly hypotensive and his pupils were reactive. The greatest percentage of the redistributed blood volume came from which of the following

10570

A 45-year-old male had a meal containing wild mushrooms that he picked in a field earlier in the day. Within a few hours after eating, he developed nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, sweating, and salivation. Which of the following statements about the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

10571

During heavy exercise, the cardiac output of the person increases upto five folds, while the pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by

10572

Identify the Blood Cell type shown in the Photograph

10573

Formula shown in Photograph is

10574

Physiological response to heat as shown in Photograph is due to

10575

Identify the type of cutaneous receptor

10576

Which of the following is not a feature of tumor lysis syndrome

10577

A patient of acute kidney injury presented in emergency ECG shows. Best modality of treatment for such cardiac changes:

10578

An elderly patient presented with 14 days after streptococcal phoryngitis. He has hematuria, pyuria, edema, hypertension and renal failure. Kidney biopsy shows. All are true about management except

10579

A diabetic patient presented with renal failure kidney biopsy shows Earliest finding in Spot: Albumin; cretinine ratio is:

10580

A patient of CKD with recurrent vomiting ABG shows PH=7.4, HCOS = 25, PCO3= 40, Na+=140, Cl = 90. ABG shows

10581

A patient presented with peri-orbital puffiness. Most likely we have to rule out

10582

A patient suffered from vomiting and diarrhea for past 24hr his urine frequency was reduced. What will u find in this patient

10583

A 47 year old woman presents with loin pain and haematuria. Urine dipstick demosntrates. Urine culture shows a proteus infection. An x-ray demonstrates a stag -horn calculus in the left renal pelvis. What is the most likely composition of the renal stone?

10584

A 33 year old is admitted to Emergency Department with suspected renal colic. He has an ultrasound that shows a probable stone in the left ureter. What is the most appropriate next step with respect to imaging

10585

Calculate the total sodium deficit in 60kg male patient with serum Na 120 meq/l, serum k4 meq/l, serum CI-90 mcq/l

10586

Which of the following tests are used in inflammatory bowel disease (uc/cd) to rule out active inflammation versus symptoms of irritable bowel

10587

A serious patient in emergency is hyperventilating. What will be the develop:

10588

Most common complication after blood transfusion:

10589

Hepcidin inhibits the function of

10590

Principle treatment of dengue fever with warning signs without shock or  haemorrhage is

10591

In a patient with fever, nausea and pain in right hypochondrium for 6 hours. Liver is not palpable. Most probable diagnosis is:

10592

A 30 year man presented with nausea, Fever and jaundice of 5 days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubin of 6.7 mg/dL (conjugated 5.0 mg/dL) with SGOT/SGPT (AST/ALT) of 1230/900 IU/ml. The serological tests showed presence of HBs Ag. IgM anti-HBc and HbeAg. The most likely diagnosis is:

10593

MELD one score includes all except:

10594

SAAG > 1.1 percent is seen in all cases of ascites except:

10595

Incorrect about Wilson disease

10596

Which of the following features are related to Zollinger Ellison syndrome?

10597

A 60 years old male has a sudden fall in the toilet, hi BP was 90/60 mmHg and pulse was 100/min. His relative reported that his stool was black/dark in color. Further careful history revealed that he is a known case of hypertension and coronary artery disease and was regularly taking aspirin, atenolol and sorbitrate. The most likely diagnosis is:

10598

Acute renal failure result in

10599

Which of the following conditions typically has rickets with normal or low calcium, elevated phosphorus, elevated parathormone and elevated alkaline phosphatase?

10600

RBC cast in the microscopic examination of the urine is an indicator of

10601

A young boy with skin rashes (purpura), acute onset, oliguria, CNS manifestation after 5 days of diarrhea is suffering from

10602

True about renal tubular acidosis are all except

10603

Positive Urinary Anion Gap helps to establish the diagnosis of

10604

Which of the following present with hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis?

10605

pH – 7.55, pCO2 – 38, HCO3 – 33, What is the primary abnormality?

10606

In metabolic acidosis caused by diabetic ketoacidosis, which of the following would be greater than normal?

10607

All of the following parameters derangement indicates liver disease except:

10608

All of the following disease are incorrectly matches with their antibodies except:

10609

The test being performed on the patient is:

10610

Identify the tube shown and it is used in all following condition except:

10611

All indicates pre renal AKI except

10612

A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and elevated urobilinogen levels in urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

10613

All of the following are correctly matched, Except:

10614

A 29 year old pateint with jaundice is positive for HBsAGg, HBeAg, and IgM anti HBC but negative for anti HBs and HBe. The probable diagnosis is:

10615

HBV Replication is indicated by all of the following, Except:

10616

Lamivudine is recommended for treatment of choice hepatitis B when:

10617

All following are at risk group adult meriting Hepatitis B vaccination in low endemic areas except:

10618

Extrahepatic Manifestations of Hepatitis C include all of the following Except:

10619

Which is not true about alcoholic hepatitis:

10620

A patient presents with esophageal varices and a liver span of 10cm. All of the following are likely causes, except:

10621

Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom or non-cirrhotic porlal hypertension?

10622

Rockall score is used for prognosis of pateints of:

10623

Hepatic Encephalopathy is predisposed by all, Except:

10624

Flapping Tremors may be associated with all of the following, except:

10625

What is the most common cause for Budd chiari syndrome:

10626

All of the following statements about Wilson disease are true, Except:

10627

What is the most common intercostal space used for hepatic biopsy:

10628

Creatinine Clearance test used to assess:

10629

Uremic complications typically arises during which of the following phase of renal failure:

10630

Non Oligurtic Acute Renal Failure is typically associatedw with:

10631

Decrease in GFR is apparent in which of the following stages of Chronic Kidney disease:

10632

Most common cause of death in pateint of dialysis for Acute Renal Failure is:

10633

Following are features of Acute GN except:

10634

The most common presentation of IgA nephropathy is:

10635

Clinical features of minimal change:glomerulonephritis are all except

10636

Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of eliac disease?

10637

Skip granulomatous lesions are seen in:

10638

Which of the following features are associated with Irritable Bowel Syndrome:

10639

All of the following are true about Osmotic Diarrhea, except:

10640

What is the correct sequence of events according to BLS:

10641

Which of the following drugs is used first line in management of PEA?

10642

Match list I with list II and select correct answer using code given below the list:

10643

A 75 year old patient clutches chest and falls down. A physician arrives on the scene. What is the first thing to be done by the physician?

10644

A patient develops sudden palpitations with HR=150/min, rhythm regular. What could be the cause?

10645

All of the following features can differentiate between ventricular tachycardia and supraventricular tachycardia except:

10646

In an established case for coronary artery disease post MI which of the following drug will not prolong life expectancy?

10647

Pulsus alternant is seen in:

10648

In myocardial infarction, the correct sequence of increase in enzyme level is:

10649

All of the following drugs are used in the management of acute myocardial infarction, except:

10650

Severity of mitral stenosis is best identified by:

10651

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

10652

Third heart sound is seen in all except:

10653

During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the:

10654

A patient with CHF with LVEF < 40 percent should be given?

10655

All are Hyperdynamic state except:

10656

All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except:

10657

What is not true about infective endocarditis?

10658

A patient came with early diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space and had differential BP recording in the upper limb with one arm showing measurement of 150/110 mmHg and the other showing 90/60. All of the following can be cause except:

10659

Which of the following indicates modified shock index?

10660

A man working in a coal mining factory for 16 years develops symptoms of progressively worsening breathlessness and cough with expectations a spirometry was performed and his values were as follows FEV1-1.4 I/min FVC 2.8 I/min and with FEV1/FVC ratio of 50. What could be the cause

10661

Pulmonary compliance is decreased in all of the following conditions, except:

10662

A 55 year old female with obesity present to the ER with increased breathlessness, cough and orthopnea forn 2 days. She has pulse rate of 96/min, BP–136/90 mmHg, RR–30/min and spO2–76 percent. ABG report shows pO2–76 mmHg, pCO2–24mmHg and pH–7.28. The next step is:

10663

Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to:

10664

Which of the following is not required in case a second puff is to be taken from an inhaler?

10665

Which of the following features of severity are used in immediate assessment of acute severe asthma?

10666

The following are main diagnostic criteria for allergic broncho pulmonary aspergillosis except:

10667

Gold criteria for very severe COPD are defined as?

10668

Cavitating pulmonary lesions can be seen in the following except:

10669

The typical feature of interstitial lung disease is:

10670

Patient diagnosed with HIV and Tuberculosis. How start ATT and c-ART?

10671

All of the following are correct about ARDS except:

10672

Which of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusions?

10673

A patient has a femur fracture for which internal fixation was done. 2 days later, patient developed sudden onset shortness of breath with low grade fever. What is the likely cause?

10674

Partial pressure of oxygen I alveoli:

10675

Which one of the following would cause a fall in the carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO)

10676

You are the team doctor with a mountaineering expedition. The groups has ascended to a height of 5000m and have set up a forward camp. One mountaineer complains of a headache and nausea that she had initially dismissed as she was keen to make the summit but have been getting worse. The headache is now very server and other climbers become concerned when she is seen to stagger about the camp. When you see her she confirms that she has a severe headache and is feeling unsteady on her feet. You note that her gait is ataxic. What is the recommended management of this patient

10677

A 35 year old female presents with increasing fatigue, shortness of breath and pulmonary oedema. Chest X-ray has revealed cardiomegaly with evidence of increased pulmonary artery pressure on echocardiogram. The patient undergoes right sided heart catheterization. A pulmonary artery pressure at rest greater than what value would be considered diagnostic of pulmonary arterial hypertension?

10678

Which one of the following interventions is most likely to increase survival in patient with COPD?

10679

A 24 year old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100 percent oxygen, nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulizers and IV hydrocortisone. Despite initial treatment there is no improvement. what is the next step in management

10680

A HIV patient presented with fever and cough with sputum > 2 weeks A clinical diagnosis of TB is suspected, Next investigation is

10681

A 26 years doctor working in ENT OPD developed anosmia from last 3 days. Most likely organism

10682

Gene-x-part tells resistance due to mutation in

10683

Best marker of air pollution assessment are

10684

A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation presented in emergency. Patient was conscious, alert, PR==110/min, on chest examination there were B/: wheeze. ABG shows ph=7.3, Pco2=58, HC03=20. Which is not true in management?

10685

A patient presented with swelling in neck. Later it ulcerate producing ulcer with undermined edge. Most likely diagnosis:

10686

A patient come with fever, cough breathing difficulty respiratory rate is 58/min with chest retrachtions, management is

10687

A patient Develops rash, hypotension, bronchospasm after I.V. antibiotic. Dose of adrenaline is:

10688

Hepcidin inhibits the function of

10689

In CPR, chest compressions are done at a rate of (/min):

10690

Peripheral blood film showing this type of neutrophils is seen in:

10691

A patient was admitted to the casualty with hysteria and anxiety. Estimation of arterial plasma showed pH of 7.53, HCO3 of 22 meq and PCO2 of 27 mmHg. Which of the following is the patient likely to have?

10692

Pulsus paradoxus is seen in all except:

10693

Wide pulse pressure is in all except:

10694

Paradoxical splitting of second heart sound is seen in:

10695

Low QRS voltage on ECG indicates:

10696

Most common in arrthymia in ICU patient is:

10697

Which of the following ECG changes in an asymptomatic Athletes heart should be considered pathologically:

10698

Which clinical sign is suggestive of elevated pulmonary wedge pressure in mitral stenosis:

10699

WHO Rose Questionnaire is used for:

10700

Kussmaul sign is classically described in:

10701

The best chances of recovery after successful cardiopulmonary resuscitation are seen in:

10702

Spuriously high BP is seen in all except:

10703

Which of the following lung disease is shown in the image below:

10704

A HIV Patient presented cryptococcal meningitis. What is the fastest best method for diagnosis?

10705

A child presented in emergency with GTCS since 30 mins. After airways, what is the 1st drug given to control seizures

10706

A patient presented with dementia, urinary incontinence. He has broad based gait. Likely diagnosis is

10707

A 32 year old female presented with restless leg syndrome. First line drug for management is

10708

Wrong about ABCD2 score is

10709

Which one the following anti-epileptic drug is most likely to cause visual field defects?

10710

An 18 year old male gives a history of early morning jerking movements of his arm. After a night of heavy drinking and sleep deprivation, he has a generalized spike and wave discharge. What is the most appropriate choice of anti-epileptic?

10711

A 55 year old man is diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Which one of the following drugs has been exposed to confer a survival benefit?

10712

Which of the following organ is not affected by graft versus host disease?

10713

Hypercalcemia due to vitamin d toxicity can be treated with:

10714

Involvement of DIP, PIP and MCP joints is seen in

10715

Which of the following is a marker of pheochromocytoma?

10716

A newborn baby presented with congenital heart blocks. Which disease you will suspect in mother?

10717

A 72 year old man with normal renal functions presents with new onset focal seizures. Which of the following is the best drug to manage the patient?

10718

Which can differentiate between seizures and syncope?

10719

Atypical febrile seizures are associated with:

10720

A 30 year old female was admitted to casualty with a history of head trauma. On examination she is lying with both legs in extended posture. She opens her eyes to pain, moans and localizes pain on left hand. Calculate her GCS:

10721

This is the plain CT scan of a male who sustained an injury with a baseball bat. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition?

10722

All are seen in Benign Intracranial Hypertension except:

10723

Cushing triad has all except:

10724

Which of the following best describes a patient with classical migraine?

10725

All of the following reduce the risk of atherothrombotic stroke except:

10726

A 67 year old male p[patient presented with sudden onset diplopia right sided facial nerve palsy involving both upper and lower part of the face and left sided hemiparesis. Most probable site of the lesion?

10727

Two patients in neurology department were asked to draw concentric circle inside the red reference line. Which of the two patients is likely to be suffering from essential tremors?

10728

Which of the following is not seen in tubercular meningitis?

10729

A patient presents with ascending muscle weakness for 2 days. On examination, limb is flaccid. What investigation should be done first?

10730

All are seen in Myasthenia Gravis except:

10731

A patient is unable to solve mathematical calculations which part of his brain is damaged?

10732

Which of the following is not useful in a patient of trigeminal neuralgia?

10733

An 11 year old type 1 diabetes mellitus patient was on CSII. While on holiday with her family she was become disoriented. On examination Na–126mEq/dl, Potassium–4.3 mEq/dl, BUN–100mg/dl, Bicarbonate is 10 mEq/dl and blood sugar is 600 mg percent. All are required for management except:

10734

A type 1 DM patient on insulin is having consistent values of Pre-Breakfast hyperglycemia. Hence the physician ordered self-monitoring of blood glucose including at night. The record of blood sugar of patient is given below. Which is the correct description for the recording shown?

10735

Match the anti-diabetic drugs which is not to be used in the given situation

10736

Diabetes is diagnosed when:

10737

All cause weight gain, except:

10738

Addison disease is characterized by all, except:

10739

Which of the following present with hypothyroidism?

10740

Vitamin D deficiency has all except:

10741

A 45 year old smoker and hypertensive patient is on enalapril and hydrochlorothiazide. He had an episode of hemoptysis and was found to be having lung cancer with metastasis to the brain. His current lab values are Sodium 125mEq/dl, Blood sugar= 112mg/dl, Blood urea= 10mg/dl, serum osmolality 285mOsm and urine osmolality 350mOsm. 24 hour urinary sodium is 100 mEq/day and BP= 150/90mmHg. Which of the following is the reason for low sodium values in the patient?

10742

A 33-year-old lady presented with polydipsia and polyuria. Her symptoms started soon after a road traffic accident 6 months ago. The blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg with postural drop. The daily urinary output is 6-8 liter. Investigation showed Na 130 mEq/L, K 3.5 mEq/L = 15 mg/dl, sugar 65 mg/dl the plasma osmolality is 268 mosmol/L and urine osmolality 45 mosm/L. The most likely diagnosis is?

10743

A lady presented with joint pain in both knee and low grade fever off and on. On examination she has a rash on sun exposed parts. What is the clinical diagnosis?

10744

A young girl is admitted with joint pains and butterfly rash and positive urine proteinuria. The best test for her diagnosis is:

10745

Which of the following is seen in sarcoidosis?

10746

A 35 year old man present with episodes of vomiting, photophobia and unilateral pulsatile headache. What is likely cause?

10747

A 30 year old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left side. On examination, BP was 160/140 mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC= 10-15/hpf with no casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

10748

A 25 year old female develops serous oitis media of left ear with cough and occasional hemoptysis and hematuria and epistaxis for one and half months. Her hemoglobin is 7 gm. BP greater than 170/100, Proteinuria +++, RA positive and ANCA positive, The likely cause is:

10749

A 5 year old child presents with non-blanching purpura over the buttocks and lower limbs along with colicky abdominal pain. Further evaluation revealed deposition of IgA immune complex. The most likely diagnosis is:

10750

The following statements are true regarding acute gout except:

10751

A 9 year old girl presents with 1 month difficulty in combing hair. She later developed maculopapular rash over metacarpophalangeal joints. Gower sign is positive. What is the next logical step:

10752

The treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease is:

10753

A 7 year old child is brought with fever, colicky abdominal pain and non-blanching palpable purpuric rash on buttocks and back of legs. What is the probable diagnosis?

10754

A patient presents with Microcytic Hypochromic anemia. Serum iron levels and TIBC are decreased. Likely diagnosis is:

10755

A 16 year old young girl presents with a history of fatigability weakness and lethargy. Complete Blood picture (CBC) reveals Hemoglobin of7.0, MCV of 70; MCH of 20 pg/cell and Red cell Distribution Width (RDW) of 20. The most likely diagnosis is:

10756

A 25-year-old lady on treatment for Rheumatoid Arthritis has the following laboratory findings. Hemoglobin of9 gm/dL; MCV-50 fl; Ferritin 200µg/L; TIBC 274 micro g/dL; Serum iron 30µg/dL. What is the likely diagnosis:

10757

All of the following cause intravascular hemolysis, except:

10758

Reticulocytosis is seen in all except:

10759

Which of the following is not seen in hereditary Spherocytosis:

10760

A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with severe anemia and hemoglobin levels of 5 gm/dL. He gives a history of similar presentation in the past which wave adequately managed by a single blood transfusion. He has not required any further blood transfusion till date. Most probable diagnosis is:

10761

Deletion of one alpha globin gene on one chromosome is best defined as:

10762

Anemia due to antibodies against blood group antigen:

10763

Microangiopathic Hemolytic anemia is seen in all Except:

10764

Pancytopenia with cellular marrow is seen in:

10765

Secondary polycythemia may be seen in:

10766

A child underwent a tonsillectomy at 6 years of age with no complications. He underwent a preoperative screening for bleeding at the age of 12 years before an elective laparotomy, and was found to have a prolonged partial thromboplastin time but normal Prothrombin time. There was no family history of bleeding. The patient is likely to have:

10767

The coagulation profile in a 13 year old girl with Menorrhagia having Von Willibrands disease is:

10768

Platelet count is decreased in all of the following condition except:

10769

Blood transfusion should be completed within how many hours of initiation:

10770

Symmetrical intrauterine growth restriction is due to

10771

All are the respiratory problems usually seen in preterm child except

10772

Mother is a known case of diabetes mellitus type I. Gestation of the child is 36 weeks and birth weight is 1.9 kgs. At 36 hours child is lethargic. All are the possible causes except

10773

A 24 hours old male infant born term is found to be lethargic. There is history of rupture of membranes 18 hours before delivery. The baby has fever of 1010F and is feeding well. Following should be done in this child

10774

Risk of development of respiratory distress syndrome increases in all of the following except:

10775

Preferred initial gas for neonatal resuscitation in term infants in:

10776

Chest compressions are given in neonate in:

10777

Therapeutic hypothermia is used in management of:

10778

True regarding cephalohematoma is:

10779

In small for gestational age the infant weight is:

10780

First line antiepileptic drug for neonatal seizures is:

10781

All are the findings seen in necrotizing enterocolitis except:

10782

Physiological jaundice in a term child can present upto:

10783

All are true about breast milk jaundice except:

10784

All are the features in infant of diabetic mother except:

10785

Late onset neonatal sepsis is defined as the onset of symptoms after:

10786

For prediction of neonatal sepsis ratio of immature to total neutrophil count is:

10787

All of the following can cause neonatal jaundice on day 1 of life except:

10788

34 weeks infant, weight is 1.7kg. Kangaroo mother care is intiated in this child. Hallmark of Kangaroo mother care is:

10789

Criteria for effective phototheraphy in newborn is:

10790

For the treatment of congenital toxoplasmosis pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine are given for:

10791

Infant is most likely to have neonatal varicella if mother gets chickenpox:

10792

In herpes simplex virus II causing skin, eye and mouth lesions in neonate, drug given is:

10793

At birth child has features of microcephaly, senosorineal hearing loss, chorioretinitis and periventricular calcification. Treatment of choice in this child is

10794

Child is born with microcephaly and morphological features as shown. Following is advisable in this child except:

10795

15 month old child can do the following:

10796

Child can lift head and chest with head in approximately vertical axis in prone position. Age of the child is:

10797

Child skips, draws triangle from copy and repeat sentence of 10 syllables. Age of the child is:

10798

1 year child can do all the following except:

10799

Child asks for objects by pointing and mouthing has stopped. Age of the child is:

10800

2 years old child can do all of the following except:

10801

A 5 year old child can name:

10802

Handedness is usually established in the child by the age of:

10803

Child demands things by saying give me. He can build a tower seven blocks, can run and climbs the stairs. Developmental age of the child is

10804

A child is half of adult height at the age of:

10805

Intrauterine growth contributes to the final height/eventual height:

10806

All are true about constitutional delay in growth and puberty except:

10807

Child was short at birth but achieved normal mid parental height. Most likely due to:

10808

Upper segment and lower segment become equal to one another at the age of:

10809

A 10 month old male infant has been brought to OPD because he is not growing fast enough. On examination he is 2nd percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. At this age greatest influence on her growth rate is

10810

Child with weight for age less than 60 percent of expected and presence of edema is classified as:

10811

In severe acute malnutrition weight for height is:

10812

Dose of Vitamin A, in a child 15 months, weighing 7 kgs and diagnosed as severe acute malnutrition is

10813

Child is diagnosed as a case of rickets. Cholecalciferol was given twice but no improvement is seen. On examination PTH is increased, serum phosphorous is increased and serum calcium is normal. Most likely cause of rickets is

10814

Diagnosis of severe acute malnutrition is made by presence of mid upper arm circumference less than:

10815

Out of the following reliable sign of dehydration in severely malnourished child is:

10816

Good weight gain in malnourished child is:

10817

Stoss therapy is used in the management of:

10818

5 years old child comes with compliant of valgus deformity of the legs and increased alkaline phosphatase. Which of the following will be useful in diagnosis?

10819

Posterior column and cerebellar dysfunction and pigmentary retinopathy is seen in deficiency of:

10820

All are the clinical features seen in Scurvy except

10821

Most common congenital heart defect in Down syndrome is:

10822

Following is decreased in Down syndrome:

10823

Most common cardiac abnormality in Turner syndrome is:

10824

Edema of hands and feet in infants is characteristic of:

10825

Male has anti-mongoloid slant, pulmonary stenosis and mental retardation. Most likely it is:

10826

Female child was brought for evaluation for dysmorphic features. All of the following cardiac malformation can be seen in this child except:

10827

A 5-year-old child with Down syndrome has come for follow-up. Blood tests you would like to do on follow up is

10828

Full term male was born to a 33 years old primigravida mother. There is presence of dysmorphic features including prominent occiput, head circumference 29cm and clenched fist with overlapping of digits. Most likely chromosomal configuration of this neonate is

10829

Most common tumour with bony metastasis in children is:

10830

Wilms tumour is associated with all of the following except:

10831

Medulloblastoma is:

10832

5 years old child presents with 1 day history of sore throat and high temperature. He is unable to swallow the saliva. Most likely diagnosis:

10833

18 months old girl presents with coryza, cough and mild fever for 3 days. Respiratory rate is normal and there is no chest recession. Most likely diagnosis is:

10834

9 month old boy presents with fever and running nose. He has barking cough in association with loud noise on inspiration. Most likely diagnosis:

10835

In primary ciliary dyskinesia there is mutation in protein:

10836

4 month old infant has rapid breathing since 2 days. His temperature is 37.4 degree C and respiratory rate of 60 breaths/min. Chest is hyper inflated. There are fine crackles and wheezes. Most likely diagnosis is:

10837

5 month old infant has history of difficulty in breathing and poor feeding. On examination respiratory rate of 60 breaths/min and bilateral crepts are present. His weight is now below the 40th percentile. There is history of neonatal jaundice. Most appropriate investigation to be done is:

10838

10 year old boy has history of sudden onset of cough started 3 days back. On examination there is wheeze on right side of chest only. There is no history of fever, no dysphagia. Most likely diagnosis is:

10839

Fast breathing is a child aged 6 months is respiratory rate more than:

10840

According to IMNCI all of the following are danger signs in a child except:

10841

Most common cause of respiratory tract infection in children in cystic fibrosis is:

10842

Following is not a major Nada criteria for diagnosis of congenital heart disease:

10843

Most common type of Atrial septal defect is:

10844

Drug used to keep ductus arteriosus patent is:

10845

Out of the following not seen in congestive cardiac failure in newborn is:

10846

In which of the following left atrium is not enlarged:

10847

Obstructive type of total anomalous pulmonary venous connection is:

10848

Most common cyanotic congenital heart disease to present at birth is:

10849

In all of the following are ductus dependent systemic circulation seen except:

10850

In which of the following there can be normal four chamber along with normal atrioventricular valves:

10851

Cyanotic congenital heart disease with left atrial and left ventricular enlargement is:

10852

Systolic murmur in tetralogy of Fallot is due to:

10853

Major criteria in the diagnoss of rheumatic fever is:

10854

Out of the following not a minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever is:

10855

Pulmonary to systemic blood flow ratio (Qp:Qs) consistent with tetralogy of fallot is

10856

Severe dehydration in children is loss of body weight:

10857

Best intravenous fluid for treatment of dehydration due to diarrhea is:

10858

Most common finding in children with severe viral gastroenteritis is:

10859

All are the sign of severe dehydration in an infant except:

10860

Drug of choice in steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome is:

10861

Most common infection seen in nephrotic syndrome is:

10862

Most common chronic glomerulopathy in children is:

10863

Following radiological investigation should be done in 6 year old child after first episode of urinary tract infection:

10864

Best method of estimation of amount of proteinuria in a 2 year old child with nephrotic syndrome is:

10865

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in nephrotic syndrome is most commonly due to:

10866

Serum C3 level becomes normal in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis in:

10867

Henoch Schonlein purpura commonly involves age group:

10868

10 years old child with hypertension, pedal edema, facial edema and gross hematuria. Diagnosis is:

10869

For screening of congenital hypothyroidism following is measured:

10870

Best time for screening for hypothyroidism in neonate is:

10871

36 weeks preterm baby has history of excessive sucking of mother breast and crying for 20 hours. On examination there is increased HR, RR and temperature. Microcephaly is present. There is also history of fetal tachycardia present. All of the following investigations will be useful for diagnosis except:

10872

14 year old girl with history of precocious puberty and has skin hyperpigmentation since birth. Most likely the condition is: There is no visual defect

10873

Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism in India is:

10874

All are the features of 21 hydroxylase deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia except:

10875

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia with hypertension is due to deficiency of enzyme:

10876

Most common type of cerebral palsy in a term child due to hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy is:

10877

All are the features of simple febrile seizures except:

10878

Cerebellar hemangioblastoma and retinal angiomas are seen in:

10879

Most common cause of communicating hydrocephalus in India is:

10880

Pathognomonic for Neurofibromatosis 1 is:

10881

All chromosomal location is correctly matched except:

10882

2 days female neonate delivered at home came with history of mass on the back. On examination a reddish leaking lesion is seen on the lumbar region. Lower limbs are hypotonic and areflexic. On MRI there is presence of hydrocephalus. Most likely cause is:

10883

8 year old girl has history of gradual loss of interest in studies, irritability and episodes of abnormal behavior. Starting about 6 months back. On examination child is afebrile, no pallor, jaundice or cutaneous bleed. No involvement of cranial nerve is seen. There is an involuntary movement in the form of myoclonic jerks of the trunk. Most likely cause is:

10884

6-year-old male presents with history of headache, fever and vomiting for the past 24 hours. On examination child is toxic looking with low blood pressure. Capillary fill time is 4 seconds. There is petechial rash over abdomen and limbs. Antibiotic you would like to give to this child is

10885

4 year old boy come with history of abnormal movements of all his limbs. When the child sleeps there is hypotonia. Following history will be relevant in diagnosis:

10886

In meningococcal meningitis antibiotics therapy is given for:

10887

All are the drugs used for intermittent prophylaxis in febrile seizure except:

10888

5 year old boy presented with day dreaming and decline in school performance. Most likely cause is:

10889

Hypsarrthymia pattern in EEG is seen in:

10890

Location of dystrophin gene is:

10891

CTG repeats seen in myotonic muscular dystrophy is present on chromosome:

10892

What is the angle subtended by top most letter of Snellen chart at distance of 6 meter:

10893

Corneal endothelium is embryologically derived from:

10894

Cause of decreased vision due to defect shown in visual?

10895

False about Bitot spots is?

10896

All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except:

10897

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

10898

Changes seen in the conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency:

10899

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of the of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas on the palpebral conjunctiva is:

10900

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

10901

Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

10902

A 28 years old male complains of glare in both eyes. The cornea shows whorl-like opacities in the epithelium. He gives history of long term treatment with Amiodarone. The most likely diagnosis is:

10903

A patient presents with history of Chuna particles falling in the eye. Which of the following should not be done?

10904

Herbert pits are seen in:

10905

Cataract in diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is:

10906

Which is the most important factor in the prevention of postoperative endophthalmitis?

10907

A 56 year old man presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with history of pain and decrease in vision after an initial improvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

10908

A 55 years old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

10909

The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens:

10910

Which of the following is not needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery:

10911

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

10912

Which of the following is the only reversible cataract?

10913

Rider cataract is seen in

10914

Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in

10915

A 30-day-old neonate was presented with a history of photophobia and excessive acrimation. On examination, both the lacrimal duct systems are normal, but there was a large cornea with haziness. The diagnosis is:

10916

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following:

10917

The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma:

10918

Treatment of choice for open angle glaucoma in the other eye is:

10919

Which of the following anti-glaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?

10920

Earliest manifestation of chronic simple glaucoma

10921

Typical coloboma of the iris is situated:

10922

A 25 years old man has pain, redness and mild diminution of vision in one eye for the past 3 days. There is also history of low backache for the past one year. On examination there is circumcorneal congestion, few keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium, 2+ cells in the anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure is within normal limits. The patient is likely to be suffering from:

10923

The uveitis associated with vitiligo and auditory defects occurs in:

10924

Recurrent mobile hypopyon seen in acute anterior Uveitis indicates?

10925

A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient department with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:

10926

Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:

10927

An infant with intolerance to breast feed, vomiting and diarrhoea develops cataract. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

10928

A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause?

10929

All of the following are true about the above instrument except:

10930

A patient having glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can be responsible for it?

10931

Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in hypertensive patients?

10932

Candle wax dripping type of vasculitis is a feature of:

10933

A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2 day history of cilia congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is:

10934

A patient is taking drugs for rheumatoid arthritis and has a history of cataract surgery 1 year back, the Patent presented with sudden painless loss of vision, probable diagnosis is?

10935

A patient presented with pain, photophobia and watering from eye since last 36 hours. 0n examination there is 1 x 2cm ulcer with minimal hypopyon with finger like projection into stroma. What is the most likely cause?

10936

Which one of the following statements regarding this disease is TRUE?

10937

6-year-old child has decreased vision. Examination of the eye shows the above corneal picture. Mierostopic examination shows lymphocytes, corneal epithelial cells that have cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. Most likely diagnosis:

10938

Angular conjunctivitis is caused by:

10939

Most common conjunctivitis causing blindness in newborn:

10940

All of the following are true about the above eyelid condition except:

10941

This sign is seen in:

10942

The normal ratio of light peak and dark trough on an EOG is

10943

Confirmatory investigation in retinitis pigmentosa is:

10944

Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by:

10945

Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:

10946

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

10947

Most common primary malignant tumour of orbit in children:

10948

A 25 yrs old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

10949

Weigert ligament is:

10950

Asteroid hyalosis are composed of:

10951

The risk of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is increased in all of the following except

10952

A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

10953

Most common clinical presentation of retinoblastoma is:

10954

This is defect in:

10955

A person has defective blue colour appreciation. His condition is

10956

Not a feature of Horner syndrome:

10957

All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except

10958

Pie in sky appearance is seen in:

10959

Visual defect shown in the photograph below occur in lesion of:

10960

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

10961

Lamina cribrosa is absent in:

10962

Roth spots are seen in:

10963

Which of the following is not true about inferior oblique muscle?

10964

Esotropia is commonly seen in which type of refractive error?

10965

Identify the test shown in the image:

10966

Indentify the instrument:

10967

Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared in involvement of Occulomotor nerve

10968

Retinal layer relatively resistant to radiation is:

10969

Which of the following is not a feature of paralytic squint:

10970

The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:

10971

Aniseikonia means:

10972

Most common cause of ocular morbidity in India:

10973

A patient Mohan, aged 60 yrs, needs an eye examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his eyes but not paralyse his ciliary muscles. Choose the drug:

10974

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, irido-donesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

10975

A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm, that clears up in about 2 minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

10976

What should not be done in this patient?

10977

All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

10978

In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen EXCEPT

10979

There is a retained intraocular iron foreign body. What is the best investigation for monitoring vision?

10980

A 20 years old boy presents with history of tennis ball injury to the right eye. On examination a red spot is seen on the macula. The most likely diagnosis is:

10981

A 19 year old young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of nasal decongestants presented with abrupt onset of fever and chills and rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, moderate proptosis and chemosis. On examination, optic disc is congested. Most likely diagnosis is:

10982

Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis in children:

10983

Most common malignant tumour of the eyelids:

10984

A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathological examination to rule out the possibility of:

10985

Which of the following is not included in the Global Vision 2020 Program?

10986

The commonest cause of visual loss in AIDS is which one of the following?

10987

Which of the following is not an indication for evisceration?

10988

A 26 year old G2 A1 at 18 weeks presented with complaints of draining per vaginum for the past 4 hours. On examination, membranes were found to be ruptured and uterine contractions were present. Which of the following sonographic findings would be indicative of cervical incompetence in this patient?

10989

A 36 year old woman was being treated for infertility. 2 years, after the treatment started, she conceived. As a part of routine obstetric investigation, ultrasound was done, which shows the following appearance. Identify the type of twin pregnancy in this patient:

10990

28 year old female primigravida, presented at 30 weeks of gestation for regular antenatal check-up. On examination the uterus corresponds to 36 weeks of gestation with normal fetal heart rate. Transvaginal ultrasound was done which revealed AFI of 26, which of the following condition is most likely to be associated with this patient?

10991

A 28 year old female presented in labour for vaginal breech delivery which amongst the following is false regarding the management:

10992

A 34 weeks pregnant lady presented with seizures. Her blood pressure is 200/110mmhg. Which drugs should be used for this patient?

10993

Which of the following can be a cause of oligohydromnios?

10994

In the Cervical dilatation Curve shown in Photograph, Arrow represents:

10995

A 24-year-old woman has a history of epilepsy that is being treated with phenytoin. She is healthy otherwise. She becomes pregnant. Which of the following should we do throughout the remainder of her pregnancy?

10996

If a zygote divides 2-3 days after fertilization, what type of twins are seen:

10997

A 22-year-old primigravida visits ANC OPD with 20 weeks POG. On examination uterine height reveals a 16-week size. USG shows reduced liquor. What will be the diagnosis?

10998

A 32 year old pregnant female presented with 34-week pregnancy with complaints of pain in the abdomen with decreased fetal movements. Upon examination, BP=90/60, FHR=100 and on P/V examination blood is seen with cervical os closed. Preferred management?

10999

Which of The following is an Obstetric Conjugate?

11000

The placenta shown below is

11001

A 19-year-old primigravid woman is expecting her first child; she is 12 wk pregnant by dates. She has vaginal bleeding and an enlarged-for-dates uterus. In addition, no fetal heart sounds are heard. The ultrasound is obtained as shown in image. The most likely diagnosis of this woman condition is:

11002

26 year old primi gravida at 38 weeks of gestation, presented to the obstetrics OPD with complaints of faintness on lying down for the past one week. She feels better when she turns to one side and while she is in sitting position. What is the reason of her clinical condition?

11003

Which of the following potentially represents the most dangerous situation?

11004

A 19 year-old primigravida, presents with 8 weeks amenorrhea, light bleeding and pain. USG reveals intra uterine pregnancy. What is the preferred management in this case?

11005

Identify the following clinical appearance. It may be present in:

11006

A 26 weeks pregnant female presents with HTN for the first time without proteinuria. Diagnosis of such condition:

11007

A patient, who was using CuT for contraception, presents with a 20 week pregnancy. The IUCD is placed at fundus, tail visible at OS and she wants to continue the pregnancy. What is your next step for this patient?

11008

32 year old women presented to obstetrics OPD with the twin pregnancy, 10 weeks of gestation. She has a 3 year old female child who was born at term and had 2 first trimester abortions previously. Which of the following is correct representation of her obstetrics score/formula? G:  Gravida, P: Para

11009

A 32-year-old woman in her third trimester presents with painless & profuse bright red vaginal bleeding. Pelvic examination is deferred. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an abnormally positioned placenta. Which of following is most likely diagnosis?

11010

Following picture represents which obstetrics grip during palpation:

11011

At 24 weeks age of gestation, fundal height reaches to?

11012

Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in:

11013

Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except

11014

Low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein is not seen in:

11015

Which of the following statements concerning appendicitis in pregnancy is true?

11016

During the delivery, it is necessary to do an episiotomy. The tear extends through sphincter of the rectum, but the rectal mucosa is intact. How would you classify this type of episiotomy?

11017

All the following are given in postpartum hemorrhage except:

11018

Point of distinction between partial mole to complete mole is:

11019

A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia is detected to have lung metastasis. She should be staged as:

11020

Which of the following is the most common cause of persistent trophoblastic disease after H. Mole evacuation?

11021

Antenatal diagnosis can be made from all the following EXCEPT

11022

All the following indicate foetal distress EXCEPT

11023

Highest transmission of Hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs, if the mother is infected during:

11024

A female of 36 weeks gestation presents with hypertension, blurring of vision and headache, her blood pressure reading was 180/120 mmHg and 174/110 mmHg after 20 minutes. How will you manage the patient?

11025

A pregnant lady acquires chickenpox 3 days prior to delivery. She delivers by normal. Which of the following statement is true?

11026

All of the following indicate superimposed preeclampsia in pregnant female of chronic hypertension except:

11027

28 year old female nearing her due date has been admitted following regular contractions. The attending doctor did an examination and told her assistant to note down that the head is +1 station. Where is the exact position of the head?

11028

What are the cut off values in 2 hours oral glucose tolerance test for fasting and at 1 hour and 2 hours after meals respectively?

11029

In a pregnant woman with heart disease, all of the following are to be done except:

11030

True about diabetes in pregnancy are all except:

11031

A patient went into shock immediately after normal delivery, likely cause is:

11032

Most valuable diagnostic test in case of suspected ectopic pregnancy:

11033

A 20 years old female has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mmHg, pulse rate 120/min and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

11034

A woman comes with postdated pregnancy at 42 weeks. The initial evaluation would be:

11035

Anticipated preterm delivery. Dose of dexamethasone given to mother is:

11036

Most common cause of first trimester abortion is:

11037

37 weeks primi with uterine contraction for 10 hrs, cervix is 1 cm dilated and poorly effaced management is:

11038

Karyotyping of fetus can be done through all of the following invasive methods except:

11039

Estrogen and progesterone is 1st 2 months of pregnancy are produced by:

11040

A 32 years old woman is 9 weeks pregnant and has a 10 years old Down syndrome child. What test would you suggest for the mother so that she can know about her chances of getting a Down syndrome baby is this present pregnancy. How will you assure the mother about the chances of Down’s syndrome in the present pregnancy?

11041

High level of hCG found in all except:

11042

A pregnant woman found to have excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid. Such polyhydramnios is likely to be associated with all of the following conditions except:

11043

A full term pregnant female is admitted in labour. On examination, she has uterine contractions 2 in 10 minutes, lasting for 30-35 sec. On P/A examination 3/5 of the head is palpable per abdomen. On P/V examination cervix is 4 cm dilated membranes intact. On repeat examination 4 hrs later, cervix is 5 cm dilated, station is unchanged and cervicograph remains to the right of the alert line. Which of the following statement is true?

11044

Fertilized ovum reaches uterine cavity by:

11045

In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?

11046

On TVS which of the following shape of cervix indicates preterm labor:

11047

All of the following changes are seen in pregnancy except:

11048

The first person to have given anesthesia successfully

11049

Triad of anaesthesia includes all except

11050

The following image indicates

11051

ASA grading is related to

11052

Ideal fasting time before circumcision in a 2 month old should be

11053

A 70 year old female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She is a hypertensive patient and has past history of seizures and is on various medications for her condition. Which one of the following drugs is essentially stopped before anaesthesia in this patient?

11054

Atropine in anaesthesia has all the following uses except

11055

Midazolam is used as premedication because of which property

11056

A patient presents in the emergency with shoulder dislocation. Which of the following is correct regarding the anaesthetic techniques that can be used for reduction of the shoulder?

11057

Best anaesthesia technique for 25 year female with heart disease for LSCS

11058

Bispectral index is indicative of

11059

Colour of oxygen knob

11060

Which of the following is wrong regarding the colour coding of anaesthetic gas cylinders?

11061

Best anaesthetic breathing circuit used for a pediatric patient

11062

Which one of the following is delivered from a vaporizer?

11063

Minimum alveolar concentration is associated with

11064

Diffusion hypoxia is seen with which of the following?

11065

Which of the following produces maximum greenhouse effect?

11066

Maximum bronchial dilation is seen with which one of the following

11067

Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with

11068

A patient with histroy of asthma is to be operated for ovarian cystectomy. Which of the following agents is to be avoided in such a patient?

11069

Which of the following is not a general anaesthetic agent?

11070

A 40 year old female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She is a patient with known seizure disorder. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is best used in this patient?

11071

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the procedure being done?

11072

Kindly identify

11073

Propofol vial is discarded after 6 hours because

11074

For a patient undergoing aortic valve insufficiency surgery (cardiac surgery) the anesthesiologist wants to use an induction agent that maintains the cardiac output of the patient and has least changes in heart rate and blood pressure. Which one of the following agents is best used for this?

11075

Which of the following acts on NMDA receptors?

11076

Anti-convulsant in nature

11077

All of the following are opioids used for analgesia during general anaesthesia except?

11078

The following image is

11079

The most common mode of a neuro muscular monitor used to monitor the action of pancuronium

11080

Which one of the following produces depolarizing block

11081

Succinylcholine has its muscle relaxant effect because of its action on

11082

All of the following release histamine except

11083

A patient while getting a dose of muscle relaxant for a surgery complained of intense pain. Which one of the following is most likely responsible?

11084

Which one of the following is amino-ester?

11085

Which one of the following produces conduction block

11086

Local anaesthetics have maximum effect at

11087

Most cardiotoxic local anaesthetic out of the following

11088

The last layer punctured while giving epidural anaesthesia

11089

One of the commonest intra operative complications seen immediately after spinal anaesthesia

11090

Most common post-operative side effect of spinal anaesthesia

11091

Contraindications to spinal anaesthesia includes all of the following except

11092

A 30 year old lady is to undergo surgery under intravenous regional anesthesia for her left trigger finger. Which of the following drugs can be used for giving this type of anaesthesia?

11093

A patient during pre-anesthetic checkup gives a history of sudden rise in temperature during surgery that had happened to him 2 years ago and that it runs in his family. He is thankful that he was saved in OT. Which of the following must have been used to treat this condition in the OT?

11094

The following image indicates

11095

A pulse-oximeter may show in-accurate readings in which of the following conditions?

11096

The marked point is

11097

Identify the adjacent laryngoscope blade

11098

Kindly identify the device shown

11099

This device shown is best used during

11100

All the following are complications of the following except

11101

During the 2 rescuer CPR of a child, chest compression to ventilation ratio is:

11102

During the 2 rescuer CPR, the rescuers change roles approximately

11103

The heimlich maneuver is done during

11104

The following may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except

11105

Vagolytic property is seen with

11106

Suggamadex is related to which of the following

11107

Which of the following can cause allergic reactions?

11108

A 23-year-old woman with confirmed pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) presents with right upper quadrant pain. What is the MOST likely etiology?

11109

Order of development of secondary sexual characteristics in males:

11110

The following instrument is used for:

11111

A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to Gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attending menarche. She gives H/O cyclic abdominal pain. On further examination midline, abdominal swelling seen. Per rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. Which of the following can be most commonly seen?

11112

Treatment of choice for a female presenting with greenish discharge and shown appearance of cervix on per vaginal examination:

11113

True about endometriosis:

11114

A 29-year-old woman with severe dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia. On laparoscopic examination following finding was seen on the pelvic peritoneum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

11115

A patient presented with intermenstrual bleeding for the past 6 months. Which of the following types of fibroid is usually associated with this symptom?

11116

A woman presented to you with the following finding. Which of the following is not a risk factor for this condition?

11117

A 64-year old woman presents to the gynecology clinic with complaints of a mass descending PV. On examination, you note that the external os lies at the level of the introitus. What is the degree of uterine prolapse?

11118

A teenager presented in clinic with complaints of excessive growth of coarse hair on her jawline and upper lip. Which of the following is the most common cause for this condition?

11119

A 32 -year-old lady has been unable to conceive for the past 2 years in spite of regular intercourse. She has recently been diagnosed with PCOS. Which of the following is the FDA-approved medication that you could recommend to her?

11120

Which of the following is not the mechanism of action of progesterone only pills?

11121

A 19-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination breasts were found to be poorly developed, the vagina was present. Ultrasound revealed normal uterus but gonads weren't detected. Further evaluation done showed 46XY karyotype. The most probable diagnosis?

11122

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to OCP use?

11123

Given below is the image of a smear prepared from the vaginal discharge of a patient. What is the most likely diagnosis?

11124

A 42-year old woman, gravida 3, para 3, complains of severe, progressive secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Pelvic examination demonstrates a tender, diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal tenderness. Results of endometrial biopsy are normal. This patient most likely has?

11125

Fibroid causes all the following except:

11126

Clomiphene citrate is used in:

11127

All the following drugs are used for postcoital contraception except:

11128

The presentation of Asherman syndrome typically involves:

11129

All of the following ovarian tumours arise from surface epithelium EXCEPT:

11130

Not caused by DMPA:

11131

A woman is found to have a unilateral invasive carcinoma of vulva that is 2 cm in diameter but not associated with evidence of lymph node spread. Initial management should consists of:

11132

False regarding dermoid cyst of ovary is:

11133

Mullerian duct anomaly may include the absence of any of the following EXCEPT:

11134

All of the following are known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma except:

11135

In IUCD, the organism causing infection is:

11136

The following statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD) except:

11137

Technique used for aspiration of sperm directly from testes for in vitro fertilization is:

11138

Gonococcal infection spreads by:

11139

A 52 years old female has a 2cm soft swelling in the valva, just outside the vaginal introitus. While walking she has discomfort and local pain. The treatment of choice is?

11140

Most common cause for postmenopausal bleeding in Indian woman is:

11141

Which of the statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO?

11142

Which of the following is not a risk factor for CA cervix?

11143

What is the drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls?

11144

A 45 years old female presents with post coital bleeding. On per speculum examination a friable mass is found in cervix. Next step in management is:

11145

A lady presented with carcinoma endometrium involving >50% of myometrium extending to vagina and positive peritoneal cytology but no involvement of paraaortic and preaortic nodes. What is the stage of disease?

11146

What is the ideal treatment for a 55 year old female with simple hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia?

11147

All of the following are used for screening cancers in females except:

11148

An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next step in treatment is:

11149

All are true about polycystic ovarian disease except:

11150

A male with azoospermia. On examination size of testis normal, FSH normal testosterone normal. Most probable cause is:

11151

In ovarian cycle increased level of LH are due to:

11152

True about timing of LH surge:

11153

According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristic of normal semen analysis?

11154

A 22 years old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face. Serum LH level is 36 mlU/ mL and FSH is 9 mlU/mL. androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum Dheas is normal. The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

11155

A 34 year old female was being treated for infertility as a part of the management hysterosalpingography was performed which returned the following picture the most likely cause of infertility in this patient would be:

11156

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

11157

All of these can be used of postcoital contraceptive except:

11158

Most useful investigation for VVF is:

11159

A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

11160

A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and tension with ascites, the probable cause is:

11161

All are used in treatment of endometriosis except:

11162

Which of the following methods for assessment of female infertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict timing of ovulation:

11163

Best indicator of ovarian reserve is:

11164

A female 35 years P3L3 with CIN III on colposcopic biopsy, what would you do?

11165

Which of the following is not seen with corpus cancer syndrome in cancer endometrium?

11166

A patient presenting with an adnexal mass was operated and the following tumour was removed. What is the likely diagnosis?

11167

Regarding Androgen insensitivity syndrome, all are true except:

11168

Which color bag to be used to dispose cotton swab contaminated with blood?

11169

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

11170

A patient is resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ofloxacin and Kanamycin. What type of resistance is being shown by the patient?

11171

A farmer is having complaints of skin rash which increases on skin exposure. There is also redness of tongue. Maize is his staple diet. Which of the following vitamin deficiency can cause these features?

11172

In a 10 year school child under school health program, which vaccine has to be given?

11173

Global hunger index does not include

11174

There is an outbreak of encephalitis in a community. According to universal immunization schedule, the route of administration of vaccine for the likely infection is

11175

A new chemoprophylactic drug has been introduced for Malaria. As a consequence what can be noticed in pattern of disease?

11176

Which of the following is correctly matched for type of vaccine mentioned

11177

Identify the logo given in image below

11178

A total of 50 patients with complaints of abdominal pain and fever are identified and surveyed by patient interviews. Which is/are true for this study design?

11179

Which of the following is correct regarding prevalence?

11180

Rabies free state in India is

11181

Which of the following statements is correct?

11182

The most important measure to establish a causal relationship is

11183

According to suraksha clinic of NACP, a women with vaginal discharge and lower abdominal pain should be given which color kit

11184

All of the following are voluntary targets under Comprehensive global monitoring framework for the prevention and control of non-communicable diseases except

11185

Match the colors of triaging and select the correct option

11186

Select the correct study designs for the following scenarios

11187

The duration of quarantine is

11188

Best way to study relationship between two variables is

11189

For a negatively skewed data, mean will be

11190

Which is not a measure of Dispersion

11191

In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test which would give its significance is

11192

Protein content in Human milk is (in gms/lit)

11193

NITI ayog has replaced

11194

A new drug is introduced in the market after which phase of clinical trials?

11195

Best way to plot the change of incidence of disease over time is

11196

All of the following regarding health planning committees in India is true except

11197

Reduction of premature mortality from Non Communicable diseases is part of which target under Sustainable Development Goals?

11198

One subcentre for hilly area should serve a population of

11199

Sensitivity of test is

11200

Which of the following statements is/are true?

11201

Disease transmitted by louse

11202

Number of maternal deaths due to diseases complicating pregnancy expressed per 1 lakh live births is known as

11203

The maximum permissible level of fluorine in drinking water is

11204

The cu T 380 A is approved for use for

11205

Child sex ratio includes

11206

India new born action plan aims to achieve single digit still birth rate by

11207

Responsibilities of ASHA include all, except

11208

Which is the home based pregnancy test kit provided by Govt of India

11209

Match the following with their levels of prevention:

11210

Which of the following statements is/are false

11211

PQLI, includes all except

11212

Which of the following is false regarding iceberg phenomenon?

11213

Drug of choice for a patient tested positive with rk – 39 is

11214

The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called

11215

Dose of IFA under Anemia Mukt Bharat Campaign for adolescent group is

11216

Mission Indradhanush is for

11217

Which among the following cannot be used as post coital contraceptive?

11218

The main disinfecting action of bleaching powder is due to

11219

Under ESI, sickness benefit is provision of

11220

Additional calorie requirement for a female who has a 9 month child is?

11221

ANMOL is

11222

Which agency collects data and publishes large scale surveys continuously regarding morbidity, family planning and vital events?

11223

Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is

11224

Combined parameter for pediatric and obstetric care in country is

11225

Urban HEART stands for

11226

Training of medical officers in immediate newborn care is objective of

11227

Correct combination of vaccine is

11228

Standardized index of fertility is

11229

Pneumoconiosis seen among workers of cardboard industry is due to

11230

A married couple has 1 child birth recently. They belong to which phase of family cycle

11231

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension is coded as ______ color under Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana

11232

The following graph represents

11233

New born Stabilization unit are established at the level of

11234

Which of the following is a true statement

11235

The disease spread by the following vector

11236

A person from Assam developed fever, altered sensorium, hallucinations and vomiting since 4 days. The drug of choice is

11237

Open vial policy applies to which one of the following vaccines?

11238

A group of 6 experts discussing and interacting about infertility for public awareness is

11239

The following is app logo of which national health programme?

11240

Which of the following is not a feature for vector of malaria

11241

The reference weight of male and female as per recent guidelines is

11242

Which among the following is the most common cause for blindness in the age group of 0 – 49 years?

11243

Vitamin K at birth is given to prevent

11244

The recommended dietary folate per day for lactating women is

11245

Kangaroo mother care helps in preventing

11246

All of the following facilities are provided under Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram except

11247

All are primordial prevention strategies against Coronary Heart disease except

11248

Causative organism of Donovanosis (Granuloma inguinale) is

11249

Best high level disinfectant is

11250

To prevent neural tube defects in a women with history of neural tube defects, dose of folic acid to be given women is

11251

Phases of disaster cycle before disaster impact include

11252

For a population of 10,000 trench method sanitary landfill pit of depth 2 m is to be constructed. How much land area is required per year?

11253

At PHC, vaccine storage is done in

11254

Most common cause of LBW in India is

11255

MTP amendment act 2021 allows termination of pregnancy until a maximum gestational age of

11256

What is the percentage of ±1 SD in given graph

11257

COVID 19 Kavach ELISA test, developed by ICMR, detects which immunoglobulins?

11258

All are morbidity indicators except

11259

Most common cancer in world among males is

11260

As per latest guidelines, the protein requirement in g/day is

11261

Minimum number of antenatal visits are

11262

The denominator of proportional mortality rate of Tuberculosis is

11263

Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana provides a cover of_____

11264

Which among the following is not a component of Primary Health care?

11265

A worker in wheat storage facility developed hepatic carcinoma. The most probable agent could be

11266

Highest content of sodium is found in

11267

Which of the following is/are false statements

11268

Drug used to treat malaria due to P vivax in a pregnant female during first trimester is:

11269

True about Amphotericin-B are all except:

11270

Antibiotic commonly associated with cause of pseudomembranous colitis is:

11271

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningitis:

11272

A-28-year-old intravenous drug user complains about severe epigastric pains, nausea and vomiting. He has upper GI endoscopy which shows small areas of ulceration and white plaques. Following is the best treatment option:

11273

Which of the following non-BZD sedative drug acting on BZD receptor but not having muscle relaxant property is:

11274

A young male giving H/O excessive blinking of one eye since last 5-6 years. He is not able to control this and when he tried to control frequency increases. This is affecting his professional life decreasing his confidence level. What is the best drug for this patient

11275

All are correct except:

11276

True match for Antiemetics:

11277

Cyproheptadine: All are true except

11278

Gonorrhoea showing resistance to all of the following antibiotics except:

11279

All are true regarding Daptomycin except:

11280

Topical DOC for the treatment in this case is:

11281

Which antiviral drug is use in both HIV and hepatitis B

11282

Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular blocking agent used in day care surgeries:

11283

Which of the following antimicrobial is not given in pregnancy:

11284

Praziquantal is used for the treatment of

11285

Anti-depressant drug which is used for smoking cessation is

11286

A female developed pain and insect crawling like sensation on legs at night which is relieved by shaking her legs. Which of the following is drug of choice for this condition?

11287

Antidepressants drugs acts via inhibiting reuptake of serotonin is having which side effects:

11288

Which of the following is best to give to newborn for 6 weeks for preventing the vertical transmission of HIV:

11289

CB-NAAT is done in TB patients to detect resistance due to mutation in:

11290

Drug used for condition given in below image is:

11291

Chronic alcoholic suddenly stops drinking and getting is in Delirium. Best management is:

11292

An old female having breast carcinoma was prescribed transtuzumab. What is true regarding this drug:

11293

All are true regarding Imatinib except:

11294

Locally used antifungal for corneal ulceration is:

11295

Which of the following antileprotic drug causes skin ichthyosis:

11296

All are true except in Isoniazid therapy:

11297

A patient presents with tremors, hypokinesia and muscular rigidity after few weeks of using a drug. Which drug is responsible for causing these symptoms:

11298

Patient suffering from pain in right first metatarso-phalangeal joint. He was prescribed the drug colchicin. Mechanism by which this drug act is:

11299

An elderly patient is diagnosed with disease of Alzheimer due to his symptoms of dementia. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is important for causing these symptoms and drug used to treat this is:

11300

A pregnant lady was given indomethacin in 26 weeks to treat arthritic pain. It could lead to?

11301

A talented 21-year-old violinist musical career is in trouble because he becomes acutely anxious, suffering from tremors and palpitations, whenever he is asked to play in front of an audience. What medication can help him in reducing his symptoms?

11302

Drug causing the condition given below is/are:

11303

A patient on bipolar disorder treatment developed hypertension. He was started on thiazides for hypertension. After few days, he developed coarse tremors, confusion and weakness of limbs. Which drug toxity occurred?

11304

Which of the following drugs is used as nail lacquer for onychomycosis:

11305

Which of the following drug can cause the side-effect given in the picture:

11306

All are the newer modalities in epilepsy treatment except:

11307

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After few years, he developed bull eye maculopathy and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this:

11308

Morphine is contraindicated in all except:

11309

Which of the following is bacteriostatic:

11310

The given drug used to prevent which of the following drug toxicity:

11311

A male patient after staying in hotel for 2 days comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of cough, malaise, headache, chills, diarrhea. Based on the history and findings, while awaiting diagnostic test results, the patient is admitted to the hospital and started on antibiotic therapy. What is the drug of choice for treating this disease?

11312

An 80-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of the gradual onset of stiffness in his extremities. You noticed tremor in his right arm. You also notice that he has a mask like face. Physical examination is significant for cogwheel rigidity in all extremities, a pill-rolling tremor, and a shuffling gait. You decide to start the patient on a medication to treat this condition. Which medicine is best to start?

11313

An 8-year-old boy is brought to paediatrician because mother noticed that the patient simply stops in his tracks and enters a staring, trance like state for 15-30 seconds. During these episodes, he is unresponsive and unaware of his surroundings. After these episodes, he returns to normal and has no memory of the event. Paediatrician decided to start a drug that can help to him?

11314

Drug causing the condition given below is/are:

11315

A 45-year-old alcoholic man presents to the emergency complaining of severe pain in the big toe on his right foot. On physical examination, you note that the first metatarsal joint of his right foot is swollen and tender to touch. Laboratory studies reveal significantly elevated uric acid levels. You prescribe drugs that prevent similar attacks in the future by taking a medication that acts by decreasing uric acid level by inhibiting xanthine oxidase enzyme. Which drug is this?

11316

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of flushing, nausea, vomiting, and headache. He reports that he was feeling fine until he attended a party and had drinks. He also tells you that he has been taking an oral antibiotic for the last 5 days which was prescribed by dentist for caries. You suspect that he has had a reaction due to the combination of his antibiotic and his alcohol intake. Which antibiotic is this?

11317

Which NSAID causes reye syndrome in children:

11318

All of the following cox-inhibitor is increases risk of myocardial infarction:

11319

Which of the following drug used in treatment of irritable bowel syndrome associated diarrhea:

11320

Drugs causing peptic ulcer are all except:

11321

Thalidomide used in all of the following conditions except:

11322

A 32-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of a burning sensation in vagina during micturition. She is also saying that it is causing fishy smell that gets stronger after sex. On examination, you observe a whitish grayish discharge. You start the vaginal suppository to cure the infection. Which drug you suggested?

11323

Parents of one child were called by principal to school and during interaction they were told that your child is not normal like others as he is hyperactive in some of the situation and not being attentive in class. Drug of choice for treatment of this child is:

11324

A patient of 65 years has taken radiotherapy for his thyroid malignancy before 2 years now taking chemotherapy for recurrence of his cancer. After starting chemotherapy these lesions appears. By seeing these lesions which drug you suspect that person was given:

11325

A female is on valproate to treat myoclonic seizures. Since last 1 year no episode of seizure occurred. Now she came to the physician after missing menstruation period to take advice regarding drug therapy. What best advice you will give to her:

11326

There was outbreak of MRSA in hospital and it was found that the nurse had MRSA pneumonia. How will you treat her:

11327

All are correctly matched except:

11328

True regarding second generation antihistaminics are all except:

11329

A young male patient was suffering from AML so Doxorubicin based regimen chemotherapy given for treated. After some time he is having swelling in lower limb and breathlessness on excretion and during night time. Which is the possible toxicity to this patient:

11330

A patient having lung disorder, which of the following anticancer should not be given to this patient:

11331

Antidote for methotrexate poisoning is:

11332

Which of the following antibiotic not effective against kleibsella and pseudomonas:

11333

Which of the following drug has risk of prolongation of QT interval:

11334

Treatment for primary syphilis is:

11335

All of the following are used in leishmaniasis except:

11336

A patient having pneumonia due to ventilator treatment given ceftriaxone and amikacin. Culture and sensitivity report showing pseudomonas growth, which is having extended spectrum beta lactamase activity. What is the next step of management

11337

Which of the following pair is correct side effect of drugs:

11338

Drug which does not act by inhibiting nucleic acid is:

11339

A patient brought to the causality with overdose of amitryptylline. What is not true:

11340

Female having unilateral headache with photophobia and phonophobia was given one drug to terminate this episode. Now she developed pain at tip of fingers. Which drugs have been used in this case?

11341

Mechanism of action of Buprenorphine used for opioid de-addiction:

11342

Following drug kit used in treatment of:

11343

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to block K+ channels in the heart responsible for cardiac repolarization, and also blocks calcium channels in the AV node

11344

Which one of the following is the most appropriate drug to use for the patient described in the following scenario

11345

Patient came with creatinine 6, otherwise asymptomatic, which drug should be stopped immediately

11346

A patient comes to the ER with a painful stab wound. The ER resident administers pentazocine for the pain. Soon after administration the patient experiences sweating, restlessness, and an increase in pain sensations. What is the most likely explanation for his symptoms

11347

Which one of the following statements about lithium is true

11348

35 year old hyperthyroid female patient was started on anti thyroid drugs. The drug acts by inhibition of release of thyroid hormone. Which drug is it

11349

Following are used to Arrest/reversal of disease progression and prolongation of survival in CHF patients except

11350

A pregnant lady was presented to medicine OPD with burning micturition and was diagnosed with UTI. Which of the following antimicrobials is preferred in this patient

11351

A patient visited an endemic area of falciparum malaria and was given prophylaxis for malaria. How many weeks he needs to the take the drug during travel

11352

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed Megaloblastic anemia and elevated liver enzymes. Which drug is most likely to cause this

11353

A 58 yr old male patient was having Hypertension, CHF and microalbuminuria. Which of the following drug will be the best drug for this patient

11354

A patient came to emergency ward with low BP and features of pulmonary edema. His ejection fraction of the heart was reduced. Diuretic which is contraindicated in this condition is

11355

A 52 year old patient has history of angina and heart rate of 94bpm and also has tense personality. His BP now is 154/94mm of Hg. the preferred drug in the treatment of hypertension in this patient is

11356

A patient with atrial fibrillation and CHF was started on a drug which acts by vagomimmetic action by blocking Na K ATPase pump. What is the drug used for the management

11357

A 50 year old man is being treated for atrial arrhythmia. He develops hypothyroidism and pulmonary fibrosis after 2 years. Which one of the following antiarrythmic drug is the most likely cause

11358

A patient 58year old had laryngeal cancer and undergone neck irradiation. After that she had decreased salivary secretion and dry mouth. This of the following drug is not useful in the above condition

11359

A patient came with BP of 190/110mmHg and has blurring of vision and ataxia. What is the best drug for this patient

11360

A patient was given IV penicillin and suddenly developed rash on skin, swelling of lips and eyelids, hypotension and difficulty in breathing. DOC in the above condition is

11361

A 50 year old male patient has long standing DMT2 from last 15 years. He has diabetic gastroparesis and presents with abdominal fullness and heartburn. Which of the following drugs will you avoid in this patient

11362

A 40 year male patient was on chemotherapy for Non Hodgkin lymphoma. His total leucocytes count is now 2000cells/mm3. Which of the following drug is effective in this condition

11363

A 45 year old male comes to casualty with severe headache. The neurologist attends that patient and orders for investigations. After examination and investigation doctor decides that the pain is due to increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following diuretic is most useful in this situation

11364

Mr. Swamy aged 65 has HF and on medication like telmisartan 20mg and metoprolol. He comes to the OPD with complaints of shortness of breath, increased pitting ankle edema, and a 1.5kg weight gain over the last 3 days. He is stable and has no chest pain. Which of the following is the best treatment advice to the patient

11365

A 45 year old man has myocardial infarction and is being treated for the same in emergency department. Now suddenly he develops ventricular tachycardia. The best drug to treat this arrhythmia is

11366

Mr. Sonu was having stable angina and was put on isosorbide mononitrate and his symptoms were well controlled. He comes to clinic now and tells that his angina symptoms are coming more in morning, so he himself decided to take it morning and night after food. What is the best advice given to this patient

11367

A 54 year old female is on warfarin therapy for prevention of deep venous thrombosis. She now develops enteric fever and put on ciprofloxacin by the physician. After 2 days she comes with bleeding episodes. The reason is

11368

A 56-year old male is having G6PD deficiency. He develops Plasmodium vivax malaria and treated for the same. Now he complains of severe fatigue, back pain, and darkened urine. Which one of the following anti-malarial drugs used in treatment could have caused his symptoms

11369

A young frequent traveler comes to the clinic with complaints of diarrhea and fatigue. The stool specimens show bi nucleate organisms with four flagella as shown in image. Which one of the following is the DOC for the infection caused by the organism

11370

A 60-year-old female referred to a dermatologist by her primary care physician because of a painless, inflamed, erupting ulcer that has been on her right hand for two months. This patient works in her vegetable and herb garden daily and states that the lesion began as a small red papule. Despite 10 days of treatment with Cefixime, the papule has continued to enlarge. The dermatologist cultured the ulcer and the results demonstrated the patient has sporotrichosis, an infection caused by Sporothrix schenckii. What is the most appropriate therapy that should be recommended to treat the infection

11371

A 25-year-old married female was on OCPs for contraception from last 2 years. Two weeks ago she had a positive tuberculosis skin test (PPD test), and a chest radiograph showed evidence of right upper lobe infection. Without asking her drug history, she was started on standard anti mycobacterial therapy. After one and half month she came to the doctor and told that her Urine pregnancy test is positive .Which of the following drug may be the likely reason behind her UPT being positive, even after taking OCPs

11372

A 45 year old male is diagnosed with HIV. His CD4 + count are 300 cells /mm3 and his viral load is high. Which of the following will be helpful as prophylactic in preventing pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jiroveci in this patient

11373

A 66-year-old man complained of decreased libido and difficulty maintaining an erection. Which of the following is false about drugs used in its treatment

11374

A 58-year-old patient is diagnosed with ovarian cancer and was started on cisplatin but complains of severe vomiting after 6 hrs of starting cisplatin. Which of the following medications would be most effective to counteract the emesis in this

11375

A 24 year old male with a childhood history of asthma complained of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing after cleaning the dirt room. His symptoms became so severe and he came to the emergency room. Physical examination revealed diaphoresis, dyspnea, tachycardia, and tachypnea. His respiratory rate was 42 breaths per minute, pulse rate 110bpm, and blood pressure 132/65 mm Hg. Which of the following drugs addition in this situation, increases Beta 2 receptor responsiveness and reduces allergic manifestations

11376

A patient was on low dose of drug X from last 10years for his allergic condition prescribed by a quack. He comes with blurring of vision and examination of eye was as shown in image. The drug which is responsible for above problem seen in image i

11377

A 65-year-old woman is being treated with raloxifene for osteoporosis. There is an increased risk of her developing

11378

A 32 year old patient had anaphylactic shock and was give Inj. Adrenaline 1: 1000 by IM route. The actions of histamine are antagonized by adrenaline. This type of antagonism is called

11379

The drug to be taken only on prescription by registered medical practitioner comes under which schedule

11380

In a clinical trial, a drug X was evaluated for Hypertension. It was used in healthy human volunteers and drug caused severe gastritis in them. Which phase of clinical trial it was found out

11381

A 55 year old male patient was having symptoms of excessive thirst and excessive urine production and ADH levels were very low. Which of the following drug will help in above condition of the patient

11382

A 44 year old male patient has a history of chronic gout. His BP is now 156/90mmHg and the physician decided to start him on an ARB for managing his HTN. which one of them is best to this patient

11383

A Patient on Secondary prophylaxis of MI. even with dual Antiplatelet therapy he had one more episode of acute coronary syndrome. He was also taking an over the counter drug from many days. Which of the following may be that drug

11384

A female patient came to casualty complaining of change in colour and numbness of thumb. On asking history she told that she has taken a medicine today for migraine headache. What is the drug responsible and its treatment

11385

A 23-year-old male Mr. X was brought to emergency room by his father. When the father was asked about history, father told that Mr. X ate some seeds from a plant and started behaving crazy. On examination he was confused, his skin was hot and dry. His pupils were dilated and unresponsive to light. Blood pressure was 180/105 mm Hg, pulse 150/min, and rectal temp 40 C (104 F). The treatment of choice for above poisoning is

11386

Patient presenter with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following beta-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient urinary tract infection

11387

A 34-year-old male with a history of a seizure disorder, maintained on phenytoin and phenobarbital, presented to the emergency department for CNS depression. The phenobarbital level was 70 mg/L (15 to 40 mg/L therapeutic range) and the phenytoin level was 15 mg/L (10 to 20 mg/L therapeutic range). He denies any acute ingestion. What therapy can be considered to enhance the elimination of phenobarbital without impacting the phenytoin

11388

A 28 year old female has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder(GAD). On evaluation, patient revealed history of drug dependence to Phenobarbitone and a variety of other drugs. Along with counseling, she was prescribed a drug helpful in GAD and that has the advantage of no abuse liability. The drug prescribed is

11389

After starting continuous IV Infusion of a drug X, 75% of the drug steady-state concentration is reached after

11390

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin by itself has no sedative effect even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct

11391

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed blurring of vision and was found to have corneal opacity. Which drug is most likely to cause this

11392

A Serial actress wanted to get wrinkles removed from her face and was given local injection of Botulinum toxin. The drug acts through

11393

If codeine is coming to the market in combination with dextromethorphan as an antitussive. This combination

11394

Which of the following statement is correct for a patient on a high dose of penicillin and gentamicin

11395

A 58 year old male patient had BMI of 35. His physician started him on a drug for managing obesity.
The drug lowers glucose and given via Parentral route. Identify the drug

11396

A 45-year-old man had performance anxiety and migraine headache. Propranolol was used in this patient. What comorbid condition listed below you should very cautious, while using propranolol in this patient

11397

A patient with pelvic fracture and trauma was given morphine for pain. Following which he develops respiratory difficulty. What could be the cause

11398

An alcoholic with liver disease comes to OPD with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. The physician planned to start on a long term benzodiazepines therapy for this. Which of the following is not suitable in this patient

11399

A 25 year old female after love failure became depressed and took 10 Tablets of diazepam. She was brought to emergency room after 1 hour. She was drowsy, lethargic and confused. Which of the following drug is best used in this condition

11400

A 30 year old male patient was given drug X, as he had pain in facial nerve distribution area while chewing and talking. He now presents with Dilutional Hyponatremia and Hepatotoxicity. Which is the drug X patient is taking

11401

A 46 year-old man with a history of recurrent generalized tonic-clonic seizures visits his psychiatrist to refill his prescriptions. He complains of weight gain, loss of hair and his lab investigation revealed increased liver enzymes and ammonia levels. His doctor thinks that these new symptoms are related to one of his medications. Which of these drugs is most likely responsible for these new symptoms

11402

A 65year old male patient presented with resting tremor, Bradykinesia, rigidity and was diagnosed as a case of Parkinsonism. Which of the following drug used in the treatment of this condition acts by binding to D2 receptor

11403

48 years old man complaints of swelling, redness, and pain in his right leg. The patient is diagnosed with acute DVT and requires treatment with an anticoagulant. Which of the following anticoagulant acts by directly inhibiting Xa

11404

A 68 year old woman had a thrombotic stroke and was given high dose of Alteplase by a newly joined resident in cardiology department. The antidote for its overdose is

11405

A 65 year old patient was admitted the hospital with features of muscle pain, fatigue and dark colored urine after a general physician started him with a medication for his sore throat. He was taking Atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia and atenolol for hypertension. On lab investigations showed urine dipstick positive for blood but no RBCs in urine microscopy. His serum creatine kinase enzyme is raised. What medication was added by general physician

11406

A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be best choice for controlling her diabetes and to decrease mortality in Heart failure

11407

An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after he ingested a large quantity of carvedilol tablets. Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient

11408

A 32 year old woman was hospitalized and catheterized with a Foley catheter. She developed a urinary tract infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following is not effective in the treatment of the infection

11409

A 22 year old male patient was knocked by a bull and he sustained injuries at abdominal site. The injury resulted in spillage of intestinal contents and he is brought to the emergency room. Which antibiotic would effectively treat an infection due to Bacteroides fragilis

11410

A 28-year-old male complains of 3 days of dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge. You diagnose this to be a case of gonorrhea. Which of the following is appropriate treatment

11411

Aminoglycosides have concentration dependent killing property and that property helps in administering the drug by following regimen

11412

A 47-year-old man complains of fever, headache, confusion, aversion to light, and neck rigidity. He was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following is best drug in this patient

11413

A 48 year old truck driver complains of seasonal allergies. doctor prescribes one of the following drug for his allergy and after few days his ECG shows QT prolongation. Which one of the following drug was prescribed

11414

A 70-year-old male with BPH and an enlarged prostate continues to have urinary symptoms after an adequate doasge of tamsulosin. Dutasteride is added to his therapy to control symptoms. Dutasteride acts by following mechanism in BPH

11415

A 45-year-old male patient is being treated with ABVD chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. He presents for cycle 4 of a planned 6 cycles with a new-onset complaints of skin problem, consisting of bands of pruritic erythema on the arms, back, scalp, and hands as shown in image. Which drug in the ABVD regimen is the most likely cause of his skin problem

11416

A 45year old female complains of frequent episodes of one side headache from last 3 years. Before headache she has nausea, blurring of vision and lethargy and prefers to stay in quiet dark room. Every month the episodes are increasing. Which drug is helpful in controlling these episodes

11417

After delivery of the baby, the mother had excessive bleeding from vagina in a primary health centre. which of the following drug used in treating the above condition acts as PGF2 analogue

11418

Precautions followed before minor surgery

11419

Dettol and savlon contain

11420

All are vector borne infections except

11421

Which of the following is wrong

11422

Koch postulates are not followed by

11423

Identify zoonosis

11424

A 12 year old presented with step ladder fever and rose spots. All are possible except

11425

Blood agar contains

11426

Most common cause of UTI is

11427

Type of diarrhoea in cholera is

11428

Rose spots are seen in

11429

Most common cause of burns infection

11430

Hemozoin pigment is seen in

11431

Most common test for syphilis is

11432

Bacteria lacking cell wall

11433

M Drug of choice for MRSA is

11434

Larva found in stool in HIV patient

11435

Treatment of filariasis

11436

Drug of choice in malaria

11437

Meningococcal vaccine given to Hajj travelers includes the following serotypes of Neisseria meningitides

11438

Methicillin resistance is due to

11439

All are correct sterilization techniques except

11440

Concentration of chlorine at user end

11441

A 12 year old presented with rice water stools in a village. Transport media used is

11442

A 34 year old with crush injury pelvis had a full bladder on presentation. Catheterization was not possible. What is this procedure for urine sample collection?

11443

Screening of sputum for TB uses ____ stain

11444

All are standard tests of syphilis except

11445

First step in management of cholera is

11446

Relapse in malaria is seen in _______due to ________ and treated by _______

11447

A CSF picture of raised pressure, proteins, neutrophils and reduced glucose is suggestive of

11448

Tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin act by preventing release of

11449

Identify the phenomenon and bacteria

11450

DOTS plus and 99 DOTS are for

11451

Which of the following reduces toxin synthesis in bacteria

11452

All are correct about Plasmodium except

11453

Drugs of choice for MRSA for empirical therapy, in skin-soft tissue infections and serious infections are

11454

All are features of Trichomoniasis except

11455

The following diseases are transmitted by

11456

All are correct tests except

11457

A 12 year old child presented with itching in sole of foot after playing in soil contaminated with feces. Diagnosis?

11458

All parasites are carcinogenic except

11459

All parasites are seen in peripheral blood smear except

11460

All are correct except

11461

Phenol coefficient indicates

11462

C14 urea breath test is done for

11463

53 year old comatose patient in ICU on Foley catheter with UTI. Urine sample will be collected from

11464

33 years old with fever and rash after Aedes mosquito bite. All are possible except

11465

You have conducted a renal transplant. How will you dispose blood stained gloves

11466

43 year old patient with low grade evening fever and weight loss. Sputum revealed >20 acid fast bacilli in every 100 X field. Grading?

11467

24 years old with painless ulcer and painless lymphadenopathy after unprotected one night stand. Diagnosis, testing and treatment?

11468

12 year old unimmunized female with sore throat, pseudomembrane and fever. Diagnosis, treatment and type of vaccine?

11469

45 years old with necrotizing fasciitis, crepitus and fever after road accident. Diagnosis, toxin test?

11470

22 year old alcoholic with acute respiratory distress, fever and weakness. Sputum revealed Gram positive bacteria with Quellung reaction positive. Diagnosis?

11471

A rat infested village was having an outbreak of respiratory disease after floods. Likely vector and index?

11472

A 19 year old girl developed cardiac murmurs few months after sore throat. Diagnosis, criteria and treatment?

11473

20 years old with ulnar nerve thickening. Diagnosis, drugs for treatment?

11474

14 year female with XDRTB. Treatment?

11475

18 year old first MBBS student with 6 non-bloody non sticky foul smelling loose motions with copious amount of stools after eating street food. Diagnosis, treatment?

11476

38 years old with diarrhea. Stool revealed leaf shaped trophozoites with falling leaf motility. Diagnosis, treatment?

11477

40 year old with high grade fever every 4th day, chills, rigors. Diagnosis?

11478

41 year pregnant female with falciparum malaria. Treatment?

11479

15 year female with web space itching. Diagnosis, causative agent and treatment?

11480

An HIV positive female gave birth to a neonate with full term normal delivery. Which of the following is contraindicated?

11481

4 year child with Hutchisons triad. All are included except?

11482

A 15 year old child with disseminated Neisseria infection. Predisposition?

11483

A 7 year old child with fever and multiple abscesses. Identify test and medium?

11484

A 42 year old with spasms of face. Identify condition, disease and toxin

11485

Urethral smear from a 24 year old after unprotected sexual contact. Identification

11486

22 year old patient of meningitis by diplococci. Identify the reaction and pathogen

11487

A 7 year old girl found the following vector in her backyard. It transmits all except

11488

Identify the ova from left to right

11489

This instrument is sterilized by

11490

Identify test and bacteria

11491

Match the following

11492

Match the following Rickettsiae

11493

Treatment of Influenza

11494

Chicken pox virus reactivates to cause

11495

Which virus causes cervical cancer

11496

Type of paralysis caused by polio

11497

Painful ulcer and painful lymph node is seen in

11498

Most common cause of childhood diarrhea

11499

Treatment of Covid-19

11500

Fungal epidemic during Covid-19

11501

Valency of antibody is

11502

This is disposed in

11503

All are cell wall inhibitors except

11504

Treatment of HIV

11505

Most common cause of meningitis

11506

Diagnostic criteria for endocarditis

11507

Quarantine is done for

11508

All are EBV associated malignancies except

11509

Most appropriate combination for rabies post exposure prophylaxis

11510

All are correct except

11511

Oral thrush is caused by

11512

A 12 year old patient presented with step ladder fever and pea soup stools. Which is the first test to be done

11513

Salt and pepper retinopathy is seen in

11514

Average incubation period of HIV is

11515

Drug acting on CD4 receptor is

11516

All are correct disease days except

11517

A doctor sustained a NSI from HIV + patient. Which is the appropriate PEP

11518

Most common cause of urethritis

11519

N95 is recommended for protection against all the following diseases except

11520

All are correct about measles except

11521

Identification and valency

11522

Superantigens bind to

11523

Absolute contraindication to live vaccines

11524

Most common fungal infection in HIV

11525

Splenectomy increases risk of infection against

11526

Most common cause of meningitis in patient with ventriculoperitoneal shunt

11527

Empirical therapy for STD

11528

A 20 year old patient admitted with Type I diabetes mellitus gave a history of fever with centripetally distributed and centrifugally spreading rash. Diagnosis?

11529

All are infectious except

11530

Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis

11531

A 17 year old underwent spontaneous abortion. How will the abort us be discarded?

11532

Blood agar shows pinpoint beta hemolytic colonies. All are possible except?

11533

Child with MRSA infection developed VRSA. Which genes are involved?

11534

23 year with fever and rash on 6th day. Diagnosis?

11535

25 year female infected with a virus having haemagglutinin and neuraminidase activity. Diagnosis, treatment?

11536

Covid-19 outbreak occurred in ICU infecting all staff. What is the infective dose?

11537

4 months infant with seasonal flu. Category, typing and treatment?

11538

A 32 year lady presented with thin homogenous vaginal discharge. She was diagnosed with Nugent score. Diagnosis?

11539

65 year female given needle free vaccine?

11540

42 year old with diabetic ketoacidosis developed blackish discoloration of face. Diagnosis?

11541

Paxlovid is

11542

Newborn baby got infected by an emerging bacteria. First antibody synthesized will be

11543

48 year old travelling to Africa will be given which vaccine?

11544

15 year old traveller from UK to Kerala with multiple eruptions on hands and lymphadenopathy. Immunized with MMRV in childhood. Diagnosis?

11545

4 year unimmunized toddler with fever and spots in buccal cavity which disappeared after appearance of post auricular rash on 4th day. Diagnosis, spots and vaccine?

11546

All are correct except

11547

32 year female with saddleback fever, rash, retro-orbital pain after Aedes bite. Diagnosis, treatment, vaccine?

11548

28 year male Covid-19 RTPCR positive after two dose of Covaxin. Diagnosis?

11549

65 year female with moderate Covid-19. All are indicated except

11550

33 year old with Burkitt lymphoma. PCR likely to reveal which virus?

11551

A 17 year old MBBS 2nd year student was diagnosed with seborrheic dermatitis. Etiology and treatment?

11552

16 year old rock star addicted to iv drugs presented with fever. Which test will you advice initially?

11553

32 year with mycoplasmosis. Treatment?

11554

Family of 4 with food poisoning within 6 hours of eating sandwiches. Etiology?

11555

60 year old licked by stray dog on face. Prophylaxis?

11556

58 year male traveller diagnosed with monkeypox. Treatment, vaccine?

11557

Serodiscordant couple to be advised for HIV prevention. Which of the following is safe?

11558

Egg culture of Monkeypox in 2022 outbreak can be done on

11559

A 44 year old HIV positive lady was brought with history of altered sensoirum and projectile vomiting. On examination neck rigidity, Kernigs sign was elicited. Lumbar puncture revealed budding capsulated yeasts in India Ink stain. Diagnosis and treatment?

11560

Which marker is can be detected consistently continuously throughout the entire course of disease?

11561

Section from brain of a 2 year old. Identify

11562

Vaccine used

11563

Receptor and treatment

11564

The following type of test represents

11565

88 year ICU patient in coma. Which method is this

11566

Match the following Viruses

11567

Match the following Covid variants of concern

11568

The feature of cardiac muscle cell is all except:

11569

The collagen fiber in lens capsule is:

11570

The type of joint between ear osscicles is:

11571

The type of secretion of tarsal gland of eyelid is

11572

The osteoid is composed of all except:

11573

Regarding Mammary gland, ONE of the following statements is NOT TRUE:

11574

Level II of axillary lymph node is:

11575

The nerve C in the given figure is:

11576

The structure in Deltopectoral groove is:

11577

The axilla contains all of the following except:

11578

The nerve supply of latissimus dorsi muscle is:

11579

Identify the type of joint marked by green colour

11580

Paralysis of supraspinatus muscle causes:

11581

All of the following muscles are attached at marked area EXCEPT

11582

All of the following muscles are supplied by median nerve except

11583

On examination a patient was unable to hold a playing card between 1st and 2nd digits of the hand. All the following structures are involved EXCEPT:

11584

Structures crossing superficial to flexor retinaculum:

11585

The clavipectoral fascia splits to enclose subclavius and pectoralis minor and continues as:

11586

Ape thumb deformity occurs due to damage of which nerve

11587

The branch of third part of axillary artery is:

11588

The medial cord of brachial plexus is formed by:

11589

Lymphatics from nipple and areola of the breast drain into the:

11590

Triangle of auscultation is associated with all of the following except:

11591

The action of indicated muscle A in the given figure is all EXCEPT

11592

The dermatome of little finger is:

11593

The muscle of arm having two nerve supply is:

11594

The bicipital groove of humerus gives attachment to all except:

11595

Axillary nerve passes through which space:

11596

Structures passing through superior thoracic aperture are all except:

11597

All of the following structures are present in superior mediastinum EXCEPT

11598

All statements are true about given figure except

11599

All of the following points concerning structure marked by black arrow are true EXCEPT

11600

All are true regarding SA node except:

11601

The right costo-phrenic line of reflection extends upto the level of which rib in mid clavicular line?

11602

The hilum of right lung is arched by:

11603

The posterior surface of heart is formed by:

11604

A cardiothoracic surgeon is performing a cardiac bypass surgery on a patient. After opening the fibrous pericardium, he ligates all the great vessels by passing his fingers through the structure marked as (A) in the schematic diagram below. All the following points are true regarding (A), except:

11605

Which bronchopulmonary segment is absent in left lung?

11606

The coronary dominance is determined by:

11607

The arterial supply of posterior 1/3rd of interventricular septum of heart is:

11608

The relationship of neurovascular bundle from above downwards in intercostal space:

11609

All are true about vertebral column curvature except:

11610

The hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the vertebral level of:

11611

Which of the following structure is not present in left ventricle?

11612

Right coronary artery arises from:

11613

A 41-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of shortness of breath, dizziness, and sharp chest pain. The large arrow in his chest radiograph indicates the region of pathology (Fig.). What is this structure?

11614

Which fascia form the anterior wall of femoral sheath:

11615

A 58-year-old female employee of a housecleaning business visits the outpatient clinic with a complaint of constant, burning pain in her knees. Clinical examinations reveal a housemaid knee condition (Figure). Which of the following structures is most likely affected?

11616

A 49-year-old construction worker is admitted to the emergency department with a painful lump on the proximal medial aspect of his thigh. Radiographic and physical examinations reveal that the patient has a herniation of abdominal viscera beneath the inguinal ligament into the thigh. Through which of the following openings will a hernia of this type initially pass to extend from the abdomen into the thigh?

11617

A 45-year-old male is treated at the hospital after he fell from his bicycle. Radiographic examination reveals fractures both of the tibia and the fibula. On physical examination the patient has a foot drop, but normal eversion (Figure). Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?

11618

The nerve supply of short head of biceps femoris is:

11619

The first web space of toes is supplied by:

11620

The pes anserinus includes following three muscle except:

11621

The nerve of anterior compartment of leg is:

11622

In walking hip bone of suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscle acting on the supported side of the body:

11623

The crural joint is on example of:

11624

Distal part of which muscle is represented by planner aponeurosis

11625

The peripheral heart is:

11626

A 37-year-old male is admitted to the hospital after an injury to his foot while playing flag football with friends on a Saturday morning. A series of radiographs demonstrates a fracture involving the talocrural (tibiotalar, ankle) joint. Which movements are the major ones to be affected by this injury?

11627

The longest muscle in the body is:

11628

All of the following structures are present at transpyloric plane Except:

11629

The superior pencreaticoduodenum artery is a branch of:

11630

The medial umbilical fold of peritoneum is produced by which structure:

11631

All of the following are the lateral visceral branches of abdominal aorta except:

11632

The Poupart ligament is formed by the aponeurotic fibers of which muscle

11633

All are secondary retroperitoneal organ except:

11634

The four layer fold of peritoneum is:

11635

The chief cells of are present in which part of gastric glands:

11636

All are the cardinal feature of large intestine except:

11637

Identify the arrow marked (13) muscle in the given figure:

11638

According to Courad classification the 1st segment of liver is:

11639

Identify the arrow marked (1) structure in the given figure:

11640

All are the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery except:

11641

The length of Duodenum is:

11642

A 47-year-old woman was operated on for the treatment of a chronic gastric ulcer that had not responded to medical treatment. At operation for partial gastrectomy, it was found that the posterior wall of the stomach was stuck down to the posterior abdominal wall. The surgeon had to proceed with great care to avoid damaging important structures lying on the posterior abdominal wall. The following structures located on the posterior abdominal wall were possibly involved in the disease process except which?

11643

The uretic constrictions are present at all except:

11644

The red pulp is present in:

11645

The blood supply of gall bladder is by cystic artery, branch from:

11646

A 17-year-old boy was involved in a gang fight. It started as an argument but quickly worsened into a street brawl with the use of knives. He was examined in the emergency department and found to have a bleeding stab wound in his left flank. A urine specimen revealed frank blood. Stab wounds of the kidneys involve other abdominal organs in a high percentage of cases. Of the organs listed, which one is least likely to be damaged in this patient?

11647

The pericentral zone of liver acinus is more prone to:

11648

The skin at angle of jaw is supplied by

11649

The foramen spinosumat the base of skull transmit:

11650

How many middle ethmoidal air cells are

11651

The common facial vein drain into:

11652

A 68-year-old woman is suffering from excruciating, sudden bouts of pain over the area of her midface. Laboratory studies indicate that she has tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia). Which ganglion is the location of the neural cell bodies of the nerve mediating the pain?

11653

The artery palpable at antero-inferior border of massater muscle is

11654

Carotid sheath encloses all of the following structures except:

11655

The taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue are carried by:

11656

A 34-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe headaches, dizziness, and vomiting. Imaging studies reveal a tumor at the hypoglossal canal. Which of the following muscles will most likely be affected?

11657

Gerlach tonsil is:

11658

During thyroid surgery, a nerve coursing along with the superior thyroid artery is injured. What can be the possible consequences?

11659

A 2-day-old infant male has a noticeable gap in his upper lip. The diagnosis is a cleft lip (figure). Failure of fusion of which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this anomaly?

11660

A 40-year-old unconscious man is admitted to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball. A CT scan examination reveals a fractured pterion and an epidural hematoma. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely to be injured?

11661

A 34-year-old male complains of hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds). Injury to which of the following cranial nerves is responsible?

11662

Pyriform fossa is located in

11663

All are the tributeries of cavernous sinus except

11664

A 45-year-old man came to the outpatient clinic after stumbling and hitting his head on a table in a restaurant. During the neurologic examination photographs were taken of the eyes of patient as shown in Figure. Which of the following nerves to the left eye was most likely injured?

11665

A 32-year-old mother complains of serious pain in the coccygeal area some days after giving birth. To determine whether the coccyx is involved, a local anesthetic is first injected in the region of the coccyx and then dynamic MRI studies are performed. The MRI reveals coccydynia, which confirms that her coccyx dislocates upon sitting. The local anesthetic is used to interrupt which of the following nerve pathways?

11666

Scaphocephaly is an early closer of

11667

Which suprahyoid muscle is supplied by both facial nerve and mandibular nerve

11668

Which of the following structure is seen in Nasopharynx

11669

The safety muscle of larynx is

11670

Muscle which opens mouth is

11671

Identify the arrow marked (7) structure in the given figure:

11672

The nerve of second pharyngeal arch is

11673

Thymus develops from

11674

All are unipolar/pseudounipolar neuron except:

11675

The neurilema is a component of:

11676

During CNS development the cephalic flexure presents in:

11677

The lower motor neuron lesion present with all except:

11678

All are neural crest derivatives except:

11679

The CSF from 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle moves via?

11680

The substatiagelatinosa is present in which Raxed lamina of spinal cord:

11681

The proprioceptive sensation from lower limb is carried out by which tract:

11682

The cranial nerve attached dorsolateral to olive are all except

11683

The blood supply to frontal pole cerebral hemisphere is by:

11684

The primary visual field corresponds to which Brodmann number:

11685

The corpus striatum include:

11686

The posterior communicating artery connect:

11687

The somite develops from:

11688

In case of hostile witness, leading question is allowed during?

11689

Dying deposition is recorded by

11690

A non-cognizable offence signifies

11691

POWER of assistant session court judge is to give?

11692

A 20 year old married female committed suicide by consuming arsenic. You are the autopsy doctor and you concealed this information from the Investigating officer. This is punishable under?

11693

Which of the following doctrine of consent is invalid?

11694

Which of the following is not a defense in case of negligence?

11695

In case of professional death sentence which is the highest board for plea?

11696

Which of the following is related to legal responsibility of insane person?

11697

A 16 year old guy brought by family member with following image, they are saying he does same with anything he can, which of the following disorder he is suffering from?

11698

Gang rape on a 11-year-old girl comes under which IPC?

11699

Which sections respectively deals with punishment for murder and punishment for murder by a life convict?

11700

IPC 322 denotes?

11701

Sexual assault or use of criminal force to women with intent to disrobe her modesty comes under which section of IPC?

11702

Criminal abortion without consent of mother comes under IPC

11703

According to POCSO act, touching of private parts of child by a known relative is

11704

A 25 year old guy sits in his balcony without clothes and the balcony is facing to a public park, under which IPC this guy can be booked?

11705

Superfecundation means

11706

A posthumous child is?

11707

Which of the following is not a crime?

11708

A guy having consensual sex with wife of a friend, the guy can be booked under which IPC?

11709

Identify the paraphilia by the person in long hair

11710

Carrot like odour is seen in poisoning with?

11711

Blue colour of stomach mucosa in autopsy is seen with?

11712

Cherry red discoloration is seen in which poisoning

11713

Arsenic poisoning can mimic all of the following except?

11714

A snake bite case came to causality. Relatives of the patient captured and brought the dead snake. For identification of this snake as cobra what will you look for?

11715

Luminescent fecesand vomitus seen in with poisoning?

11716

Identify the image specimen which leads to blisters and priapism?

11717

All of the following is correct about the poisonous plant shown in image except

11718

Post-mortem caloricity is seen in all of the following except?

11719

33 year old man swallowed mercury from thermometer and brought to E.R? You are doctor what will be your Next step of action?

11720

Following condition is associated with which poisoning?

11721

Inhalant abuse can be done by saturating a cloth with volatile solvent and then kept over mouth; this method of solvent abuse is called?

11722

Gastric lavage can be done in which poisoning?

11723

Vitriolage can be done by which of the plant?

11724

A person ingested sulphuric acid which of the following is not expected?

11725

Which of the following hallucination can be seen with the product obtained from the following plant?

11726

Carphologia is seen with?

11727

Best presumptive test to detect blood at crime site?

11728

Teichman test converts Hb in blood into?

11729

In an examination of victim of sexual assault, toluidine blue dye is used to identify

11730

Police goes to crime scene and finds some white color stains. After examination of samples under microscope, crystals of dark brown color and rhombic shaped was seen. These crystals are formed inn which of the following test

11731

Palatoprints used for identification of human beings are usually taken from?

11732

Fingerprints are taken in a deceased individual with washerwomen hand after injecting which of the following within the tissues of terminal phalanx

11733

Faded tattoos can be made visible by all of the following except

11734

Cephalic index 75-80 is seen in?

11735

Corporo basal index is?

11736

Gustafson method of age estimation by teeth utilizes

11737

Fusion of xiphoid process occurs at?

11738

Psychological autopsyis

11739

Incision preferred in case of hanging

11740

You observe a forensic surgeon doing en bloc removal of organ during autopsy identify the technique?

11741

Organ tested in breslau 1st and 2nd life test respectively?

11742

What is the smell of following dead born child?

11743

A parent brought his children with complaint on abdomen pain, on examination you found multiple injuries of various timelines, which of the following can also be seen in this child?

11744

Type of hanging in case of judicial hanging in India?

11745

Mechanism of the following condition?

11746

A suspect of homicidal case, you saw the following mark

11747

Identify the image?

11748

The phenomenon of suspended animation may be seen in

11749

On crime scene you found a body, you saw the following finding, IDENTIFY the reason/manner of death?

11750

Examination of torture person is done by protocol of

11751

Identify the type of torture

11752

Identify the fracture shown in which divides base of skull into 2 equal halves antero-posteriorly?

11753

Extensive abrasions are found all over the body of a pedestrian lying by the road side. What is the likely cause?

11754

True about counter coup injury?

11755

Following can be cause of ring fracture

11756

A young guy had a head injury and as protocol you did a NCCT head and you found nothing, and the patient is still unconscious what will be your next step?

11757

In a car accident a person got a sparrow foot marks on his face what can be the cause?

11758

In the investigation of severe burn body, which of the following sample is taken for identification?

11759

Most conclusive sign of ante mortem death due to burns

11760

Following condition is seen due to?

11761

Scald burns can be caused by?

11762

Following finding is been found in autopsy of stomach mucosa what can be cause of death?

11763

All of the following is true in case, heat stroke except?

11764

Identify the following wound?

11765

Lacerated looking incised wounds are seen at?

11766

Fish tailing in stab wound is caused by

11767

Flaying is seen in which type of wound?

11768

A lady sustained head injury and she comes with following appearance, where can be site of injury?

11769

Test done to confirm bruise

11770

FG, FFG, FFFG Is used to describe

11771

Identify the instrument used examine interior of barrel of a firearm weapon

11772

n post-mortem examination of gunshot case, Dr finds entry and exit wound on same side of head. It is possible with?

11773

Identify the range of shot?

11774

Beveling of inner table of skull is found in?

11775

Rule which describes the cadaveric rigidity and sequential onset of rigor mortis?

11776

Tache noire refers to

11777

Earliest External sign of autolysis is

11778

In which of the following condition no P.M lividity is seen?

11779

What is the cause of discoloration as shown in image?

11780

Lock-and-key model of enzyme action proposed by Fisher implies that:

11781

Enzymes increase the rates of reaction by

11782

A noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme

11783

Which one of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes?

11784

Which of the following enzyme typically elevated in alcoholism:

11785

Liver and skeletal muscle disorders are characterized by a disproportionate increase in which of the LDH isoenzyme fraction?

11786

Table sugar which is used in making tea is:

11787

A woman undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer has developed bloating, diarrhea, and excess gas whenever she drinks milk. She never had this problem before. Which one of the following best describes the mechanism causing the symptoms in the above-mentioned patient?

11788

The repeating unit in hyaluronic acid is:

11789

After digestion of a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sugar as its primary ingredients, the major carbohydrate products entering the blood are which one of the following?

11790

Cellulose is the most abundant polysaccharide and is an important structural component of cell walls. Strict vegetarians consume a large amount of cellulose, but it is not a source of energy because it is indigestible by the human intestinal tract. Cellulose is indigestible because it contains which of the following glycosidic bonds?

11791

A patient is in septic shock and his tissues are poorly perfused and oxygenated. The major end product of glucose metabolism in these tissues will be an accumulation of which one of the following?

11792

How ATP molecules may will be required for conversion of two molecules of lactic acid to glucose?

11793

A full-term female infant failed to gain weight and showed metabolic acidosis in the neonatal period. A physical examination at 6 months showed failure to thrive, hypotonia, small muscle mass, severe head lag, and a persistent acidosis (pH 7.0 to 7.2). Blood lactate, pyruvate, and alanine were greatly elevated. Treatment with thiamine did not alleviate the lactic acidosis. Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in this patient?

11794

Which one of the following is a property of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

11795

After excessive drinking over an extended period of time while eating poorly, a middle-aged man is admitted to the hospital with high output heart failure. Which of the following enzymes is most likely inhibited?

11796

Respiratory distress is induced on rotenone exposure because it inhibits the complex that catalyzes which of the following?

11797

In conversion of lactic acid to glucose, three reactions of glycolytic pathway are circumvented, which of the following enzymes do not participate?

11798

In starvation, in the beginning, the activities of the following enzymes are increased except:

11799

Which hemoglobin chain replaces the beta chain in embryonic hemoglobulin?

11800

Methaemoglobin contains:

11801

Which of the characteristics below apply to the amino acid glycine?

11802

In liver disease, the enzymes AST and ALT leak into the blood from damaged liver cells. Both of these enzymes have which one of the following in common?

11803

A 56-year-old man with a history of genetic disease undergoes hip replacement surgery for arthritis. During the operation the surgeon notes a dark pigmentation (ochronosis) in the man cartilage. His ochronotic arthritis is most likely caused by oxidation and polymerization of excess tissue

11804

Which of the following is not a pathway of amino acid metabolism in the organism?

11805

Deficiency of which enzyme will cause citrullinuria?

11806

Which of the following is the pathway for the synthesis of urea?

11807

Transamination is:

11808

A patient has an inherited disorder in which the administration of aspartame could be detrimental to her health. This patient most likely has which of the following genetic disorders?

11809

Among the following which is the wrong statement

11810

An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be expected to be deficient in which of the following nonessential amino acids, assuming that it is not obtained from dietary sources?

11811

The amino acid producing ammonia in kidney is

11812

Protein that precipitates on heating to 45°C and re-dissolves on boiling is:

11813

Histamine, a chemical mediator of allergies and anaphylaxis, is synthesized from amino acid Histidine by which of the following processes?

11814

When choline of lecithin is replaced by ethanolamine the product is

11815

The smell of the fat turned rancid is due to:

11816

What is the most positive activator of the process shown below?

8 Acetyl-CoA + n ATP + 14 NADPH → palmitate + 8 CoASH + nADP + nPi + 14 NADP

11817

Increased citric acid levels in the blood will stimulate which of the enzyme?

11818

A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation

11819

Which statement best describes the oxidation of odd chain fatty acids?

11820

Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is due to inadequate secretion of which one of the following lipids:

11821

Tay-Sachs disease involves the metabolism of gangliosides. Gangliosides are composed of a ceramide backbone with at least which one of the following?

11822

During 3rd day to 2nd week of starvation, brain depends on which of the following substance as fuel?

11823

Fats and oils are composed of what two groups of molecules?

11824

HMG Co A reductase activity is increased in presence of

11825

Carnitine transports fatty acyl CoA in

11826

Iodine number denotes

11827

During each cycle of Beta-oxidation

11828

The sequence of steps that follows each condensation reaction in both de novo palmitate syntheses in the cytosol and palmitate elongation in the ER is

11829

Some of the enzymes utilized in DNA replication are

11830

Which of the following enzyme is called reverse transcriptase

11831

A double-stranded RNA genome isolated from a virus in the stool of a child with gastroenteritis was found to contain 15% uracil. What is the percentage of guanine in this genome?

11832

All are true about Lesch-Nyhan syndrome except:

11833

Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively

11834

A palindrome is a sequence of nucleotide in DNA that

11835

Okazaki fragment are synthesized in

11836

Following enzymes are used in DNA synthesis are all except

11837

Which of the following enzymes is DNA dependent RNA polymerase:

11838

Starting from 3 end (acceptor arm ) the correct sequence( towards 5 end ) of the arm in the tRNA is

11839

Translocase is an enzyme required in the process of:

11840

Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes the existence of:

11841

Selenium is essential for the

11842

Zinc is essential for

11843

The similarity between Vit C and Vit K is

11844

Studies of the actions of two anticoagulants—dicumarol and warfarin (the latter also a hemorrhagic rat poison)—have revealed that

11845

A deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1) would most likely lead to which of the following clinical manifestations?

11846

Which of the following vitamins would most likely become deficient whose staple diet is maize?

11847

Tpp acts as a cofactor in all of the following EXCEPT

11848

Respiratory burst is due to activation of which of the following?

11849

Which of the following vitamins has antioxidant properties, reduces the incidence of heart attacks and deficiency of which can lead to hemolysis and neurological problems

11850

Thiamine rich in

11851

The following form of vitamin A combines with opsin to generate rhodopsin

11852

Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of

11853

Vit K plays an essential role in

11854

Which of the following anti-anginal medications will produce the largest decrease in venous capacitance in a 65-year old man with classic angina pectoris?

11855

Digoxin was added to the therapeutic regimen of ramipril and Furosemide for a 68-year-old man with progressive congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the molecular target for digoxin actions in this patient?

11856

A 56-year-old diabetic, hypertensive man is being managed with a medication that reduces both preload and afterload while reducing left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) without worsening insulin resistance, hyperlipdemia or sexual function. This medication, however, did cause an annoying, nonproductive cough. Which of the following medications was most likely being used to treat this patient?

11857

Which of the following would occur during a generalized discharge of the sympathetic system?

11858

Which of the following statements is False? Pilocarpine, after topical administration to the eye

11859

Which drug is not metabolized by acetylation?

11860

Which of the following drugs should not be given in hepatic failure

11861

Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is?

11862

Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include

11863

Nitroglycerin causes all EXCEPT

11864

Renin is secreted from

11865

A patient on lithium therapy was found to be hypertensive also. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated in a patient on lithium therapy in order to prevent toxicity?

11866

Which of the following is not a mood stabilizer?

11867

All of the following statements about flumazenil are true except:

11868

Loading dose of the drug depends upon all except

11869

Following drugs cause hemolysis in G 6 PD deficiency patient except

11870

Which of the following drug has been found to cause intra-operative Floppy iris syndrome during cataract surgery?

11871

Following are beta blockers with partial agonistic activity at beta1 receptors except

11872

NO releasing action is shown by this third generation beta blocker

11873

All nitrates undergo high first pass metabolism except

11874

Drug for acute therapy of digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmia

11875

Central anticholinergics are indicated in

11876

Following drug is responsible for truncal rigidity when infused IV rapidly

11877

Drug having first order and saturation kinetics is

11878

Use of current to transfer drugs through skin is called

11879

Radioactive  iodine therapy is primarily indicated for all except

11880

Mechanism of action of Bedaquilline, a newer anti-tubercular drug is

11881

Which of the following drugs is not ototoxic?

11882

Cephalosporin that does not require dose reduction in patient with any degree of renal impairment is:

11883

Which of the following drugs is not an antiemetic?

11884

Which of the following drugs CANNOT be administered via inhalation?

11885

Drug increasing uveoscleral outflow in glaucoma therapy is

11886

A the drugs can be used to treat neutropenia, EXCEPT

11887

Drugs acts via inhibiting protein synthesis are all except

11888

Which of the following sulfonamide is used for dressing in case of burns

11889

Aplastic anaemia is seen with

11890

Antitubercular safest in renal failure is

11891

A heavy machinery worker has cold. Which drug would you give him

11892

Zonal central hepatic necrosis is associated with

11893

Which of the following is useful in acute attack of gout

11894

Ranitidine differs from cimetidine in the following respect

11895

All are true in diarrhoea treatment except:

11896

Megaloblastic anaemia caused by Methotrexate toxicity is prevented by

11897

Which of the anticancer drug is highly cardiotoxic

11898

Arsenic is useful in the treatment of

11899

Chloroquine is useful in all of the following except

11900

A-28-year-old intravenous drug user complains about severe epigastric pains, nausea and vomiting. He has upper GI endoscopy which shows small areas of ulceration and white plaques. Following is the best treatment option

11901

All are used in treatment of pulmonary hypertension except:

11902

All are true regarding direct thrombin inhibitors except

11903

Which of the following is mucolytic agent used in case of productive cough

11904

All are example of artificial immunity except

11905

When a woman whose blood type is Rh negative is pregnant, she is given rho immune globulin to prevent sensitization to an Rh positive fetus. This is an example of which of the following?

11906

Which of the following is not true about antibody structure?

11907

J chain is present in

11908

Aplha-haemolytic streptococci are also known as

11909

The most common agent associated with .neonatal bacterial meningitis is

11910

A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is

11911

AII the following are true about Listeria except:

11912

All Enterobacteriaceae share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

11913

The halophilic bacteria is/are

11914

Which of the following is an example of natural acquired active immunity?

11915

Which of the following test indicates the susceptibility to streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin

11916

A 12 year old boy presents with acute onset of sore throat, fever to 38.9 degree C and painful cervical lymphadenopathy. On examination the pharynx is red and swollen and the tonsils are covered with yellow white exudates. The child also has halitosis. Which of the following non-supportive complication are of concern

11917

T cell receptor on CD4 T cells

11918

Following are Lancifield group of streptococcoi except

11919

The concentration of agar in semisolid media is

11920

Kuru disease in Humans is caused by

11921

Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of

11922

The third phase of the PCR reaction involves:

11923

Viruses which have teratogenic property are

11924

Hookworm infection leads to deficiency of

11925

All are oncogenic virus except

11926

The best method of sterilization of prepacked disposable syringes is

11927

Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except:

11928

Each of the following statements concerning Malaria is correct except

11929

Which of the following bacteria causing sexually transmitted disease cannot be grown on artificial media?

11930

Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?

11931

Trichomonasvaginalis is an example of which type of protozoa:

11932

Which of the following fungus have capsule

11933

All are human herpes virus except

11934

All are the features of cardiac muscle cell except:

11935

Which of the following muscle has no action at gleno-humeral joint:

11936

A patient is trying to make a fist, but can only partially flex index and middle finger. Which nerve is damaged most probably?

11937

The nerve lies in Quadrangular space is:

11938

All are true about mammary gland except:

11939

The nerve supply at adductor pollicis is:

11940

Superior intercostals artery is a branch of:

11941

The bronchial artery supplies lung unto:

11942

The upper part of crista terminalis contains:

11943

Oesophagus is present in all except:

11944

Hip flexion is done by all except:

11945

The coronary ligament of knee is situated between:

11946

The anterior compartment of leg contains all muscle except:

11947

The medial border of femoral triangle is formedby:

11948

The root valve of Obturator nerve:

11949

Vein that does not cross the midline is

11950

Left ovarian vein grain into

11951

Not present in colon

11952

Space of Disse is seen in

11953

What type of joint is sacroiliac joint

11954

The skin at angle of jaw is supplied by

11955

All of the following are branches of external carotid artery except

11956

Which of the following structure is seen in Nasopharynx

11957

How many anterior ethmoidal air sinuses are

11958

Thymus develops from

11959

Myelination in optic nerve (Second Cranial Nerve) is done by

11960

Not a somatic efferent nerve

11961

The cervical Enlargement in spinal cord presents at which spinal segment

11962

The nerves carrying parasympathetic fibers are

11963

Crocodile tear syndrome is because of which nerve lesion

11964

Boiled Lobster appearance seen in poisoning with

11965

Monday morning fever is a feature of:

11966

Hunan hands occur due to

11967

Breathing in barbiturate poisoning:

11968

MTP Act in India does not permit termination of pregnancy after:

11969

Gustafson method is used for determination of:

11970

Foamy liver is seen in

11971

A 5 year old boy suddenly becomes aphonic and is brought to the casualty with the complaint of respiratory distress. Immediate management should be:

11972

Surgical alteration or suturing of gunshot wound may create problems in distinguishing entry from exit. This is called as

11973

True of pugilistic attitude:

11974

Marshall triad is seen in

11975

Testamentary capacity means:

11976

Pyromania is a type of:

11977

Borax is:

11978

It is considered rape even after the consent if

11979

What is the complication can occur after the partial gastric section as shown in the picture below

11980

Identify the type of neuron shown in the picture

11981

Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all the following except

11982

Gap junctions are seen in all except

11983

Formula shown below is

11984

Liver damage may result in decreased synthesis of plasma proteins such as albumin. What is the most significant effect of low plasma albumin on osmosis or fluid transport?

11985

A 95-year-old man with widely metastatic cancer is receiving morphine to help alleviate pain. Brainstem respiratory center function has been depressed as a result, causing hypoventilation. Which of the following might be expected to result from reducing ventilation?

11986

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension is prescribed a Ca2+- channel blocker to help reduce his blood pressure. What is the likely effect of this drug on the ventricular myocardium?

11987

A 35-year-old woman with a recent breast cancer diagnosis reports gastrointestinal (GI) distress following chemotherapy treatments targeting fast-replicating cells. Which GI layer or signaling molecule is most likely affected by the treatment

11988

The cephalic phase of gastric secretion accounts for about 30 percent of the acid response to a meal. Which of the following can totally eliminate the cephalic phase of gastric secretion?

11989

Which of the following is not a manifestation of oxygen toxicity?

11990

Forced rapid breathing results in alkalization of the blood which would lead to which of the following changes in neuronal activity?

11991

Gibbs-Donnan effect states that the presence of non-diffusible ions on one side of semipermeable membrane

11992

A newborn boy does not pass meconium in the first 24 hrs. His abdomen is distended and he begins vomiting. Various tests lead to a diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. An obstruction is most likely found in which portion of the gut

11993

The clinical laboratory returned the following values for arterial blood taken from a patient, plasma pH = 7.28, plasma HCO3-=32 Eq/L, and plasma PCo2=70 mm Hg. What is this patient acid-base disorder?

11994

A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a diuretic targeted to act on the sodium reabsorption site from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the following transport processes is the drug affecting

11995

A 32-year-old female experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. Visceral pain

11996

When recording lead III on an EKG, the negative electrode is the

11997

A 50-year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/85 and weighs 200 lb. He reports that he is not feeling well, his EKG has no P-waves, he has a heart rate of 46, and the QRS complexes occur regularly. What is his likely condition?

11998

Under normal physiological conditions, blood flow to the skeletal muscles is determined mainly by which of the following?

11999

A 25-year-old man enters the emergency department and has been in a motorcycle wreck. His clothes are very bloody and arterial pressure is decreased to 70/40. Heart rate is 120 and the respiratory rate is 30/min. Which of the following therapies would the physician recommend?

12000

Which part of the renal tubule would have the lowest tubular fluid osmolality in a patient who has complete lack of antidiuretic hormone due to central diabetes insipidus?

12001

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58 percent, WBC 13,300/μl, and platelets 600,000/μl. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97 percent on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?

12002

During an inflammatory response, which is the correct order for cellular events?

12003

What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway?

12004

The basic rhythm of respiration is generated by neurons located in the medulla. Which of the following limits the duration of inspiration and increases respiratory rate?

12005

Which of the following regarding the attenuation reflex is correct?

12006

Which of the following statements regarding the basilar membrane is correct?

12007

The stereocilia of hair cells are embedded in which membrane?

12008

Which of the following retinal cells have action potentials?

12009

In the patellar tendon reflex, which of the following items will synapse directly on alpha motor neurons that innervate the muscle being stretched?

12010

A 10-year-old boy consumes a cheeseburger, fries, and chocolate shake. The meal stimulates the release of several gastrointestinal hormones. The presence of fat, carbohydrate, or protein in the duodenum stimulates the release of which of the following hormones from the duodenal mucosa?

12011

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited disorder of the exocrine glands, affecting children and young people. Mucus in the exocrine glands becomes thick and sticky and eventually blocks the ducts of these glands (especially in the pancreas, lungs, and liver), forming cysts. A primary disruption in the transfer of which ion across cell membranes occurs in CF leading to decreased secretion of fluid?

12012

After menopause, hormone replacement therapy with estrogen-like compounds is effective in preventing the progression of osteoporosis. What is the mechanism of their protective effect?

12013

A female athlete who took testosterone-like steroids for several months stopped having normal menstrual cycles. What is the best explanation for this observation?

12014

A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with a fracture in the neck of the femur. Radiographs reveal generalized demineralization of the bone in the area. Her plasma calcium ion concentration is significantly greater than normal: 12.2 mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is consistent with this presentation?

12015

A man eats a low carbohydrate meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids that stimulate insulin secretion. Which of the following responses accounts for the absence of hypoglycemia?

12016

Why is it important to feed newborn infants every few hours?

12017

Which of the following decreases the rate of urinary excretion of calcium ions by the kidney?

12018

A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected?

12019

An 85 year old man is brought to his doctor by his daughter. She reports that he has memory loss, is often confused, and has been having increasing difficulty with routine activities that he used to do on his own. She wonders if this is just because of old age or a more serious problem. Which of the following would provide the definite diagnosis of Alzheimer disease

12020

Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15% of the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism

12021

The release of neurotransmitter at a chemical synapse in the central nervous system is dependent upon which of the following

12022

Taste receptors

12023

Denervation supersensitivity

12024

Which of the following is NOT a function of atrial natriuretic peptide?

12025

Regarding regulation of Na+ by the kidney, all the statements are correct except

12026

The correct sequence regarding the tonicity of tubular fluid from

12027

Match the following

12028

The physiological response to the heat as shown in the picture is due to the release of which neurotransmitter

12029

In a normal person which of the following occurs when he comes in supine position from a standing position

12030

A cerebrovascular accident that effects forced expirations during rest and exercise most likely damaged which neural area

12031

A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior venacava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5mmHg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure

12032

The absorption of glucose from the lumen into the intestinal epithelial cells is through

12033

The following given instrument is used to measure

12034

The method given in the picture is used to do which of the following test

12035

The following picture shows which of the type of potential

12036

In the diagram shown below, the swan ganz catheter is used to measure which of the pressure indirectly

12037

In the picture, which type of transport process is shown

12038

Following a sympathectomy, a 63 years old man experiences orthostatic hypotension. This is due to

12039

When oxygen moves through the thin side of the blood-gas barrier from the alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell, it passes the following layers in order

12040

The following picture shows

12041

Identify the type of chart

12042

Identify the cell shown by the arrow

12043

A 83-year old woman with constipation is prescribed a high-fiber diet, which leads to an increased production of short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs). SCFA absorption occurs almost exclusively from which of the following segments of the GI tract

12044

Migrating motility complxes occur about every 90 min between meals and are thought to be stimulated by the gastrointestinal hormone, motilin. An absence of MMCs causes an increase in which of the following

12045

Following a natural disaster in Gujarat, there is an outbreak of cholera among displaced persons living in a tent encampment. The affected individuals display severe diarrheal symptoms because of which of the following changes in intestinal transport?

12046

During heavy exercise the cardiac output increases up to five-fold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by

12047

Set of data which correctly defines restrictive lung disease is

12048

False about the O2 dissociation curve

12049

The morning after a rock concert, a 20-year-old college student notices difficulty hearing his professor during lecture. The physician at the student health center suspects possible damage to his hair cells by the loud music. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of which of the following

12050

Which of the following physiological processes is not correctly paired with a structure?

12051

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

12052

At a first-grade parent–teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones?

12053

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucoseconcentration is increased and glucosereabsorption and excretion are measured.When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum(Tm), the

12054

If a patient undergoing spinal anaesthesia experiences a large decrease in arterial pressure and goes into shock, which of the following would be the therapy of choice?

12055

A 45-year-old male had a meal containing wild mushrooms that he picked in afield earlier in the day. Within a few hours after eating, he developed nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, sweating, and salivation. Whichof the following statement about the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

12056

A 32-year-old female received an injection of a local anesthetic for a tooth extraction. Within 2 h, she noted palpitations, diaphoresis, and dizziness. Which of the following ionic changes is correctly matched with a component of the action potential?

12057

Inflation of lungs induces further inflation is explained by

12058

The rod receptor potential differs from other sensory receptors in that it shows

12059

Which of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in tubules is true

12060

Increased intracranial pressure reflexly increases blood pressure acting through vasomotor center. This reflex is

12061

Filteration of proteins across filteration barrier in the nephron depends mainly upon

12062

A 49-year old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

12063

Which of the following neurons has axons that forms synaptic junctions with the skeletal muscle cells ( extrafusal fibres) that comprise the major part of a muscle

12064

A 39-year old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his

12065

The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle

12066

Regarding the counter current mechanism all the following are true EXCEPT

12067

In the following picture shown, the sensation of pain is decreased by which of the mechanism?

12068

In the picture shown below, which part of the nephron is known as diluting segment of nephron

12069

A patient presented with multiple such itchy lesions on body since 4 hours. What is this?

12070

Which of the following diseases is seen in this distribution?

12071

A 35 year old woman presented with complaints of excessive hairfall since 1 month. She gives history of sore throat, cough, anosmia and fever for 10 days around 4 months back. What is the diagnosis?

12072

A 35 year old male presents with bald patches on the scalp. Diagnosis?

12073

An 8-year-old child present with mildly painful red swelling over scalp as shown below. What is the next investigation that should be done?

12074

The disease shown in the image below is due to involvement of

12075

A 24-year-old man has these lesions on face. The drug of choice for treatment

12076

Common complication associated with the condition shown in the image?

12077

A 25 year old girl presented with following clinical presentation. What is the best course of treatment?

12078

A 3 months old male infant developed otitis media and was given treatment. A few days later, he developed extensive peeling of the skin, there were no mucosal lesions

12079

The Wood lamp examination of a lesion in axilla is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

12080

A young adult presents with hypopigmented scaling macules over the back as seen in the following Image. Causative agent is

12081

A farmer presented with history of swelling of the right lower leg and discharge of granules from sinuses was noted on examination. What is the diagnosis?

12082

A 8 month old infant developed multiple itchy, eczematous, exudative lesions on the body since 2 weeks. Similar lesions are also seen in elder brother. the most probable diagnosis is

12083

A 5 year old girl with lesions since 3 months. What is the diagnosis?

12084

A Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

12085

Child presents with fever and pleomorphic rash as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

12086

The following Image shows:

12087

A 5 year old child presented with multiple ulcers with violaceous margins and discharging sinuses in neck. What is diagnosis?

12088

A case of Leprosy on multidrug therapy develop lesions. Treatment of choice is

12089

A 23-year-old male presented with a painless ulcer on the penis. What is the diagnosis?

12090

Treatment of choice for the condition shown in the image is?

12091

Identify the condition shown in the image:

12092

A 25 year old female came with chief complaint of vaginal discharge with lower abdominal pain and tenderness, which colour kit will you prescribe to her

12093

Identify the phenomenon shown in the image

12094

A patient was treated with steroids for Psoriasis. On stopping the treatment, he develops fever and pustular lesions on body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

12095

Patient presented with lesions as shown in the image, later patient also developed arthritis. Treatment?

12096

All are seen in this condition except?

12097

Which of the following nail deformity is pathognomic for lichen planus?

12098

A person develops lesions on exposure to sun, following exercise, under the clothes. What is the probable diagnosis?

12099

Which disease has the DIF pattern shown in the image below?

12100

A newborn child presents with history of recurrent blistering of hands and feet. His father also gives similar history. The diagnosis is:

12101

A 30 year old woman with multiple episodes of GTCS was prescribed phenytoin. After 7 daysshe presents with a single skin lesion on her arm as shown below. What    is the diagnosis?

12102

Identify the below condition which is present from birth:

12103

A child presented with unilateral depigmented lesion on neck and chin associated with leucotrichia. Identify the diagnosis

12104

Which of these is true about the disorder shown in the image?

12105

A 8 year old girl presented with hypopigmented scaly lesions on face. What is the diagnosis?

12106

A 25-year man C/O recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from

12107

A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face, neck, V area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:

12108

A male child with cryptorchidism presents with large black scales on body flexures, as shown in picture Probable diagnosis is

12109

The lesion shown below is seen in

12110

Identify the malformation shown in Photograph

12111

The following lesion appears on the cheek of a patient, suffering from ulcerative colitis. What is the diagnosis?

12112

The given condition is caused due to deficiency of which of the following?

12113

Identify the lesion in the image

12114

Cutaneous horn as shown in the image is associated with which of the following skin cancer?

12115

70 year old man presented with lesion on the face, with history of bleeding when he scratches the lesion.  What is the diagnosis?

12116

A7 years old child (see picture) comes with light to dark brown freckles over face, with photosensitivity and dry skin. The diagnosis is

12117

What is the diagnosis of this asymptomatic lesion shown in the image below?

12118

Which of the following hormones is involved in depression?

12119

A 36-year-old male with a bipolar disorder is treated with lithium. Among the following adverse effects, which is associated with lithium treatment?

12120

A middle-aged man is chronically preoccupied with his health. For many years he feared that his irregular bowel functions meant he had cancer. Now he is very preoccupied about having a serious heart disease, despite his physicia assurance that the occasional extra beats he detects when he checks his pulse are completely benign. What is his most likely diagnosis?

12121

A 23-year-old woman arrives to an emergency room complaining that out of the blue, she was seized by an overwhelming fear associated with shortness of breath and a pounding heart. These symptoms lasted for approximately 20 min and, while the patient was experiencing them, she feared that she was dying or going crazy. The patient has had four similar episodes during the past month and she has been worrying that they will continue recurring. The most likely diagnosis is

12122

An alcoholic woman was brought to the causality following a suicide attempt by taking several tablets of diazepam. There is history of previous attempts of suicide by wrist slashing too. The type of personality disorder in this woman is

12123

A young mother is involved in a car accident that claims the life of her two sons. When she is told that her two children have died from the injuries they suffered in the crash, she becomes agitated and combative. Her speech is disorganized and incoherent, but observers understand that she hears the voices of her children screaming to her to help them and that she believes that the hospital nurses are prison guards. These symptoms remit spontaneously in 1 wk. What is the most likely diagnosis

12124

The following are psychotic disorder except

12125

A 47-year-old secretary has lost her job because, due to her perfectionism and excessive attention to trivial details, she could never finish an assignment on time. She writes innumerable lists of things to be done and follows rules scrupulously. She consistently annoys friends and family members with her lack of flexibility and her pedantic remarks. Her diagnosis is likely to be

12126

Commonest psychiatric illness in India is

12127

A 27-year-old male is brought into the emergency room by the police, who found him walking aimlessly, shouting the names of former prime minister. Urine toxicology is negative, and the man appears to be oriented with respect to person, place, and time. He has had five similar admissions over the past year. Attempts to interview the patient are fruitless, as he seems easily derailed from his train of thought. A phone call to a friend listed in the chart provides the additional information that the man is homeless, and unable to care for himself. This patient is exhibiting the signs and symptoms of?

12128

A 60year man gives a 10 year history that he suspects his neighbours and he feels that whenever he passes by they sneeze and cough and conspires against him. He feels that his wife has been replaced by a body double and calls police for help. He is quite well groomed, alert and occasionally consumes alcohol. The likely diagnosis is:

12129

To become unfamiliar of familiar situation is called:

12130

Drug used for treatment of nocturnal enuresis is?

12131

Most common cause of premature death in schizophrenia is?

12132

Sexual infidelity is commonly associated with:

12133

Amotivational syndrome is seen in:

12134

A 27 years old man with a diagnosis of atypical depression went to a Mexican restaurant and consumes pizza with extra cheese. Following this he had a few glasses of wine with some friends over dessert. A few hours later he began to feel uneasy. He started to feel very nauseated and begins vomiting continuously. At the emergency his vitals are BP 200/100, P 120, RR 23, Temp 102. What medication was he likely taking for his atypical depression?

12135

Treatment of ADHD involves the following drugs except

12136

A college student previously in good health develops transient bladder incontinence. Three months later, after breaking up with her boyfriend, she presents to her doctor office complaining of weakness of the right leg. What medical disorder, often confused with conversion disorder, is likely to have such presentation?

12137

Which of the following drugs may induce a psychosis that is easily confused with, or misdiagnosed as, paranoid schizophrenia?

12138

A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of multiple nonlethal stab wounds. He is incarcerated and serving a life sentence for murder and armed robbery. After his condition is stabilized, he insists that it is his right to remain in the hospital until he is fully cured. He threatens to harm the attending physician if she endorses his return to prison. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

12139

A person missing from home, found wandering purposefully, well groomed, has some degree of amnesia is

12140

Delusion is not seen in

12141

Delusion of infidelity on part of sexual partner is known as

12142

A 10-year-old boy has been spending much of his time playing with a girl in his class. When his friends tease him about it, he denies having feelings for her, declaring that “Girls are yucky!” Which of the following defense mechanisms is he exhibiting

12143

A 40 year old man who become sweaty with palpitation before giving a speech in public otherwise he does very good at his job, he is having

12144

Adult male complaint of inability to sleep as usual. Every night he should check that the light is off, oven is off and his child sleeping. This occurs also at morning and every day. he cannot sleep if he didn not do this, he knows this is abnormal behaviour and feeling bad of his state, most likely diagnosis

12145

A 60 years old patient with history of heart attack 6 weeks ago, complaining of not getting enough sleep. Psychiatric evaluation is unremarkable for depression or anxiety, what should be given to this patient?

12146

Dementia is seen in all except

12147

Mental retardation implies

12148

All are feature of type A behaviour, proposed by freidman and Rosenman except

12149

A 27 year old female presents with an acute blindness in her right eye after having a major argument with her boyfriend. In the ED she is found to deny physical trauma to the eye but she insists she cannot see anything out of her right eye. In spite of this, she is not particularly concerned about her monocular blindness but notes that it has happened before after fighting with her boyfriend. The physician notes that her right eye is normal looking and reacts to light normally. What is the most likely diagnosis

12150

Confabulation means

12151

An 8-year-old boy needs to be coaxed to go to school and, while there, often complains of severe headaches or stomach pain. His mother frequently has to take him home because of his symptoms. At night, he tries to sleep with his parents. When they insist that he sleep in his own room, he says that there are monsters in his closet. Which of the following best explains this behaviour

12152

Reinforcement is used in

12153

Most common post-partum psychosis is

12154

Bruxism seen in

12155

Not a proper match

12156

Psychoanalysis was introduced by

12157

A 3-year-old girl is clumsy and poorly coordinated. Her language is impaired and she wrings her hands constantly. Her head is small in comparison with the rest of her body. The most likely diagnosis is

12158

What non-opioid medications can be used to treat some of the symptoms of opioid withdrawal syndrome?

12159

A false belief unexplained by reality, shared by a number of people is

12160

A 45-year-old woman with a chronic mental illness seems to be constantly chewing. Her tongue darts in and out of her mouth and occasionally she smacks her lips. She also grimaces, frowns, and blinks excessively. These abnormal movements are seen, characteristically, in

12161

Squeeze technique is used for:

12162

Physical withdrawal symptoms are absent in patients

12163

Part of mind which is working on reality principle is

12164

30-year-old man has decreased sleep, hyper sexuality, sexually promiscuous, spent a lot of money in last 2 weeks. What is the probable diagnosis

12165

A person who is a chronic alcoholic brought to the causality. When asked he says that he drinks because of the quarrels with his wife, defence mechanism seen in this is

12166

Oedipus complex has been described by

12167

All are feature of dementia except

12168

A 42 year old sweeper, is noted to have a traumatic injury to his right thigh. Which of the following is most sensitive for the diagnosis of compartment syndrome?

12169

A 28-year-old tempo driver suffered multiple injuries in an accident and was referred to  highercenter due to hyperthermia. The urinalysis is positive for blood, and the serum CPK is markedly elevated. The patient is noted to likely have compartment syndrome and rhabdomyolysis. What is the appropriate infusion rate for IV hydration for this patient?

12170

A 44-year-old man complains of right hip pain after a motor vehicle accident. He denies neurologic changes or other symptoms. His right leg does not appear to be shortened or externally rotated. X rays were taken which demonstrate a complete, nondisplaced transcervical fracture. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

12171

A 66-year-old marathon runner sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture after a fall on a slippery road. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

12172

A 72-year-old man sustains a completely displaced, subcapital femoral neck fracture after tripping over a step on his office staircase. In the emergency room he is most likely to assume which of the following positions for his fractured extremity?

12173

A 22-year-old basketball player feels a painful pop in his knee when landing from a rebound. Immediate swelling, pain, and inability to extend his knee ensue. Radiographs depict patella alta. Treatment should include

12174

The following investigation is used for testing the integrity of

12175

Which of the following nerve is being tested

12176

Following investigation is performed to test the presence of

12177

Identify the clinical condition

12178

Identify the likely injury/condition

12179

22 year man presented to emergency department after having sustained the following injury. X-rays were performed which showed

12180

A 55 year old postman presented to surgery emergency with alleged history of fall from a wet pavement. Preferred management of the condition is

12181

A 40-year-old carpenter is brought to emergency after a 6-foot fall off a ladder. clinical examination shows a slightly deformed left lower limb with a 0.5-cm soft tissue defect over the anterolateral aspect of his leg. The wound appears relatively clean with no gross contaminants present. Radiographs depict a short oblique proximal one-third diaphyseal tibia fracture. What is his Gustilo open fracture classification grade?

12182

What antibiotic should the patient in the above question receive?

12183

An elderly woman is brought to the emergency with a significantly deformed right lower limb with a 4-cm wound over the posteromedial portion of her leg. She is found to have a Gustilo and Anderson type 3A fracture. Which of the following interventions has been shown to decrease the risk of infection at the fracture site?

12184

A proximal humerus fracture has the following morphology. There is 1.5-cm displacement at the surgical neck and fracture lines involving both the greater and lesser tuberosities, but without displacement. According to the Neer classification, what would this fracture be classified as?

12185

An 80-year-old woman sustains a mechanical fall onto her right side. She is diagnosed with a minimally displaced right proximal humerus fracture (1 part). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

12186

A 30-year-old professional football player gets tackled on his right shoulder and sustains a distal clavicle fracture. The patient has no neurologic or vascular abnormalities on physical exam and has no other injuries on physical exam. Initial radiographic evaluation should include:

12187

A 17-year-old high school tennis player trips while returning a serve and sustains a right midshaft clavicle fracture. Which of the following increases the risk of nonunion in the nonoperative treatment of clavicle fractures?

12188

The following device may be useful during the management of

12189

A 24-year-old man is noted to have a urinalysis that is positive for blood. The microscopic examination of the urine is negative for casts or red blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

12190

A 58-year-old male patient reported to the dental hospital with the complaint of difficulty in chewing food as his teeth were not in contact during mastication. History revealed that, there were swellings in the maxillary right and left posterior teeth region, which started 6 years back. Similar swellings were also seen bilaterally in the malar region and in the forehead of the right side. All swellings gradually increased in size. On examination, extra-orally bilateral diffuse swellings were seen in the malar and zygomatic region bilaterally, obliterating the nasolabial sulcus and in the right frontal region,which were bony hard in consistency on palpation. The swellings were immobile and attached to the underlying bone. Intra-orally, diffuse swelling of the maxillary alveolus was seen bilaterally. Biochemical tests revealed normal serum calcium: 9.2 mg/dL and serum phosphorus: 4 mg/dl, but markedly raised serum alkaline phosphatase (SAP). Incisional biopsy revealed a mosaic pattern. Likely diagnosis

12191

A 62-year-old retired professor in apparent good health, was found to have a markedly elevated serum total alkaline phosphatase (ALP) of 1179 U/l (reference range, 40–115 U/l) 4 years ago during a routine medical check-up. Examination findings were not remarkable except for a relatively large head. Cranial CT scan showed diffuse cranial vault thickening consistent with Paget's disease which was confirmed by Tc-99m hydroxymethylene diphosphonate. He was placed on 40 mg alendronate tablets daily for 6 months. The patient has remained asymptomatic. Which of the following investigations would be advised to the patient to check the continued remission of disease

12192

All of the following may be seen in a patient of osteogenesis imperfecta except:

12193

A 34 year old female working in a fircracker industry, presents to orthopaedics OPD with complaints of polyarthralgia and persistent back ache. Physical examination was unremarkeable. On blood examination she was found to have lower than normal calcium and phosphate levels. Parathyroid hormone levels were elevated. Which of the following drug should be prescribed to patient

12194

7 year old male child suffering from windsweep deformity in the lower limbs, presented to Orthopaedics OPD. The ideal time of performing surgery is

12195

A young motor mechanic slipped on an oily floor and landed on his left hand. He immediately felt some wrist pain. The pain did not improve by the following day too. The pain is aggravated when the thumb or wrist is moved and when the man tries to grip objects. Likely diagnosis

12196

Indicator of bone formation

12197

Common sites of non union of fracture are

12198

Pancytopenia may occur in

12199

Osteoporosis:fractures most commonly involve

12200

Most common long term complication of supracondyler fracture is

12201

Jupitor fracture is

12202

Reverse monteggia fracture is

12203

Pick incorrect

12204

A 63 year old man fell from his bicycle and presented to emergency room with complaint of painful right shoulder. His general physical examination revealed no external injuries or  neurological deficit. However his clavicle was found to be medially elevated and patient had some difficulty in abduction of the affected limb. The line of management shall be:

12205

A sportsmen fell from directly on his thumb leading to forceful palmer and radial abduction:on examination, the patient had tenderness over ulnar aspect of joint. Xray were promptly performed, which were found to be normal. Likely diagnosis is

12206

A teenager in a remote Indian village suffers a fall from his cycle and sustains a fracture, which is promptly attended by a general practitioner posted at dispensary. He however is advised to visit an orthopedician. The boy is later diagnosed to be suffering from a  fracture of the humerus in its distal third. He now complains that he is unable to extend the wrist. Which of the following structures was most likely damaged?

12207

A 30-year-old man while attempting to ward off a robber suatains a stab injury in the arm. Upon examination, his vitals are stable, there is no evidence suggesting a vascular injury. He is stabilized, given pain killers and reexamined after 2 hours, when it was noticed that he cannot flex his three lateral digits. Most likey injury sustained is by

12208

Senile osteoporosis will radiologically manifest only when greater than what percent of the skeleton is lost?

12209

Characteristic feature of achondroplasia is

12210

All are intra-articular fractures except?

12211

Rodent facies are seen in

12212

A patient presents to orthoapedics with complaints of bone pains and repeat fractures. He was diagnosed to be suffering from a rare genetic condition. Xray was done with following findings. Identify the condition

12213

Most common long term complication of the following fracture is

12214

The following type of pelvis is seen in:

12215

A young male was brought to causality with alleged history of road side accident: On examination, patient was found to be hemodynamically stable, however his left lower limb was found to be shortened, internally rotated and adducted. Type of injury sustained is

12216

A football team goalkeeper presented with pain right shoulder immediately after a fall while trying to save a goal. He was noticed to be clutching his right shoulder and appeared to be in a great deal of pain. He refused to let anyone move his right arm from its current position of slight abduction and external rotation. Fullness was noticed in front of his shoulder. Further his radial pulse was found to be diminished. X-ray was done and a diagnosis was established. Likely damaged structure is:

12217

X ray of the patient in above Question determined the patient to have a small Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following radiographs is best suited for visualizing this lesion?

12218

A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department complaining of left arm pain after a fall from stairs. She landed directly onto an outstretched hand.  She has difficulty flexing her forearm. On examination of her left elbow, there is a dimpling of the skin in the antecubital fossa, with mild swelling around the elbow. With Much pain, the patient can extend her wrist and fingers and can spread her fingers apart. She has difficulty, however, flexing her thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint and flexing her index and middle fingers at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Sensation is intact throughout her left arm.  Which of the following structures is injured?

12219

A 7-year-old boy falls from bicycle  onto an outstretched right hand. X-rays reveal an extension-type supracondylar fracture. His fingers are warm and well perfused, but no radial pulse is palpable. On careful examination, with which of the following motions is he most likely to have difficulty?

12220

A 32 year-old call centre employee complains of history of progressive numbness and pain in her right hand for around 5-6 months. She also complains that the pain increases at night time and starts affecting her thumb. She also states that she is beginning to drop objects she carries in her right hand. The clinical investigation which can clinch the diagnosis is

12221

A 42 year old female presents to OPD with painful hand joints, along with decreased Range of motion  and decreased grip strength. Upon examination trigger finger was also noticed .Xrays revealed deformities with destruction of joints and soft tissue. Likely diagnosis:

12222

Which of the following are rarely affected by rheumatoid arthritis

12223

A 44 year old patient, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to OPD with complaints of worsening of her joint pains and constitutional symptoms. He was diagnosed several years ago, and was advised DMARDs. However he stopped taking these medications after his condition improved significantly. Upon examination the following was noticed. Which of the following is true?

12224

The following finding is seen in

12225

A 49-year-old woman has noted increasing difficulty with movement of her left hand for the past 2 years. On examination she cannot completely extend the left middle finger. In the palm of her hand at the base of this finger there is an ill-defined mass that is very firm to palpation. What will microscopic examination of this excised mass most likely show?

12226

Which of the following is tested using the following test?

12227

A 40-year-old man is bothered by slowly progressive loss of mobility of his spine at the hips since the age of 25. He has a brother who is similarly affected. On physical examination there is loss of lumbar lordosis with decreased range of motion at his hips. Earliest changes in this disease are seen in which region?

12228

A 55 year-old man has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination he has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have?

12229

Match the following

12230

A middle aged male was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?

12231

A 70 year old male presented to orthopaedics ODP with history of back pain for last 5 days. The patient was apparently well  before, and his back pain appeared after suffering a fall in the garden. MRI was done which returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis:

12232

A 36 year old alcoholic male presented to emergency room  with complaints of sudden onset of localized, intense pain near the base of great toe, after he returned home from an office party.  The patient noticed the pain only upon getting up very early the next morning. On examination, patient was found to be febrile. Local examination revealed redness and swelling around the joint. Palpation revealed an acutely tender joint. Patient insists that  the swelling was not present initially, but  occured within few hours of the initial pain. Likely diagnosis:

12233

A 76 year old female was brought to surgical emergency after a history of fall from staircase. X rays were done which returned the following picture. Most common complication of the condition, amongst the following is:

12234

The line marked as X and Y are:

12235

Most common cause of limp in children is

12236

Most common long complication of supracondyler fracture is

12237

Identify the following device:

12238

The following fracture is commonly seen in which age group

12239

Identify the following pathology

12240

A 30 year old Woman presents to the gynecology clinic with history of previous 3 consecutive second trimester abortions associated with painless and sudden expulsion of fetus. She is 6 weeks pregnant and is anxious about the probability of a miscarriage again. An Ultrasound done confirms a single live intrauterine pregnancy of 6 weeks. The cervical length measures 2 cm and the internal os is closed. What is the best management plan for her?

12241

Definitive differentiation between partial mole and complete mole can be done by all except:

12242

A 35 year old female mother of two presents to gynaecology emergency with vaginal bleeding, at 12 weeks of gestation. She also reports excessive nausea and vomiting. On examination the fundal height corresponds to 22 weeks. An ultrasound was done, which shows snow storm appearance and bilateral enlarged cystic ovaries. Optimum management would include:

12243

A 25 year old primary gravida at 15 weeks pregnant presents with complaint of pain in the lower abdomen for a couple of hours. She also has some vaginal spotting on physical examination. The uterus size corresponds to 10 weeks and the os is closed. There is no cardiac activity in the fetus. Likely diagnosis is:

12244

Identify the lie of the fetus in the following image:

12245

A 22 year old pregnant female presented to obstetric emergency at 20 weeks of gestation, with complaint of vaginal spotting. On examination she was found to have an enlarged uterus up to 26 weeks size. No fetal heart sound was audible. The fetal Doppler also failed to reveal the presence of any heart sound. Human chorionic gonadotrophin levels in serum levels were raised, and were found to be 100,000 mIU/ml. Which of the following test is most appropriate?

12246

A 26 year old woman with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, presented to the gynecology OPD with pain in lower abdomen. A urine pregnancy test was done which turned out to be positive. On examination pulse rate is 90 per minute.  blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. There is tenderness in the right hypogastrium. On pelvic examination, the uterus was found to be normal in size and tenderness was noticed in the right vaginal fornix. The likely diagnosis is:

12247

Which of the following is not included in the active management of 3rd stage of labour to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

12248

A 35 year old. G5, P4 woman in spontaneous labour delivered healthy 4 kg baby boy. Soon after the delivery of placenta is complete, you notice that you uterus is flabby and a gush of blood is pouring from the vagina. Pulse rate 110. Blood pressure 100/60 mm hg. What is the diagnosis?

12249

A 28 year old obese female comes for antenatal visit at 8 weeks of pregnancy. She has a strong family history of hypothyroidism. Her lab report shows Tsh 4 mIU/L, Free T4 is normal. How do you interpret these results?

12250

A 28 year old female comes for antenatal visit at 6 weeks POG. Her TSH levels are low and free T4 levels are elevated. Initial treatment is started with:

12251

A primigravida, at 37 weeks of gestation reported to the labour room with central placenta previa and vagina bleeding. Her vitals are stable. Per abdomen examination reveals uterus is relaxed and fetus is cephalic in presentation. Fetal heart sounds are normal. There is no active vagina bleeding at present on local examination. The best management for her age:

12252

A woman underwent caesarean section for placental abruption with fetal distress. The following intra operative findings are seen. All are true regarding this condition except:

12253

All are true statements about postpartum anti D prophylaxis except:

12254

A primigravida came in spontaneous preterm labour at 32 weeks of pregnancy. There is no other medical risk factor. No history of fever. Blood pressure is normal. There is no leakage or bleeding per vagina. She is 4 centimetre dilated. 80% effaced cervix and a bag of membranes is present.  What is the management?

12255

Highest risk of transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus is during:

12256

A 28-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant. She has long-standing type 1 diabetes mellitus. Her 20-week fetal anatomy ultrasound showed no structural fetal abnormalities. However, she is concerned about how her diabetes may cause congenital fetal anomalies in her unborn child. Of the options listed below, which SINGLE action addresses her anxiety?

12257

A 32 year old female, G2P1 presented to emergency department at 24 weeks of pregnancy with complaint of acute stabbing pain in her abdomen. He also has low grade fever. Blood investigations revealed raised TLC (14000/mm3. She has a history of being treated for menorrhagia, and was diagnosed to be having a fibroid in her uterus. Likely cause is:

12258

30 year old brick kiln worker presented to obstetric OPD at 12 weeks of pregnancy. She is very anxious because she has a history of baby born with Down syndrome. Which of the following test is advisable for the patient:

12259

A 36 year old woman was being treated for infertility. 2 years, after the treatment started, she conceived. As a part of routine obstetric investigation, ultrasound was done, which shows the following appearance. Identify the type of twin pregnancy in this patient:

12260

28 year old female primigravida, presented at 30 weeks of gestation for regular antenatal checkup. On examination the uterus corresponds to 36 weeks of gestation with normal fetal heart rate. Transvaginal ultrasound was done which revealed AFI of 26 which of the following condition is most likely to be associated with this patient:

12261

The placenta shown below is:

12262

26 year old primi gravida at 38 weeks of gestation, presented to the obstetrics OPD with complaints of faintness on lying down for the past one week. She feels better when she turns to one side and while she is in sitting position. What is the reason of her clinical condition?

12263

32 year old women presented to obstetrics OPD with a twin pregnancy, 10 weeks of gestation. She has a 3 year old female child who was born at term and had 2 first trimester abortions previously. Which of the following is correct representation of her obstetrics score/formula. G: Gravida, P: Para

12264

Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in:

12265

Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except:

12266

A female of 36 weeks gestation presents with hypertension, blurring of vision and headache, her blood pressure reading was 180/120 mmHg and 174/110 mmHg after 20 minutes. How will you manage the patient:

12267

A pregnant lady acquires chickenpox 3 days prior to delivery. She delivers by normal. Which of the following statement is true:

12268

True about diabetes in pregnancy are all except:

12269

Fertilized ovum reaches uterine cavity by:

12270

A 35 year old Primary gravida presents to Obstetrics OPD with complaints of jaundice. On examination, her blood pressure was found to be 156/96 mm hg. Laboratory investigations were advised which revealed raised serum bilirubin levels. SGOT, SGPT and LDH were also raised. Platelet count was found to be 75,000. Further her kidney function test and blood coagulation profile revealed no abnormality. The likely diagnosis is:

12271

A 34 year old primigravida presents to emergency room with complaints of respiratory distress. She was noticed to have Polyhydramnios. An ultrasound was done which shows a live fetus in breech position. Placenta was found to be anterior and estimated birth weight of the baby was found to be 1.8 kilograms. Amniotic Fluid Index was found to be 35 centimetre. The best management of the patient is:

12272

Osiender sign indicates:

12273

All are true about HCG except:

12274

Triple marker test includes:

12275

Earliest diagnosis of pregnancy can be done by:

12276

A 26 week pregnant female presents to the obstetrics OPD. Routine ultrasound scan was done which reveals anencephaly. Amniotic Fluid Index was found to be 26 cm. All of the following are possible mechanism of increased liquor in this patient except:

12277

A 32 weeks pregnant female presents with labour pains and minimal vaginal discharge. On analysis of the cervical vaginal discharge, Fibronectin was found.  What is the probable diagnosis?

12278

A 25 year oldprimi gravida presents to obstetric OPD at 28 weeks of pregnancy. Blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. Her 24 hours urine albumin levels are 220milligram. She has family history of hypertension in mother. Her previous records show normal blood pressure at 12 weeks and normal investigation. She has developed headache, blurring of vision since one day. What is the likely diagnosis?

12279

A G2 P1 at 28 weeks presents to obstetric OPD with the twin pregnancy. An ultrasound was advised. Which shows that both fetus are alive. The chorionicity Is Diamniotic and monochorionic. Twin B is noted to have Oligohydramnios and was found to be much smaller than twin A. Which of the following finding would be most likely associated with twin A?

12280

Which of the following is false statement regarding normal pregnancy?

12281

Most common cause of non-engagement of head in a primigravida is:

12282

Anti-phospholipid is syndrome associated with all of the following except:

12283

A 32 year old G 4, A 3 comes at 6 weeks of gestation. She is diagnosed with APLA syndrome. What is correct about the management of this condition?

12284

A 25 year old woman at 6 weeks of amenorrhea comes to the gynecology OPD with complaint of off and on lower abdomen pain. Her urine pregnancy test is positive. Abdomen and per vaginum examination revealed no significant anomaly. An ultrasound was done which shows an empty uterine cavity. What is the next step in the management of this patient?

12285

A 30 year old multiparous woman with 6 weeks of amenorrhea came to the emergency with complaint of pain in the lower abdomen. Her urine pregnancy test was found to be positive. HR 100 /min and blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg. On examination there is tenderness in the right hypogastrium with guarding and rigidity. An ultrasound was performed which shows empty uterus and around 200 ml of fluid collection in the pelvis. What is the preferred management in this case?

12286

26 year old Multigravida presents to the obstetrics emergency room in spontaneous labour. During labour the head retracts back on the perineum soon after delivery, and the shoulders fail to deliver with gentle traction. The manoeuvre presented in the image is performed. All are true regarding this maneuver except:

12287

The smallest diameter of pelvis is:

12288

A 24 year old female, planning to conceive visits her clinic of gynecologist. She is anxious about having history of epilepsy. Currently she is taking antiepileptic medication (phenytoin and carbamazepine both) and her epilepsy is well controlled. The last seizure suffered by her was around one year ago. She should be counseled about all of the following except:

12289

A 32 year old G1PO presents to obstetrics OPD at 8 weeks of gestation. She has history of Type 1 diabetes mellitus and is very concerned regarding the possible risk her illness may have on her fetus. All of the following are possible risks that can result from having diabetes in the pregnancy except:

12290

All of the following are complications which may be present in the newborn of a diabetic mellitus mother, except:

12291

All are true about Schultz method of placental separation except:

12292

Which of the following statement regarding carbohydrate metabolism in the pregnancy is incorrect?

12293

A relative contraindication for induction of labor includes which of the following?

12294

Which of the following is the most common aneuploidy causing miscarriage?

12295

What is the implantation of a placenta in which there is a defect in the fibrinoid layer at the implantation site, allowing the placental villi to invade and penetrate into but not through the myometrium called?

12296

High level of HCG found in all except:

12297

All of the following changes are seen in pregnancy except:

12298

During the delivery it is necessary to do an episiotomy. The tear extends through sphincter of the rectum but the rectal mucosa is intact. How would you classify this type of episiotomy?

12299

A 42-year old woman, gravida 3, para 3, complains of severe, progressive secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Pelvic examination demonstrates a tender, diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal tenderness. Results of endometrial biopsy are normal. This patient most likely has?

12300

A 23-year-old woman with confirmed pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) presents with right upper quadrant pain. What is the MOST likely etiology?

12301

A 38 year old medical representative in a pharmaceutical company presents with complaint of primary infertility. On examination the size of testis was found to be normal. As a part of the workup, semen analysis was ordered, which shows azoospermia. Further, FSH and testosterone levels were found to be normal. The most likely cause of his infertility is:

12302

A 64 year old female has been referred from geriatric OPD. She has presented with history of abdominal discomfort, weight loss and loss of appetite. On examination she was found to have an ill-defined abdominal lump. A USG was done which shows evidence of an ovarian tumour. Most likely she is suffering from:

12303

A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to Gynecology OPD with a complaint of not attending menarche. She gives H/O cyclic abdominal pain. On further examination midline, abdominal is swelling seen. Per rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. Which of the following can be most commonly seen?

12304

Given below is the image of a smear prepared from the vaginal discharge of a patient. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12305

A 48 year old female presented to Gynecology OPD with complaint of heavy menstural bleeding. As a part of the work up of the patient, endometrial biopsy was taken, which showed the evidence of simple hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia. Preferred treatment to be offered to the patient is:

12306

A woman is found to have a unilateral invasive carcinoma of vulva that is 2 cm in diameter but not associated with evidence of lymph node spread. Initial management should consists of:

12307

The following statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD) except:

12308

Which of the statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO?

12309

A 45 years old female presents with post coital bleeding. On per speculum examination a friable mass is found in cervix. Next step in management is:

12310

Correct statement about non scalpel vasectomy:

12311

A woman who suffered from a severe postpartum hemorrhage and hypotensive shock that was associated with Sheehan syndrome. She wishes to have another child. Ovulation can be induced using which of the following hormonal therapies?

12312

According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristic of normal semen analysis?

12313

A 22 years old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face. Serum LH level is 36 mlU/ mL and FSH is 9 mlU/mL.androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum Dheas is normal. The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

12314

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

12315

A 55 year old female presented o gynaecology OPD with complaints of on examination she was found to be having carcinoma endometrium involving greater than 50 percent of the myometrium extending up to vagina with positive peritoneal cytology but no involvement of the pelvic and para aortic LNs, what is the staging of the disease?

12316

A 54 year old woman has serous type of endometrial cancer, grade I with growth limited to the endometrium. The tumor is confined to the uterus. Size of the tumor is 2 centimeter. What is the most appropriate treatment?

12317

A 28 year old woman during Work-up of primary infertility is found to have bilateral ovarian mass. Her CA-125 levels are 90IU/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12318

Laparotomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascites positive for malignant cells and positive pelvic lymph nodes as well. All other structures were free of the disease. What is the stage of the disease?

12319

A 55 year old woman is diagnosed with invasive carcinoma of cervix.  Pelvic and rectal examination reveals that parametrium is free of the disease. The growth is up to the entire cervix and is extending towards the body of the uterus. The vagina is not involved .what is the stage of the disease:

12320

A 35 year old multiparous woman underwent pap smear screening and the report came out to be HSIL. What is the next step in the management?

12321

A 35 year old woman came with complaint of post coital bleeding. The physical examination is normal. What is the best step in evaluating the woman?

12322

A 30 year old woman with two children presented with complaint of dysmenorrhea. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a thin walled left side dovarian cyst of three centimeter with echogenic fluid. She does not wish to conceive. What is the first line of management?

12323

Endocrinological changes occurring during menopause include all of the following except:

12324

Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for hormone replacement therapy in a post menopausalwoman?

12325

The biochemical changes in established case of Stein leventhal syndrome or RR as mentioned except:

12326

A 16 year old girl comes with complaint of mild abnormal hair growth over the face for last two years her menstrual cycles have become mostly regular although she misses her period occasionally breast development is normal there is no clitorial hypertrophy what is the next step to arrive at a diagnosis?

12327

Most useful investigation for VVF is:

12328

A young couple is being evaluated for infertility. The woman has regular menstrual cycles. What test would you recommend to the couple?

12329

A female was being evaluated for infertility. HSG was performed which showed the following HSG report. She has regular normal menstrual Cycles. USG is normal. The husband semen analysis is normal. What is the next step in the management?

12330

A 30 year old woman with H/O - PCOD presents for evaluation of infertility after one year of unprotected intercourse. What is the initial step in her evaluation?

12331

A 20 year old woman who has never been pregnant presents for the evaluation of 3 months of Amenorrhea. Her complaints of fatigue, nausea and breast tenderness. Her menstrual cycle started at 13 years of age and had been regular since then. Which of the following test would be the most appropriate first step in the evaluation of this patient?

12332

A 36 year old male presented to the gynecology clinic with complaint of Azoospermia, the diagnostic test which can distinguish between testicular failure and obstruction of the vast deference is:

12333

A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency with c/o - severe abdominal pain and acute urinary retention. She has not yet attained menarche. On local examination, there is tense bluish bulge at the introitus. All of the following can be additional findings in this case except:

12334

A 14 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea and lower abdominal pain which is cyclical. She has good sec. sexual characters. Vaginal orifice is normal. P/A examination reveals abdomino pelvic lump. On per rectal examination, mass can be felt anterior to the rectum. What is the best investigation to help the diagnosis?

12335

A woman with amenorrhea was given progesterone withdrawal test and bleeding occurred. This signifies all of the following except:

12336

A 35 year old woman with amenorrhea for 6 months presented to gynecology OPD with H/O – Surgical MTP. Pelvic examination is normal, no withdrawal bleeding on progesterone challenge test. Serum FSH normal/serum TSH normal/serum prolactin 20 ng/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12337

A 30 year old woman has come with C/O - Amenorrhea for the past one year. She had a delivery one year ago during which 4 units of blood was transfused. There is no H/O - Postpartum curettage. She recalls having failure of lactation. Now she also has cold intolerance. Pelvic examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12338

All of the following are amongst the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea except:

12339

In the patients with hypothalamic pituitary dysfunction. What is the typical pattern of FSH and LH?

12340

Which of the following is the absolute contraindication to the use of this device?

12341

Identify the finding in the HSG image. Likely diagnosis is?

12342

Identify the following device and non-contraceptive benefits of this device include all except:

12343

Treatment of decubitus ulcer in prolapsed:

12344

Which of the following can be used for emergency contraception up to 5 days following unprotected intercourse?

12345

A 16 year old girl presents to the gynecology OPD with primary amenorrhea. She has well developed breast, absence of axillary and pubic hair is noticed. Most likely ultrasound findings would be:

12346

The management of uterovaginal prolapse includes except:

12347

In ovarian cycle increased level of LH is due to:

12348

Which of the following is false regarding types of gynaecological prolapse?

12349

Rate of release of progesterone fron LNG IUS is:

12350

Fothergill repair is associated with the following complicatios except:

12351

A 27 year old P1L1 wants contraception for 6 months. She has dysmenorrhea and is a known case of complicated migraine. On USG, uterus has multiple fibroids and distorted uterine cavity. She also smokes around 10 cigarettes per day. Contraception of choice is:

12352

A 40 year old, smoker, obese (BMI 40), 3 previous LSCS. Family complete, seeks permanent effective contraception. Partner refuses to take contraception precautions:

12353

Incidence of which of the following cancer is likely to increase after the use of oral contraceptive pills:

12354

The presence of Asherman syndrome typically involves:

12355

Causes of post-menopausal bleeding include:

12356

Fibroid causes all of the following except:

12357

24 years old Medical Student comes to the ENT OPD due to right ear pain, pruritus, and discharge for the past week. He has had no cold symptoms, hearing loss, or tinnitus. The patient returned yesterday from 2-weeks vacations at Goa Beach after giving MCI Screening Exam where he swam almost daily. On Examination, manipulation of the right ear elicits pain. There is prominent swelling and erythema of the ear canal with purulent and crusty debris.  The tympanic membrane appears normal and has normal mobility. The left ear is normal. Nasal and oropharyngeal mucosa are normal, and no rashes or skin lesions are noted. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism of this patient current condition?

12358

While doing posterior tympanotomy through the facial recess there are chances of injury to the following except:

12359

The significance of the marked structure is in the given picture:

12360

A 27 years old female patient presented with bilateral hearing loss. She complains of hearing better in noisy environment. Rinne is negative in both the ears and Weber is centralized. Most probable diagnosis is:

12361

A middle aged woman presented with right sided hearing loss, Rinne test shows positive result on left side and negative result on right side. Weber test showed lateralization to left side, diagnosis is:

12362

A Patient of Head Injury presented with decreased hearing from left Ear. On examination, Tympanic membrane was normal, however pure tone audiogram shows an AB gap of 54 dB. Tympanometry shows increased compliance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12363

A 7 years old child presents with recurrent attacks of Acute Otitis Media for last 6 months with residual serous otitis media in between the attacks despite antibiotic treatment. What must be the next line of treatment?

12364

A 60 years old diabetic patient presents with extremely painful lesion in the external ear and otorrhea. There is evidence of granulation type tissue in the external ear and bony erosion with facial nerve palsy is noted. The drug of choice for this condition is:

12365

Patient presents with pain and discharge in the ear. On examination the ear shows the following. He should be managed by:

12366

A boy with ASOM underwent treatment for the same. Now he presents with subsidence of pain but persistence of deafness. On examination of TM, following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12367

A 30 yrs old lady underwent Tympanoplasty for Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (Tubotympanic Disease). What was done during the surgery?

12368

A 16 years old boy presented with Scanty, foul smelling painless discharge from the ear. On examination following findings are seen. All of the following are the features of the disease except:

12369

A child presents with foul smelling ear discharge. On further exploration, a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane as shown below. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:

12370

A 5 years old child presented with hearing loss. On examination a white pearly mass is seen behind an intact TM as shown below. There is no history of TM perforation or surgery. What will be the most probable diagnosis?

12371

A patient is brought to the emergency with the complaint of seizures, altered sensorium and headache. He has been undergoing treatment for chronic suppurative otitis media. And immediate NCCT was done (given below). The most probable diagnosis is:

12372

A 35 years old patient presented with high grade fever usually at 101 degree f that goes till 1050f but never goes back to normal. On Examination, patient has pitting oedema on mastoid surface. He gives history of ear discharge from the same ear.  What is the most probable diagnosis?

12373

Ramu presented with persistent ear discharge and hearing loss. Modified radical mastoidectomy was done to him. Patient comes back with persistent ear discharge, retro-orbital pain and diplopia of lateral gaze. What is your diagnosis?

12374

A 26 years old lady comes to ENT OPD with complaints of bilateral hearing loss since last few years. On examination, Tympanic Membrane was Normal. Pure Tone audiometry was done showed AB gap with dip at 2000Hz. What will be the likely finding of impedance audiometry in this patient?

12375

Dryness of mouth with normal stapedial reflex in facial nerve injury-site of lesion is at:

12376

A case of kidney disease was given repeatedly high doses of frusemide. After 1 week patient started complaining of decreased hearing. Most likely cause of this is damage to:

12377

A 31-year-old female came to ENT OPD with 6 months H/O ringing in her ear, a feeling of spinning and hearing loss in left ear. Spinning sensation is episodic and lasts for 60 minutes. During these episodes, she has nausea and vomiting. She denies fever, chills, cough, and ear or throat pain. She has H/o hypothyroidism and fibromyalgia and currently on medications–thyroxine and ibuprofen. Her father died of MI at the age of 54. On examination her BP: 128/70; Pulse 60/min; respiration 16/min., left-sided SN hearing loss. Most likely diagnosis is:

12378

The following audiogram is suggestive of:

12379

A 60-year-old male presents with episodes of severe vertigo which lasts for 4 hours, associated with vomiting. On examination he is having right horizontal nystagmus and mild right-sided SN hearing loss during the episode. Diagnosis:

12380

The 50 years old patient presented with slow progressive sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus and was diagnosed as a case of Vestibular schwannoma. He was posted for Surgery.  The biopsy specimen-histopathology will show:

12381

Which of the following method of rehabilitation of hearing should be done in a child with atresia of both the external auditory canal?

12382

Which of following would be the most appropriate treatment for rehabilitation of a patient who has bilateral profound deafness following surgery for bilateral acoustic schwannoma?

12383

A cochlear implant is a device designed to create an alternate hearing pathway for people of all ages with bilateral severe profound sensorineural hearing loss, which of the following normal structures of the ear are directly stimulated by the electrodes?

12384

The below is passed into the middle ear through:

12385

Use of Siegel speculum during examination of the ear provides all except:

12386

A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal discharge now presents with fever and right sided conjunctival congestion and edema for the past 3 days, see picture below. His fever is 103 degree F and WBC count is 12000/µL. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-ray show opacification of ethmoid sinus. Which of the following should be the next step in evaluating this patient:

12387

A child is normal while crying but develops cyanosis and breathlessness when being quiet. The most probable diagnosis:

12388

A polypoidal swelling is noted in an infant near the glabella. The swelling is compressible and increases in size on coughing all of the flowing investigating actions should be done except?

12389

This is a patient of DNS. Identify the arrow marked structure:

12390

After laparoscopic appendicectomy, patient had fallen from bed on her nose after which she had swelling in nose and difficulty in breathing. Next step in management:

12391

The following device is used for the management of:

12392

Child with battery as foreign body in nose. Which of the following is an important concern?

12393

The following instruments are used in which surgery:

12394

A 15 yr. old male presented with nasal obstruction. His oral examination and CT Scan finding are given below. Which one is true regarding this condition:

12395

A 35-year-old male presents with nasal polyp and mucinous nasal discharge. His CT scan is given here. This radiological sign is:

12396

A young female with a long history of sinusitis presents with frequent episodes of fever, headache of recent onset along with personality changes. Fundus examination revealed papilledema. Most likely diagnosis is:

12397

A patient presents with nasal obstruction and anosmia. Her nasal endoscopy picture is given below. All the following constitute the treatment except:

12398

A 55 years old male presented with nasal obstruction and blood tinged nasal discharge. His endoscopy and CT findings are shown below. The most probable diagnosis is:

12399

A child post tonsillectomy in the recovery room starts bleeding from the operative site. On examination, lots of clots are seen in the tonsillar fossa. What should be your immediate management?

12400

A 5-year-old child is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery, he had running nose, temperature 37.5 degree C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?

12401

A 12-year-old unimmunized girl presents with sore throat, fever and pain in the throat. Throat examination reveals membrane over the tonsil which bleeds on removal as shown in the picture below. Most probable diagnosis is:

12402

Middle age diabetic with tooth extraction with ipsilateral swelling over upper one third of sternocleidomastoid and displacement of ipsilateral tonsil towards contralateral side:

12403

An elderly male presents with history of dysphagia, regurgitation, foul breath, hoarseness and cough. Right sided lung crepts are noted on examination. The most likely diagnosis is:

12404

A 2-year-old girl is brought with acute onset of fever and breathing difficulty. Audible stridor and drooling of saliva present. No history of coughs. No vaccination. Pathogen most commonly involved:

12405

A middle aged male comes to the OPD with complaint of hoarseness of voice for the past 2 months. He has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion of both cords was seen. Management would include all except:

12406

An infant is brought with stridor. He is diagnosed as laryngomalacia. The following things will be found in the child except:

12407

A 2-month-old child has stridor for the past few days. The child has no other problems. The stridor is mainly during expiration. The child is taking feeds and is active. Which of the following is seen in the child?

12408

A patient undergoes surgery of the lateral part of the base of skull. Postoperatively the patient present with aspiration but does not have a change in voice. Which of the following is injured?

12409

A 30-year-old female presented with stridor following upper respiratory infection. I/L shows glottic gap is 3 mm. it can be managed by the following except:

12410

A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is true for the management of this case?

12411

A 55-year-old known smoker presents with a low pitched voice. Endoscopy shows a mass limited to the vocal cord on the left. Biopsy is suggestive of laryngeal cancer type T1N0. Treatment of choice would be:

12412

A 55-year-old male came with history of hoarseness of voice for which direct laryngoscopy was done and the lesion was biopsied to detect squamous cell carcinoma. He now requires investigation to detect extent of cartilage involvement, imaging of pre and paraglottic spaces. Most appropriate investigation of choice would be:

12413

A mother gats her child to the doctor with the complaint that the child is not able to swallow anything since the past few hours. She is not sure but say that the child was playing with a coin. On exaination vitals were stable and there was no dyspnea. What is the diagnosis?

12414

A 25-year-old female presented with gradually increasing respiratory distress since 4 day. She gives history of hospitalization and mechanical ventilation with orotracheal intubation for 2 weeks. Now she is diagnosed as having severe laryngotracheal stenosis. Next step in the management is:

12415

Which of the following is not a principle of primary health care?

12416

A child was having mid upper arm circumference of 12cm. The child will be classified into which category?

12417

A mother brings her 10 month old child for routine vaccination. She told the doctor that my child had taken tab prednisolone for 8 weeks for some renal problem but now stopped since last 1 month, which vaccine to be avoided by doctor?

12418

The following vaccine vial reaches to you, what will you do with the vial?

12419

A new drug does not cure a disease but decrease the risk of complications and mortality. What will be the change seen?

12420

Which of the following is not the work responsibility of ASHA worker?

12421

An ASHA worker under NRHM, which of the following is the best impact indicator for evaluation of ASHA performance?

12422

An ASHA worker as a part of NRHM, how much incentives are given to her for ensuring spacing of 3 years after the birth of 1st child?

12423

A 55 years old man had been working in a benzene factory for long time. He got retired 5years ago and what could be a possible complication?

12424

A community has total population of 10000. Children ranging from 0-6 years are 2000. Literate persons are 4000. What is the effective literacy rate?

12425

Epidemiology is the study and analysis of the distribution, patterns and determinants of health and disease conditions in defined populations. Which among the following correctly defines generation time in epidemiology?

12426

Elimination of a disease refers to the complete and permanent worldwide reduction to zero new cases of the disease through deliberate efforts. All of the following diseases are eliminated from India except?

12427

A 3 year old baby was brought to hospital with complains of fever, severe watery diarrhea and vomiting. On history taking mother revealed that she has not been able to follow the vaccination schedule. The baby is infected with rota virus, the RV vaccine can be given till what age if missed?

12428

A 5 year old boy was brought to the hospital for vaccination by his mother. According to the latest guidelines of vaccination, which of the following is applicable for this age?

12429

Quantitative method to study previous research studies is?

12430

Infant mortality rate does not include?

12431

Cafeteria approach is related to which of the following?

12432

A healthcare worker visits fortnightly in a village and collects blood sample and prepares blood smear. The blood smear of malaria is examined at which level?

12433

Which of the following vaccines do not provide herd immunity?

12434

Live attenuated vaccine can be given to:

12435

Predictive value indicating positive test in a screening modality is calculated by:

12436

Lead time is:

12437

In a population of 5000, number of new cases of TB is 500, old cases in the same population are 150. What is the prevalence of TB?

12438

If Net Reproduction Rate is desired to be 1, what should be the couple protection rate?

12439

In a case of epidemic, 3 villages are affected simultaneously with typhoid cases. Upon study, it is found that one milk man is going to all these 3 villages. Identify the type of epidemic

12440

Which of the following defines ability of an organism to cause an infection?

12441

A study started in month of Feb 2022, where labour room records of patient admitted in month of Jan 2022 with labour pain was analyzed to know effect of oxytocin use for induction or augmentation of labour to neonatal outcome. Which type of study was used?

12442

Study the given formula carefully and identify the X. X=True Negatives/True Negatives+False Positives

12443

True about PQLI?

12444

Which is the best indicator for measurement of socio-economic growth and development in a society?

12445

A 30year old lady presented to OPD with C/O pain lower abdomen with H/O copper insertion 3 years back, on USG investigation it was confirmed that copper is extra uterine near ovary, its removal is done by?

12446

A healthcare worker going to the community in search of cases is called as an active surveillance. Which of the following diseases are not included in active surveillance in India?

12447

A 2 years old child bottle fed, irritable and extreme thirsty since 2 days brought to PHC. 14 episodes of diarrhoea in last week and child was eager to drink. What should be done?

12448

An ANM receives two open vaccine vials, MR and Pentavalent vaccine vial. Which can be used for the immunization round?

12449

A child presents with normal height but weight lesser than expected for that height. He is classified under?

12450

A study conducted on people who are having depression and on healthy individual and their time given to all social media was recorded. Which is the type of study used?

12451

Match the vaccines with their strains?

12452

Which of the following is not a health worker at village level?

12453

What will be the content in the given contraceptive?

12454

A 20 year old pregnant female at 7 weeks of gestation presents to you for MTP. Which among the following drug is used for MTP?

12455

A researcher undertakes follow-up study for a certain time period duration, and tells that the people increasingly develop the disease with time, then it is expressed as:

12456

Acute encephalitis syndrome cases were reported from Gorakhpur, UP. The health authorities decided for mass vaccination under the universal immunization program. Identify vaccine type and route

12457

A 34 year old woman presents after 6 weeks of delivery. She wants contraception for the next 3 years, what will be the best contraceptive in this case?

12458

What is the dose of levonorgestrel used for emergency contraception?

12459

Registration of births to married on state and national level is done by

12460

Late expanding stage of demographic cycle is characterized by

12461

Population attributable risk is defined as?

12462

Which is the 1st priority group for rubella vaccination?

12463

A lady wants contraceptive advise so she visited nearby family planning clinic. During history taking it was noted that her mother and her elder sister had been operated for breast cancer in past one year. Preferred contraception for this woman is?

12464

Target couple is:

12465

True about incentives given to ASHA worker in Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram?

12466

All are functions of Anganwadi workers except?

12467

In a prospective study, 1200 patients were randomly selected to study the effect of a new drug. The drug will be given for 5 years and its association with cataract will be studied. What type of study is this?

12468

Which vaccine uses sterile water as a diluent?

12469

If we stop all surveillance activity in India after not detecting new cases of disease, then disease is in state of?

12470

All are true about non scalpel vasectomy except

12471

A child more than 12 months old less than 8kg weight, malnourished with vitamin A deficiency, oral dose required is

12472

A woman 25-45year old belonging to same village, married/divorced with well communication skill and leadership quality and selected by village panchayat. She is eligible to work as

12473

A female has 2 children, what will be the NRR?

12474

A particular contraceptive X is used by 100 couples in the community for a period of 2 years. During this period 20 women became pregnant despite of use of contraceptive X. The pearl index for contraceptive X will be?

12475

Number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to:

12476

A lady is reporting to PHC with 8th week in pregnancy with IUCD in place. She has decided to continue pregnancy and on examination IUCD thread was visible through cervical os. How to proceed in this case?

12477

A person who was absolutely fit and fine, suddenly develops severe headache and become unconscious. On hospitalization diagnosed as a case of hemiplegia due to brain haemorrhage. He remained in paralyzed state for 5 years before death at age of 68 years. These 5 years of suffering included as?

12478

In a study it was found that diabetes patients are having 4 times higher sedentary habit than nondiabetic patients correct parameter is?

12479

Which is the most commonly performed investigation in a pregnant female at subcentre?

12480

Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is:

12481

A HIV +ve patient was also diagnosed with TB. Which among the following is true about the treatment?

12482

True about population norms

12483

In assessing the association between maternal nutritional status and the birth weight of the newborns, two investigators A and B studied separately and found significant result with OR with 0.8 and 1.2 respectively. From this information, what can you infer about the study?

12484

A patient from rural village presented to PHC with abnormal darkening of skin, fever, abdominal pain, swollen lymph nodes and splenomegaly. The condition was diagnosed as Kala Azar. Which of the following is the drug prescribed?

12485

A 26year old male presented with fever, chills, night sweats and diarrhea. The physician is suspecting malaria. Dipstick test was performed for rapid diagnosis of P. falciparum, it is based on which protein?

12486

A patient comes with small wound on knee 10 x 2 cm, 12 hours old. He had taken TT 6 months back for another injury. What should be done?

12487

In a population of 10,000 the sex ratio is more than 1000. What is the correct option from below?

12488

How would you demonstrate balanced diet to uneducated patient’s relatives and family pictorially?

12489

A pregnant occupational worker can be exposed to maximum how much amount of radiation?

12490

Which among the following bio safety level is used for viral isolation in cell culture and its characterization in COVID-19?

12491

A disaster is a sudden, calamitous event that seriously disrupts the functioning of a community or society and causes human, material, economic and environmental losses. In disaster management all are correct except?

12492

All the below given are components of Nalgonda technique except?

12493

A village had an outbreak of meningitis with the below given rash. Which among the following is the best drug to be used for mass chemoprophylaxis of a large population in this village?

12494

The following apparatus is used for?

12495

Which of these has the maximum natural source of retinoids?

12496

Under Vision 2020, in a school vision screening program, a teacher checks vision of all students and will refer them on low vision to?

12497

Which of the following is not transmitted by aedes mosquito?

12498

A Medical officer examines workers in mines and suspected Silicosis. What should be his comments?

12499

The Factories Act, 1948 is a social legislation which has been enacted for occupational safety, health and welfare of workers at work places. What is the maximum number of work hours/week, prescribed under the Factories act?

12500

In rural areas, patients do not have insurance. But under ESI act, registered medical practitioner can render which of the following service to the beneficiary?

12501

A couple brought their son to doctor. They were worried because their sun likes to eat food from multinational companies. What we will call this shift from consumption of traditional natural foods to western fast foods in the society?

12502

The highest amount of protein is present in which of the following?

12503

A factory workers had a history of frequent exposure to groundnuts. Subsequently he develops hepatocellular carcinoma. Most likely exposure association is

12504

If you are posted as a Medical Officer in an area under NVBDCP and you will be advised to spray Malathion for malaria prophylaxis. What could be the probable decision you will take regarding frequency of Malathion spray?

12505

Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

12506

A female patient with macrocytic anaemia, homocystinuria and normal methylmalonate levels. Which vitamin therapy can help in this?

12507

Which of the following is not constrained by time or existing resources?

12508

A married couple has 1 child birth recently. They belong to which phase of family cycle?

12509

Which is the largest fund for population and reproduction related programs?

12510

A speech gathering on a particular topic with 4-6 experts on stage is which mode of health communication?

12511

A person working with 30 years history of working in cotton textile manufacturing industry and develops breathlessness. It is likely to be associated with?

12512

A patient was diagnosed with TT leprosy; the patient had to be started on multi drug therapy. All the following drugs are included in the regime except?

12513

A person from Delhi went to Assam for their trip and is now suffering from malaria for 4 days. He has now developed vomiting, altered sensorium and hallucinations. Blood smear tests show Plasmodium falciparum. What drug should be given?

12514

A 35 years old patient from Bihar comes with generalized bone pain and was diagnosed to have Fluorosis. Fluorosis of bone is commonly associated with?

12515

Identify the following diagram as given in the image

12516

Which of the following is true regarding the following image?

12517

Patients from different age groups from a village in West Bengal came to clinic with illness. On examination, it is noted that all of them were having edema. On history taking, it was found that they were consuming mustard seeds bought from the same local shop. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

12518

In a hospital, systematic observation and recording of doctors spending time with patients care and time without care of patient is calculated for future management purposes. The type of management technique used is

12519

In different types of graphs, secular trend of disease is best represented by

12520

According to Sustainable Development Goal 3 - Ensure healthy life and promote wellbeing for all at all ages, Target 3.1 is to reduce maternal mortality ratio by 2030 is less than

12521

True about benefits given under scheme launched by the institution with following logo is

12522

Match the STD color coded kits with their names

12523

A family member is volunteering for blood donation for a person with RTA. Before giving blood transfusion, which of the following is not tested for?

12524

Many young adults and children are admitted in ED with complains of exacerbation of asthma on May 2nd. There is no history of chronic bronchitis or heart disease in these patients. Which of the following pollutant is most common cause for this condition?

12525

A patient is resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ofloxacin and Kanamycin. What type of resistance is being shown by the patient?

12526

Match the contraceptives with their type:

12527

The below given phenomenon is shown by a disease, where 12 cases are above surface, 20 at the surface and 50 beneath. Which disease has the following pattern?

12528

True regarding iron folic acid supplementation under Anemia Mukt Bharat program is

12529

A patient complains of dimness of vision in dim light. Examination reveals, dryness of eyes and corneal surface. Likely deficiency

12530

As a Medical Officer of a PHC, you want to talk and discuss some health related issue with antenatal mothers. How many members will you include in focused group discussion?

12531

A patient presents with multiple inguinal and axillary buboes. Which among the following is a vector for his condition?

12532

A 25 year old married female was diagnosed with pulmonary TB and so started on ATT under NTEP. She was taking OCP’s for contraception but the doctor advises to add on condoms for additional protection. What is the underlying cause?

12533

Which is the instrument used to measure absolute humidity in air?

12534

After a flood in the state of Orissa, the district health authorities distributed Doxycycline and chemical poison spray. Identify the chemical

12535

A 55 years old farmer from the state of Chhattisgarh presented with progressive muscle weakness, stiffness and pain in both legs. On examination, pure motor paresis is noted. What further history will you take?

12536

Components of Kuppuswamy scale are:

12537

On republic day, a camp was organized and people were screened for hypertension by checking BP and for diabetes by checking their BMI and blood sugar level, which level of prevention is this?

12538

True about quarantine:

12539

Why is sugar added in ORS?

12540

Under NACP, HIV targeted intervention is not done in?

12541

Provision of services at the centre represented by the given logo includes:

12542

In triage black colour is for?

12543

Quintan fever is caused by?

12544

Thiamine deficiency results in decrease energy production, because TPP:

12545

According to NVBDCP, operational efficiency for malaria control is best assessed by?

12546

The given arthropod vector can transmit all the below given diseases except?

12547

For monitoring of food standards in international market, standard followed is:

12548

A study is undertaken to determine whether drinking more than 10 cups of coffee a day is associated with hypertension. The blood pressure readings were taken of persons who drink more than 8 cups and persons who drink no coffee. The results are as follows:

12549

Which is the WHO index for obesity?

12550

All below given diseases are included in the WHO program represented by given logo except?

12551

What is the cut off level of blindness given by WHO?

12552

A 30 years old male went to hospital for prophylactic check-up after his dad died due to some cardiac vascular disease. What is the level of prevention?

12553

A mother stopped lactating when the baby was 3 months old so, she decided to give buffalo milk to baby. What is true about buffalo milk in comparison to human milk?

12554

Severity of disease depends on which of the following factor?

12555

A person before entering India was started on malaria chemoprophylaxis, now he returned back to America how long he should continue this chemoprophylaxis?

12556

If a new disease like yellow fever come in India; within how much time we have to inform WHO?

12557

A camp was organized to spread awareness about prevention of covid infection. All are true for covid-19 except?

12558

Under programme of given logo, guidelines to start therapy

12559

A 37 weeks pregnant lady with HBS antigen positive and HBE antigen negative; how to deal with new born?

12560

If decision makers have to do comparative analysis of all available alternatives over their cost effectiveness to find best solution of a problem. Management technique is?

12561

All diseases are included in international health regulation except?

12562

Following a train accident, emergency response team members reach to the site of accident and they tried to segregate patients as per triage guidelines. Which ministry will be on high alert?

12563

In a group of 100 children with mean weight of 40 Kg with standard deviation of 1 Kg, which statement is correct?

12564

Pulses and cereals are deficient in which amino acid?

12565

Calculate caloric requirement by a moderate worker female lactating her 4 months old child?

12566

As a health worker you are promoting for use of face mask, frequent hand wash, social distancing to fight against corona disease. Which is the level of prevention?

12567

A 10 weeks pregnant woman brought to the clinic with dog bite category 2, 4 hours prior. What shall be your advice?

12568

There are 100 children in a population, out of which 28 are immunized for chickenpox. Two children developed chickenpox on the same day. 14 more children developed chickenpox with next 5 to 7 days. What is the secondary attack rate of chickenpox?

12569

To compare construction material used in urban and rural areas, a study was conducted and it was reported that use of bricks, cement and sand was 60%, 25% and 15% and 60%, 30% and 10% respectively. Which among the following statistical test is used for analysis?

12570

The appearance of the heart shown in the image is seen in:

12571

A child presents with fever and cough. The most likely organism is:

12572

Identify the investigation and pathology:

12573

Not true about given condition:

12574

All of the following signs are seen in pulmonary embolism except:

12575

A 40 year old male presents with acute chest pain. Diagnosis is:

12576

All of the following are seen in coarctation of aorta except:

12577

The sign shown in the given CT is seen in all except:

12578

Diagnosis:

12579

Interpret the given radiograph:

12580

The labelled structure represents:

12581

Diagnosis:

12582

The labelled structure represents:

12583

The labelled heart chamber is:

12584

Popcorn classification in lung is seen in:

12585

A child presents with high grade fever and cough, Diagnosis is:

12586

Finger in glove sign is seen in:

12587

Calcified parietal pleural plaques are seen in:

12588

The appearance shown is seen in enlargement of:

12589

False statement regarding X ray appearance:

12590

TLD badge is monitored every:

12591

A 50 year old male presents with abdominal pain and distension. Diagnosis is:

12592

IOC for Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:

12593

All of the following  are seen in pneumoperitoneum except:

12594

Gold standard ix for the given condition:

12595

Investigation of choice in acute pancreatitis:

12596

Saw tooth appearance is seen in:

12597

Diagnosis:

12598

A 50 year old male presents with pain in abdomen and blood in stools. Diagnosis:

12599

A 2 year old child presents with abdominal pain and red currant jelly stools. Which of the following signs will be seen on barium enema?

12600

Diagnosis:

12601

A 16 year old boy presents with c/o pain and swelling in lower thigh. Diagnosis is:

12602

A patient presents with back pain. Diagnosis is:

12603

Picture frame vertebra is seen in:

12604

Bone within bone appearance is seen in:

12605

Rugger jersey spine is seen in:

12606

Punched out lytic lesions are seen in:

12607

Cobra head appearance on IVP is seen in:

12608

Earliest congenital anomaly to be detected on USG is:

12609

Labelled structure represents:

12610

Christmas tree urinary bladder is seen in:

12611

A 30 year old male presents with thunderclap headache. First investigation to be done:

12612

A 50 year old male presents with left hemiplegia. First Investigation to be done:

12613

Most sensitive investigation in ischemic stroke is:

12614

The given image is of:

12615

Identify the investigation:

12616

A 36-year-old male driver is involved in a high-speed RTA, and is comatose at scene. Head CT is unremarkable save for several tiny foci of high density in the corpus callosum and brainstem:

12617

A 24-year-old male falls from a roof while intoxicated. He is admitted GCS E3V4M5, and CT demonstrates a thin layer of high density distributed diffusely over the brain surface

12618

A 41-year-old woman is found collapsed in her bathroom. She is lucid in the emergency department but complains of severe headache. A right complete third nerve palsy is evident

12619

A 67-year-old gentleman presents with sudden right arm and leg weakness and dysphasia, and is markedly hypertensive at admission. CT scan, as a precursor to thrombolysis for acute stroke, demonstrates a bleed in the basal ganglia:

12620

A previously well 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset severe headache and loss of vision. Her acuity is 6/2bilaterally on assessment in the emergency department

12621

A 62-year-old gentleman taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with a two-week history of headaches and clumsiness of the dominant hand. He cannot recall any impact to the head. Likely diagnosis:

12622

A 45-year-old man skidded from the road at high speed and hit a tree. Examples of deceleration injuries in this patient include:

12623

A 25-year-old man fell down from his bicycle and hit a concrete wall on his left side. An ultrasound examination showed free fluid in the abdomen. A CT scan confirmed a grade III splenic injury. The most important contraindication for a nonoperative management of the splenic injury is:

12624

A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a car crash. X-rays revealed a fractured rib on the left and a fracture of the right femur. A CT scan of the abdomen showed a left-sided retroperitoneal hematoma adjacent to the left kidney and no evidence of urine extravasation. The hematoma should be managed by which of the following?

12625

A 42-year-old woman presents to the ER with the worst headache of her life. A noncotrast CT scan of the head is negative for lesions or hemorrhage. She thenundergoes a lumbar puncture, which appears bloody. All tubes collected have red blood cell counts greaterthan 100,000/mL. Which of the following steps is themost appropriate management of this patient?

12626

A retired college suffered presents with complaints of mild headache and forgetfulness. He is attended by a general practitioner who suspects him to be having evidence of dementia. The patient is sent for neurological assessment. A CT scan is done which reveals the following finding:

12627

A 28 year old patient was wheeled in to ER with history of sustaining motor vehicle accident injury and was diagnosed with multiple fractures. While awaiting for open reduction and fixation of his fractured femur, the patient developed mild fever, rash and later was found to have confusion and was disoriented for a while. Upon examination his body temperature was 99 def F, respiratory rate was 2per minute and Pulse rate was 10per minute. Most likely diagnosis is:

12628

A fast moving bus collided with an auto rickshaw, injuring several passengers. Several patients sustained injuries of varying grade including life threatening injuries. Alarm was raised and rescue workers reached within a few minutes. Patients having amputation injury of hands and feet are categorized into____

12629

A 60-year-old man is hit by a pickup truck and brought to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 70/0 mm Hg. Peritoneal lavage showed no blood in the abdomen. The blood pressure is elevated to 85 systolic following the administration of L of Ringer lactate. An x-ray showed a pelvic fracture. What is the next step in management?

12630

A 60-year-old man crashes his car into a bridge abutment and is found slumped over his steering wheel. In the emergency department, the signs and symptoms of pericardial tamponade are evident. These findings are most likely attributable to which of the following?

12631

A 60-year-old man is a front-seat passenger in a car crash. He is found to have three fractured ribs on the right, rupture of the liver, pelvic fracture, right femoral fracture, and a left tibial fracture. The patient is given broad-spectrum antibiotics, and his injuries are managed by surgery, requiring 1U of blood. The patient improves initially, but on the third postoperative day, he develops hypoxia (PaO2, 55 mm Hg), with confusion, tachypnea, and petechia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12632

A 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a car crash in which she was the driver. In the emergency department, her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, pulse is 128 bpm, and respiratory rate is 3breaths per minute. She complains of right lower chest wall and severe right upper quadrant (RUQ) tenderness. Her breath sounds are questionably diminished. The immediate priority is to perform which of the following?

12633

A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to the neck above the angle of the mandible. The patient blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse rate is 100 bpm, and respiration rate is 2breaths per minute. Between initial presentation and insertion of intravenous lines, the hematoma in the upper neck enlarges significantly. What should be the next step in the patient management?

12634

A motorcyclist riding without a helmet sustains a crash and develops blackening around both his eyes, with tarsal plate sparing. Which other areas may be looked for while establishing a clinical diagnosis

12635

A 64-year-old woman complains of right calf pain and swelling. She recently underwent an uncomplicated left hemicolectomy for diverticular disease. A duplex ultrasound confirms the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the calf. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

12636

False about the test being demonstrated below?

12637

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease) is characterized by:

12638

Claudication symptoms are most improved with the use of:

12639

Not a feature of acute arterial occlusion:

12640

The catheter shown in the picture is used for:

12641

This instrument is inserted in:

12642

Which of the following surgery is not done for the treatment of this condition?

12643

Which of the following is the most common form of lymphedema?

12644

A 60-year-old woman, who is a heavy smoker and works as a domestic, gets syncopal attacks when she is working scrubbing floors using her right upper limb vigorously. This makes her quite uneasy and at times she feels faint. The likely cause would be:

12645

A 68-year-old woman complains of sudden onset of severe pain in her right thigh, calf and leg of 6 hours duration. She has lost sensations from the mid-thigh distally, cannot move her foot or knee, her skin feels very cold and she looks pale. There are no pulses. She had a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago. Likely diagnosis:

12646

A 65-year-old man who underwent an anterior resection for rectal cancer complains of pain in his left calf on the first postoperative day. On examination he has low-grade pyrexia and the calf looks swollen with shiny skin and is tender. Likely diagnosis?

12647

A 58-year-old man complains of swelling of his right lower limb of months duration. The swelling started in the region of his groin and spread distally. The limb feels very heavy and uncomfortable. On systemic questioning, he admits to having passed painless blood clots in his urine during this period

12648

A 48-year-old man complains of swelling of his entire lower limb for many years during which time he worked as a farmer in the African continent. He has presented because he developed pain, redness and some discharge from the skin of the affected swollen leg:

12649

A 70-year-old man of ASA anaesthetic category 3, underwent an emergency closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer. The anaesthetic and operation were uneventful. On the first postoperative day, he complained of feeling very unwell with a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg with no unusual signs in his abdomen; there was impaired conscious level and peripheral vasoconstriction:

12650

Changes in body metabolism that occur in response to trauma are the following except:

12651

Which of the following statement is true?

12652

A 40-year-old woman presents with tiredness, weight loss and heat intolerance; she has used lithium in the past for bipolar disease. She has a family history of thyroid disease. On examination, she is clinically hyperthyroid, with lid lag and agitation. On examination, she has a smooth, palpable goitre with one dominant swelling (cm) in the right lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12653

A 45-year-old woman undergoes total thyroidectomy and central compartment Lymph node dissection for a 5 cm papillary thyroid cancer, with biopsy-proven nodal disease. The tumour had extrathyroidal spread laterally, and the recurrent laryngeal nerve (although visualised and exposed throughout its length) was closely adherent. In recovery, her cough and voice are abnormal and weak. What is the most appropriate treatment?

12654

A 48-year-old woman presents with a THYlesion, (aspirate from an isolated, recurrent 5 cm right-sided cystic thyroid swelling) what is the most appropriate treatment?

12655

Contra indications of the following surgery are all except

12656

A 2 year old female presents to surgery OPD with complaints of irritability, nervousness, palpitations, and heat intolerance, for last weeks . Her symptoms becomes distressing at times and she finds it difficult to attend to his month old male child. Thyroid functions tests reveal high levels of Thyroxine. Iodine scan was done which revealed decreased uptake. Likely diagnosis of the condition:

12657

A 56 year old female presents with a smooth goitre. Blood tests reveal a high TSH. Which of the following investigations would be further helpful in reaching a diagnosis:

12658

After undergoing thyroid surgery for graves diseass, a 38 year old school teacher complains of hoarsenes. Laryngoscpy was repeated which confirmed left side vocal cord to be lying in median position. Likely injured nerve(s) is:

12659

Which of the following statements are true?

12660

A 60-year-old otherwise healthy woman presents to her physician with a 3-week history of severe headaches. A contrast CT scan reveals a small, circular, hypodense lesion with ring-like contrast enhancement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

12661

True regarding primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) are all except?

12662

Indications for surgery in secondary hyperparathyroidism are all except?

12663

True regarding secondary hyperparathyroidism are all except?

12664

Which of the statements regarding hereditary pheochromocytoma is false?

12665

Indication for surgery in a case of adrenal incidentaloma:

12666

A 10-week pregnant woman presents to casuality with complaints of severe vomiting. As a part of management Thyroid function tests were done. Her TFTs are as follows: TSH, 0.0mIU/L ( ref range 0.5 to 5.0 mIU/L.), T3, 5.pmol/L (ref range 2.0 to 7.0 picomoles per liter) and T4, 1pmol/L.( ref range 1to 30 picomoles per liter (pmol/L)

12667

An elderly woman with previous history of Hashimoto thyroiditis presents with an irregular, hard nodule in her right thyroid lobe likely diagnosis?

12668

An 82-year-old woman presents with a thyroid nodule, weight loss, backache and hypercalcaemia

12669

A 74-year-old woman complains of generalised abdominal pain and distension for 36 hours. This started with greenish vomiting, which has now been replaced with brownish faeculent material. She is dehydrated with a distended abdomen and a small tender lump in her right groin of which she is unaware. Likely diagnosis:

12670

The following radiological sign is seen in which condition:

12671

Typical age of presentation of the below mentioned condition is:

12672

45 year old rickshaw puller presents to surgery OPD with complaints of  Low grade fever associated with loss of appetite and weight loss. Barium enema was done which shows the following pictuire. Identify the typical appearance:

12673

Most common clinical feature of the this condition is

12674

A 55 year old patient presents with dysphagia, both to solids and liquids. Barium swallow was done which shows the following findings. Preferred treatment is

12675

A 6 year old retired bank officer, non alocoholic, non smoker, presents to surgery OPD with complaints of gastroesophageal reflux. She is being treated with cap omeprazole once a day for 6 weeks, but her regurgitation has been ever increasing. She is a diabetic and being treated on oral hypoglycemic agents for last 15 years. Her BMI is 38. Likely diagnosis:

12676

A 4 year old railway station announcement clerk, presents to surgical OPD with complaints of difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. He is maintaining normal weight and no other abnormality is noticed. Initial investigation in this case should be

12677

A 65 year old male presents with complaints of pain epigastrium and generalized weakness.  The pain subsides transiently with antacids and NSAIDs, but reappears later. Investigations were done which reaveled patient having microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Patients reports having no long term relief with proton pump inhibitor therapy. Appropriate Next investigation should be

12678

A 46-year-old man remains disease free following a total colectomy for familial adenomatous polyposis 2years ago. He now presents with obstructive jaundice of month duration and guaiac positive stool. He does not have calculus disease. What is his diagnosis?

12679

A 60 year-old housewife complains of undue shortness of breath while going about her dailyactivities. On examination she looks very pale. An irregular non-tender lump in her rightiliac fossa. Likely diagnosis is:

12680

A 63-year-old man underwent gastric resection for severe peptic ulcer disease. He had complete relief of his symptoms but developed dumping syndrome. This patient is most likely to complain of which of the following?

12681

Over the past 6 months, a 60-year-old woman with long standing duodenal ulcer disease has been complaining of anorexia, nausea, weight loss and repeated vomiting. She recognizes undigested food in the vomitus. Examination and workup reveal dehydration, hypokalemia, and hypochloremic alkalosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12682

A 50-year-old man presents with vague gastric complaints. Findings on physical examination are unremarkable. The serum albumin level is markedly reduced (1.8 g/100 mL). A barium study of the stomach shows massive gastric folds within the proximal stomach. These findings are confirmed by endoscopy. Which of the following is acceptable treatment:

12683

A 36-year-old man presents with weight loss and a large palpable tumor in the upper abdomen. Endoscopy reveals an intact gastric mucosa without signs of carcinoma. Multiple biopsies show normal gastric mucosa. A UGI study shows a mass in the stomach. At surgery, a 3-kg mass is removed. It is necessary to remove the left side of the transverse colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12684

A 79-year-old man has had abdominal pain for days. An operation is performed, and a gangrenous appendix is removed. The stump is inverted. Why does acute appendicitis in elderly patients and in children have a worse prognosis?

12685

A 60-year-old man has a 10-year history of achalasia. His dysphagia has been worsening, and he underwent an esophageal dilation; shortly after this procedure, he develops acute chest pain, tachycardia, and fever 6 hours after esophageal dilatation for achalasia. Which of the following diagnostic procedures is most appropriate for this patient?

12686

A 62-year-old asymptomatic man is noted to have a prostate that is normal in shape and size on digital rectal examination. His PSA level is 30 ng/mL. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?

12687

A 42-year-old man requests prostate testing because his father has recently been given a diagnosis of prostate cancer. You perform a DRE, which reveals a normal-sized, smooth prostate gland. A PSA test is then performed and is run immediately because the patient insists on knowing the results before leaving the office. The PSA result is 3.2 ng/mL (normal, 2.5 ng/mL). Which of the following is the best next step?

12688

A 75-year-old male complains of general malaise, lethargy, abdominal distension and urinary incontinence. On examination he has a large painless mass in his suprapubic region arising from the pelvis and has continuous urinary dribbling. The mass is dull on percussion. He is a type 2 diabetic on oral medication. Management is:

12689

A 60-year-old man complains of haematuria associated with pain in his left loin radiating to the lower abdomen for about 2 months. He passes clots that are worm-like. On examination he has an enlarged left kidney, and scrotal examination reveals a varicocele of which he was unaware:

12690

A fit 20-year-old young man had a game of rugby, following which he passed frank blood in his urine in the changing room. He felt some discomfort in his left loin. After returning home, his haematuria became worse and he noticed some fullness in his left loin. He then came to A and E. His blood pressure was 110/60 mmHg, his pulse was 110/minute and he had fullness in his left loin:

12691

A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent attacks of urinary tract infection. On every occasion this was successfully treated with antibiotics. In view of several such episodes in the past, she underwent an IVU, which settled the diagnosis. Likely cause:

12692

A 60-year-old female patient was seen as an emergency with high temperature, rigors, and pain in her right loin. She had a blood pressure of 160/70 mmHg, bounding pulse of 90/minute, and extreme tenderness in her right loin:

12693

A 45-year-old female patient complains of nagging pain in her right loin and urinary frequency for several months. On examination she has tenderness in her loin over the kidney. Urine examination shows red blood cells and a growth of a gram negative bacteria:

12694

A 40-year-old man has come to A&E complaining of a sudden onset of very severe pain in his left loin of 4 hours duration, radiating to the front of the lumbar area and groin and the left testis. He has vomited a couple of times and has urinary frequency. On examination he is writhing in pain and cannot find a comfortable position:

12695

A male child of 3 years has been brought by his mother, who noticed while bathing him that the right side of his abdomen felt larger than the left and was asymmetrical; she thought that there was probably a lump in his abdomen:

12696

A 60-year-old man complains of haematuria and painful micturition, and he occasionally finds that his micturition stream suddenly stops. He has learned to re-start his stream by changing position. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality:

12697

A 70-year-old male, a heavy smoker for more than 50 years, complains of painless, profuse and periodic haematuria for 6 weeks. The blood is uniformly mixed with the urine. He has frequency of micturition and some retropubic discomfort. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Preferred treatment:

12698

A 70-year-old male complains of poor micturition stream, post-micturition dribbling and a feeling of insufficient emptying of his bladder. He has some dysuria. On occasions he has found that shortly after micturition he again passes a large amount of urine. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Likely diagnosis:

12699

A 35-year-old female patient complains of frequency of micturition and bilateral loin discomfort. She has low grade pyrexia, general malaise and weight loss. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Urine examination carried out by her doctor shows sterile pyuria. Likely organism involved:

12700

Which of the following statements is false?

12701

A 29 year old male presented to surgery OPD. He was diagnosed to be suffering from stricture of urethra. In this regard the following statements are true except:

12702

A 52-year-old man complains of thickening of his foreskin over a period of 2 years. During this period he has had difficulty in retracting his foreskin, as a result of which he has been having difficulty in maintaining good hygiene. He finds that his urinary stream tends to spray around. Likely diagnosis:

12703

Identify the suture

12704

The epigastric wound in standard laparoscopic choleycystectomy is:

12705

Most common pathogen incriminated in necrotizing fasciitis is:

12706

A motorcyclist sustained blunt trauma abdomen in a road side accident and was brought to causality by passer byes. FAST was done and splenic injury was confirmed, followed by immediate laparotomy. The surgeon however decides to put in a drain. Best place to place the drain in such cases would be:

12707

A 35-year-old man is admitted with systolic blood pressure (BP) of 60 mm Hg and a heart rate (HR) of 150 bpm following a gunshot wound to the liver. What is the effect on the kidneys?

12708

A 56-year-old male is burned while sleeping in his home. His right upper and lower extremity and the anterior aspect of the upper chest have extensive second-degree burns. A second-degree burn is characterized by which of the following?

12709

An 80-year-old woman with a known history of femoral hernia is admitted to the hospital because of strangulation of the hernia. There is a tender swelling in the right femoral region immediately below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. She has had multiple bowel movements without relief of symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12710

Following initial resuscitation, based upon the Parkland formula, the patient was resuscitated with Ringer lactate solution at 800 mL/h. Further assessment after 6 hours reveals oliguria. What should the next step in management be?

12711

An elderly male has been rescued from a burning building. He was lying unconscious when spotted by the rescue team. His face is blistered and eyelids are swollen. His Bp is 114/76, HR is 90/min and RR is 30 minute. Next step in management should be:

12712

An office clerk has been rescued from a burning building. Using rules of nine, it is estimated that he has 40 % partial thickness burns. His Blood pressure is 146/86, HR is 102/min, RR is 24 /min. next step in management is:

12713

An industrial worker sustained severe burns with hydrofluoric acid, even before the gravity of his ailment could be identified correctly, the patient died. Most common cause of death could be:

12714

Identify the vascular structure:

12715

Harvested skin graft can be stored for future use for:

12716

A 15-year-old female presents with RUQ abdominal pain. Workup reveals a choledochal cyst. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

12717

Which of the following statements is false?

12718

Which of the following statements is false?

12719

TC99 labeled sulphur colloid can detect:

12720

A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent attacks of fever with rigors, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice with itching. Biochemistry shows a jaundice of obstructive nature. CT scan shows intrahepatic ductal dilatation with stones. Definitive treatment of the patient is:

12721

A 45-year-old woman underwent an US for suspected biliary pain. The US of the biliary tract was normal but showed a solid lesion in the liver. Therefore, she had a CECT scan that showed a vascular lesion surrounding a solid mass with central scarring. Recommended treatment is:

12722

A 32 year old female presented to surgery emergency with complaints of pain right hypochondrium. A diagnosis of Acute calculous choleycystitis was established. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon noticed that the under-surface of the liver has several lesions that are blue in colour. Ideal treatment is:

12723

A 35-year-old woman who is on the contraceptive pill presents with right upper quadrant aching pain. She is fit without any physical findings. Her LFTs and other blood tests are normal. US of the liver shows a single well-demarcated hyperechoic mass and CT scan demonstrates a well-circumscribed vascular solid tumour about 1.5 cm in size. Recommended treatment is:

12724

A 40-year-old man presents with dull, persistent upper abdominal pain, weakness, weight loss and occasional fever. He had one episode of haematemesis. Abdominal examination shows an enlarged liver with a mass in the right lobe. Liver function tests show elevation of the transaminases and much-raised alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Likley diagnosis:

12725

A 35-year-old man presents with general ill health, weight loss, anorexia and malaise for several weeks. He has developed jaundice for the last 2 weeks; he has no pruritus. Abdominal examination shows a tender hepatomegaly. Liver function tests show raised bilirubin and transaminases. Likely diagnosis:

12726

Which of these statements is false?

12727

A 13-year-old female presenting with RUQ abdominal pain is suspected of having a choledochal cyst. Which of the following studies would be least helpful in confirming the diagnosis in this case?

12728

A 25-year-old man complains of generally feeling unwell with fever and weight loss. He has had bloodstained motions on and off for the last 6 weeks after he returned from the Pradhan mantri rural road project where he was working for 6 months. On examination he has a tender right upper quadrant with hepatomegaly. US show a hypoechoic cavity in the right lobe with ill-defined borders. Ideal treatment of the patient would be:

12729

An intraoperative cholangiogram is performed during an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy on a 30-year-old woman. She has no previous surgical history. There is a 0.8-cm filling defect in the distal common bile duct (CBD). The surgeon should:

12730

An 85-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting. He has not passed gas or moved his bowels for the last 5 days. Abdominal films show dilated small bowel, no air in the rectum and air in the biliary tree. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

12731

A 40-year-old woman, on the waiting list for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, complains of recurrent right upper quadrant discomfort which is not too bad for hospital admission but bad enough to see her general practitioner (GP). The GP found that the patient has a smooth globular mass in the right upper quadrant moving with respiration and slightly tender:

12732

A 52-year-old woman, on the waiting list for laparoscopic cholecystectomy, has been admitted as an emergency with increasing right upper quadrant pain, swinging pyrexia and extreme tenderness over the gall bladder. She is toxic and has leucocytosis with raised inflammatory markers; ultrasound of the gall bladder shows thickened gall bladder enveloped by omentum with peri-cholecystic fluid

12733

A 74-year-old woman complains of intermittent generalized abdominal pain, distension and vomiting for almost 1 week. Over the past couple of days she has become much worse and has been admitted as a surgical emergency. On examination she is grossly dehydrated. Abdominal examination shows generalised distension and tenderness without any lumps or scars:

12734

A 50-year-old woman complains of a 4-month history of right-sided abdominal pain and nausea. Her vital signs are stable, and she is afebrile. Her physical examination isunremarkable except for hepatomegaly. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows an 8-cm well-circumscribed cyst with a rosette appearance. What is the preferred treatment of this patient?

12735

A 35-year-old woman who underwent a sleeve gastrectomy 3 years ago, presents with regain of weight and relapse of diabetes. She presently has a BMI of 52 and is otherwise fit and healthy. Which procedure is likely to benefit her most with this history?

12736

A 45-year-old man presents with a BMI of 45. He has been obese for the past 10 years without any medical comorbidity except snoring during sleep for the past 1 year. Which bariatric procedure is best suited for his ailment?

12737

A 20-year-old man, a college student, presents with a history of weight gain over the past 5 years. He has a BMI of 40 and is particularly worried about his physique. He has tried dieting and exercise and appears well motivated and wants a safe procedure and agrees for regular follow up. Which bariatric procedure should be recommended for him?

12738

A 42-year-old woman undergoes right total mastectomy with axillary lymph node clearance for breast cancer. Two days postoperatively it was noted that she had winging of her right scapula. This is most likely caused by damage to which of the following nerves?

12739

As part of her triple assessment, a 55-year-old woman undergoes a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of a breast lump. The cytology comes back as C3. Which one of the following best describes C3?

12740

Locally advanced breast carcinoma includes:

12741

A 49-year-old woman undergoes a triple assessment for a left upper outer quadrant breast lump. The results of the clinical assessment show the lump to be 4 cm in diameter, with mobile ipsilateral axillary lymph nodes and no evidence of distant metastases. Which of the following is her TNM classification?

12742

Carcinoma breast management. Hormone therapy is avoided during:

12743

A 46-year-old woman presented to surgery OPD with complaints of a breast lump which she noticed about 4 months back. On clinical examination the lump was freely mobile. Further, no axillary lymph nodes were noticed. A presumptive diagnosis of fibroadenoma was made and the lump was excised. The pathology report shows that the entire lesion consists of glands with very little intervening stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12744

A 36-year-old was advised a mammogram which shows a circumscribed area made-up of soft and lipomatous tissue, surrounded by a thin radiolucent zone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12745

A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed to be having a 2.5 cm breast cyst. It was aspirated. 3 months later she develops a swelling at the same site. Examination reveals a palpable, tender 2 cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Breast ultrasound shows a smooth outline and no internal echoes or posterior enhancement. What is the most appropriate management in this patient?

12746

Trastuzumab (Herceptin) treatment in breast cancer. Pick correct:

12747

A 32 year old female complains chest pain and mastalgia. The pain does not show any relation with menstrual cycle. She also does not report any history of thoracic trauma. On examination a non-suppurative, tender swelling of the anterior chest wall is noticed. Management of the condition would include:

12748

Carcinoma Breast: most common gene mutation noticed is

12749

Railroad track calcifications seen on mammography are related to

12750

A 34 year old female underwent breast augmentation surgery. About a year later she   presents to surgery OPD with complaints of change in her breast shape and size, and increasing pain, firmness, and swelling over a period of weeks. USG was done which shows snow storm appearance. The likely condition is:

12751

The sentimag technique of Sentinel lymph node biopsy involves use of

12752

A 39-year-old patient presents to your office with a left 3.5-cm breast tumor, which on core needle biopsy, is shown to be an invasive ductal cancer. On left axillary examination, she has a hard nonfixed lymph node. A biopsy of a left supraclavicular node is positive for malignancy. Her stage is currently classified as?

12753

A 65-year-old woman presents with a large (5-cm) mass in her right breast. On physical exam, there is overlying ulceration of the skin and concern for fixation to the underlying pectoralis muscle. She is noted to have several enlarged, matted axillary lymph nodes on examination. Core biopsy reveals ER-negative, progesterone receptor (PR)-negative, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-negative invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. After staging scans demonstrate no evidence of distant metastatic disease, her management should begin with:

12754

Green discharge is most commonly seen with:

12755

Which of these following statements are true?

12756

A 35-year-old office employee presents with breast pain and lumpiness in both breasts. She also complains that the breast pain is particularly worse before her periods. Likely diagnosis:

12757

A 28 year-old woman presents to surgery OPD. She has a strong family history of breast cancer. Two of her sisters, her mother and her maternal daughter of aunt had breast cancer at an early age. She wants to know her risk of getting breast cancer. Optimum intervention would be:

12758

A 48-year-old woman feels a hard lump that is painless and gradually increasing in size over the past 4 months. Her mammogram shows the following picture. BIRADS staging would be:

12759

A 24 year old young woman presents with a painless mass in the left breast. She had to stop breastfeeding 2 weeks ago because she had to join her shift duties at a local call center. An USG was advised which shows fat fluid levels. Likely diagnosis is:

12760

A 45 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaint of having a breast lump in left breast, outer upper quadrant. The lump was hard in consistency. Mammography findings were inconclusive, hence MRI was advised, which showed presence of 2 other masses too (one in the each breast) histopathology returned the following picture: Likely diagnosis is:

12761

Which of the following temporal sequences is correct for excitation– contraction coupling in skeletal muscle?

12762

A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine (lying down), her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats/min (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate further increases to 120 beats/min. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing?

12763

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (VT) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

12764

A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

12765

Weightlifting can result in a dramatic increase in skeletal muscle mass. This increase in muscle mass is primarily attributable to which of the following?

12766

A 20-year-old man enters a local emergency room and has been hemorrhaging due to a gunshot wound. He has pale skin, tachycardia, and arterial pressure of 80/50, and has trouble walking. Unfortunately, the blood bank is out of whole blood. Which of the following therapies would the physician recommend to prevent shock?

12767

Which of the following is true of the tubular fluid that passes through the lumen of the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa?

12768

What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway?

12769

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

12770

Cells of the adrenal medulla receive synaptic input from which of the following types of neurons?

12771

A 45-year-old man presents with abdominal pain and hematemesis. An abdominal exam was relatively benign, and abdominal x-rays were suggestive of a perforated viscous. Endoscopy revealed a chronically perforated gastric ulcer, through which the liver was visible. Which of the following is a forerunner to gastric ulcer formation?

12772

A 57-year-old obese woman on hormone replacement therapy develops gallstones. Her gallstones are most likely composed of which of the following substances?

12773

A 30-year-old woman is administered cortisone for the treatment of an autoimmune disease. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

12774

A 50-year-old man has a blood pressure of 140/85 and weighs 200 lb. He reports that he is not feeling well, his EKG has no P-waves, he has a heart rate of 46, and the QRS complexes occur regularly. What is his likely condition?

12775

Which of the following is filtered most readily by the glomerular capillaries?

12776

A 72-year-old man visits his physician because he finds it difficult to hold his hand steady when painting. Examination reveals a resting tremor and rigidity. The symptoms are relieved by a single dose of levodopa. This patient neurological signs are most likely related to a lesion within which of the following?

12777

During heavy exercise, the cardiac output of the person increases upto five folds, while the pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by

12778

Estimation of the gamma glutamyl transferase is useful to detect one of the following conditions

12779

Regarding HMP shunt all of the following are true except:

12780

Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic process?

12781

The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for

12782

Which of the following anticoagulant used in estimating blood glucose prevents glycolysis

12783

All the following statements about albinism are correct except

12784

Among the following which is the wrong statement

12785

Which of the following is non-polar uncharged non-essential amino acid?

12786

A 8-month-old baby girl had normal growth and development for the first few months, but then progressively deteriorated with deafness, blindness, atrophied muscle, inability to swallow, and seizures. Early on in the diagnosis of the child, it was noticed that a cherry red macula was present in both eyes. Considering the child in the above case, measurement of which one of the following would enable one to determine whether the mutation were in the hex A or hex B gene?

12787

Which of the plasma lipoproteins is best described as follows: synthesized in the intestinal mucosa, containing a high concentration of triacylglycerol and mainly cleared from the circulation by adipose tissue and muscle?

12788

Characteristic finding in Gaucher disease is

12789

A digestive secretion that does not contain any digestive enzyme is

12790

A febrile 45-year-old man who has been an alcoholic for the past 3 years reports severe pain in the right metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. Findings on physical examination include erythema and heat over the joint. A complete blood cell count shows an absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis with greater than 10 percent band neutrophils in a 100-cell count. Synovial fluid shows needle-shaped crystals that have been phagocytosed by neutrophils. What finding best describes the pathophysiologic process?

12791

The T ΨC arm in the tRNA molecule possesses the sequence

12792

Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic acid in blood is increased due to deficiency of the vitamin

12793

A eats a very poor diet and consumes two bottles of vodka a day. He is admitted to a hospital in coma. He is hyperventilating and has low blood pressure and high cardiac output. A chest x-ray shows that his heart is enlarged. Laboratory tests show that he is suffering from thiamin (vitamin B1) deficiency. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be affected?

12794

An 8-year-old child present with localized with non-scarring alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. What is the treatment of choice?

12795

A Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

12796

What is the diagnosis of this asymptomatic lesion shown in the image below?

12797

This man was uncircumcised, and had itching/burning of the red papules. He had no lesions elsewhere. Gram stain showed few gram+ cocci abdominal budding yeast and pseudohyphae. Choose disease and treatment:

12798

This is best treated with:

12799

A 34-year-old rickshaw puller has been using heroin for the past 10 years. On evening his family members found him unconscious. He was brought to the casualty. On examination he had shallow breathing, constricted pupils. His blood pressure was 100/70 mm of Hg. He had brisk bilateral deep tendon reflexes. The planter reflexes were flexor on both sides. Which of the following is the best treatment for him?

12800

Sonu, a 5-year-old boy was referred for psychiatric evaluation by a school teacher who reported that Sonu was unable to follow direction, did not communicate well with his classmate and was hyperactive, aggressive. On psychiatric evaluation, it was found that his language skills were poor for his age, I.Q. was 105. His social skills were marked by deficits-in responding facially to the effect of examiner or playing in reciprocally. He appeared to be preoccupied with pendulum clock hanging in the office. The most likely diagnosis is

12801

Attachment of a female child sexual interest primarily to her father, accompanied by aggressive feelings towards her mother is called 

12802

A medical student finds it hard to follow a patient train of thought because he gives very long, complicated explanations and many unnecessary details before finally answering the original questions. In his report, the medical student writes that the patient displayed:

12803

A 20-year-old boy was all right 2 days back. Since then he feels that people are abusing him and he c/o hearing of faint voices when no one around, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. He has no past history of any such episode. Family members also reported that he has been muttering to self. Likely diagnosis is

12804

Which medication is used for treatment of nicotine dependence

12805

A man feels that his nose is too long; friends feel otherwise. He is consulted 3 plastic surgeons but all have refused to treat him. He suffers from what conditions?

12806

A 28-year-old taxi driver is chronically consumed by fears of having accidentally run over a pedestrian. Although he tries to convince himself that his worries are silly, his anxiety continues to mount until he drives back to the scene of the accident and proves to himself that nobody lies hurt in the street. This behavior is an example of which of the following?

12807

An attractive and well–dressed 22-year-old woman is arrested for prostitution, but on being booked at the jail, she is found to actually be a male. The patient tells the consulting physician that he is a female trapped in a male body and he has felt that way since he was a child. He has been taking female hormones and is attempting to find a surgeon who would remove his male genitals and create a vagina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

12808

Vidaan, a 45-year-old male came to the psychiatric OPD complaining of continuous, dull, non-progressive headache for the last 8 years. The patient has seen numerous neurologists in the belief that he has a brain tumor even though all his investigations have been normal. The patient insisted that he had brain tumor and requested yet another workup. Psychiatry evaluation reveals disease conviction in the background of normal investigations. The most probable diagnosis is

12809

Most common bone to undergo non union is

12810

Most commonly injured nerve in such kinds of fracture is

12811

Identify the following amputation

12812

The following is the commonest elbow fracture:

12813

The following is the commonest Primary malignant  tumor arising from bone producing cells:

12814

Most common cancer having bone to bone spread is

12815

Identify the pathology

12816

Identify the following pathology

12817

Identify the pathology

12818

Identify the pathology

12819

A 28 year old female presented in labour for vaginal breech delivery which amongst the following is false regarding the management:

12820

In the Cervical dilatation Curve shown in Photograph, Arrow represents:

12821

A 32 year old pregnant female presented with 34-week pregnancy with complaints of pain in the abdomen with decreased fetal movements. Upon examination, BP=90/60, FHR=100 and on P/V examination blood is seen with cervical os closed. Preferred management?

12822

26 year old primi gravida at 38 weeks of gestation, presented to the obstetrics OPD with complaints of faintness on lying down for the past one week. She feels better when she turns to one side and while she is in sitting position. What is the reason of her clinical condition?

12823

A 26 weeks pregnant female presents with HTN for the first time without proteinuria. Diagnosis of such condition:

12824

Following picture represents which obstetrics grip during palpation:

12825

Low maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein is not seen in:

12826

All the following are given in postpartum hemorrhage except:

12827

Antenatal diagnosis can be made from all the following EXCEPT:

12828

A pregnant lady acquires chickenpox 3 days prior to delivery. She delivers by normal. Which of the following statement is true?

12829

In a pregnant woman with heart disease, all of the following are to be done except:

12830

A 20 years old female has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mmHg, pulse rate 120/min and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

12831

37 weeks primi with uterine contraction for 10 hrs, cervix is 1 cm dilated and poorly effaced management is:

12832

High level of hCG found in all except:

12833

In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?

12834

A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to Gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attending menarche. She gives H/O cyclic abdominal pain. On further examination midline, abdominal was swelling seen. Per rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. Which of the following can be most commonly seen?

12835

A patient presented with intermenstrual bleeding for the past 6 months. Which of the following types of fibroid is usually associated with this symptom?

12836

A 32-year-old lady has been unable to conceive for the past 2 years in spite of regular intercourse. She has recently been diagnosed with PCOS. Which of the following is the FDA-approved medication that you could recommend to her?

12837

Given below is the image of a smear prepared from the vaginal discharge of a patient. What is the most likely diagnosis?

12838

All the following drugs are used for postcoital contraception except:

12839

A woman is found to have a unilateral invasive carcinoma of vulva that is 2 cm in diameter but not associated with evidence of lymph node spread. Initial management should consists of:

12840

In IUCD, the organism causing infection is:

12841

A 52 years old female has a 2cm soft swelling in the valva, just outside the vaginal introitus. While walking she has discomfort and local pain. The treatment of choice is?

12842

What is the drug of choice for precocious puberty in girls?

12843

All of the following are used for screening cancers in females except:

12844

In ovarian cycle increased level of LH are due to:

12845

A 34 year old female was being treated for infertility as a part of the management hysterosalpingography was performed which returned the following picture the most likely cause of infertility in this patient would be:

12846

A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

12847

Best indicator of ovarian reserve is:

12848

Regarding Androgen insensitivity syndrome, all are true except:

12849

A 30-year-old female patient presented with vertigo lasting for a few seconds associated with movement of Head posture. The condition was treated with EPLEY Manoeuvre. What is the diagnostic test?

12850

A 5-year-old boy borne to a primigravida mother by normal vaginal delivery developed change of his voice that was followed by stridor. The stridor was severe enough to necessitate a tracheostomy. 2 years later the tracheostomy site was not fit for respiration, another tracheostomy was done at a lower level. A reddish tissue that was polypoid in nature filled the tracheostomes. The child died a year later when his tracheostomy tube became obstructed at home. What was the most likely diagnosis for this child?

12851

During ENT Viva, the external examiner places Temporal Bone on the table and asks each student a different set of question. Your friend was asked What is the surgical landmark of Mastoid Antrum and your crush was asked What are the boundaries of MacEwan Triangle. You frantically go through all the topics awaiting your turn. The Consultant asks you this question: When Mastoid Antrum does reach Adult Size?

12852

A 47-year-old male patient presented to the otologist because of pain in the left ear of 2 days duration. Pain was throbbing in character and increased in severity during mastication. The patient gave a history of 2 similar attacks in the last six months. On examination, movements of the left auricle were painful, and a circumscribed reddish swelling was found arising from the outer portion of the posterior meatal wall. A painful tender swelling obliterated the retro-auricular sulcus. Tuning fork testing revealed positive Rinne on both sides and Weber was centralized. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the above patient?

12853

A 70 year old patient developed following lesion over nose for last 2 years. What is the most likely Diagnosis?

12854

A 40 year old female is complaining of attacks of lacrimation and watery nasal discharge accompanied by sneezing. She had a severe attack one spring morning that was accompanied by respiratory difficulty, and she was admitted tohospital. She received the proper treatment and her condition improved. On examination she had bilateral nasal obstruction by bluish pedunculated masses that were covered by a clear mucous discharge. All of the following are part of management of this patient except:

12855

A 7-year-old boy was seen by an ophthalmologist for headache that has been present for the last few months. Headache was maximum between the eyes. However, there was no ocular cause for such a headache. The child was referred to an ENT specialist who noticed nasal intonation of voice and bilateral nasal obstruction. The mother reported that her child snores during his sleep and has repeated attacks of chest infection. Following findings were seen on X-ray of this boy. What is the most likely diagnosis in this child?

12856

A 19-year-old girl presented to the ENT specialist because of bleeding from the left ear, impairment of hearing and tinnitus following a slap on the left ear onehour before. On examination of ear, following findings were seen. Tuning fork testing revealed Rinne test negative in left ear and positive in right ear and Weber lateralized to the left ear. What is the next line of treatment?

12857

A 27 yr old pregnant patient presented with complaint of worsening of hearing since the onset of pregnancy. On PTA the following graph was obtained. Which of the following statement regarding the disease is true?

12858

Identify the Air cell Marked with red arrow in the CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinus:

12859

Identify the thickened nerve in a leprosy patient shown here:

12860

Identify the cause of hearing loss in a 30 yrs old pregnant female who pure tone audiogram image given below:

12861

Identify the Foramen marked in the picture with green arrow:

12862

Identify the space marked with letter X in the given diagram?

12863

Which of the following statements about the given pure tone audiogram is not incorrect:

12864

In a 10 year school child under school health program, which vaccine has to be given?

12865

Which of the stage is represented by following vaccine vial monitor?

12866

Which epidemiological study gives the most accurate result?

12867

All children between 9 months to 10 years will receive a supplementary dose of measles regardless of previous measles vaccination or measles illness comes under which of the following vaccination strategies

12868

In a study, variation in cholesterol was seen before and after giving a drug. The test which would give its significance is

12869

All of the following regarding health planning committees in India is true except

12870

Diseases transmitted by louse

12871

India new born action plan aims to achieve single digit still birth rate by

12872

PQLI, includes all except

12873

Mission Indradhanush is for

12874

ANMOL is

12875

Training of medical officers in immediate newborn care is objective of

12876

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension is coded as ____ color under PradhanMantriSurakshitMatritvaYojana

12877

TNM staging of cancer is __________ data and can be measured on _________ scale

12878

The reference weight of male and female as per recent guidelines is

12879

All of the following facilities are provided under JananiShishuSurakshaKaryakram except

12880

Phases of disaster cycle before disaster impact include

12881

As per Jan 2020 guidelines, HIV post exposure prophylaxis includes the following regimen

12882

Minimum number of antenatal care visits are

12883

A child presents to OPD with signs of irritability, sunken eyes and restlessness. The treatment plan for this child is

12884

A 60-year-old man is attacked with a baseball bat and sustains multiple blows to the abdomen. He presents to the emergency department in shock and is brought to the operating room (OR), where a laparotomy reveals massive hemoperitoneum and a stellate fracture of the right and left lobes of the liver. Which of the following techniques should be used immediately?

12885

After trauma, hypovolemic shock can be due to all except:

12886

All of the following statement regarding stones in the submandibular gland are true except:

12887

Van Nuys score includes all except

12888

Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma:

12889

Instrument shown in the picture is?

12890

20 year boy brought to ER following RTA, he opens the eyes to pain, is confused and shows withdrawal to pain in left upper extremity and right upper extremity is fractures. What is the GCS

12891

Which flap has been marked in the image shown below?

12892

Study the given CT-scan (Figure), Diagnosis is:

12893

Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is required in all except

12894

The oral cavity tumor with high bilateral nodal spread is

12895

Best prognosis amonget the following histological variants of breast carcinoma is seen with:

12896

The correct procedure of inserting the following equipment in the image given below:

12897

Case of stab injury to the abdomen and the picture is shown as below. What is the next line of management?

12898

The below catheter is used for the treatment of

12899

A 50-years-old male presented in the emergency with high BP (160/100) and heart rate of 120. A CECT is done which is given below. What is the management of the given below:

12900

Which of the following are potential sequelae of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

12901

Skin condition that is pre-malignant for oesophageal carcinoma:

12902

All are true about hepatocellular carcinomas except:

12903

A 74 year old male with chronic constipation presents to ER room for pain on abdomen for last 3 hours with elevated temperature, HR greater than 120 bpm, tachypnea. The following was the X-ray image. Plain radiograph was obtained and following was observed. What is the next appropriate step:

12904

Butterfly shaped hematoma is a characteristic feature of

12905

Surgical Treatment of bleeding Type I gastric ulcer is

12906

Identify the instrument:

12907

Treatment of choice for 3rd grade hemorrhoids is:

12908

Features of carcinoma penis include all except:

12909

A one year old baby presents with vomiting and severe cramping abdominal pain. The barium enema shows no abnormity. After the procedure the infant condition improved and the abdominal pain subsided without the need of surgical intervention. The most likely cause of the infant condition was:

12910

A 55 year old man is diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia the patient declines pharmacologic treatment and elects to undergo transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following is the most common complication of this procedure?

12911

Prostate calculi are usually composed of

12912

A patient with history of diarrhea for several years with onset pruritis and increased alkaline phosphatase, normal SGOT/PT and USG shows no gallstones and CBD abnormalities

12913

SMA syndrome, false statement is

12914

The most likely cause of the finding pictured in Figure in a patient who has undergone no procedures is:

12915

All are included in Alvarado score in appendicitis, except:

12916

A child develops acute respiratory distress, stridor, and hyperinflation on one side of chest with decreased breath sound on that side. Most likely cause is

12917

Cause of central cyanosis include all of the following except

12918

Which of the following is not a feature of consolidation

12919

All of the following are Light criteria for exudative pleural effusion

12920

Which of the following should be initial investigation in a patient with high clinical likelihood of pulmonary embolism

12921

All of the following define severe ARDS according to the Berlin definition of ARDS

12922

In ARDS, not true is

12923

SARS has resulted in deaths for a majority of people in which of these age groups

12924

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, along with non caseating granuloma is a characteristic feature of

12925

Mycobacterium tuberculosis having resistance to Rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide is BEST described as

12926

Most common site for extra – pulmonary tuberculosis is

12927

Indication for prophylaxis in pneumocytosiscarini pneumonia include

12928

All of the following are more commonly seen in Klebsiella pneumonia than in pneumococcal pneumonia except

12929

Cavitatory lesions in lung are seen in

12930

All of the following constitute primary diagnostic criteria, for ABPA, except

12931

All of the following are true about interstitial lung disease, EXCEPT

12932

All of the following are true about exphysema except

12933

Gold criteria for Very Severe COPD is best represented by

12934

A drug is to be delivered by a nebulizer. The size of a droplet for its humidification is

12935

Chronic bronchitis is said to present when patient has chronic cough

12936

All of the following statements about intrinsic allergic asthma are true, except

12937

All of the following are true about obstructive lung disease except

12938

An adult with asthma presents with asthma symptoms every day and wakes up in the night approximately 2 to 3 days in a week. He can be classified as having:

12939

Features of restrictive lung disease

12940

A 30-year-old patient was behaving strangely and developed an episode of seizure on presentation to ER. On work-up of patient, urine osmolality = 1000 mOsm/kg and plasma osmolality = 200 mOsm/kg. Which of the following is most probable dyselectrolytemia present in this case?

12941

A software engineer presents to the OPD with easy fatigue. He gives the history of sitting in front of computer for 12 to 14 hours. He takes a log of junk food with very less fruits and vegetables. Hb is 9gm/dL and is MCV 120 ft. What is the most likely cause patient?

12942

A 68-year-old patient presents with cough and sputum production. On examination, he is well oriented with BP = 110/70 mmHg and respiratory rate = 20/min. On auscultation, bronchial breath sounds were heard with scattered crackles. Lab reports showed urea 44mg/dL (Normal: 5 – 20 mg/dL). What is the treatment protocol?

12943

A 40-year-old basketball player with history of sudden syncope and similar history in the past presented to the emergency. On examination, BP was low; ECG showed deep Q waves on V5 and V6 leads with T-wave inversion and evidence of left ventricular atrophy. ECHO showed systolic anterior movement of mitral valve. Which of the following are correct options about this condition?

12944

A 55-year-old male presented with palpitations for 2 hours with dizziness. At the time of admission, systolic BP was 70 mmHg. Urgent ECG was done and showed narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is correct about the management of this case?

12945

The leading cause of covid–19 pneumonia is

12946

Which of the following is the only drug that decreases mortality in a patient with severe COVID–19 on respiratory support

12947

Which of the following drug has no rule in the management of severe COVID – 19 pneumonia?

12948

A 65-years old man presented to hospital complaints of palpitation and sudden onset chest pain. ECG shows MI changes. Which of the following marker is having high sensitivity and specificity, 2–4 hours post myocardial injury?

12949

What is the correct sequence of events according to BLS:

12950

Pulsusalternans is seen in:

12951

During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the:

12952

A patient with CHF with LVEF less than 40 percent should be given?

12953

A man working in a coal mining factory for 16 years develops symptoms of progressively worsening breathlessness and cough with expectations a spirometry was performed and his values were as follows FEV1-1.4 I/min FVC 2.8 I/min and with FEV1/FVC ratio of 50. What could be the cause

12954

Pulmonary compliance is decreased in all of the following conditions, except:

12955

Which of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusions?

12956

A 24year old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100 percent oxygen, nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulizers and IV hydrocortisone. Despite initial treatment there is no improvement. what is the next step in management

12957

A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation presented in emergency. Patient was conscious, alert, PR = 110/min, on chest examination there were B/P: wheeze. ABG shows pH=7.3, PCO2=58, HCO3 = 20. Which is not true in management?

12958

A patient come with fever, cough breathing difficulty respiratory rate is 58/min with chest retractions, management is

12959

Paradoxical splitting of second heart sound is seen in:

12960

The best chances of recovery after successful cardiopulmonary resuscitation are seen in:

12961

Which of the following lung disease is shown in the image below:

12962

In a patient of heart disease antibiotic prophylaxis for dental extraction is

12963

Which of the following is not correct about Duke major criteria

12964

A 10-year-old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity measured as 200/140 mmHg. Femoral pulses were not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is

12965

True statement about DuctusArteriosus is:

12966

A 5-year-old child presents with left ventricular hypertrophy and central cyanosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

12967

All of the following statements about Tetralogy of fallot are true, except

12968

A young patient sustains cardiac arrest, in the medical ward. Immediate defibrillation is advised when the ECG shows:

12969

True regarding cardio pulmonary resuscitation is

12970

In cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed by two persons the ratio of compression to breaths is

12971

Causes of hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with hypertension

12972

Non – modifiable risk factor for hypertension

12973

Hypertension with Hypokalemia is seen in

12974

A patient presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 and pulse rate of 100 following blunt trauma to the chest:Diagnosis is

12975

Pericardial cavity normally contains how much fluid

12976

Reversible Myocardial stunning with ECG changes of Acute Myocardial Infarction is seen in

12977

Which is incorrect about Dressler syndrome?

12978

In a patient with myocardial infarction the valvular lesion commonly seen in

12979

A 40-year-old male, chronic smoker comes with acute epigastric discomfort, for past one hour. ECG showing ST segment elevation in inferior leads. What is the immediate intervention?

12980

Flipped LDH indicating Myocardial Infarction is represented by

12981

According to the NCEP – ATP III definition of Metabolic Syndrome, all of the following criteria for Men are correct EXCEPT

12982

Hepatomegaly with liver pulsation indicates:

12983

Which of the following is the best maker to predict future cardiac events

12984

Durozie sign is seen in

12985

Which clinical sign is suggestive of elevated pulmonary wedge pressure in mitral stenosis?

12986

Which of the following is not a major Framingham criteria in CHF:

12987

All are ECG findings in Wolf Parkinson white syndrome, except

12988

Sustained VT is defined as VT that persists for

12989

All of the following features can differentiate between ventricular tachycardia and supraventricular tachycardia except

12990

The normal P wave is inverted in lead

12991

Wide QRS complex is typically seen in

12992

Pulse pressure is

12993

All  of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except

12994

Erb point in cardiology refers to

12995

All of the following phases of the jugular venous pulse and their causes are correctly matched, except

12996

Which of the following is not expected in a case of Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia

12997

A 30-year-old female being evaluated for anemia reveals the following indices: RBC count=4.5 x 10102/L, MCV 55 feet; TLC 8000. There is not history of blood transfusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

12998

All of the following are features of iron deficiency anemia except

12999

Which of the following statements about iron deficiency anemia is true

13000

Which of the following best represents the sequence of events in Iron Deficiency anemia

13001

Which of the following types of anemia is associated with a Raised MCV and Normal MCHC

13002

Which of the following is seen in chronic inflammatory anemia

13003

All of the following are features of hemolytic anemia except

13004

Commonest acute presentation of sickle cell anemia is

13005

Gold standard test for evaluation of the beta thalassemia trait is

13006

A 21-year old male presents to the emergency department with severe anemia and haemoglobin levels of 5 gm/dL. He gives a history of similar presentation in the past which wave adequately managed by a single blood transfusion. He has not required any further blood transfusion till date. Most probable diagnosis is

13007

Schistocytes are seen in

13008

A 7-year-old girl presents with repeated episodes of bleeding into joints. APTT is prolonged and PT is normal. The most likely diagnosis is

13009

A 78-year-old man who lives alone and prepares his own food is found to have ecchymotic patches over posterior aspect of the lower extremities. He has hemorrhagic areas around hair follicles, hairs are fragmented and splinter hemorrhages are present in nail beds and several hematomas are present in the muscles of arms and legs. PT and CT are normal. The clinical syndrome is most likely due to:

13010

Which of the following indicates modified shock index?

13011

Type 3 respiratory failure occurs due to:

13012

Which of the following is not required in case a second puff is to be taken from an inhaler?

13013

Peripheral blood film showing this type of neutrophils is seen in:

13014

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

13015

Match list I with list II and select correct answer using code given below the list: List I (Emergency Drug) List II (Clinical Condition)

13016

A 45 year old man presented with a daily headache. He describes 2 attacks per day over the past 3 weeks. Each attack least about an hour and awakens the patient from sleep. The patient has noted associated tearing and reddening of his right eye as well as nasal stuffiness. The pain is deep, excruciating and limited to the right side of the head. The neurologic examination is non-focal. The most likely diagnosis of this headache of patient is:

13017

A 64 old year lady Kamla complains of severe unilateral headache of the right side and blindness for 2 days. On examination there is a thick cord like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hr in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is:

13018

Bulbar paralysis refers to:

13019

Spinomuscular atrophy is seen  in lesion of:

13020

Which of the following sensation are transmitted by the Dorsal Tract/Posterior column:

13021

Clinical feature of conusmedullaris include all of the following except:

13022

A 65 year old man presents with anemia, posterior columan dysfunction and Planter Extensor. Which of the following is the likely cause?

13023

A patient known case of syphilis presented with gait disturbances and frequent falls in dark. On examination, he is found to have a high steppage gait. Which tract is typically involved in this condition?

13024

The most common intracranial site of hypertensive hemorrhage is:

13025

A patient known to have mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation presents with acute onset of weakness in the left upper limb which recovered completely in 2 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

13026

All of the following statements about ischemic Penumbra are true, except:

13027

All of the following are true about Broca aphasia except:

13028

Which of the following speech indicates damage to the categorical hemisphere?

13029

A patient with injury to paracentral lobule has all of the following features except:

13030

Paratonic rigidity or gegenhalten results from disease of:

13031

Which of the following sites is not involved in a posterior cerebral artery infarct?

13032

Damage to Auditory Cortex on one side causes:

13033

All of the feature of Wallenberg syndrome, except:

13034

Commonest type of seizure in newborn:

13035

All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:

13036

All of the following are true about delirium tremens except:

13037

Which of the following is not seen in early onset Alzheimer disease?

13038

Which of the following is not included in the cardinal features of Parkinson disease?

13039

Which of the following is most characteristic feature of Huntington disease?

13040

All of the following are features of Pseudotumourcerebri, except:

13041

Which of the following is a typical feature of Korsakoff syndrome?

13042

Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in TBM?

13043

Pneumococcal meningitis is associated with the following CSF findings:

13044

Which of the following is the most common presentation of Neurocysticercosis?

13045

A 60 year old man with progressive dementia of recent onset presents with intermittent irregular jerky movements. EEG shows periodic sharp biphasic waves. The most likely diagnosis is:

13046

All of the following are seen in Neurofibromatosis except:

13047

A child presents to the clinic with history of seizures and mental retardation. Clinical examination reveals multiple hypopigmented macules. What is the likely diagnosis?

13048

Shagreen patch is a characteristic feature of:

13049

All cause ascending motor paralysis except:

13050

All of the following statements about Guillain-Barre syndrome are true, except:

13051

Ice pack test is done for:

13052

All of the following may be associated with Thymoma, except:

13053

Myasthenia Gravis is caused by dysfunction of:

13054

Dystrophic gene mutation leads to:

13055

Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbance, except:

13056

Multiple sclerosis is associated with all of the following, except:

13057

Which of the following is the most common initial presenting feature of multiple sclerosis:

13058

A head injury patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to pain. What is the Glassgow coma score?

13059

In a patient with head injury damage in the brain is aggravated by:

13060

Non-noxious stimuli perceived as pain is termed as:

13061

Which of the following is a Small Vessel Vasculitis?

13062

ANCA is not associated with which of the following disease?

13063

p-ANCA is characteristic for:

13064

Drug of choice to induced remission in Severe Wegener Granulomatosis is:

13065

An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the BP is 170/110 mmHg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood & urine examination were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibody, antibody to dsDNA and DNA and ANCA were negative. Most likely diagnosis is:

13066

Clinical trial of Asthma, Peripheral Eosinophilia and Mononeuritis multiplex suggests a diagnosis of:

13067

A 52 year old lady presents with throbbing continuous headache on both sides of the forehead that gets worse while chewing. The likely diagnosis is:

13068

A young female presents with diminished pulses in the upper limb and hypertension. The most likely diagnosis is:

13069

Which of the following features regarding Kawasaki disease is not true?

13070

The type of arteritis which may lead to myocardial infarction in children is:

13071

All are true about HenochScholein purpura except:

13072

Which of the following carries 2 points in the revised International Criteria for Behcet Disease?

13073

Which of the following is diagnostic of mixed connective tissue disease?

13074

According to current guidelines, which of the following is not a clinical manifestation used to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus?

13075

Antiphospholipid Antibody (APLA) syndrome is associated with all of the following except:

13076

Which of the following is not a characteristic deformity associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

13077

A middle age female presents with polyarthritis elevated Rheumatoid factor and ANA levels. Which of the following features will help in differentiating Rheumatoid arthritis from SLE?

13078

A 40 year old female being evaluated for fever of unknown origin presents with arthralgia and a salmon colored rash. Blood investigations reveal increased ferritin and reduced glycosylated ferritin levels. What is the likely diagnosis?

13079

Basanti, 28 year old presents with complaints of tightness of fingers. There is also history of dysphagia. Which of the following is the probable diagnosis?

13080

Sjogren syndrome is a chronic disease characterized by:

13081

All are seronegative (spondyloepiphyseal) arthritis with ocular manifestations, except:

13082

All of the following statement about primary Gouty Arthritis are true, except:

13083

Charcot joint includes all of the following except:

13084

Which of the following statements about Fibromyalgia is true?

13085

All are associated with MEN 2 except:

13086

Which of the following Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndrome (APS) presents with Candidiasis, Adrenal Insufficiency and Hypoparathyroidism?

13087

Intake of exogenous steroid cause:

13088

Cushing disease is associated with:

13089

In Conn syndrome the following are true, except:

13090

The following are feature of primary hyperaldosteronism:

13091

Feature of Addison disease include all of the following except:

13092

A 29 years old person is known diabetic on oral hypoglycemic agents since 3 years. He has lost weight and nerve had DKA. His grandfather is diabetic but his father is non-diabetic. Which is the likely diagnosis?

13093

A 40 year old male patient is suffering from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should not be used in such patient?

13094

Glycaemic control in diabetes is best assessed by:

13095

Which of the following is recommended in patients of Diabetic Ketoacidosis presenting with abdominal pain to exclude Acute Pancreatitis?

13096

All of causes of hyperprolactinemia, except:

13097

Which of the following is the most common type of pituitary adenoma?

13098

In a patient if administration of exogenous vasopressin does not increase the osmolality of urine the likely cause is:

13099

All are true about hyperparathyroidism, except:

13100

A patient has hyperphosphatemia with short metacarpals and associated cataract. The diagnosis is:

13101

Granulomatous condition causing hypercalcemia include all of the following, except:

13102

Treatment of hypercalcemia includes, all, except:

13103

Most common presenting symptom in Paget disease:

13104

Which of the following Anti-Osteoporosis treatment options belong to the class of Dual Action Bone Agent (DABA)?

13105

Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory feature except:

13106

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypothyroidism?

13107

The best marker for thyroid related disorder is:

13108

In Thyrotoxicosis, Beta-Blocker do not control:

13109

In sick euthyroid syndrome which is increased:

13110

All of the following are increased in pheochromocytomas, except:

13111

Gold standard test for diagnosis of Insulinoma is:

13112

Weight gain occurs in all, except:

13113

On giving iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia, there is increased erythropoietin activity. Which of the following in the bone marrow indicates erythropoiesis?

13114

The measurement most likely to correlate with hypochromia observed on a blood film is:

13115

Small, peripheral, basophilic punctate iron laden granules in a red cell are called:

13116

A 20-year-old thin and undernourished female complains that she cannot concentrate and is always tired. She has heavy menstrual bleeding every month but is otherwise healthy. The peripheral blood smear is shown in the image and laboratory findings show reduced levels of serum ferritin. What could be the diagnosis of the patient?

13117

Mean corpuscular volume of the patient having anemia is 88 femto liters and the reticulocyte count is low. Out of the following most possible cause of anemia in this patient is:

13118

Which of the following is true regarding absorption of iron?

13119

A 29-year-old woman was found to have a Hb of 7.8 g/dL with reticulocyte count of 0.8%. Peripheral smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia. Hb A2 and Hb F levels were 2.4% and 1.3%, respectively. Serum iron and TIBC were 15 mcg/dL and 420 mcg/ dL, respectively. The likely diagnosis is:

13120

A child presented with microcytic hypochromic anemia with normal levels of RBC protoporphyrin. Most likely, the diagnosis is:

13121

Which of the following test is best suited for community-based screening program for identifying iron deficiency?

13122

Which of the following test is best in differentiating between anemia of chronic inflammation and IDA?

13123

A 45-year-old lady who is a known case of rheumatoid arthritis for the past 5 years and is on disease modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) therapy but she still has clinical features suggestive of active disease. On evaluation, she was found to be having anemia with Hb 8.5 g/dL, MCV 83 fL and ESR 76. Which of the following combinations of tests are consistent with this patient?

13124

A 45-year-old lady generalized weakness and effort intolerance for the past 3 months. There is no history of bleeding from anywhere and on examination only positive finding is pallor. The CBC showed Hb 8 g/dL, MCV 75 fL, RDW 18.5 and reticulocyte count 0.5%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

13125

A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents with a macrocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. Blood smear examination demonstrates numerous oval macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils (shown in the image). The Schilling test done is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

13126

Patient presents with weakness of legs, arms, trunk, tingling and numbness that progressively is increasing. On peripheral blood smear shows macrocytic anemia. Out of the following which is not the cause causing the condition:

13127

Which one of the following is a feature of chronic extravascular hemolysis?

13128

The coinheritance of alpha thalassemia with beta thalassemia:

13129

The anemia that is microcytic and hypochromic but not iron deficient is:

13130

Out of the following cause of sickle cell anemia is:

13131

Codon change seen in sickle cell anemia is:

13132

A 10-year-old girl complains of severe pain in her chest, abdomen, and bones. Physical examination reveals jaundice and anemia. A complete blood count shows normocytic anemia with marked poikilocytosis. A peripheral blood smear is shown in the image. Hemoglobin electrophoresis demonstrates hemoglobin S. What could be the diagnosis of the hematologic disorder based on the blood picture?

13133

The least common cause of death in an adult with sickle cell disease is:

13134

Spherocytes seen in hereditary spherocytosis is due to:

13135

The characteristic red cell indices in hereditary spherocytosis are:

13136

In hereditary spherocytosis, there is loss of connections between the membrane skeletal proteins. Which types of connections are lost?

13137

70 year old female has severe anemia. On physical examination no abnormal finding. Direct Coomb test is negative for IgG but positive for C3. The lactate dehydrogenase levels are increased. Following treatment will be useful in this:

13138

Which of the following is true about cold agglutinin disease except?

13139

The antibody type responsible for paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is:

13140

Patient was treated with sulfonamides for 7 days and patient hemoglobin decreased from 13.5 gm/dL to 9.5 gm/dL. This can be seen in:

13141

The most common cause of hereditary non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia is:

13142

Which of the following is not true about G6PD deficiency?

13143

22 year old man is diagnosed with severe aplastic anemia. On examination there is pancytopenia and on bone marrow biopsy no evidence of leukemia or lymphoma. There is no other relevant history. Next step in the management of this patient is:

13144

A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent fever, weakness, and breathlessness for 1 month. He was found to have petechial rashes on legs and large splenomegaly. Blood tests showed pancytopenia. Which of the following tests would help in differentiating between aplastic anemia and hypersplenism?

13145

Following are the indications for the evaluation for PNH, except:

13146

A 4-year-old boy presents with a 3-week history of a rapidly expanding jaw. A biopsy of an enlarged cervical lymph node is shown in the image. Histologic examination reveals numerous mitotic figures and many macrophages containing nuclear and cytoplasmic debris. The cells express surface IgM and are positive for common B-cell antigens. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?

13147

A 60-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of lymph node enlargement in his neck and axillae. A CBC reveals mild anemia, with a leukocytosis of 20,000/mL. The peripheral blood smear is shown in the image. More than 80% of WBCs are small lymphocytes, but there are also prominent smudge cells. Examination of a bone marrow biopsy shows nodular and interstitial infiltrates of lymphocytes, which demonstrate clonal rearrangement of the IgG light-chain gene. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?

13148

The following viruses are implicated in the pathogenesis of non-Hodgkin lymphoma, except:

13149

Which is the most useful immunohistochemical stain to use when assessing remission status post treatment in Hairy Cell Leukemia?

13150

A patient presented with fever, night sweats and weight loss. Clinical examination revealed painless lymphadenopathy. Microscopy shows these characteristic cells shown below in the lymph node biopsy. Most likely the condition is:

13151

65 year old man with history of hypertension and low back pain comes to the OPD for evaluation. The pain is gradually increasing and there is no radiation. On X-ray lytic lesion are seen and there is elevated prostatic specific antigen. Which of the following should be positive here:

13152

40 year old man develops leg swelling and shortness of breath since 2 months. On urine examination there is presence of free lambda light chains. On Skeletal examination no lytic lesion is present. Following will be helpful in diagnosis:

13153

Prognosis in multiple myeloma is correlated with levels of:

13154

All of the following features can be seen in multiple myeloma except:

13155

Multiple myeloma is considered to be malignancy of:

13156

All of the following are helpful in diagnosis of multiple myeloma except:

13157

A 40-year-old woman complains of fatigue and nausea of 3 months in duration. Physical examination reveals numerous pustules on the face, as well as splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 6.3 g/dL and platelets of 50,000/mL. A peripheral smear shows malignant cells with Auer rods. The patient develops diffuse purpura, bleeding from the gums, and laboratory features of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?

13158

60 year old man has history of weight loss, increasing fatigue and left upper quadrant discomfort. Complete blood count shows white blood cell count of 100000/cumm, hemoglobin is 12.5 gm/dL and spleen is palpable. Which of the following cytogenetic change is expected to be present?

13159

A 40-year-old male, nonsmoker presented with heaviness in head, and flushing of face. On evaluation, he was found to be having plethora and redness in hand and feet. There is also hepatosplenomegaly. He is suspected of having polycythemia vera. Which of the following will be seen in this patient?

13160

JAK 2 mutation induces hemopoietic proliferation which is due to:

13161

30 year old female has easy bruisability, even with major trauma since one month. There is no difficulty in joints movement. There are no neurological deficits and no hepatosplenomegaly. PT and PTT are normal and platelet count is 40000/cumm. Most likely diagnosis is:

13162

25 year old female has history of frequent nose bleed and menorrhagia. On examination purpura is present. On examination PT and PTT are normal and platelet count is normal. On platelet function studies, there is no aggregation in responds to ristocetin. Most likely deficiency is:

13163

65 year old female has flank pain, high fever for last 1 week. There is decreased urine output. Urine and blood culture are positive for Eschrichia Coli. PT and PTT are increased. Platelet count is decreased. Most likely mechanism for this laboratory findings:

13164

Joint hematoma (hemarthrosis) can be seen in all except:

13165

A 17-year-old girl underwent tonsillectomy at the age of 3 years and had no bleeding. Now she is planned for elective major surgery and during preanesthetic workup, she was found to be having prolonged APTT with normal PT. There is no family history of any bleeding diathesis. The diagnosis is:

13166

Bleeding in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is due to:

13167

A 12-year-old boy presented with bleeding into the gums while brushing and occasional epistaxis. On examination, he was also found to have some skin bruises. On evaluation, he was found to be having normal platelet count and PT. The bleeding time and APTT are prolonged. The most likely diagnosis is:

13168

Mechanism of action of emicizumab is:

13169

Erythropoietin levels will be low in all, except:

13170

A 45-year-old woman has had fever and mental confusion for 1 week. Physical examination temperature 38.2 degree C, pulse rate (PR) 100/min, respiratory rate (RR) 22/min, and BP 110/60 mm Hg. She has widespread petechiae on skin and mucosal surface. Laboratory studies show her creatinine shows 6.3 mg/dL. She has hemoglobin of 12.2 g/dL MCV 93 fL, platelet count 19,000/µL, and WBC count 8,000/µL. Schistocytes are seen on her peripheral blood smear. Her prothrombin time, partial thrombo plastin time, and D-dimer are not elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

13171

A clinical study is performed with subjects who are adults and found to have anemia. Their clinical histories and laboratory findings are reviewed. It is observed that ingestion of a drug preceded development of the anemia in some of the subjects, but not in others. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be found in persons without a history of drug ingestion?

13172

A 17-year-old boy has had weakness for 3 months. On physical examination, he has a palpable spleen tip. A CBC shows Hb 8.8 g/dL, MCV 65 fL, platelet count 187,000/uL, and WBC count 7400/uL. His serum ferritin is 4,000 ng/mL. A bone marrow biopsy is performed and on microscopic examination reveals a myeloid : erythroid (ME) ratio of 1 : 4, and there is 4 plus stainable iron. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

13173

A 30-year-old woman presents with a 2-month history of fatigue, mild fever, and an erythematous scaling rash. She also notes joint pain and swelling, primarily involving the small bones of her fingers. Physical examination reveals erythematous plaques with adherent silvery scales that induce punctate bleeding points when removed. Biopsy of lesion skin reveals markedly increased thickness of the epidermis (shown in the image). Which of the following terms best describes this adaptation to chronic injury in this patient with psoriasis?

13174

55 year old male has malignant lymphoma. He is treated with chemotherapeutic agent which results in loss of individual neoplastic cells through fragmentation of individual cells nuclei and cytoplasm. Over the next months, the lymphoma decreased in size. Neoplasm has responded to the therapy by the mechanism:

13175

60 year old male suffers from an attack of acute myocardial infarction. Thrombolytic therapy with tissue plasminogen activator was administrated to restore coronary blood flow. In spite of the therapy, degree of myocardial fibres injury may increase because of:

13176

Enlargement of uterus during pregnancy is an example of:

13177

Following picture is of brain 82 year old man with history of atherosclerosis. The mechanism for this pathological change is:

13178

Upper GI endoscopy was done in 45 year old man with complaints of mild burning sub sternal pain following meals for the past 3 years. On biopsy there is presence of columnar epithelium with goblet cells. Most likely it represents:

13179

70 years old male had loss of consciousness that persisted for over an hour. After regaining consciousness, he cannot speak nor did move leave the lower limb. On cerebral angiogram there is an occlusion to the right middle cerebral artery. Which of the following findings will be seen on pathological examination:

13180

85 year old, on autopsy of heart, it was found to be small and dark brown. On microscopic examination there is light brown perinuclear pigment with hematoxylin and eosin staining of the cardiac muscle fibres. The appearance of the heart is due to:

13181

There is presence of Karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation on microscopic examination. The overall tissue structure remains intact. This is most likely to be seen in:

13182

60 year old male has chronic cough and was diagnosed squamous cell carcinoma in his left lung. During surgery hilar lymph nodes were enlarged and jet black in colour throughout. Appearance of hilar lymph nodes is due to:

13183

In which of the following on microscopic examination there is an increased cell size of multiple cells within the tissue, due to increase in the amount of cytoplasm with nuclei remaining uniform in size. This is most likely to be seen in:

13184

20 year old man had road side traffic accident. There was extensive blood loss and patient remains hypotensive for hours during transport to hospital. Least damage will be seen in the following tissue:

13185

60 year old male on examination, the toes are cold and have no sensation to touch. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are not palpable. The findings are most typical for a patient with which of the following:

13186

30 years old female has the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. On physical examination there is diffuse tenderness in all abdominal quadrants. On laboratory findings there is lipase 415 U/L and LDH 630 U/L . Most likely changes present in pancreas is:

13187

12 year old boy has history of fever for the past 5 days. On examination there is murmur and on echocardiography there is presence of vegetation on mitral valve. He complaints of left upper quadrant pain and on abdominal CT there is wedge shaped shadow in spleen. The splenic lesion is most likely due to:

13188

25 year old female is claiming that her husband has abused her for the past 2 years. On examination there is a 2 cm left breast mass. There is no lymphadenopathy, no skin lesion are seen. On microscopy of breast there is fatty necrosis. It is most likely due to:

13189

8 year old child has right lower quadrant abdominal pain for last 24 hours. The child is diagnosed to have acute appendicitis. The pain in this condition is due to:

13190

40 year old male had cough with fever for 5 days. On chest radiograph there is consolidation in right lower lobe. On sputum culture there is streptococcus pneumonia. The microorganism would be cleared by the generation of:

13191

50 year old male have history of exposure to inhalation of silica dust for many years. His chest X-ray is shown. Pulmonary finding are mediated due to the following inflammatory process:

13192

20 year old female has premature labour with premature rupture of fetal membrane at 22 weeks of gestation. The premature labour is mediated by the effects from release of which of the following substances:

13193

Following fracture of left femur, 70 year old female now has left leg swollen, mainly her lower leg below the knee. There is pain on movement and tenderness on palpation. The complication most likely to occur next is:

13194

30 years old male has had nausea and vomiting for 5 weeks. He has episode of hematemesis yesterday. On upper GI endoscopy there is lesion in the gastric antrum with loss of the epithelial surface. These findings are suggestive of following pathologic process:

13195

25 year old motorcyclist had blunt force abdominal trauma. In response to this injury, cells in tissues of abdomen are stimulated to enter the G1 phase of the cell cycle from the G0 phase. Which of the following cell types is most likely to remain in G0 following this injury:

13196

40 year old female had chronic, nonproductive cough for 3 months, along with intermittent fever. On chest radiograph has small parenchymal nodules along with hilar and cervical lymph adenopathy. On cervical lymphnode biopsy there is non caseating granulomas present. Following inflammatory mediator causes the formation of granuloma:

13197

40 year old female had lump in her left breast, firm, irregular and non-movable. Mass was rved with lumpectomy along with an axillary lymph node dissection. Predictor of better prognosis is:

13198

60 year old male presented with change in bowel habits. Stool is positive for occult blood. On colonoscopy there is friable exophytic mass in the proximal colon. On biopsy there is moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma. Which of the following lab findings is most likely present in this patient:

13199

Child is born with a single functional allele of a tumour suppressor gene. At the age of five the remaining normal allele is lost through a point mutation. As a result, the ability to inhibit cell cycle progression until the cell is ready to divide is lost. Which of the following neoplasm most likely arise via this mechanism:

13200

22 year old female has a palpable nodule in the thyroid gland. There is no lymphadenopathy. On fine needle aspiration cytology following picture was seen. Which of the following findings would you consider in her past history to indicate a risk factor for this neoplasm:

13201

60 year old man has abdominal discomfort for the past 4 months. On examination there is no lymphadenopathy, no abdominal mass or organomegaly. Abdominal CT shows retroperitoneal soft tissue mass obstructing the left psoas muscle. Most likely neoplasm is:

13202

10 year old healthy girl has reddish, raised nodule on the skin of the upper part of her chest. It has been present for years and has not appreciably changed in size or color. It is most likely:

13203

65 years old man, nonsmoker, had an episode of hemoptysis 3 days ago. On sputum cytology there are atypical cells suggestive of squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following environmental exposure is most likely to be associated with these findings:

13204

Fine needle aspiration was formed for lymph in breast with irregular borders, showed malignant cells. Mastectomy was done and tissue sample sent for analysis by flow cytometry. Flow cytometric analysis will provide:

13205

Hereditary renal cell cancer, pheochromocytomas, hemangioblastoma of the central nervous system, retinal angioma are associated with the loss of tumour suppressor gene:

13206

20 year old female, with no complaints had routine health examination. There is 2 cm firm, rounded mass palpable beneath the skin of the right forearm. There is no pain and overlying in size over the year. She is most likely having:

13207

65 year old man, heavy smoker has history of chronic cough for the past 5 years. On chest radiograph there is right hilar mass. On sputum cytology there are atypical hyperchromatic squamous cells. What is the most common initial pathway for metastases from this lesion:

13208

60 year old male is diagnosed to have small cell lung carcinoma. On bone scan there is no metastases. On physiological examination, he has puffiness of face, pedal edema, bruises of skin and blood pressure 165/100 mmHg. On immunohistochemical staining, the tumour cell s likely to be positive for which of the following hormone:

13209

50 year old female there is a palpable non-tender supraclavicular lymph node. On biopsy of the node on microscopic examination there is a metastatic neoplasm. Most likely primary for this neoplasm is:

13210

55 year old female has a lump in her left breast. On biopsy the cell have marked hyperchromatism and pleomorphism. These cells are estrogen receptor positive. Flow cytometry is done. Compared with the surrounding non-plastic stromal cells, the neoplastic cells are more likely to be in which of the following phases of the cell cycle:

13211

Following gene is absent that would stop the cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. Due to absence increased exposure to ionizing radiation is resulting in damage to cellular DNA. Out of the following gene is:

13212

10 year old healthy boy with no major medical problems has erythematous, pruritic skin lesions with an hour every time he eats peanuts. They resolve within 3 hours and then physical examination is normal. He is having following immunological abnormalities:

13213

60 year old female has renal failure for the last 2 years. On renal biopsy there is deposition of pink amorphous material which showed apple green birefringence after congo red staining. On immunohistochemical staining of deposits, positive for lambda light chains. Most likely condition present is:

13214

22 year old female has rash on face as shown in the picture. No joint deformity is present. She has normocytic anemia and on chest X ray bilateral pleural effusion. Initial laboratory test to be done is:

13215

Male infant was born at term. At 1 year of age he has failure to thrive and recurrent pneumonias. Which of the following disease is the most likely have:

13216

50 year old female comes with complaints of fingers becoming pale and painful on exposure to cold. Her anti-nuclear antibody test is positive. There is no other significant history. She is most likely to have which of the following auto immune disease:

13217

60 year old female has arthritis over the last 15 years. On physiological examination arthritis involves her hand and feet and there are joint deformities. Rectal biopsy shows submuscous deposition of pink amorphous material that stains positively with Congo red. Which of the following procures or proteins most likely give rise to these deposits:

13218

30 years old male has malar skin rash, polyarthritis with swelling and warmth of his hands and sensitization to cold for the last 6 months. Renal function tests are within normal limits and antinuclear antibody test is positive. Which of the following additional serologic tests is required to find the cause of the disease:

13219

30 year old male has chronic cough with fever for 2 months. On microscopic examination there are focal areas of inflammation containing epitheloid cells, Langhans giant cells and lymphocytes. These findings are typical for:

13220

No change of genetic material occurs in which of the following cytogenetic abnormalities?

13221

Which of the following is not true regarding complement system?

13222

A 1-year-old male infant born of consanguinity is having history of ecchymotic spots over body and recurrent episodes of bleeding from gums. He is also having history of recurrent otitis media and impetigo, and on examination he is having generalized dermatitis. The gene most likely affected in this child is:

13223

Cause of amyloidosis is:

13224

The organ which is not involved by amyloid light chain (AL) amyloidosis is:

13225

Acute GVHD is mediated by:

13226

True about antibody response following an infection is:

13227

In hemostasis there is platelet aggregation out of the following true regarding platelet aggregation is:

13228

Following sets of antigen is not important in renal transplantation:

13229

In healing individuals with selective IgA deficiency, there is increased incidence of:

13230

Type II hypersensitivity is seen in the following:

13231

20 year old female has multiple episodes of sudden dyspnea, chest pain for the past 3 years. On laboratory examination there is elevated D-dimer. Most likely cause out of the following is:

13232

A 37-year-old man with AIDS is admitted to the hospital with a 3-week history of chest pain and shortness of breath. An X-ray film of the chest shows bilateral nodularities of the lungs. A CT-guided lung biopsy is shown in the image. The multinucleated cell in the center of this field is most likely derived from which of the following inflammatory cells?

13233

A 40-year-old woman presents with a painless lesion on her right ear lobe (shown in the image). She reports that her ears were pierced 4 months ago. Which of the following best explains the pathogenesis of this lesion?

13234

A 53-year-old woman complains of progressive weight loss, nervousness, and sweating (patient shown in the image). Physical examination reveals tachycardia and exophthalmos. Her thyroid is diffusely enlarged and warm on palpation. Serum levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are low, and levels of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) are markedly elevated. Which of the following mechanisms of disease best explains the pathogenesis of this patient thyroid condition?

13235

A 32-year-old woman from Africa presents with a 4-month history of swelling of her right leg (patient shown in the image). Laboratory studies demonstrate a parasitic infestation. Soft tissue swelling of this patient leg was most likely caused by which of the following conditions?

13236

A 60-year-old man has a 6-month history of abdominal swelling. On a daily basis, he drinks five cups of coffee, and reports that he consumes 2 six packs of beer. Physical examination shows a distended abdomen with a palpable liver 2 cm below the costal margin. A liver biopsy is shown in the image. What could be most probable diagnosis of this condition?

13237

Following fracture of long bones, the risk of fat embolism is increased. All of the following are findings seen except:

13238

Red infarct can be seen in all of the following except:

13239

True regarding venous thrombosis (phlebothrombosis) is:

13240

Intact endothelial severe as a barrier that shields platelets from subendothelial collagen. Platelet inhibitory function of endothelium is due to all except:

13241

Periobital edema is usually a feature seen in:

13242

Which of the following is true regarding the inheritance of autosomal dominant disorders?

13243

Which of the following mutations are most commonly associated with autosomal dominant disorders?

13244

Which of the following is matched correctly?

13245

In a disease with mendelian pattern of inheritance, all the girls in a family and their father is affected whereas, mother and all the boys are unaffected. What is the pattern of inheritance?

13246

Study the given pedigree chart and choose the correct statement:

13247

Study the pedigree chart of a family showing the inheritance of myotonic dystrophy. The trait under study is:

13248

60 year old female has fever and cough with yellowish sputum. On chest X-ray there is infiltrate involving the left lower lobe. On sputum examination there is neutrophils and gram positive diplococcic. Out of the following most likely infectious agent is:

13249

15 year old girl has dyspnea for the past 2 weeks. On chest radiograph there is prominent hilar lymphadenoapthy along with 2 cm peripheral right middle lobe nodule. No infiltrates are present. On routine bacterial culture there is no growth. She is most likely having:

13250

On 8th post-operative day following a radical prostatectomy for adenocarcinoma, the 75 year old man ambulates. On returning to his bed he suddenly becomes dyspheic, chest pain and palpitations. Most likely he has developed:

13251

50 year old female, nonsmoker has fever, difficulty in breathing, weight loss for the past 4 months. On transbronchial biopsy there is no caseating granuloma and on chest radiograph hilar lymphadenopathy is present. Most likely diagnosis is:

13252

45 year old female has increasing dyspnea for past 6 years. There is no increased sputum production. On physical examination there is bilateral hyperresonance to percussion in all lung fields. Most likely following findings are present is:

13253

60 year old male with history of smoking has hemoptypes along with cough. On sputum cytology there are atypical cells with hyperchloromatic nucleus. On lab studies there is serum calcium 11.5 mg/dL. This patient is most likely suffering from:

13254

60 year old male has nonproductive cough for the past 1 week. On chest X-ray there is diffuse bilateral pulmonary interstitial infiltrates in all lung fields. He recovers in two weeks without sequelae. This is suggestive of infection by:

13255

A 68-year-old man who has worked in a shipyard and manufacturing plant all his adult life complains of a 4-month history of chest discomfort, malaise, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion. The patient dies 5 months later of cardiorespiratory failure. The lung at autopsy is shown in the image. This malignant neoplasm is associated with environmental exposure to which of the following carcinogens?

13256

60 year old female has cough and fever for the past 2 days. On sputum culture there is Staphylococcus aureus. She is given antibiotic therapy and two weeks later there is fever but no cough. Most likely diagnosis is:

13257

58 year old male, smoker for 35 year comes with history of hypertension since 1 year. On examination there is obesity in truncal distribution, plethora and bruises on his skin even with minor trauma. Most likely there is:

13258

5 year old female who exercises regularly falls down the stairs and injures her right hip. On radiograph of pelvis there is no fracture but calcification of the small muscular arteries. It is most probable due to:

13259

21 year old man has chest pain which is relieved by sublingual nitroglycerine. On lab studies total serum cholesterol is 550mg/dL and blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. His brother died of myocardial infarction at the age of 30 years. He is most likely having:

13260

45 years old male, smoker complains of pain in the lower extremities on ambulation for more than 400 meters for the past 3 months. Lower limbs are cool, pale without swelling or erythema. No dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses are palpable. Which of the following abnormalities of vessel explain the condition:

13261

Serum marker that is synthesized and released from liver and is a risk factor for atherosclerosis is:

13262

70 year old man had suffered a myocardial infarction 2 months ago. Now he has increasing dyspnea and orthopnea and on echocardiography ejection fraction is 30%. On chest X-Ray, there is pulmonary edema. Which of the following will be increased in this person at this time:

13263

50 year old male during hospitalization, develops thrombophlebitis. He is discharged after recovery. Following term would be applied to the process in vein after recovery from thrombophlebitis:

13264

70 year old healthy female came for health status checkup. On examination her blood pressure is 130/80mmHg, serum total cholesterol 180mg/dL. There is family history of cancer. Which of the following is a constitutional risk factor for atherosclerosis vascular disease in this female:

13265

A 65 year old gentleman presents with headache which is most common along the course of superficial temporal artery. On palpation the temples are tender. The patient also complaints of transient visual loss. Biopsy of the temporal artery would show:

13266

A 3 year old boy in Japan presents with fever and rash that is desquamating. On examination he has enlarged cervical lymph nodes conjunctival and oral erythema and erosion. He also has edema of the hands and feet. The physician says the disease is classically self-limited however if left untreated the important sequelae will be:

13267

All are the features of polyarteritis Nodosa except:

13268

During a routine physical examination a 67 year old man is found to have a 5 cm pulsatile mass in his abdomen. Angiography reveals a marked dilatation of his aorta distal to his renal arteries. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his aneurysm?

13269

Rheumatic fever is excluded if there is absence of:

13270

A 30 years old heroin drug addict starts having fever with chills, weight loss and fatigue. On investigations he is diagnosed to be suffering from infective endocarditis. The most likely cause for his infection is:

13271

Earliest finding in myocardial infarction under electron microscope is:

13272

Least common site for myocardial infarction is:

13273

A 40 year man has transmural anterolateral area of infarction involving wall of the left ventricle. On microscopic examination, 4 days after onset of chest pain following will be present:

13274

42 year old female had poorly controlled atrial fibrillation. She had stroke and died. On autopsy there is fusion of mitral valve with enlarged left atrium. Underlying cause of death is:

13275

A young female presented with a right side thyroid nodule and was operated. A thyroid nodule was resected and the following histology is seen with cells having ground glass appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

13276

In diabetes cellular injury results from glycosylation end products and sorbitol collection in cells. The same patient has atherosclerosis. Which of the following complication is due to atherosclerosis:

13277

45 year old female has low grade fever and pain in her neck for 3 days. On examination there is enlarged thyroid. On biopsy of the thyroid gland reveals granulomatous inflammation and the presence of giant cells. Most likely diagnosis is:

13278

33 year old female presented with swelling in her neck. On examination there is nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid. On congo red stained here is birefringent amyloid stroma. Most likely diagnosis is:

13279

55 year old male had renal transplantation 3 years ago. He was started on glucocorticoids therapy to prevent the rejection of transplantation. He came to the hospital for screening and the adrenal biopsy was done. Most likely finding to be present is:

13280

45 year old female, has complaints of weakness and restless. She complains of her skin seems darker, although she rarely goes outside because she is too tired for outdoor activities. On physical examination, she is a febrile and her blood pressure is 85/50 mm/Hg. On chest radiography shows no abnormal findings. Most likely diagnosis is:

13281

50 year old male has type 1 diabetes since he was 12 year of age. Pancreatic biopsy of this patient would exhibit which one of the following:

13282

31 year old female, who has two healthy children, came with history of amenorrhea for the past 6 months. Pregnancy test is negative and for last 2 weeks there is milk production from her breasts. There is history of headaches for the past 3 months and there is also difficulty in vision. Most likely diagnosis is:

13283

77 year old female has diffuse, symmetrical thyroid enlargement without tenderness. She is hypertensive, thyroidectomy is performed, immunostaining for calcitonin is positive and neoplasm has an amyloid stroma with congo red staining. Most likely thyroid neoplasm is:

13284

26 year old primigravida has vaginal bleeding after the onset of labour at 38 weeks gestation. She was diagnosed placenta previa and caesarean section was done. She remained hypotensive for shows and 8 units of packed RBC were transfused. Postpartum she is unable to breast fed the infant. She has become more sluggish and tired. Which of the following pathologic lesions is she most likely to have had following delivery:

13285

50 year old male came with the presence of bone pain and hands for the past 6 months. On physical examination there is no swelling or redness of his hands, no joint deformity. Laboratory studies show calcium 7.8mg/dL and phosphorous 5.7mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present:

13286

30 year old female has weight gain of 5 kg over the past 6 months. She has normal menstrual periods. She is hypertensive, skin shows marked plethora and abdominal strial are present. On laboratory studies blood glucose is 181mg/dL. Which of the following is most likely to be present:

13287

30 year old female has had 7 kg weight loss over the past 6 months without trying to lose weight. On examination hands are warm and tremulous. Pulse rate is 105/minute and blood pressure 135/75 mmHg. Most probable diagnosis is:

13288

60 year old female has diffuse, dull, constant abdominal pain for the past 2 months. On physical examination there are no abnormal findings present. On abdominal CT a 3 cm right adrenal mass is present. Which of the following features is the most reliable indicator that the mass is malignant:

13289

40 year old female has painless swelling of her neck for the past 2 months. On physical examination there is diffuse enlargement of thyroid. On laboratory studies there is an increased titer of anti-thyroid peroxidase and anti thyrobulin antibodies. Which of the following complication is she most likely to develop:

13290

A chronic alcoholic had the complaints of yellowing of the skin and sclera, abdominal distension, hematemesis and alteration of sleep pattern. He could not be saved. The appearance of his liver isshown in the figure. The most likely diagnosis is:

13291

A 28-year-old man with a familial disease affecting the gastrointestinal tract undergoes a colectomy. The surgical specimen is shown in the image. What is the probable diagnosis of this lesion?

13292

65 year old female has multiple episodes of pulmonary thromboembolism during the past 3 months. There are no abnormal findings on physical examination. Most likely underlying condition for the patients recurrent pulmonary thromboembolism is:

13293

30 year old man has cramping abdominal pain for the past 2 weeks associated with fever and low volume diarrhea. On colonoscopy, muscosal edema and ulceration in the ascending colon but transverse and descending portion of the colon are not affected. Lab studies show serum anti sacromyces antibodies. Which of the following microscopic findings is most likely to be present in biopsies from the colon:

13294

35 year old female has history of intermittent bloody diarrhea for 5 years. Stool sample is positive for occult blood. On colonoscopy there is friable, erythematous mucosa that extends from the rectum to the mid transverse colon. On microscopic examination there is superficial mucosal ulceration. This patient is at greatest risk for development of which of the following condition:

13295

60 year old male has complaints of anorexia, vomiting and abdominal pain along with weight loss of 6 Kg over the past 2 months. On examination these is supra clavicular non-tender lymphdenopathy. On abdominal CT shrunken stomach with thickening of the gastric wall. Multiple metastasis are present in the liver most likely cause of this condition is:

13296

A healthy 20 year old man has a family history to colon cancer with onset at a young age. There are no other abnormal physical findings. On colonoscopy there are 200 adenomas present in colon. It is due to involvement of:

13297

40 year old man has history of chronic alcoholism. On abdominal CT there is cirrhosis liver. Now he stops drinking. Despite his continued abstinence from alcohol, he is at risk for the development of following disease:

13298

10 year old boy has jaundice. On laboratory studies there is total bilirubin 5.8mg/dL, AST 130 IU/L and ALT 140 U/L. The serum ceruloplasmin is decreased. Anti-mitochndrial antibody test is negative. It is due to involvement of gene:

13299

18 year old female with recent onset of major depressive disorder ingests an entire bottle (50 capsules) of medication containing acetaminophen. She has become disoriented over the next 8 hours. Which of the following microscopic findings is most likely to be present in her liver 3 days following this ingestion:

13300

50 year old male has history of diarrhea for the last 1 year. He has polyarthritis and on examination no joint deformities. On abdominal CT, no masses only generalized lymphadenopathy is seen. On biopsy of the duodenum there are PAS –positive macrophages in the submucusa. Most likely diagnosis is:

13301

15 year old boy has history of headaches for 2 months and difficulty in vision. Head CT scan shows 4 cm mass expanding the sella turcica with calcification. Most likely diagnosis is:

13302

40 years old male presented with hypertension, hematuria and flank pain. On examination of kidney many cysts are present. Common complication seen in this disease is:

13303

Renal cell carcinoma can be seen in the following neurocutaneous syndrome:

13304

28 years old female presents with Malar rash, oral ulcers, arthritis and signs of nephritic syndrome. On examination of kidney membranous glomerulonephritis is present. Pathogenic mechanism of this disease is:

13305

Patient presents with hematuria, proteinuria and edema.C3 levels are low and on examination of the basement membrane there is thickening present and diagnosis of type 1 Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is made. On renal biopsy following will be seen:

13306

All are correctly matched regarding findings in kidney except:

13307

5 year old boy presents with hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia and proteinuria. Edema initially was in periorbital region. Patient responds to steroid therapy. Following pathological change is seen on biopsy:

13308

65 years old male presents with hematuria, proteinuria and edema. On examination of kidney there are nodular masses in the glomerulus of kidney. This is most likely suggestive of:

13309

40 years old male is diagnosed to have HIV infection and on examination renal functions are deranged suggestive of nephropathy. Which of the following antibodies deposition is likely to be seen in kidney?

13310

63 years old male is diagnosed to have malignant hypertension. On examination of kidney multiple focus of hemorrhages are seen. Which type of necrosis is likely to be seen in this condition?

13311

A 38-year-old man presents with vague flank pain and describes the passage of blood clots in his urine. Physical examination reveals bilateral flank and abdominal masses. Laboratory studies show elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. Urinalysis reveals hematuria, proteinuria, and oliguria. A CT scan discloses bilaterally, massively enlarged kidneys. The patient subsequently develops end-stage kidney disease and receives a renal transplant. The kidneys of patient are removed during surgery (shown in the image). What is the most likely diagnosis?

13312

50 year old female came with history of flank tenderness and abdominal pain. On physiological examination there is palpable kidney and ultrasound showed cystic changes in both kidneys. Urinalysis showed 2+ proteinuria. Mode of inheritance of this disease is:

13313

A 7-year-old girl is brought with complaints of generalized swelling of the body. Urinary examination reveals grade 3 proteinuria and the presence of hyaline and fatty casts. She has no history of hematuria. Which of the following statements about her condition is true:

13314

A 21-year-old man presents with painless haematuria which he has noticed in the last 3 days. He suffers from type 1 diabetes which is well controlled, but is otherwise fit and healthy. Patient has recently recovered from a mild throat infection. Urine dipstick analysis reveals blood and protein in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

13315

A 24-year-old woman presents with nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and gross hematuria. She had a sore throat 2 weeks ago that resolved on its own. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse 90/min, heart sounds are normal, there is + pedal edema and the lungs are clear. She has a renal biopsy. Which of the following electron microscopy findings on the renal biopsy is most likely in keeping with post streptococcal GN?

13316

A 68-year-old woman has used large amounts of analgesic for years to relieve severe headaches and arthritis. She now has an elevated urea and creatinine consistent with chronic renal failure. Which of the following changes in the kidney is most likely seen with her diagnosis?

13317

A 25-year-old man is referred to you because of hematuria. He noticed brief reddening of the urine with a recent respiratory infection. The gross hematuria resolved, but his physician found microscopic hematuria on two subsequent first-voided morning urine specimens. The patient is otherwise healthy; he does not smoke. His blood pressure is 114/72 and the physical examination is normal. The urinalysis shows 2+ proteins and 10 to 15 RBC/HPF with some dysmorphic erythrocytes. No WBC or casts are seen, what is the most likely cause of his hematuria?

13318

Which of the following was the first agent to be used for giving successful anesthesia to a patient?

13319

The cardinal features of general anesthetics are all of the following, except:

13320

Regarding the following image, which of the following options is correct?

13321

Brain dead patient according to ASA classification is:

13322

A 3 month old child is to undergo circumcision under general anaesthesia. For how long should the child be kept fasting before giving anaesthesia for this procedure?

13323

All the following drugs should be stopped before anaesthesia, except:

13324

Glycopyrrolate in anaesthesia has all the following uses except:

13325

Retrograde amnesia is seen with which of the following?

13326

75 years old elderly patient with fracture both bone forearm, anaesthesia of choice for open reduction and internal  fixation:

13327

25 year old female with mitral stenosis is to be operated for LSCS. Regarding anaesthetic techniques, which one is the best option?

13328

A 40 years old female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She complains of awareness in a previous surgery. Which of the following monitoring techniques can be used to decrease awareness?

13329

Pin index safety system is for:

13330

The doctor on duty asks the technician to get a grey cylinder that has a white shoulder. Which cylinder is the doctor asking for?

13331

Circuit used for pediatric patient:

13332

Which one of the following is stored and given through a vapourizer?

13333

Blood gas solubility is associated with:

13334

Concentration effect is seen with:

13335

After surgery in the post-operative recovery, a patient complains of uncontrollable shivering. Which of the following agents might be responsible for the same?

13336

Greenhouse gas:

13337

Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:

13338

Which of the following is known to form compound A?

13339

Which one of the following is a barbiturate?

13340

A patient with increased intracranial pressure is admitted in the intensive care unit. Which of the following agents can be used in this patient as one of the treatment modalities?

13341

Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression is produced by:

13342

A 30 year old patient wants to go to office the same day after getting an endoscopy done for chronic abdominal pain and reflux. Which of the following agents is best suited for induction in this patient?

13343

After surgery in the post-operative recovery, a patient complains of nausea and vomiting. Which of the following agents can be used to treat this condition in the recovery period?

13344

Myoclonus and hiccoughs are known to be produced by:

13345

Ketamine produces which type of anaesthesia?

13346

A patient was given 20 mg midazolam instead of 1 mg. Which of the following agents may be helpful in this condition?

13347

A patient complained of itching and pruritis immediately after an intravenous injection. Which of the following agents is most likely responsible?

13348

Which one of the following produces phase II block?

13349

Vecuronium acts at which receptors?

13350

Succinylcholine is contraindicated in:

13351

Rocuronium is known to cause:

13352

Atracurium gets metabolized by:

13353

Most common nerve used to check adequacy of muscle relaxation effect of pancuronium is:

13354

Which of the following can produce meth-haemoglobinemia?

13355

Local anesthesia has its effect by action at:

13356

Importance of addition of adrenaline to local anaesthetics:

13357

Local anesthetic having vasoconstrictor property:

13358

Which of the following is the last layer breached before reaching the epidural space?

13359

A 22 year old patient collapsed 10 mins after giving spinal anaesthesia. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?

13360

For prevention of post spinal headache:

13361

A patient posted for inguinal hernia repair under spinal anesthesia was asked by the anesthesiologist to undergo the procedure under GA rather than spinal anesthesia. Which of the following conditions of the patient might have made the anesthesiologist to take the call of not giving spinal anesthesia?

13362

In biers block, local anesthetic is given by which route?

13363

A patient during pre-anesthetic checkup gives a family history of sudden rise in temperature during surgery that had happened to his father 20 years ago. All of the following should not be used in this patient except?

13364

The adjacent graph indicates which of the following:

13365

Pulse-oximeter shows in-accurate reading in all of the following except:

13366

The marked point is:

13367

Kindly identify the laryngoscope blade:

13368

The device shown is a:

13369

All of the following are advantages of the adjoining device except:

13370

A central line can be inserted from all of the following sites except:

13371

Ideal site for chest compression during CPR of an adult:

13372

During CPR, after attaching the defibrillator, the rhythm shows systole. What should be the next step?

13373

The adjoining image indicates:

13374

A patient presents to the casualty with the following reading on pulse oximeter. Which of the following will give the maximum fiO2 to this patient?

13375

Wooden chest syndrome is seen with:

13376

Suggamadex is used with which of the following:

13377

A patient during surgery has lost 1 L of blood. Which of the following fluids is best indicated in this patient?

13378

What is the angle subtended by top most letter of Snellen chart at distance of 6 meter:

13379

Corneal endothelium is embryo logically derived from:

13380

Cause of decreased vision due to defect shown in visual?

13381

False about Bitot spots is?

13382

All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except:

13383

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

13384

Changes seen in the conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency:

13385

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of the of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas on the palpebral conjunctiva is:

13386

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

13387

Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

13388

A 28 years old male complains of glare in both eyes. The cornea shows whorl-like opacities in the epithelium. He gives history of long term treatment with Amiodarone. The most likely diagnosis is:

13389

A patient presents with history of Chuna particles falling in the eye. Which of the following should not be done?

13390

Herbert pits are seen in:

13391

Cataract in diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is:

13392

Which is the most important factor in the prevention of postoperative endophthalmitis?

13393

A 56 year old man presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with history of pain and decrease in vision after an initial improvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

13394

A 55 years old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

13395

The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens:

13396

Which of the following is not needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery:

13397

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

13398

All are true except:

13399

Which of the following is the only reversible cataract

13400

Riders cataract is seen in

13401

Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in

13402

A 30-day-old neonate was presented with a history of photophobia and excessive lacrimation. On examination, both the lacrimal duct systems are normal, but there was a large cornea with haziness. The diagnosis is:

13403

Imbertfick law is used for which of the following type of tonometry

13404

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following:

13405

The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma

13406

Treatment of choice for open angle glaucoma in the other eye is:

13407

Which of the following anti-glaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?

13408

Earliest manifestation of chronic simple glaucoma

13409

Typical coloboma of the iris is situated:

13410

A 25 years old man has pain, redness and mild diminution of vision in one eye for the past 3 days. There is also history of low backache for the past one year. On examination there is circumcorneal congestion, few keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium, 2+ cells in the anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure is within normal limits. The patient is likely to be suffering from:

13411

The uveitis associated with vitiligo and auditory defects occurs in:

13412

Recurrent mobile hypopyon seen in acute anterior Uveitis indicates?

13413

A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient department with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:

13414

The normal ratio of light peak and dark trough on an EOG is

13415

Confirmatory investigation in retinitis pigmentosa is:

13416

Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by:

13417

Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:

13418

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

13419

Most common primary malignant tumour of orbit in children:

13420

A 25 years old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

13421

Weigert ligament is:

13422

Asteroid hyalosis are composed of:

13423

The risk of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is increased in all of the following except

13424

A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

13425

Most common clinical presentation of retinoblastoma is:

13426

This is defect in

13427

A person has defective blue colour appreciation. His condition is

13428

Not a feature of Horner syndrome:

13429

All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except

13430

Pie in sky appearance is seen in:

13431

Visual defect shown in the photograph below occur in lesion of:

13432

An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to sudden loss of vision in his left eye that occurred on waking this morning. He has no associated pain. Past medical history is notable for hypertension. Current medications include ramipril and chlorthalidone. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes a day for the past 60 years. His temperature is 36.8 C (98.4 F), blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 14/min. Examination of the right eye shows no abnormalities. Funduscopic examination of the left eye reveals swelling of the optic disk, retinal hemorrhages, dilated and tortuous veins, and cotton wool spots. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

13433

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

13434

The given image is related to following:

13435

Lamina cribrosa is absent in:

13436

Roth spots are seen in:

13437

Which of the following is not true about inferior oblique muscle?

13438

Esotropia is commonly seen in which type of refractive error?

13439

Identify the test shown in the image:

13440

Identify the instrument:

13441

Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared in involvement of occulomotor nerve

13442

Retinal layer relatively resistant to radiation is:

13443

Which of the following is not a feature of paralytic squint:

13444

The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:

13445

Aniseikonia means:

13446

On performing retinoscopy using a plane mirror in a patient who has a refractive error of -3D sphere with -2cylinder at 90 degree from a distance of 1 m, the reflex would move:

13447

Most common cause of ocular morbidity in India:

13448

A patient Mohan, aged 60 years, needs an eye examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his eyes but not paralyse his ciliary muscles. Choose the drug:

13449

Which of the following is an example of compound myopic, against the rule astigmatism?

13450

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, irido-donesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

13451

A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegicretinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm that clears up in about 2 minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

13452

What should not be done in this patient?

13453

All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

13454

In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen EXCEPT

13455

There is a retained intraocular iron foreign body. What is the best investigation for monitoring vision?

13456

A 20 years old boy presents with history of tennis ball injury to the right eye. On examination a red spot is seen on the macula. The most likely diagnosis is:

13457

Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:

13458

Out of the following which is the most important independent predictor of survival in extremely preterm child:

13459

True regarding breast milk jaundice out of the following is

13460

Full term neonate developed PPHN following meconium aspiration syndrome. Investigation required to diagnose PPHN is:

13461

All of the following can cause small for gestational age child except

13462

In large for gestational age the incidence of all of the following is increased in neonatal period except

13463

Newborn child, 2 days of age is suspected to have jitteriness. All of the following are true regarding jitteriness except:

13464

In all of the following there is jaundice in neonate except:

13465

Phototherapy is given in neonates to decrease unconjugated bilirubin. It acts by all of the following mechanism except:

13466

Kangaroo mother care is given to reduce the risk of hypothermia. Apart from this all are the other benefits seen except:

13467

Child at birth is diagnosed to have Erb palsy. This can be seen in all of the following except:

13468

During neonatal resuscitation chest compressions were given for 30 seconds and still the heart rate is below 60 per minute. Discussion to give epinephrine was taken. It can be given by all of the following route except:

13469

In a newborn there is no heart rate at birth. Minimum duration of resuscitation should be:

13470

All are the indications to start positive pressure ventilation in newborn except:

13471

Term child was diagnosed as having hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy. Which of the following pathological change can be seen in brain:

13472

All are true about APGAR score except:

13473

All of the following metabolic changes can cause neonatal seizures except:

13474

Regarding fractures in newborn which of the following statement is true:

13475

Child was delivered by vacuum and was noticed to have swelling on the head since birth. Swelling is soft and fluctuant and not crossing midline. True regarding this swelling is:

13476

In assessing the severity of birth asphyxia out of the following which is more reliable?

13477

True regarding small for gestational age babies is:

13478

All are the causes for small for gestational age except:

13479

Day 14, term child was brought with lethargy and poor feeding. On CSF examination there is total cell count 250 cells/cumm, 80 percent polymorphs and sugar 30 mg/dL and a simultaneous blood sugar of 70mg/dL. Antibiotics should be given for:

13480

Newborn infant is under evaluation for jaundice and hepatomegaly. On further examination there is hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis and intracranial calcification. Treatment of choice is:

13481

True regarding APGAR score is:

13482

Vitamin K should not be given intramuscularly at birth in the following:

13483

3 days child delivered at hospital is now at home and on exclusive breast feeds. Mother notices yellowing of eyes. Next step is:

13484

Full term baby was delivered by cesarean section. Now at 2 hours of age there is respiratory rate of 80 breaths/min, subcostal recession and oxygen saturation of 90 percent in air. All of the following should be done except:

13485

Child is suspected to have esophageal atresia. All of the following investigations are useful in this child except:

13486

True regarding weight loss in the first week of life is:

13487

11 months old child has a length of 74 cms and weight of 8.1 kgs. The birth weight was 2.7 kgs. There is no dentition by now and sparse hair growth. The anterior fontanel is open. Next step in management is

13488

Spontaneous regression is usually not seen in the following skin lesion:

13489

In the clinical settings, 2.3rd and 97.7th percentile on the WHO growth charts are used to identify insufficient and excessive growth from:

13490

Sign of Abnormal gross motor development is:

13491

Sign of abnormal social development is:

13492

In a child with Down syndrome, general anesthesia is to be given, all of the following conditions should be looked for except:

13493

Velocardial facial syndrome/Digeorge syndrome is an example of:

13494

In neonatal period in Down syndrome, all of the following features are seen except:

13495

Chromosomal analysis is required in person suspected of having Down syndrome for:

13496

Out of the following, which area of development is relatively spared in Down syndrome:

13497

3 years female child was diagnosed as Turner syndrome (45, XO). On genetic analysis there is Y chromosome mosaicism. Most appropriate next step is to:

13498

Female can sometimes have sign of X linked recessive disorders. It can be due to all of the following except:

13499

All of the following are example of non mendelian inheritance except:

13500

Most serious consequence of malnutrition is

13501

Which of the following is seen in malnutrition due to cell damage

13502

Rehabilitation is done in severe acute malnutrition with F75 and F100 diet. Aim of rehabilitation is to

13503

Out of the following most commonly used index for nutritional status is

13504

Criteria to diagnose severe acute malnutrition in child is:

13505

Child is having moon like facies. Alternating bands of light and normal hair and skin and edematous skin. Considering the malnutrition this child will have weight for age:

13506

All are the correct regarding the composition of ReSoMal ORS except: (ReSOMal – Rehydration Solution for Malnourished)

13507

Indication for RBC transfusion in severely acute malnourished is:

13508

Biochemical changes seen in Re-feeding syndrome including all except:

13509

Antibody present in the human milk which also has antibacterial infection is:

13510

All are the benefits of the breast feeding in the child except:

13511

In comparison of breast milk and milk of cow which of the following is higher in breast milk?

13512

Child is not given enough feeds by mother. All of the following findings can be seen due to inadequate milk intake except:

13513

3 year old child presents with pathological fracture of the femur. On imagine there are large adrenal mass and multiple bony lesions. On microscopic examination there is small round blue cells. Most likely diagnosis is:

13514

In a child there is presence of an iridia and hemihypertrophy. There is increased risk of following tumour:

13515

6 year old male child was diagnosed as pilocytic astrocytoma after surgical resection. Most appropriate next step in the management is:

13516

A 2-year-old male child has an asymptomatic right flank mass discovered incidentally by the mother while bathing. Suspicion of Wilms tumor is raised. Of the following, the LEAST likely investigation to be performed in this child is:

13517

Radiotherapy is an effective modality of treatment in variable pediatric solid tumors. Of the following, the LEAST responsive tumor to radiotherapy is:

13518

3 year old child has been brought by parents with history of swallowing a coin. Out of the following which symptoms suggests that there is complete airway obstruction by the foreign body?

13519

All of the following findings can be seen in acute bacterial tracheitis except:

13520

Sudden death in infants can be seen in all of the following infections except:

13521

Nasal polyposis can be seen in children in many disorders. Out of the following the most common childhood cause of nasal polyposis is:

13522

Out of the following the earliest pathological lesion in the lung of a patient with cystic fibrosis is:

13523

Most common presenting feature in cystic fibrosis in children is:

13524

Regarding inhalation therapy in cystic fibrosis all are true except:

13525

Child was diagnosed as severe bronchopulmonary dysplasia with pulmonary interstitial emphysema. Following drug is prophylactically recommended in infants with this condition in first two years of life:

13526

In paediatrics advanced life support curriculum, in the format of ABCDE the D stands for:

13527

All are the sign of severe dehydration in an infant except:

13528

Out of the following overburden occurs in which chamber in septum primium type of atrial septal defect:

13529

All of the following complications can be seen in atrial septal defect except:

13530

A child with ventricular septal defect is found to have clubbing on examination. There is no history of fever. Out of the following most likely cause is:

13531

Child was diagnosed to have perimembranous ventricular septal defect. At 6 weeks of age there is congestive heart failure. Most likely it is due to:

13532

All of the following are correctly matched except:

13533

An infant presents with differential cyanosis and hepatomegaly. Out of the following probable diagnosis is:

13534

All of the following features are seen in Eisenmenger physiology except:

13535

3 days old full term baby comes with history of poor feeding. There is no history of fever. On examination there is tachycardia and Tachypnea. On palpation femoral pulses and dorsalis pedis is weakly palpable and cyanosis is present. Best management is:

13536

A 6 year old boy comes with history of retrosternal chest pain and difficulty in breathing. Child was hospitalized for Kawasaki disease at the age of 5 years. There is tachycardia and SpO2 95 percent on room air. There is normal heart sounds, no murmur and no wheeze. Next best step in management:

13537

14 years old girl, diagnosed as end stage renal disease secondary to focal segmental glomerulosclerosis presents with headache for last 72 hours. Patient is on oral corticosteroids and on dialysis therapy. On examination alert child, BP 182/116 mmHg and no other physical findings. Next best step in the management is:

13538

Child was normal at birth. On second day of age cyanosis is present. There is no murmur and no respiratory distress. On 3rd day cyanosis has increased. Correct regarding this patient is:

13539

Sudden death in childhood can be seen due to all of the following except:

13540

3 years old male presents with history of fever for 10 days. Child has received multiple antibiotics. On examination the BCG scar is indurated and there is history of redness of eyes and mouth and erythematous rash over the body for the initial 6 days. On urine examination there is sterile pyuria. Initial treatment of choice:

13541

Child was diagnosed as ventricular septal defect and surgery was advised. Parents refused surgery. Now child comes after 5 years in emergency room. On examination child is cyanotic, tachypnic. Most likely it is due to:

13542

In all of the following pulmonary circulation is ductal dependent except:

13543

2 year old child has history of fever since 2 weeks. On examination there is sterile pyuria and induration of BCG Scar. There is history of redness and erythematous rash over body for initial 5 days of illness. Most appropriate management in this child is:

13544

Wide pulse pressure is an indicator of large left to right shunt seen in the following:

13545

Following statement is correct regarding the congenital heart disease in newborn:

13546

All of the following findings can be seen in chest X-ray in tetralogy of Fallot except:

13547

These is requirement for prophylaxis for infective endocarditis in all of the following cardiac lesion except:

13548

In coarctation of aorta all of the following can be seen except:

13549

Out of the following which can remain open after 6 months without any clinical significance is:

13550

Out of the following cyanosis would be most prominent in:

13551

All are seen in breath holding spells except:

13552

14 year old boy with no prior medical history complains of headache for the past 6 months. On physical examination there is no abnormal finding. On CT scan there is enlargement of lateral ventricles and third ventricle. On CSF examination there is normal opening pressure, normal glucose and no leukocytes. Out of the following most likely cause is:

13553

5 year old boy has history of headache, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. Now there is also no lateral movement of eyes and decreased response to verbal commands. On CSF examination there is increased cell count and mainly lymphocytes. On CT scan there is enhancement of basilar meningitis. Out of the following most common cause is:

13554

Following is true regarding neurological signs in children:

13555

All are true regarding breath holding spell in children except:

13556

Dandy Walker malformation, all of the following can be seen except:

13557

All are the minor risk factors for recurrence of febrile seizure except:

13558

Increased  frequency of breath holding spell is seen in:

13559

10 year old girl is being evaluated for new onset of school problem and occasional uncontrolled movement of the hands. She has been healthy and has not taken any medications. Further evaluation is most likely to show:

13560

2 - year - old boy has spasticity in both lower limbs. Deep tendon reflexes are increased. MRI of his brain is most likely to show:

13561

4 year old boy with history of fever for 2 days comes with history of convulsion lasting for 10 minutes. He is now alert and responding well. Out of the following to be done is:

13562

5 year old child comes with 6 week history of morning headache, often associated with vomiting. He also becomes irritable during headache. During physical examination which of the following is most likely to be present:

13563

All of the following can cause sensorineural hearing loss in children except:

13564

8 years old child has come for proteinuria (+1). There is no edema, normal cholesterol, no hematuria. Serum complement C3 is level. Urine protein: creatinine ratio is 0.12. most likely diagnosis is:

13565

Hematuria is defined as presence of at least how many Red blood cells microliter of urine:

13566

8-year-old child has hematuria after 2 days of respiratory tract infection. All of the following are true except:

13567

6-year-old child is suspected to have post streptococcal glomerulonephritis after pyoderma. Best test for streptococcal infection is:

13568

Calcineurin inhibitor resistant nephrotic syndrome is proteinuria persisting after how many months of giving therapy:

13569

All of the following can cause hypocalcemia in nephrotic syndrome in children except:

13570

Gold standard for diagnosis of precocious puberty is:

13571

Following feature is suggestive of constitutive delay in growth as a cause of short stature:

13572

Most common brain lesion causing central precocious puberty is:

13573

4 days old child, on screening is found to have abnormal thyroid function test. Additional  investigation required for confirmation  of diagnosis of congenital hypothyroidism is:

13574

In a child diagnosed as panhypopituarism following finding can be seen in neonate except:

13575

32 weeks pregnant female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Her diet is salt restricted and high protein. She is treated with steroids. For last week, generalized swelling has decreased but neck swelling is persisting. Fetus is at high risk for:

13576

6 year old child, female has pubarche and thelarche due to adrenal tumour. It is an example of:

13577

8 year old boy has history of headache with blurred vision for last 6 months. On examination height is below 3 percent. On ophthalmological examination there is bilateral optic nerve atrophy. Out of the following most likely diagnosis is:

13578

MDR-TB is defined as

13579

Primary role of antacids in peptic ulcer is

13580

A prokinetic drug which lacks D2 receptor antagonistic action is which of the following

13581

All of the following antibiotics are used in treatment of H. pylori infection except

13582

Febuxostat, true statement is

13583

All COX-inhibitors are hepatoxic except

13584

Thalidomide used in all of the following conditions except

13585

Side effect of latanoprost drug, used in glaucoma is

13586

Sildenafil acts by

13587

True regarding second generation antihistaminics are all except

13588

All are correct except

13589

Drug used in acute gout is

13590

Aspirin acts by

13591

Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation

13592

All cox–inhibitors are hepatoxic except

13593

Thalidomide used in all of the following conditions except

13594

Leflunomide acts by inhibiting

13595

Which drug not included in DMARDs

13596

Prostaglandins used in all of the following conditions except

13597

Which of the following is 5-HT3 antagonist

13598

H1 antagonist has all functions except

13599

Which of the NSAID has good tissue penetrability with concentration in synovial fluid

13600

NSAID given in once daily dose is

13601

Most commonly used drug for prophylaxis of migraine is

13602

All of the following are reversible inhibitor if cyclooxygenase except

13603

Which of the following H1 blocker  has high anticholinergic activity

13604

All are well known ototoxic drugs except

13605

Uricosuric drug among these is

13606

Which is contraindication to the use of ergot derivatives

13607

Drug of choice in Lithium induced diabetes insipidus

13608

Drug that leads to glucose intolerance

13609

Which of the following drug is used for preventing neurological deficit following subarachnoid hemorrhage

13610

Niacin effect, what is not true

13611

Digoxin toxicity seen in all except

13612

All of the following are ionotropic drug except

13613

Which of the following is a K+ opener

13614

Sildenafil mechanism of action can be best described as

13615

All of the following are used in atrial arrhythmias except

13616

Drug that prevent hypercholesterolemia by inhibiting absorption of cholesterol is

13617

Which of the following antipsychotic have least risk of extrapyramidal side effects

13618

Valproic acid causes all except

13619

Methadone is used in the management of opioid addiction because

13620

One of the following is not true about melatonin

13621

Which of the following drugs is not used for anxiety

13622

A young male giving H/O excessive blinking of one eye since last 5–6 years. He is not able to control this and when he tried to control frequency increases. This is affecting his professional life decreasing his confidence level. What is the best drug for this patient

13623

Which NMDA blocker used in epilepsy patients

13624

Which of the following is true regarding bromocriptine use

13625

All are true about anticonvulsants except

13626

Feature of opioid intake are all except

13627

Phenytoin toxicity is

13628

Antiparkinsonism drug that causespulmonary fibrosis is

13629

DOC for lennox-gestalt syndrome

13630

All of the following drugs having extra pyramidal side effects except

13631

Hallucinations, psychosis, hypertension and tachycardia are adverse effects associated with which of the following narcotics

13632

All of the following works on cytoplasmic receptor EXCEPT

13633

Therapeutic drug monitoring required in all except

13634

All of the following can cause SLE like syndrome except

13635

The study of how variation in the human genome affect the response to medications is known as

13636

Which route of drug administration avoids first pass hepatic metabolism and is used with drug preparation that slowly releases drugs for periods as long as many days

13637

A 33 year patient with history of asthma is being treated for symptoms of hypertension. Which one of the following would be appropriate therapy for this patient

13638

A 35 year farmer was found unconscious. Examination revealed bilateral constricted pupil, bradycardia, excessive sweating and secretion. All can be used in treatment except

13639

Physostigmine is the antidote for poisoning with antimuscarinic drugs. Another drug of same classneostigmine is not suitable for this because it cannot overcome the adverse effect of the anti muscarinic drug in which of the following system

13640

Which of the following antiglaucoma medication is contraindicated in persons allergic to sulfonamides

13641

Which of the following drug is used for treating overactive bladder

13642

A 32-year-old pregnant woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which was managed successfully with NSAIDs. However, she recently visited her practitioner complaining of burning epigastric pain worsened by food intake. Which of the following ulcer medication is most likely contraindicated in this patient

13643

Which of the following is transmitted by rat urine

13644

Length of the bone for measuring the stature of an individual is best estimated by

13645

A bundle of bone, which was recovered from a jungle, is brought by police for post-mortem examination. Examination of which bone will give the maximum idea about the sex of the individual?

13646

Appeal against the Professional Death sentence after exhausting all the remedies in State Medical Council is made to

13647

Which one of following elementary regarding vicarious liability is not true?

13648

In an unconscious patient with head injury requiring emergency surgery, if there are no relatives to give consent, the doctor should

13649

In a comatose patient, when life support itself is withdrawn, the procedure is

13650

When any two objects come into contact, there is always transference of material from each object on to the other. This rule is known as

13651

Minimum punishment for committing gang rape

13652

Which one of the following statement regarding rape is false?

13653

Which of the following statements about the award of capital punishment to a pregnant woman sentenced to death is correct? Death sentence cannot be carried

13654

Camera trial is court proceeding used in examination of

13655

For undergoing prenatal diagnostic techniques following conditions should be fulfilled except

13656

As per the amended PNDT Act, if a doctor is convicted for violating the act, the respective State Medical Council can remove his name from register of the council

13657

True statement are all except

13658

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding artificial insemination donor?

13659

Super foetation means

13660

A 25-year-old person developed right corneal opacity following an injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Vision was restored following corneoplasty. Medico-legally this injury should be labelled as

13661

A man fires a gun but the bullet gets stuck. When he fires again two bullets come out one after another. This is known as

13662

A person has been brought in casualty with history of road accident. He had lost consciousness transiently and then gained consciousness but again became unconscious. Most likely he is having brain hemorrhage of

13663

A teacher slaps a student and subsequently suffers from 25% hearing loss. The hearing loss restored after surgery. The nature of injury should be

13664

A variable degree of fat necrosis of pancreas is the most constant post-mortem finding in case of

13665

A person comes in casualty with alleged h/o assault by neighbour. He presents with fractured upper central incisor and bleeding from mouth. On examination, abrasions and contusions on face and multiple abrasions on inner mucosal surface of upper lip were seen. Patient also shows abrasions on both lower limbs. This sort of injury can be classified as

13666

A 50 year old person arrested for involving in a murder case died apparently of myocardial infarction during police interrogation. Who should conduct the inquest in this case?

13667

While giving evidence in court the Judge can asked question

13668

If a witness receives summons from all of the following courts to attend summon on the same day which court he should attend first?

13669

If a witness is declared hostile, leading questions are allowed also in

13670

Dying deposition is more important than dying declaration because

13671

If a witness gives false evidence willfully, he is liable to prosecute for perjury and imprisonment may extend up to 7 years. This falls under which section of Indian Penal Code?

13672

Who can commute a death sentence?

13673

Perjury is

13674

A death sentence can be awarded by

13675

When any two objects come into contact, there is always transference of material from each object on to the other. This rule is known as

13676

What is Wet Submarine?

13677

A biological waste was disposed with incineration, this waste to be put in which bag?

13678

Which among the following is not a component of Primary Health care?

13679

First level of health care in India is provided at

13680

In the state of Uttar Pradesh, the total fertility rate of 4 districts was recorded. The TFR of District A was 2.8, District B was 2.1, District C was 2.6 and District D was 3.0. Which district among the four have achieved the target total fertility rate?

13681

The most common cancer in India in is

13682

A prospective study has to be conducted to find relation between obesity and online food ordering. Which of the following should be the groups at the start of the study?

13683

What is the most likely malignant tumor causing extrahepatic obstructive jaundice?

13684

A neonate presented with bilious vomiting and X-ray showing disproportionate size of bowel loops with no airfluid levels. Most likely diagnosis is

13685

Patients with protracted vomiting can develop

13686

Involvement of pelvis in a case of vaginal carcinoma of stage

13687

Characteristic feature of carcinoma fallopian tube

13688

The advantages of cryosurgery over electrocauterization are all except

13689

A 26-year-old female with 3 living issues having cervical erosion which bleeds to touch, diagnosis cannot be done by

13690

Which of the following is the most common site for metastasis following pelvic surgery for carcinoma cervix

13691

The most common site of vulval cancer

13692

The following primary tumors are common in the vulva except

13693

Most common vaginal carcinoma is

13694

Common differential diagnosis of verrucous carcinoma is

13695

Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts

13696

All of these secrete hormone, except

13697

Pyometra is a complication associated with all of the following condition except

13698

Sentinel biopsy most effective in

13699

Which of the following most commonly causes intraorbital metastasis in female

13700

Cyrosurgey is effective in all except

13701

Indication of rectal examination are all except

13702

Position of the patient should be described except

13703

Hysteroscopy can diagnose all, except

13704

Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is

13705

Laparoscopy is contraindicated in

13706

Which of the following methods for assessment of female infertility during a menstrual cycle can best predict timing of ovulation:

13707

Goniometer is used for

13708

All of the following are advantages of vaginal hysterectomy over abdominal hysterectomy except

13709

Transcervical endometrial resection (TCRE) is used for

13710

Chassar Moir surgery is done is case of

13711

Intrauterine insemination means implantation of

13712

A couple having unprotected intercourse for one year and not able to conceive presents to infertility clinic. Woman has normal menstrual cycle. Semen analysis shows abnormal sperm morphology, low count and normal volume. Best next step would be

13713

Not found in seminal fluid

13714

Aspermia is the term used to describe

13715

If the life style factor that is causing infertility in a young male is identified. Which of the following life style modification will have no effect?

13716

Postcoital test showing non motile sperms in the cervical smear and Motile sperms from the posterior fornix suggests

13717

Fallopian tube dysmotility is seen

13718

A patient treated for infertility with clomisphence citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites, the probable cause is

13719

Fern test is due to

13720

Mamta, a 30-years-old lady examined for infertility by hysterosalpingography, reveals ‘Bead-like’ fallopian tube and clubbing of ampulla. Most likely cause is

13721

Infertility is defined as

13722

All of the following risks are increased in pregnancy achieved by IVF in comparison to normal pregnancy except

13723

In semen banks, semen is preserved at low temperature using

13724

IOC for tubal patency

13725

Pulsatile GnRH is used for treating

13726

The secretion of FSH in a male is inhibited by negative feedback effect of

13727

Sperms attain maturity in

13728

The cells which lie outside blood testis barrier

13729

True about normal sperm count

13730

Absent fructose content in the seminal fluid suggests

13731

Indications of intrauterine insemination (IUI) are all except

13732

Artificial insemination with semen of husband is indicated in all the following situations, except

13733

Most common time for embryo transfer after IVF is

13734

A couple semen analysis report shows oligospermia. Which of the following can be given to increase sperm count

13735

Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation

13736

All are true about hyaline arteriolosclerosis except:

13737

All are true about hyperhomocystinemia except:

13738

Mechanism by which hyperlipidemia contributes to atherogenesis include the following except:

13739

All are true about fatty streaks except:

13740

Most common condition associated with aneurysms of the ascending aorta is:

13741

All are true about Takayasu arteritis except:

13742

All are seen in polyarteritis nodosa except:

13743

Microscopic polyangiitis generally affects capillaries, arterioles &venules. All are true about this disease except:

13744

All are true about capillary haemangioma except:

13745

Which one of the following is most likely to be present in a serum of patient suffering from Polyarteritis Nodosa?

13746

Pathological changes seen in malignant hypertension are termed of

13747

All are true about Kawasaki disease except

13748

Most common cause of ascending thoracic aortic areurysm

13749

Most important independent risk factor for atherosclercosis

13750

Medial calcification of arteries is seen in the following except:

13751

The Most important mitogen for smooth muscle proliferation in atherosclerosis is:

13752

The most common site of involvement of atherosclerotic aneurysm is:

13753

Syphilitic aneurysm mostly involve:

13754

Spontaneous regression can occur with:

13755

All are risk factor for the development of Angiosarcoma except:

13756

All of the antibodies seen are correctly matched except:

13757

Most common artery affected in Takayasu arteritis is:

13758

Granuloma formation is seen in all of the vasculitis except:

13759

Onion skin appearance is seen in blood vessels in:

13760

Most common site of mycotic aneurysm is:

13761

Anti proteinase–3 antibodies are present in:

13762

Features of polyarteritis nodosa is:

13763

Most common cause of death in allergic granulomatosis and angitis is:

13764

Anti proteinase–3 antibodies are seen in:

13765

Cavernous hemingioma of liver are seen in:

13766

Earliest feature of chronic bronchitis is:

13767

All are features of kartagener syndrome except:

13768

Most common coal induced pulmonary lesion is:

13769

Most common manifestation of asbestos exposure is:

13770

Which tumour is commonly associated with asbestosis lung

13771

Enlarged hilar lymph nodes of sarcoidosis show

13772

Lung to lung metastasis is seen in

13773

Spontaneous pneumothorax in young adults is seen in emphysema type

13774

In aspirin induced asthma, attack of asthma occurs due to decrease in protaglandin

13775

Type of emphysema that can be seen in coal worker pneumoconiosis is

13776

Increased susceptibility to tuberculosis is seen in

13777

In sarcoidosis marker of disease activity is the concentration of - in the bronchoalveolar fluid

13778

Most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbation of COPD is

13779

Caseating granulomas like tuberculosis are also seen in lung in

13780

Expression of thyroid transcriptor factor 1 is seen in carcinoma lung

13781

All are true regarding small cell carcinoma except

13782

Pancoast tumors are present in portion of lung

13783

Viral pneumonias are characteristic by the following features except:

13784

The most fibrogenic dust in pneumoconiosis is:

13785

Emphysema associated most often with Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency is:

13786

Inhaled dust particles of the following size are generally eliminated by expectoration:

13787

Caplan syndrome may develop in the following types of pneumoconiosis except:

13788

Canon ball lesions are seen in:

13789

Immobile cillia resulting in poor mucous clearance and frequent chest infections is associated with:

13790

Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?

13791

A homeless alcoholic presents to your emergency department complaining of cough, rigors, pleuritic chest pain, and difficulty breathing. Chest radiograph shows right upper-lobe pneumonia. What organism must be considered?

13792

Bronchoconstriction in bronchial asthma is due to all of the following except:

13793

Charcot-Leyden crystals in sputum of bronchial asthma patient is formed of:

13794

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is an example of hypersensitivity type:

13795

Most common cause of bacterial pneumonia following viral respiratory illness is:

13796

All are true about bronchial asthma except:

13797

All are features of sarcoidosis involving lung except:

13798

True about small cell carcinoma of lung is:

13799

Malignancy mesothelioma is due to the deletion chromosome no:

13800

A 85 years old female had left eye problems including enophthalmos, meiosis, anhidrosis and ptosis. A chest X-Ray showed right upper lobe opacification. Which of the following conditions she is most likely to have?

13801

A 55 year old man has persistent cough, weight loss and clubbing of fingers. X-ray of hand shows new bone formation beneath the periosteum. Which of the following condition is associated with it?

13802

A 8 year old boy has accidently aspirated one of the peanuts while he was eating. One day later, he developed slight dyspnea. A chest CT was done and revealed a hem icircular area of density in the right lower lobe. He had normal blood picture and had no fever. What is the possible diagnosis

13803

Dominant pathological changes in chronic bronchitis is:

13804

Silicosis most commonly affected part of lung is:

13805

All are true about sarcoidosis except:

13806

Most common cause of pneumonia in intravenous drug user is:

13807

In Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome antibodies are formed against:

13808

Most common site of metastatic neoplasm is:

13809

Atopic asthma is type I hypersensitivity reaction. It is due to release of the cytokines except:

13810

Diffuse bronchiectasis mainly affecting upper lobe of lung is seen in:

13811

Highest risk of malignant change in seen in cirrhosis due to:

13812

A chronic alcoholic has an elevated serum alpha fetoprotein levels. Which of the following neoplasms is most likely?

13813

All are true about Hepatitis B serology except:

13814

All are the microscopic changes seen in Hepatitis C except:

13815

All are true about primary biliary cirrhosis except:

13816

All are the risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma except:

13817

Antimitochondrial antibodies are found in:

13818

The marker of high infectivity in Hepatitis B:

13819

The marker of Hepatitis B in the window period:

13820

Peripheral Hepatic necrosis seen in:

13821

Nutmeg liver is seen in:

13822

Exposure to vinyl chloride predisposes to:

13823

Fatty change in alcoholic steatosis is reversible until appearance of:

13824

Mallory denk bodies are seen in all except:

13825

Pathological steatosis is involvement of more than _________ of hepocytes:

13826

Which of the following is correct about hemochromatosis

13827

Wilson disease is due to mutation in gene:

13828

Most common benign liver tumours are:

13829

Acute viral hepatitis by the following hepatotropic virus is characterised by fatty change in liver:

13830

The following conditions have unconjugated hyperbillitrubinaemia except:

13831

Reye syndrome is characterised by the following features except:

13832

In Chronic hepatitis B and carrier state of HBV infection, the following antigen is detected on the nuclei of infected hepatocytes:

13833

In amoebic liver abscess, trophozoites of E. histolytica are best demonstrated at:

13834

Biochemical abnormalities in Wilson disease include the following except:

13835

All are true for fibro lamellar Hepato Cellular Carcinoma except

13836

Which of the following liver tumor has a propensity to invade the portal or hepatic vein?

13837

True about cholangiocarcinoma is:

13838

Onion Skin fibrosis in bile duct is seen in:

13839

Florid duct lesion on microscopic examination is seen in:

13840

Testis is small and atrophic in hemochromatosis. It is due to deposition of iron in:

13841

Leannec cirrhosis is name given to cirrhosis seen in:

13842

Diffuse microvesicular steatosis in liver is seen in all except:

13843

Councilman bodies were discovered in:

13844

Infarct of Zahn is due obstruction of:

13845

Steatosis is seen in:

13846

All are the conditions associated with risk of Budd Chiari Syndrome except:

13847

Most common tumours of liver are:

13848

Alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency most common abnormal type is due to genotype Pizz. This is due to substitution of:

13849

All are the risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma except:

13850

Serological marker of type 2 autoimmune hepatitis is:

13851

Which of the following statements is true for hepatitis A Infection:

13852

Chronic Hepatitis is most likely to occur after acute infection with which of the following virus?

13853

All are true about aminotransferase except:

13854

In cholestasis following enzyme levels are increased except:

13855

In type I autoimmune hepatitis all are the antibodies seen except:

13856

In alcoholic liver disease changes begin in acinus:

13857

All are true about primary sclerosis cholangitis except:

13858

Budd chairi syndrome is due to obstruction of:

13859

Most common liver tumour of childhood:

13860

Most common location of cholangiocarcinoma is:

13861

Xerodermapigmentosum is caused due to a group of closely related abnormalities in

13862

Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by

13863

Autosomal dominant disease with defective DNA repair is

13864

Point mutation in RET proto oncogene can cause all of the following except

13865

ERBB1 gene is over expressed in

13866

Most common abnormality of proto oncogenes in human tumors is

13867

Li fraumeni syndrome is due to mutation in the gene

13868

PTEN gene is associated with the following cancer expect

13869

UV-B light causes cancer due to formation of

13870

All are B cell tumors caused by Epstein Barr virus except

13871

Clubbing of fingers is seen in

13872

Grading of cancer is based on

13873

CA 19-9 is a tumor marker for

13874

bcr-abl translocation involves:

13875

First tumour suppressor gene to be discovered was:

13876

Guardian of genome refers to:

13877

Microsatellite instability is hall mark of which gene type?

13878

Most common paraneoplastic manifestation is:

13879

Desmoplasia in tumour is:

13880

Hamartoma refers to:

13881

Paraneoplastic opsoclonus myoclonus ataxia syndrome is seen in:

13882

Neuron specific enolase is tumour marker of:

13883

Skin cancers develop due to sunlight exposure by:

13884

Cancer cells drives energy from:

13885

Endometrial carcinoma: Which of the following tumour suppressor gene can cause?

13886

E cadherin gene deficiency is seen in:

13887

BRCA–1 gene is located on:

13888

Oncogenic potential of HPV is due to formation of oncoproteins:

13889

Choristoma is:

13890

During a routine pelvic examination, a 25 year old female was found to have an enlarged uterus. Ultrasound showed a multiloculated cystic structure in the uterine cavity. The mass was removed by dilatation curettage of the uterus and it showed placental like tissue. Which tumor marker is helpful in diagnosis and prognosis?

13891

Grading of tumours depends on the following except:

13892

The most important feature in differentiating a malignant from a benign tumour

13893

A study is performed to analyze characteristics of malignant neoplasms in biopsy specimens. Of the following microscopic findings, which is most likely to Indicate that the neoplasm is malignant

13894

It is observed that some neoplasms appear to develop from viral oncogenesis, Which of the following neoplasms is most likely to arise In this manner

13895

Following neoplasm is invasive but does not spread by metastasis:

13896

Thyroid transcription factor-1(TTF-1) is a tumour marker of:

13897

CA 27-29 is a tumour marker of carcinoma:

13898

Dermoid cyst in ovary is an example of:

13899

True about anaplasia is:

13900

All of the following genes are involved in breast cancer except:

13901

Most common nuclear transcription factor affected in human tumours is:

13902

Gate Keeper of Colonic Neoplasia is gene:

13903

Epstein Barr virus infects the B cell through the receptor:

13904

In lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome antibodies are seen against:

13905

Lactate dehydrogenase is a tumour marker of:

13906

All of the following virus can cause hematopoietic tumour except:

13907

All are true about anaplasia except:

13908

Gene now called as New Guardian of Genome is:

13909

Over expression of Proto oncogene ERBB-2 is seen in:

13910

Most common oncogene mutation involved in human cancer:

13911

Over expression of bcl2 is seen in:

13912

Most common malignancy associated with Epstein–Barr virus is:

13913

All are correctly matched except:

13914

Desmoplasia is seen in:

13915

Elevated alpha fetoprotein level is seen in all of the following except:

13916

5-year-old boy presents with recent history of bruising easily. There is past history of upper respiratory tract infection two weeks back which resolved spontaneously. He is afebrile with some petechiae. Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time is normal. Most likely diagnosis is

13917

15 month old child has a fever of 38.50C. He has had a runny nose, cough and a fever for 3 days. There is increased heart rate. He has rash present all are the body which does not disappear with pressure. Most likely diagnosis

13918

15 months old boy has received mumps, measles and rubella vaccination. He has no medical problems, no allergies and is not currently on any medication. Most appropriate next step in the pain management is:

13919

Child was diagnosed as having beta Thalassemia major and splenectomy was done. In such a child:

13920

Child is on immunosuppressive therapy for renal transplantation. True regarding vaccination in this child is:

13921

Vaccination schedule of Rota virus vaccine should be completed by age:

13922

Vaccines containing adjuvants should be given by route:

13923

2 years old boy while attending birthday party suddenly developed a widespread urticarial rash and has become flushed in the face. His vital signs are normal and have no respiratory compromise. Medication required to be given is:

13924

3 years old child had taken 10 iron tablets. On examination he is talkative, has no other medical problems. He is normally not any medication. First investigation to be done is:

13925

In which age range is greatest childhood mortality seen

13926

4 month old baby girl has history of constant crying and poor feeding. She is fed by bottle and infant formula. Mother complains it is difficult for her to cope. Development of child, growth and physical examination are normal. Most likely cause of problem is:

13927

Child is having complement deficiency. All of the following vaccine are contraindicated:

13928

Recommended indications for use of intravenous immunoglobulin in children is:

13929

Indications for renal biopsy in a 10-year-old child with nephrotic syndrome is

13930

Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in

13931

Concentration of adrenaline with local anesthetics

13932

False statement regarding regional nerve blocks in children

13933

What is the safe time after which central neuraxial block can be given after low molecular weight heparin?

13934

Most common S/E of spinal

13935

Maximum neurotoxicity after central neuraxial blocks is seen with

13936

Most common cause of hypoxia for double lumen tube:

13937

Carbon is added to mask and bag

13938

Sterilization method of choice for airways

13939

Murphy eye is seen in

13940

High pressure low volume is characteristic of

13941

Artificial nose is

13942

All of the following increase dead space except:

13943

Maximum cardiac arrest occur during

13944

Most common cause of anaphylactic reactions in perioperative period

13945

Most commonly injured nerve during anesthesia

13946

Venous air embolism is a complication of

13947

Malignant hyperthermia is seen with

13948

Max decrease in vital capacity occurs in

13949

Most common post operative complication in recovery room

13950

Risk factor for pulmonary aspiration does not include

13951

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia includes all except

13952

Not seen in malignant hyperthermia

13953

Malignant hyperthermia is because of abnormality of

13954

All of the following increase the chances of aspiration except

13955

All of the following are contraindications for bag and mask ventilation except:

13956

Which of the following drug causes cochleo toxicity:

13957

Flamingo pink appearance of tympanic membrane is seen in:

13958

Ossicles lever ratio is:

13959

Endolymph secreted by:

13960

A patient has Rinne test positive for left ear and weber test is lateralized to right ear, what type of deafness may be seen in this case?

13961

Carhart notch in audiometry is seen in:

13962

Most common cause of otomycosis is:

13963

Site for placing an electrode in auditory brain stem implant is:

13964

Hallpike maneuver is done for:

13965

Meniere disease is manifested by all of the following symptoms EXCEPT:

13966

CSF Otorrhea is due to trauma of:

13967

Eustachian tube develops from:

13968

Otomycosis is commonly caused by:

13969

Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part of the semicircular canals:

13970

Recruitment phenomenon is seen in:

13971

Tobey-Ayer test is done for:

13972

A patient hears better in noise. The diagnosis is:

13973

Referred ear pain in a patient of base of tongue malignancy is due to?

13974

Eustachian tube opens due to contraction of which of the following muscles:

13975

Sensory supply of middle ear cavity is by:

13976

Jacobson nerve is a branch of

13977

Tensor tympani muscle attaches to which ossicle

13978

A newborn with bilateral microtia should be operated at what age?

13979

Narrowest part of middle ear is:

13980

Total Surface area of tympanic membrane

13981

Meningitis spreads from CNS to Inner ear through

13982

All are true about tympanic membrane except:

13983

Which of the following is not an ototoxic drug

13984

In which of the following conditions, cortical mastoidectomy is indicated:

13985

DOC for malignant otitis externa is:

13986

A 38 years old man had labyrinthine fistula with positive fistula sign. Two weeks later fistula sign became negative without any treatment. Which of the following will be the Rinne test (tuning fork e) finding

13987

A young man met with an accident leading to loss of hearing in the right ear. On otoscopy examination the tympanic membrane was intact. Pure tone audiometry showed AB gap of 55 dB on the right ear with normal cochlear reserve. Which of the following will be probable tympanometry finding

13988

During evoked potential study of brain stem, wave V corresponds to:

13989

A 23 years old patient has fever with chills and headache since 7-8 days. Patient gives history of purulent ear discharge on and off. He has retro-orbital pain. On examination he has mild ptosis. What is the likely diagnosis?

13990

A 27 year old pregnant female patient has bilateral conductive deafness, tinnitus with positive family history. The diagnosis is

13991

Hypoesthesia over the area of posterosuperior aspect of the external auditory canal (Hitzelberger sign) is feature of:

13992

A 38 year old gentleman reports of decreased hearing in the Left ear for the last two years. On testing with a 512 Hz tuning fork the Rinne test [without masking] is negative on the left ear and positive on the right ear. With the Weber test the tone is perceived as louder in the right ear. The most likely patient has:

13993

Multiple perforations in TM are seen in

13994

Commonest complication of CSOM

13995

PARACUSSIS is seen in

13996

The following is seen in glue ear

13997

Most reliable landmark in OTOSCOPY

13998

Utricle detects:

13999

Weber test is best ellicitedby:

14000

What is type of joints between the ossicles of ear marked by arrow?

14001

Identify the space marked with an arrow in the figure:

14002

Identify the boundary of trautmann triangle marked in the diagram with an arrow?

14003

Politzer bag maneuver is used to test:

14004

Prussak space is bounded below by?

14005

What test is being done on the child?

14006

Patient presents with severe hearing loss. For the amount of decibel loss he has, which of the following sound can be heard by him?

14007

Impedance Audiometric response in Serous Otitis Media:

14008

A steel worker presented with noise induced hearing loss, which part of inner ear is most likely affected?

14009

Gelles test is done in?

14010

Gold Standard Treatment for intractable vertigo in a Patient of Meniere disease is:

14011

Caloric test was done on right side with cold water. Eyes moved to the opposite side. Which of the following corresponds to correct interpretation of nystagmus in this test?

14012

A person presented to OPD with complaints of rotatory vertigo and nausea in the morning on change in position of the head. What is your diagnosis?

14013

Barotraumatic otitis media is a result of:

14014

Which of the following is a cochleotoxic drug:

14015

The incision used in endomeatal approach to the ear is

14016

High frequency sound waves are given to test auditory function in

14017

Site for placing an electrode in  auditory brain stem implant is:

14018

A 35 years old female patient present with hearing loss with improvement in hearing in noisy environment. On examination Rinne is negative and weber is centralized. Following is the audiometry report. What is the most likely diagnosis:

14019

Name the maneuver shown in the image:

14020

Nerve supply of the area marked by Black arrow is?

14021

Which of the following is least likely to be seen in association with a longitudinal temporal bone fracture?

14022

DOC for malignant otitis externa is:

14023

Identify the structure marked X?

14024

Iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused during:

14025

Otosclerosis is a hereditary disease that affects women and men at a ratio of:

14026

All of the following are developed up to the adult size at birth except:

14027

The incision used in endomeatal approach to the ear is

14028

Weber test is best elicited by:

14029

High frequency sound waves are given to test auditory function in

14030

In which of the following conditions, cortical mastoidectomy is indicated:

14031

Why is it preferable to perform a stapedotomy with the patient under local anaesthesia?

14032

Otosclerosis is a hereditary disease that affects women and men at a ratio of:

14033

What is the most common site of fixation of the stapes?

14034

Which of the following cochlear components is most sensitive to acoustic overstimulation?

14035

The frequency region first affected by habitual exposure to excessive sound is typically ________ kHz

14036

Which recently discovered objective measure of cochlear function promises to be capable of detecting noise-induced hearing loss at an early stage of development that precedes detection by the pure-tone audiogram?

14037

False about Meniere Disease

14038

Bezold abscess results when mastoid infection

14039

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of acute serous labyrinthitis?

14040

Politzer bag maneuver used to test:

14041

Patient presents with severe hearing loss. For the amount of decibel loss he has, which of the following sound can be heard by him?

14042

False regarding hearing assessment in newborn:

14043

Findings of BERA in vestibular schwannoma:

14044

Impedance Audiometric response in serous otitis media:

14045

Columella effect is seen in which type of tympanoplasty

14046

A steel worker presented with noise induced hearing loss, which part of inner ear is most likely affected?

14047

Which of the following represents lateral semicircular canal during cortical mastoidectomy:

14048

Which of the following regarding the given image is false?

14049

Identify the given PTA audiogram?

14050

A 27 year old pregnant patient presented with complaint of worsening of hearing since the onset of pregnancy. On PTA the following graph was obtained, Which of the following statement regarding the disease is true?

14051

The treatment of choice for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:

14052

A male trauma patient admitted to hospital with clear watery discharge from nose. Glucose level in the discharge was about 65 mg/dl. What is the possible diagnosis?

14053

Young operation is done in:

14054

Which of the following arteries is a branch of ICA in Kiesselbach plexus:

14055

Caldwell view is best for:

14056

Young operation is done for:

14057

Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in:

14058

MC malignancy of maxillary antrum is:

14059

Young operation done in:

14060

Optic nerve injury following sinus surgery is due to removal of which ethmoidal cells?

14061

Target sign is seen in?

14062

A 14 year male presents with recurrent spontaneous bleeding from left nose. On examination a pink mass covered with mucosa is found in the Nasopharynx. Which of the following is not to be done?

14063

Rhinolalia clausa occurs in all except

14064

A patient presented after RTA with left sided epistaxis and diplopia. On performing CT scan following finding is noted. What would be the cause for Diplopia?

14065

Quadripod fracture is seen in

14066

What structure is visible in the wall of the sphenoid sinus?

14067

The frontal sinus is fully developed by _____ year(s) of age

14068

The uncinate process is a portion of which bone?

14069

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is classically associated with all of the following except:

14070

Which of the following nasal arteries arises from the internal carotid artery?

14071

In which situation is immunotherapy least appropriate?

14072

In managing nasal fractures

14073

Which of the following is not the branch of external carotid artery in Kiesselbach plexus?

14074

Which of the following sinus grows till early adulthood

14075

Identify the Air cell shown in the CT scan of Nose and Paranasal Sinus:

14076

All of the following are seen when superior laryngeal nerve is damaged EXCEPT:

14077

All of the following muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT:

14078

Most common site for laryngeal web is:

14079

Most common cause of facial nerve palsy:

14080

15 years old presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination a right neck swelling is noted posterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle with right tonsil shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:

14081

Juvenile recurrent laryngeal papillomatosis is caused by:

14082

Inspiratory stridor is seen in lesions of:

14083

Ludwig angina occurs due to infection of:

14084

Pharyngeal bursa infections leads to:

14085

Which cranial nerves affected in Mobius syndrome?

14086

What is the tensor of vocal cords:

14087

During acute tonsillitis pain in the ear due to effects of which nerve:

14088

Nasopharyngeal chordoma arises from:

14089

High tracheostomy is done in:

14090

Which of the following is true about Torus tubarius?

14091

Which of the following is true regarding Singer nodule?

14092

Angiofibroma bleeds profusely because:

14093

Laryngocele arises from:

14094

Which of the following structures develop from the Area marked with Arrow in Diagram

14095

A patient presented with 2 days history of fever. On examination there was a swelling in the neck and one side tonsil was pushed to midline. What is the most likely diagnosis:

14096

Trotter triad consists of all of the following except:

14097

All of the following are extrinsic laryngeal membranes/ligaments, except:

14098

Neutral position of Vocal cord is:

14099

In Peritonsillar abscess pain is referred to the ear by:

14100

Best patient position for Ryle tube insertion

14101

What is the symptom of a person with unilateral abductor paralysis:

14102

All of the following is seen in superior laryngeal nerve palsy EXCEPT:

14103

Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all EXCEPT:

14104

Most common tumor from Rathke Pouch

14105

Long term complication in a child with upper respiratory blockage due to enlarged tonsils and Adenoids:

14106

Androphonia can be corrected by doing:

14107

A 2 years old child presents with c/o fever, barking cough and stridor for 2 days, what is the diagnosis

14108

Which of the following nerve is damaged in Frey syndrome:

14109

Ludwig angina occurs due to infection of:

14110

Pharyngeal bursa infections leads to:

14111

What is the tensor of vocal cords:

14112

Nasopharyngeal chordoma arises from:

14113

High tracheostomy is done in:

14114

Which of the following is true regarding Singer nodule?

14115

A 2 months old child who was born by normal delivery to a primigravida lady presented with below hoarseness and below finding on Laryngoscopy. What could be possible diagnosis?

14116

An unimmunized 2 years old girl presents with high grade fever and sore throat. On examination she is toxic in appearance and having bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. Throat examination showed below finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14117

Dohlman surgery in Zenkers diverticulum is

14118

The following instrument is being used by the patient for:

14119

All of the following are Topodiagnsotic tests of Facial nerve except:

14120

A patient facial nerve is transected in the cerebellopontine angle. Electric stimulation over the stylomastoid foramen will fail to elicit facial movement

14121

In addition to facial nerve paralysis, the most common finding in Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is

14122

Key-hole appearance of glottis is seen on laryngoscopy in:

14123

A three year old boy gets high fever then associated with difficulty in swallowing and strider, the resident pediatrician sent for lateral X-ray Soft Tissue Neck. Which of the following sign is seen on X-ray:

14124

All of the following are Topodiagnsotic tests of Facial nerve except:

14125

Iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused during:

14126

True about Gradenigo syndrome are all except

14127

The earliest feature of tuberculosis of vocal cords is?

14128

Identify the Cartilage marked by arrow:

14129

Zenker diverticula are also known as ___________ diverticula

14130

Inspiratory stridor tends to occur when there is an obstruction:

14131

A cricothyrotomy is indicated for

14132

Which site in the larynx is most commonly affected by tuberculosis?

14133

Androphonia can be corrected by doing:

14134

Method of speech communication after laryngectomy include all except:

14135

Tonsillectomy is indicated in:

14136

Treatment of Choice for Ca Glottis T3N0M0:

14137

Moure sign can be detected in:

14138

Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid:

14139

Abductor of vocal cord is:

14140

Neutral position of Vocal cord is:

14141

In Peritonsillar abscess pain is referred to the ear by:

14142

An infant is brought with inspiratory stridor, increasing during effort and relieving on placing child prone. Laryngoscopy revels following finding: All of the following things about the above disease are true except:

14143

All are true regarding following condition of vocal folds except?

14144

A three year old boy gets high fever then associated with difficulty in swallowing and strider, the resident pediatrician sent for lateral X-ray Soft Tissue Neck. Which of the following sign is seen on Xray:

14145

Columella Tympanoplasty is

14146

Anti SS-A and Anti SS-B are mainly seen in

14147

Visceral lesions in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus represent

14148

Antibodies specific for drug-induced lupus erythematosis include

14149

Most commonly Graft versus host disease occurs in transplantation of

14150

All are the features of acute graft versus host disease except:

14151

All antibodies are presents in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus except:

14152

In CREST syndrome antibodies present are:

14153

Most common gene involved in autoimmunity is

14154

In Systemic Lupus Erythematosus following manifestations are seen except

14155

All are true in hyper IgM syndrome except:

14156

In type II hypersensitivity reaction, antibody causes the disease. There is inflammation seen in:

14157

All are the example of T cell mediated hypersensitivity except:

14158

All are true about Anti-RO antibodies seen in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus except:

14159

Most common pulmonary manifestations of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is:

14160

All are the examples of type II hypersensitivity reaction except:

14161

Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of hypersensitivity type:

14162

Autoantibody specific for SLE include:

14163

In Sjogrens syndrome there is increased risk of:

14164

Most of the systemic lesions in the systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are due to

14165

All are the examples of type II hypersensitivity reaction except

14166

Cell type which lacks HLA antigen is:

14167

True about MHC:

14168

Type IV hypersensitivity is:

14169

Epithelial granuloma is caused by:

14170

Transfusion reaction and erythroblastosis fetalis are:

14171

Which is not a type III hypersensitivity reaction:

14172

Type IV hypersensitivity:

14173

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins:

14174

Eosinophils are activated by:

14175

Hyperacute rejection is due to:

14176

Antinuclear antibody specific for SLE is:

14177

Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with:

14178

Anti-U1 RNP antibody is seen in:

14179

Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia:

14180

The commonest primary immunodeficiency is:

14181

Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in the following except:

14182

Light microscopic appearance of amyloid after staining with hematoxylin and eosin is:

14183

Mutant form of transthyretin (TTR) cause

14184

Carpal tunnel syndrome is seen in

14185

All are features of primary systemic amyloidosis except:

14186

Amyloid found in cerebral lesion of Alzheimer disease is formed of:

14187

Light microscope appearance of amyloid after staining with congo red is:

14188

Sago spleen is due to deposition of amyloid in:

14189

Cardiac amyloidosis causes cardiomyopathy of type:

14190

Familial amyloidosis is most common due to accumulation of:

14191

In AL type of amyloidosis, amyloid deposition can be seen in all organs except:

14192

All are true about AB2M amyloidosis except:

14193

In sub-acute bacterial endocarditis type of amyloidosis seen in:

14194

Amyloid is deposited primarily in the kidney in:

14195

Most common cause of death in secondary amyloidosis is:

14196

Most common form of localised amyloidosis is:

14197

Pathognomonic of primary systemic amyloidosis is:

14198

Diagnosis of familial amyloidosis–ATTR is confirmed by:

14199

Most frequently affected organ in AL amyloidosis is:

14200

Type of amyloidosis seen in renal cell carcinoma is of type:

14201

In amyloidosis beta pleated sheet will be seen in:

14202

Amyloidosis is seen in all of the following except:

14203

Most commonly secondary amyloidosis is associated with:

14204

In Sjogren syndrome biopsy of the parotid gland shows:

14205

All are true regarding neonatal lupus except:

14206

All are true about risk factor of squamous cell carcinoma of oesophagus except:

14207

All are true about H pylori gastritis except:

14208

True about lintis plastica of stomach is:

14209

Commonest site of pleomorphic adenoma is:

14210

Following are predisposing factors for oesophageal Ca except:

14211

The pathological type of cancer stomach which is most malignant is:

14212

Most common malignant salivary gland tumour is:

14213

Malignant salivary gland tumour that commonly spreads along the nerves is:

14214

Barrett oesophagus predisposes to development of:

14215

H Pylorigastritis has the following features except:

14216

H pylori colonisation of gastric mucosa is implicated in the following disease except:

14217

The adenocarcinoma of esophagus developed in:

14218

Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma?

14219

Gastrointestinal stromal malignancy arises from which of the following:

14220

Which of the following is a specific marker for GIST?

14221

Which of the following is true about Barret oesophagus?

14222

In pernicious anaemia, antibody is formed against:

14223

Not true about GIST:

14224

Smoking increases the incidence of salivary gland tumour:

14225

All are the characteristic of autoimmune gastritis except:

14226

A 68 year old female has suffered from burning substernal pain for many years. This pain occurs after meal. She now has dysphagia. Endoscopy reveals a lower esophageal mass that nearly ocdudes the esophageal lumen. Biopsy of the mass is most likely to reveal which of the following neoplasm

14227

Which salivary gland is the most frequent site for tumor involvement?

14228

Diffuse gastric cancer is associated with:

14229

All are the features of H pylori gastritis except:

14230

H Pylori gastritis:

14231

A patient develops anemia and weight loss and slight abdominal discomfort. On questioning, the patient is a known case of chronic gastritis. Which of the following type of malignancy is most strongly associated with this condition of patient?

14232

Chronic gastritis is caused by all except:

14233

Endoscopic biopsy from a case of H. Pylori related  ulcer is most likely to reveal:

14234

Pathological changes seen in celiac disease is:

14235

All are true about Crohn disease except:

14236

Incidence of which extra intestinal manifestation is more in ulcerative colitis as compared to Crohn disease:

14237

All are true about peutz jeghers polyps except:

14238

Turcot syndrome is combination of adenomatous colonic polyposis and:

14239

Familial adenomatous polyposis is due to mutation in the gene adenomatous polyposis coli. It is located on chromosome no:

14240

Skip lesions are characteristics of:

14241

Villous atrophy is diagnostic of:

14242

Carcinoma right colon is most commonly:

14243

Following are skin manifestation of IBD except:

14244

Rota virus mainly infects the following cell in the human intestine:

14245

A 26 years old man with numerous epidermal cysts of the skin and a solitary osteoma of the jaw and numerous adenomatous polyps of the small and large intestines is suffering from:

14246

Crohn disease is characterized by the following histo-pathologic features except:

14247

Long-standing cases of crohn disease may develop the following complication except:

14248

All are hamartomatous polyps except:

14249

Which of the following is not familial polyposis syndrome?

14250

Which one the following conditions commonly predisposes to colonic carcinoma?

14251

Which statement is false regarding familial adenomatous polyposis?

14252

Which of the following is a histological feature of Whipple disease?

14253

Gluten sensitive entropathy is most strongly associated with:

14254

Which of the following organ is not involved in Whipple disease?

14255

Which of the following would be the best morphological feature to distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn disease?

14256

Peutz–Jegher polyp is an example of:

14257

The most common site for amoebiasis:

14258

A female patient has severe arthritis involving the lower back. Before making a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis, the patient should be questioned by the physician about which of the following disease?

14259

All are true about non caseating granulomas in Crohn disease except:

14260

Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in:

14261

Features of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all except:

14262

Transmural involvement and granuloma are seen in:

14263

Not true about familial polyposis colon cancer syndrome:

14264

Most common celiac disease associated cancer is:

14265

Metastatic Crohn disease is the name given to the features:

14266

Extraintestinal manifestation more common in ulcerative colitis as compared to Crohn disease is:

14267

Biopsy is required for diagnosis in all of the malabsorption syndrome except:

14268

Seromarker specific for crohn disease is:

14269

Epitheloid like giant cells are seen in:

14270

STK 11 mutation are seen in intestinal polyp:

14271

Most common site of metastatic lesion in adenocarcinoma of colon is:

14272

Autoimmune gastritis is characterized by diffuse mucosal damage of the oxyntic mucosa in:

14273

All are the dermatologic manifestation seen in inflammatory bowel disease except:

14274

All are the antibodies in Crohn disease except:

14275

All are the features of Crohn disease except:

14276

All are the pathological changes seen in celiac disease except:

14277

A patient has had years of intermittent diarrhea and abdominal pain, but has never consulted a physician. Eventually he begins to pass fecal material in his urine and he seeks medical attention. Which one of the following diseases is most likely to cause this complication?

14278

A 57 year old woman with anemia is found to have a decreased Vitamin B12 level. Antibodies to intrinsic factor are identified. Levels of all other vitamins are within normal limits. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

14279

Chronic Gastritis is associated with:

14280

Classic lesion of crohns disease is

14281

Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with:

14282

Microdeletion leading to instability of DNA, causing the cell to undergo degeneration is seen as a marker in which cancer:

14283

Multiple epidermoid cysts are seen in:

14284

Most distinctive feature of Fragile X syndrome is

14285

Single mutant gene leading to many end effects is called

14286

True about autosomal recessive disorder are all except

14287

Heritable change in gene expression which are not caused by alterations in DNA sequence are called

14288

Average amount of DNA sequences shared between any two individuals is

14289

Failure of dominant gene to express in heterozygous condition is

14290

In autosomal recessive disorder if one parent is carrier and other is suffering from disease, recurrence risk is

14291

If one parent is carrier of Autosomal Recessive disorder and other is normal and child suffers From disease, then it is due to

14292

Father to son transmission of disease is suggestive of

14293

An affected male does not transmit the disorder to his sons and all daughters are carriers. Pattern of inheritance is

14294

An inversion involving only one arm of the chromosome is known as

14295

Robertsonian translocation is between two chromosome which are

14296

Presence of both wild type and mutant mitochondrial DNA in a person is called

14297

Angelman syndrome is due to

14298

Inheritance of disease to next generation is only possible through females. The probable inheritance is:

14299

Genetic disorder xeroderma pigmentosum is due to error in:

14300

Pattern of inheritance seen where roughly equal ratio of males and females affected, just seen in a single generation, consanguinity may be seen:

14301

In female suffering from fragile X syndrome true is:

14302

8 year old female child had color blindness. Next step in investigation is:

14303

Selective inactivation of maternal or paternal allele is called:

14304

Complete or partial monosomy of X chromosome with hypogonadism in phenotypic females is seen in:

14305

Which of the following results from mutation in mitochondrial gene?

14306

Deletion at both ends of chromosome leads to formation of:

14307

A woman with one gene for haemophilia and one gene for color blindness on one of the X chromosome marries a normal man. How will the progeny be:

14308

A gene showing co dominance:

14309

Turner syndrome does not occur in males (44+y) because:

14310

Queen Victoria was carrier of haemophilia, a sex linked disease. What is true?

14311

Mitochondrial inheritance mainly involves the organs mostly dependent on oxidative phosphorylation. These includes:

14312

In trinucleotide repeat mutation true is:

14313

Skipped generation in autosomal dominant disorder is due to all except:

14314

All are X linked recessive disorders except:

14315

Digeorge (Velocardio Facial) syndrome is involvement of chromosome no:

14316

Out of the following which metabolic disorder has dominant inheritance?

14317

An albino girl gets married to a normal boy, what are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers?

14318

Most common cardiac anomaly seen in turner syndrome is

14319

A 14 year old boy is brought with history of poor scholastic performance, poor social interaction with family and peers and hyperactive behavior. Clinically, he has large ears, a prominent jaw and testicular volume of 36cc bilaterally. IQ testing shows his IQ to be 75

14320

Pregnant female with hemophilic A husband come to OPD. What is the risk of hemophilia in child

14321

Some individuals manifest the gene mildly and some severely. It is called:

14322

All are the features of Edward syndrome except:

14323

Histocompatilibity antigens are the example of which mode of inheritance?

14324

In autosomal dominant inheritance some individuals inherit the mutant gene but are phenotypically normal. This is called:

14325

All are the true about autosomal recessive disorders except:

14326

Cells having chromosome complement not exact multiple of 23 are called aneuploidy. It is due to:

14327

Most common isochromosome present in live birth is involving the:

14328

All are true about genomic imprinting except:

14329

Ramesh and Nidhi are apparently normal, but their daughter was born with alkaoptonuria, an inherited metabolic disorder. The probability of their next child being born with alkaptonuria is:

14330

The most common phenotype in a natural population is referred to as the:

14331

What is the probability that a male will inherit an X linked recessive gene from his father:

14332

When the mutation alters the meaning of genetic code it is called as:

14333

Why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, more numerous than individuals with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16:

14334

Following karyotype is not compatible with survival to birth:

14335

Most common cystic fibrosis mutation consists of:

14336

Most common Robertsonian translocation seen in Down syndrome is which chromosome number:

14337

A colour blind mother and normal father would have:

14338

Autosomal recessive traits are:

14339

All are autosomal dominant except:

14340

Female is affected, male is not. Disease is autosomal dominant, what is the chance in children:

14341

Sickle cell anemia is an example of:

14342

Two siblings with achondroplasia, but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is:

14343

True statement about inheritances of X-linked recessive trait is:

14344

Poor prognostic factor in myocardial infarction includes all except:

14345

In chronic rheumatoid heart disease least common finding is:

14346

Hemochromotosis result in which type of cardiomyopathy?

14347

All are true about cardiac rhabdomyomas except:

14348

True about nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis is:

14349

Which of the following is the basic abnormity that produced SLE cardiac vegetations?

14350

Which of the following changes is a frequent consequence of chronic rheumatic fever

14351

The most likely change to be the first visible gross evidence for the formation of an atheroma is

14352

MacCullum Patch appears in the region of:

14353

Chronic alcoholism is associated with:

14354

Earliest light microscopic change in myocardial infarction is:

14355

Most common cause of left sided cardiac failure is:

14356

In hypertensive heart disease left ventricular hypertrophy is correlated with:

14357

Anitschkow cells are believed to be derivative of:

14358

Vegetation of the followings types of endocarditis is generally not friable except that of:

14359

Dilated cardiomyopathy is seen in all except

14360

Spider cells are seen in

14361

True regarding libman sack endocarditis is

14362

Cause of infective endocarditis after gastrointestinal or genitourinary manipulation is

14363

Least commonly valve affected in rheumatic heat disease

14364

Least common site of rupture after myocardial infarction

14365

All are the findings seen in left sided heart failure except

14366

Right heart failure is predominantly characterised by the following except:

14367

Infarcts are least common in:

14368

Atheromatous changes of blood vessels affects early in:

14369

Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in:

14370

Troponin-T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute MI in all of the following situations except:

14371

What is the mechanism of acute rheumatic fever?

14372

Diagnostic feature in rheumatic heart disease is:

14373

Which type of endocarditis has vegetation on both sides of the valve?

14374

Site of lesion in endocarditis of rheumatic heart disease:

14375

Tigered effect in myocardium is due to:

14376

All are features of right-sided heart failure except:

14377

Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis is:

14378

All are true about vegetation seen in nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis except:

14379

Type of cardiomyopathy seen in Friedrich ataxia is:

14380

Least common cardiac tumour seen is:

14381

Which is the fourth in the following sequence of events:

14382

Which of the two valves listed below is least commonly associated with rheumatic heart disease?

14383

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis is most frequently associated with which of the following conditions?

14384

A 61 year old male develops severe chest pain. He is diagnosed as a case of myocardial infarction after investigatIons. One week later he again complains of precordial pain, this time with fever and a loud friction rub. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14385

The leading cause of mortality in lschaemic heart disease is sudden death which is due to:

14386

A 65 year old man developed myocardial infarction in the posterior wall of the left ventricle. Which of the following pathologic findings would most likely be seen in the left ventricle 1 month later

14387

Biatrial dilation is seen in cardiomyopathy type:

14388

All are the feature of left ventricular failure except:

14389

Hallmark feature of right sided heart failure is:

14390

Well-formed granulation tissue is seen in myocardial infarction on day:

14391

All are true about cardiac rhabdomyomas except:

14392

Most common cause of infective endocarditis after open heart surgery is:

14393

Universal finding in rheumatic carditis is:

14394

A young female presented with a right side thyroid nodule and was operated. A thyroid nodule was resected and the following histology is seen with cells having ground glass appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14395

In diabetes cellular injury results from glycosylation end products and sorbitol collection in cells. The same patient has atherosclerosis. Which of the following complication is due to atherosclerosis:

14396

45 year old female has low grade fever and pain in her neck for 3 days. On examination there is enlarged thyroid. On biopsy of the thyroid gland reveals granulomatous inflammation and the presence of giant cells. Most likely diagnosis is:

14397

33 year old female presented with swelling in her neck. On examination there is nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid. On congo red stained here is birefringent amyloid stroma. Most likely diagnosis is:

14398

55 year old male had renal transplantation 3 years ago. He was started on glucocorticoids therapy to prevent the rejection of transplantation. He came to the hospital for screening and the adrenal biopsy was done. Most likely finding to be present is:

14399

45 year old female, has complaints of weakness and restless. She complains of her skin seems darker, although she rarely goes outside because she is too tired for outdoor activities. On physical examination, she is a febrile and her blood pressure is 85/50 mm/Hg. On chest radiography shows no abnormal findings. Most likely diagnosis is:

14400

50 year old male has type 1 diabetes since he was 12 year of age. Pancreatic biopsy of this patient would exhibit which one of the following:

14401

31 year old female, who has two healthy children, came with history of amenorrhea for the past 6 months. Pregnancy test is negative and for last 2 weeks there is milk production from her breasts. There is history of headaches for the past 3 months and there is also difficulty in vision. Most likely diagnosis is:

14402

77 year old female has diffuse, symmetrical thyroid enlargement without tenderness. She is hypertensive, thyroidectomy is performed, immunostaining for calcitonin is positive and neoplasm has an amyloid stroma with congo red staining. Most likely thyroid neoplasm is:

14403

26 year old primigravida has vaginal bleeding after the onset of labour at 38 weeks gestation. She was diagnosed placenta previa and caesarean section was done. She remained hypotensive for shows and 8 units of packed RBC were transfused. Postpartum she is unable to breast fed the infant. She has become more sluggish and tired. Which of the following pathologic lesions is she most likely to have had following delivery:

14404

50 year old male came with the presence of bone pain and hands for the past 6 months. On physical examination there is no swelling or redness of his hands, no joint deformity. Laboratory studies show calcium 7.8mg/dL and phosphorous 5.7mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present:

14405

30 year old female has weight gain of 5 kg over the past 6 months. She has normal menstrual periods. She is hypertensive, skin shows marked plethora and abdominal strial are present. On laboratory studies blood glucose is 181mg/dL. Which of the following is most likely to be present:

14406

30 year old female has had 7 kg weight loss over the past 6 months without trying to lose weight. On examination hands are warm and tremulous. Pulse rate is 105/minute and blood pressure 135/75 mmHg. Most probable diagnosis is:

14407

60 year old female has diffuse, dull, constant abdominal pain for the past 2 months. On physical examination there are no abnormal findings present. On abdominal CT a 3 cm right adrenal mass is present. Which of the following features is the most reliable indicator that the mass is malignant:

14408

40 year old female has painless swelling of her neck for the past 2 months. On physical examination there is diffuse enlargement of thyroid. On laboratory studies there is an increased titer of anti-thyroid peroxidase and anti thyrobulin antibodies. Which of the following complication is she most likely to develop:

14409

All are the true about insulinoma except:

14410

Necrolytic migratory erythema is seen in:

14411

Orphan Annie eye nuclei appearance is seen in carcinoma type:

14412

All are true regarding Hashimoto thyroiditis except:

14413

Most common endogenous cause of Cushing syndrome is:

14414

Definitive diagnosis of malignancy in pheochromocytoma is based on presence of:

14415

Sipple syndrome (MENIIA) is characterized by all of the following except:

14416

Conn syndrome causes hyperaldosteronism. It is due to:

14417

Crooke hyaline change seen in pituitary in Cushing syndrome is due to deposition of:

14418

Most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism is:

14419

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with which of the following syndrome:

14420

All are involved in MEN type IIA except:

14421

Most common thyroid cancer associated with Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2A and 2B:

14422

Which of these thyroid cancers cannot be diagnosed by Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology?

14423

The most common cause of Addison disease is:

14424

Zellballen pattern on histopathology is observed in:

14425

Malignancy in pheochromocytoma is indicated by:

14426

The HLA important in IDDM is:

14427

Pseudo rosette are seen in all except:

14428

A 17 year old girl came to OPD with complaint of swelling in middle of neck. FNAC was performed. It revealed cellular smears with nuclear grooving and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. The diagnosis on cytological findings is:

14429

A 35 year old male presents to the ER in confusional state. He is diaphoretic and having palpitations. Lab shows serum glucose of 35mg/dl. On further evaluation pro-insulin and C-reactive peptide is also raised. What is the most likely diagnosis:

14430

Least common hyperfunctioning pituitary adenoma is:

14431

Sheehan syndrome is postpartum necrosis of:

14432

All are true about Hastimoto thyroditis except:

14433

Most common cause of thyroid pain is:

14434

Carcinoembryonic antigen is a tumour marker of thyroid carcinoma:

14435

Multiple endocrine neoplasma 1 is associated with chromosome No:

14436

Most common cause of ACTH dependent Cushing syndrome is:

14437

Most common cause of primary acute adrenocortical insufficiency is:

14438

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease. Antibodies are present against the antigen:

14439

Most common manifestation of multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 is:

14440

Mucosal neuromas and marfanoid habitus are seen in:

14441

Patient with Hashimoto thyroditis are at increased risk for developing:

14442

All lesions of Thyroid can be diagnosed on fire needle cyto except:

14443

Difference between follicular carcinoma and follicular adenoma can be:

14444

Identify the marked layer:

14445

Which of the following is not seen in the interphotoreceptor matrix?

14446

The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is:

14447

The retina receives its blood supply from all, except:

14448

Area of Retina where only cones are concentrated:

14449

Most radioresistant cells in retina:

14450

True about fovea centralis:

14451

Blind spot of mariotte:

14452

Broadest neuroretinal rim is seen in:

14453

Size of Foveola is:

14454

All of the following are true for a patient with a history of chloroquine use and the above fundus picture except:

14455

A 65 years old diabetic and hypertensive male presents with sudden loss of vision. His fundus image is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14456

A male patient, 45 years of age with history of hypertension for past 8 years complaints of sudden loss of vision. Anterior segment examination is not contributory. On fundus examination the above is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14457

A 56 year old male, with history of diabetes for 15 years complaints of loss of vision. Diagnose the pathology based on the fundus fluorescein angiography shown in image:

14458

A young female came with complaints of diminished vision. On examination she had decreased vision is in the right eye (6/18) and normal vision in the left eye (6/6). Which layer of the retina is most likely involved being involved in the pathology?

14459

An 18 years old girl who was using spectacles for last 10 year came with the history of photopsia and sudden loss of vision in right eye. Which one of the following clinical examinations should be performed to clinch the diagnosis?

14460

Fluorescein for ophthalmological diagnosis is injected in:

14461

A wave in ERG is due to activity of:

14462

Amsler grid is used to evaluate:

14463

A patient with clinically significant diabetic macular edema with non-progressive diabetic retinopathy was treated with Macular grid photocoagulation. The patient still has vitreo macular traction. What is the preferred treatment?

14464

Parents bring in their 8 month old child presenting with neurodegeneration, developmental delay, hepatosplenomegaly and visual loss. On fundus examination the above (image) findings are seen. Which of the following diseases does the child most likely hate?

14465

This the blood smear examination of a male aged 6 years. Which of the following will confirm the diagnosis:

14466

What is the most common cause of visual loss in the patient with the above photograph?

14467

50-year-old female with history of rheumatoid arthritis presented with gradual painless loss of vision over 3 years. She has history of cataract surgery in both eyes done 1 year back. Her fluorescein angiography result is given in image. What is the cause of her loss of vision?

14468

Magnification obtained with direct ophthalmoscope for an emmetropic patient is:

14469

Arden index is related to:

14470

Epiretinal membrane is seen in:

14471

Fundoscopic finding of retinal hemorrhage with white centre is known as?

14472

Drugs causing macular toxicity when given intravitreally:

14473

The laser procedure, most often used for treating iris neovascularization is:

14474

Optic cup develops into?

14475

How many mm from the limbus is the safest site vitreal injection?

14476

A patient with known mutation in the Rb gene is disease free from Retinoblastoma. The patient is at highest risk of developing which of the following malignancies:

14477

Sub retinal demarcation lines (High water marks) indicate:

14478

Sea fan retinopathy is seen in:

14479

Which of the following is the most radio resistant layer of retina?

14480

Which layer separates in retinal detachment?

14481

In retinal detachment:

14482

Retinal tears seen most commonly seen in:

14483

Pneumoretinopexy is an outpatient procedure in which retinal detachment is sealed with air insufflation. Which of the following is used here?

14484

The risk of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is increased in all of the following except:

14485

A patient presents with flashing light, sudden floaters and perception of a curtain falling in front of the eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14486

Exudative retinal detachment is seen in all except:

14487

Shaffer sign is seen in:

14488

A 60 year old male patient operated for cataract 6 months back now complains of floaters and sudden loss of vision. The diagnosis is:

14489

A 40 year old male with diabetes presents with vitreous hemorrhage. What is the cause?

14490

Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional retinal detachment involves all of the following except:

14491

Which of the following agents is not used in the treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema/Retinopathy?

14492

False statement regarding diabetic retinopathy:

14493

Indications of Retinal laser photocoagulation are all except:

14494

Causes of floaters in DM is:

14495

Which of the following statements are not correct?

14496

A 30 year old patient with history of recurrent headache was sent for fundus evaluation. He was found to be having generalized arterial attenuation with multiple cotton wool spots and flame shaped haemorrhages in both eyes. The most likely cause is:

14497

All of the following are true with regard to malignant hypertension except:

14498

According to the ETDRS, which one of the following is considered clinically significant diabetic macular edema?

14499

Which one of the following is not a risk factor for central vein occlusion (CRVO)?

14500

Which one of the following conditions has been associated with foveal hypoplasia?

14501

Which retinal layer accounts for the petalloid cystic appearance of cystoid macular edema?

14502

Which one of the following is the least likely etiology of a central retinal artery occlusion in a 25-year-old woman?

14503

All findings are associated with sickle cell disease except:

14504

Degeneration of which retinal cell is the principle cause of retinitis pigmentosa?

14505

All of the following are true regarding sympathetic ophthalmia except:

14506

All of the following may develop a similar complication leading to central visual loss except:

14507

Which lesion might lead to development of a macular pucker (epiretinal membrane)?

14508

All of the following are true about above procedure, except:

14509

What will be the best treatment for the above patient?

14510

Identify the sign seen in the above fundus photograph:

14511

Exudates are seen in which layer of retina:

14512

A 72 years old woman is driven to the emergency because 10 min earlier she had developed sudden, painless, unilateral blindness. When light is shone on the affected eye, the pupils fail to constrict. When light is shone one opposite eye, both pupil constrict briskly. Tonometry both eyes are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14513

A 25 year old executive presents with metamorphopsia in his right eye. On examination the fundus shows a shallow detachment at the macula. The fluorescein angiography shows a smoke stack sign. Which of the following management should be given?

14514

All are true about treatment of Age related macular degeneration except:

14515

The most frequent cataract type seen in adult retinitis pigmentosa patient is:

14516

All of the following statements about genetics of retinoblastoma are true, except:

14517

When compared to blood, vitreous humour has higher concentration of:

14518

Attachment of vitreous is Strongest at?

14519

Space of cloquet is phylogenetically related to:

14520

Outer Blood-Retina Barrier is formed by:

14521

Which of the following statements are correct?

14522

A 7 year old presents with left exotropia; right eye has 6/6 vision with normal fundus. Left eye has only close hand movements with subretinal yellow exudates and retinal detachment and telegiectatic vessels. Diagnosis is:

14523

True about Retinopathy of prematurity all except:

14524

Risk factor for cystoid macular edema include (s) all except:

14525

Image most commonly seen in:

14526

Persistent primary Hyperplastic vitreous (PHPV) is associated with:

14527

Salt and pepper retinopathy is observed in all of the following except:

14528

Silent choroid on FFA is feature of:

14529

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following conditions?

14530

Confirmatory investigation in retinitis pigmentosa is:

14531

Multifocal ERG is useful to assess the function of:

14532

What is the indication of using indocyanine green angiography?

14533

All of the following may be used to differentiate Central Retinal Venous Occlusion (CRVO) from Ocular Ischemic Syndrome due to Carotid Artery Stenosis, Except:

14534

Coat disease:

14535

First retinal abnormality in diabetic retinopathy:

14536

In diabetic retinopathy pan retinal photocoagulation is done by:

14537

A 55 year old diabetic patient presents with unilateral transient obscuration for 2-3 days followed by sudden diminution of vision. Which of the following tests would you order?

14538

Cattle track appearance:

14539

Cherry red spot is seen in all except:

14540

A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

14541

A 25 year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis?

14542

Treatment of retinoblastoma is by:

14543

Acute loss of vision in case of alcoholic pancreatitis:

14544

Purtscher retinopathy is seen in patients with:

14545

Angioid streaks in the eyes are seen in:

14546

A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination?

14547

A 45 year old man is diagnosed with diabetes at his present visit of the first time. When should he undergo an ophthalmoscopic examination by an ophthalmologist?

14548

Microaneurysms are the earliest manifestation of diabetic retinopathy; they are most commonly found in which retinal layer:

14549

Shifting fluid sign is pathognomic of:

14550

Lincoff rule applies for:

14551

Most common quadrant of retinal hole:

14552

Most common cause of TRD:

14553

Retinal detachment is found between:

14554

All of the following cutaneous features may be found in Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome EXCEPT:

14555

Patients with AIDS and cytomegalovirus retinitis:

14556

Bilateral acute pan uveitis with severe visual loss and red, inflamed, painful eyes is best treated with systemic:

14557

The ring-shaped stromal infiltrate seen in herpes simplex keratitis is caused by:

14558

Which one of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with diffusely distributed keratic precipitates?

14559

Which one of the following conditions is NOT associated with HLA-B27 associated acute iritis?

14560

Identify the posterior segment pathology:

14561

All of the following can be seen in the above photograph except:

14562

All of the following are possible causes for the anterior segment condition (image) in the below patient except:

14563

Identify the ocular pathology:

14564

Persistent pupillary membrane originates from:

14565

Snow banking is typically seen in:

14566

Choroidal neurovascularization is seen in all except:

14567

Which of the following is not an indication for evisceration?

14568

Pseudouveitis is seen in:

14569

The use of HAART is associated with the development of:

14570

The commonest cause of visual loss in AIDS is which one of the following:

14571

Which of the following is the most accurate method of diagnosing CMV retinitis?

14572

What is reverse hypopyon?

14573

Which of the following is the most common fungal infection of the eye seen in an HIV positive patient?

14574

All of the following are true about the above patient except:

14575

You are an intern on emergency night duty in ophthalmology ward. A patient complaint of sudden painful loss of vision. What is the best sign to differentiate Acute Anterior Uveitis from Acute Angle closure Glaucoma?

14576

These are pathognomonic for:

14577

These are called:

14578

This is seen in which disease?

14579

Not feature of Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis:

14580

A 10 year boy present with bilateral chronic uveitis. Which investigation should be ordered:

14581

These precipitates are made of:

14582

True about ciliary body all except:

14583

In patients with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision due to posterior segment involvement can occur because of:

14584

Recurrent mobile hypopyon seen in acute anterior Uveitis indicates?

14585

Uveoparotitis is seen in which of the following disorders:

14586

A 60 year old diabetic patient has an uneventful phacoemulsification with IOL implantation. Pain, diminution of vision, redness, watering and a greyish yellow pupillary reflex on the third postoperative day. On examination circumorneal congestion aqueous cells 4+, hypopyon in the anterior chamber with posterior synechiae and retrolental flare

14587

20 year old man complaints of reading difficulty in his right eye 5 weeks after a gunshot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:

14588

Candle wax dripping type of vasculitis is a feature of:

14589

Which of the following is also known as dangerous zone of eye:

14590

Which of the following causes uveitis with vitiligo and deafness?

14591

Which of the following is not an indication for gylaceration?

14592

A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram positive round to oval cells, 12-14 A. in size. The aspirate on Gmm staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?

14593

All are causes of chronic granulomatous uveitis except:

14594

Most common cause of anterior uveitis associated with arthritis:

14595

Uvea provides nutrition to:

14596

True about iris:

14597

Posner-schlossman syndrome is:

14598

True about sympathetic ophthalmitis all except:

14599

Which of the following ocular changes are usually not seen in an AIDS patient:

14600

Uveal Effusion syndrome may be associated with all of the following, Except:

14601

A 30 year old male patient presented with anterior granulomatous uveitis, arthralgia and respiratory difficulties. What is the most probable diagnosis?

14602

What is the most common eye manifestation of allergy to tubercular bacilli?

14603

A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient department with gradual blurring of vision in the left e Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:

14604

In ocular toxocariasis:

14605

The use of highly active anti-retro-viral therapy (HAART) is associated with the development of:

14606

The diagnosis is:

14607

The diagnosis is:

14608

The diagnosis is:

14609

The diagnosis is:

14610

Which instrument is used for diagnosis in this patient of intermediate uveitis?

14611

The diagnosis is:

14612

The slide shows:

14613

The diagnosis is:

14614

Imbert fick law is used for which of the following type of tonometry:

14615

Which examination is of least value in open angle glaucoma?

14616

A lady presented with reddish eye and watering over left eye with a shallow anterior chamber. What is the next best investigation?

14617

You have been referred a middle-aged patient to rule out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings will help in the diagnosis?

14618

A male patient with a history of hyper mature cataract presents with a 2 day history of ciliary congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has 1 deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left is eye normal. The diagnosis is:

14619

Angle closure glaucoma can be precipitated by:

14620

Cholinergic drugs like pilocarpine are routinely used to treat glaucoma. What is their mechanism of action in eye that accounts for this ophthalmologic use?

14621

Cells most commonly affected in glaucomatous optic atrophy:

14622

40 year old male patient complaints of (shown in image). Which of the following is the least likely cause?

14623

Which procedure has been performed for the patient in the image?

14624

A 75 year old patient presents with deterioration of vision. The pupillary reflex sluggish and the intraocular pressure are normal. Optic disc shows large deep cup and paracentral scotomas. The diagnosis is:

14625

True about primary open angle glaucoma all except:

14626

Features of open angle glaucoma are all except:

14627

Glaucomflecken is a feature of?

14628

Glaucomflecken is:

14629

All of the following predispose to angle closure glaucoma, except:

14630

Malignant glaucoma is seen in:

14631

Mechanism of steroid induced glaucoma is:

14632

Krukenberg spindle:

14633

Which of the following may be seen in Pigmentary glaucoma:

14634

Which of the ocular lesion is seen in Sturge Weber Syndrome?

14635

A patient with diabetic macular edema develops glaucoma. Which antiglaucoma drug is least preferred in this patient?

14636

Pilocarpine eye drops act as:

14637

Neovascularization of iris is frequently seen in all except:

14638

Glaucoma valve implant is used in which of the following surgery?

14639

Which anti glaucoma drug causes apnea in children?

14640

A patient came to the casualty with acute attack of asthma after starting treatment of glaucoma. The causative drug is:

14641

A child presents with lid lag and an enlarged cornea with a diameter of 13 mm. Examination of the eye reveals double contoured opacities concentric to the limbus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14642

The major mechanism of aqueous humor formation is:

14643

The horizontal diameter of cornea for the infant in the above photograph is likely to be:

14644

This 60 year old woman, with the above visual field defect has been diagnosed as a case of primary open angle glaucoma. Which part of the visual field will be the most resistant to progressive glaucomatous visual field loss?

14645

Patient gives a long history of gradual slowly progressive diminution of vision which is now associated with severe pain in his right eye. On examination the anterior segment is seen as in the image and the IOP is measured to be 58 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14646

Clinical presentation of a 26 year old myopic male with raised IOP is given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14647

A 2-year-old child comes to the OPD presents with photo- Phobia, what is the most likely diagnosis?

14648

Identify the pathology:

14649

A patient presented with sudden onset eye pain and vomiting. On examination the above image is seen with shallow anterior chamber. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14650

Which examination is of least value in open angle glaucoma?

14651

A lady presented with reddish eye and watering over left eye with a shallow anterior chamber. What is the next best investigation?

14652

You have been referred a middle-aged patient to rule out open angle glaucoma. Which of the following findings will help in the diagnosis?

14653

Angle closure glaucoma can be precipitated by:

14654

Cholinergic drugs like pilocarpine are routinely used to treat glaucoma. What is their mechanism of action in eye that accounts for this ophthalmologic use?

14655

Cells most commonly affected in glaucomatous optic atrophy:

14656

A 34 year-old asthmatic white man is seen for a postoperative examination after He has a dusting of pigment on the endothelium of his corneas bilaterally. Which Glaucoma bilateral radial keratotomy and elevated intraocular pressure is noted in both eyes. One of the following treatments is least appropriate?

14657

Topical beta-adrenergic antagonists are known to be associated with the all of the following side effects except:

14658

A patient who has recently undergone pan retinal photocoagulation after a central retinal vein occlusion presents with corneal edema, neovascularization of the iris and an intraocular pressure of 58 mmHg. All of the following medications are appropriate to use except:

14659

Which one of the following steroid preparations is most likely to cause an increase in intraocular pressure in susceptible eyes?

14660

Which one of the following is not considered a possible side effect of the hyperosmotic agents?

14661

Which one of the following hyperosmotic agents should be used with particular caution in diabetic patients?

14662

An allergy to which one of the following medications would be a relative contraindication to the use of dorzolamide?

14663

What combination of medications is most effective in lowering IOP?

14664

Prostaglandin analogues lower IOP predominantly by which one of the following mechanisms?

14665

This movement of eye will be lost in:

14666

Identify the test shown in the image:

14667

All of the following are true regarding the test done with the above instrument except:

14668

All of the following are true about the above instrument except:

14669

All of the following are features of squint in the above patient (photograph) except:

14670

Diagnose the strabismus in the patient:

14671

Diagnose:

14672

This test is:

14673

This test is used to differentiate:

14674

Centre of biconvex lens is called:

14675

Mittendorf dots may be associated with:

14676

Strongest attachment of Zonule is at:

14677

Lens of the eye develops from:

14678

Number of ciliary processes in pars plicata

14679

Thinnest part of iris is

14680

Which of the following is not a part of uveal tract?

14681

Ora serrata is point of anterior termination of

14682

Coloboma occurs due to failure of closure of choroidal fissure by how many weeks:

14683

It is associated with gene defect in:

14684

Smallest diameter of the eyeball is:

14685

The following are all remnants of the hyaloidal vascular system EXCEPT:

14686

The strongest attachment of the vitreous body to the surrounding structures is at the level of:

14687

Which one of the following statements about the myelination of the optic nerve is FALSE?

14688

The nerve which has the longest intracranial course is:

14689

Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles are derived embryologically from the:

14690

All of the following ocular structures are derived embryologically from the neuroectoderm except:

14691

Normal A:V ratio of retinal blood vessels is:

14692

Safe zone of the eye ball is:

14693

Anterior chamber depth:

14694

Sclera is weakest at the level of:

14695

The longest extraocular muscle is:

14696

Axial length of orbit:

14697

The junction between the retina and ciliary body is called:

14698

Which is true about PHPV?

14699

A newborn is hypermetropic by:

14700

Volume of eye ball is?

14701

Optic cup develops into?

14702

The distance between Ora serrata and limbus is

14703

It is typically present in which quadrant:

14704

It is associated with all except:

14705

What region of the retina is the last to be vascularized?

14706

Which wall of the orbit is thinnest?

14707

Which bone does NOT form part of the orbital floor?

14708

Which one of the following statements describing the adult orbit is FALSE?

14709

The medial wall of the orbit includes:

14710

Through which foramen does each-structure pass?

14711

Which one of the following is NOT a true basement membrane?

14712

Which muscle inserts the farthest posterior to the limbus?

14713

How many a degree is the fovea displaced from the optic nerve?

14714

Which statement about the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE) is FALSE?

14715

Which one of the following is found in the inner plexiform layer?

14716

Which of the following is not from surface ectoderm?

14717

Development of eye starts at:

14718

Which of the following develop from neural crest?

14719

Diagnose:

14720

Test done in the image is used for diagnosis of:

14721

Which of the following is the nucleus for upward gaze?

14722

15-year-old female came to the OPD with history of fever, headache and blurring of vision for the past 1 week. She also complaints of diplopia since 1 day on looking to the right side. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her condition:

14723

Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history, developmental history till date all normal. Corneal reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis

14724

A newborn has strabismus. Which of the following is the rationale for surgically correcting this problem during early childhood?

14725

Right nerve palsy can lead to all except:

14726

A patient presented with his head tilted towards right. On examination, he was having left Hypertropia which is increased on looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed is:

14727

Right esotropia is evident with:

14728

Uncrossed Dipolopia is seen in palsy of all except:

14729

Head posture in right lateral rectus palsy:

14730

Left sided sixth nerve palsy would lead to:

14731

A child presents with both eyes in the adducted position. To best determine if this is the result of bilateral lateral rectus palsy, you could try each of the following except:

14732

Final common pathway for horizontal gaze involves:

14733

Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:

14734

A patient presents with Diplopia with limitations of adduction in the left eye and abducting saccade in the right eye. Convergence is preserved. Most likely etiology is:

14735

One and a half syndrome is due to lesion in:

14736

Increased Left Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia is seen as:

14737

Each of the following is true regarding accommodative esotropia EXCEPT:

14738

When does accommodative esotropia usually occur?

14739

All of the following are characteristics of congenital third nerve palsy EXCEPT:

14740

A 3-year-old child with esotropia since birth has the following deviation: The incomitance of this deviation is most likely secondary to an overacting mu that:

14741

A 2-month-old boy with large angle esotropia and apparent cross-fixation presents to your office. The LEAST likely diagnosis on your differential is:

14742

Which one of the following characteristics regarding the Three Step test is TRUE?

14743

Which one of the following statements regarding optokinetic nystagmus (OKN) is FALSE?

14744

A 32-year-old female presents with insidious onset of diplopia. On alternate cover testing, the patient has a right hypertropia, worse on right head tilt and left gaze. A patsy of which muscle might cause her symptoms?

14745

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

14746

Which muscle is a synergist to the lateral rectus?

14747

A 2-year-old child presents with intermittent exotropia. Which one of the following would most likely describe her condition?

14748

A 8-year-old girl returns 1 day after bilateral lateral rectus recessions for intermittent exotropia. She measures 10 prism diopters of consecutive esotropia. The parents are concerned. Your best course of action is to:

14749

Which one of the following characteristics regarding the Three-Step test is TRUE?

14750

The test done by the instruments in the above photograph can be used for diagnosing all of the following conditions except:

14751

The best test to measure the deviation in the above patient is:

14752

The optical instrument in the above image is used for diagnosing all except:

14753

Which investigation is being done for the patient in the above image?

14754

Diagnose the ophthalmic deformity in the infant:

14755

Evaluate and diagnose:

14756

A patient presented with the findings in Image: A. After giving an IV drug to the patient, in 5 mins his condition improved (Image B). What is the probable diagnosis?

14757

What is the diagnosis?

14758

Diagnose the condition:

14759

The diagnosis is:

14760

What is the visual field defect in the below given condition?

14761

All are causes of the below given condition except:

14762

The diagnosis is:

14763

Which of the following is the nucleus for upwards gaze?

14764

In diabetic 3rd nerve palsy all are seen except:

14765

Visual pathway defect at the level of optic chiasma will result in:

14766

A 50-year-old patient presented with a history of STD and came to OPD with neurological abnormality. Which of the following is true?

14767

Unilateral enlarged pupil is seen in:

14768

A person present with painful unilateral dimness of vision. He gives a history of persistence of after images. What is the likely diagnosis?

14769

Which one of the following is an oculotoxic drug?

14770

A patient presents with Right homonymous hemianopia. Most likely site of lesion is:

14771

Most common ocular sign of Myasthenia Gravis?

14772

Diagnose the ocular pathology:

14773

Keyhole shaped visual field defect is a feature of:

14774

Identify the visual field defect:

14775

Identify the instrument in the above image:

14776

Which of these ophthalmic manifestations is least likely due to acute meningococcal meningitis?

14777

Pupil in a newborn is:

14778

A 50-year-old male patient gives history of STD acquired 20 years back, now complaints of headache, seizures, confusion and numbness in extremities. Which of the following will be true about the pupillary response of the above patient?

14779

All are true about optic nerve except:

14780

Anisocoria in dim light is maximally seen in:

14781

Diagnose the pathology in the image:

14782

In a case of anisocoria, when 1% pilocarpine is instilled into the eye with abnormally dilated pupil, no response occurs, Cause of anisocoria may be:

14783

Hutchinson pupil is:

14784

Ingestion of all of the following can cause optic neuropathy EXCEPT:

14785

Where is a lesion that produces the visual field defect shown in image?

14786

What could be used to measure the amount of torsion that this patient has?

14787

Efferent pupil constrictor fibers:

14788

Which syndrome includes CN III palsy, contralateral decreased sensation, and contralateral tremor in the extremities?

14789

Which cranial nerve is traumatized most commonly with a closed head injury?

14790

Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Adie pupil?

14791

What would be observed if he has a right afferent pupillary defect?

14792

What finding would most likely accompany this examination?

14793

Which fundus finding would be most suggestive of Leber?

14794

All of the following are true about the patient with the above fundus image all except:

14795

What is the angle subtended by the largest letter when viewed from a distance of 6 meters (in minutes)?

14796

Which of the following is the best in case of an Amblyopia?

14797

Duochrome test is for:

14798

For refraction in a hypermetropic child, which is the best drug:

14799

Concentration of tropicamide used in retinoscopy:

14800

Which of the following are not cycloplegic drugs:

14801

Prescription of presbyopic lens to a 50 year old emmetropic individual is:

14802

Normal eye power is:

14803

Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by:

14804

Most important factor determining convergence of light rays on the retina is:

14805

Which of the following type of lens is used for the treatment of myopia?

14806

1 mm change axial length of the eyeball would change the refracting power of the eye by:

14807

Pseudopapillitis is seen in:

14808

A 16 year old male come complaining of severe, gradual, progressive loss of vision in both eyes. He gives history of wearing spectacles since 5 years of age, with last refraction being done 6 months back. On retinoscopy, a refractive error of -8D spherical error is seen. On B scan, the above result was obtained. What can be seen in the B-scan image?

14809

At 20 feet, the smallest letters that a child can read is the 20/60 line. You have the child walk toward the eye chart. How far does she walk before she can see the 20/20 line?

14810

Instrument shown in the image is used for:

14811

Infant in the image is most likely suffering from:

14812

The following complications can be seen in a patient with the above fundus image, except:

14813

Focal length of 0.25 m power of lens is:

14814

Aniseikonia means:

14815

A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His. cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm, that - clears up in about 2 minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

14816

A 10-year-old complaint of headache. His best corrected visual acuity in the right eye is 6/36 and in the left eye is 6/6 Retinoscopy show +5D in right eye and +1D in left eye. All other ocular examination is normal. What is the possible diagnosis?

14817

All are true about presbyopia except:

14818

About degenerative myopia which of the following is true:

14819

Treatment of presbyopia:

14820

Muscles responsible for accommodation are innervated by nerves passing through?

14821

A 50 year old man complains of problem in his near vision. His vision is N-18 for both eyes which improved to N-6 on adding + 1 D sphere. Which would be the best immediate management of this patient?

14822

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents with markedly defective vision for near and far. A wide and deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D

14823

A 35 year old male complains of vision distortion. The distortion increases progressively in both the meridians on wearing his spectacles. All of the following are correct regarding the patient problem except:

14824

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

14825

The most common cause of myopia is:

14826

Foster Fuch spots are seen in:

14827

Distance from which retinoscopy should be performed:

14828

Jackson cross cylinder test is used for:

14829

Which of the following is not needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery?

14830

Best site of IOL implantation:

14831

Most common complication of extracapsular cataract is:

14832

Wavelength of Nd:YAG laser:

14833

Foldable intra ocular lens is made up of?

14834

Best way to prevent infection after cataract surgery is:

14835

Axial length of eye for cataract surgery is measured by which of the following?

14836

UGH syndrome is commonly due to:

14837

Which agent is most appropriate for staining the anterior lens capsule in preparation for creating a capsulorrhexis in a patient with a poor red reflex?

14838

Power for nuclear fragmentation in phacoemulsification:

14839

A patient presents to the emergency department with uniocular diplopia. Examination with oblique illumination shows golden crescent while examination with co-axial illumination show a dark crescent line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14840

The antero-posterior diameter of the lens is increased in all except?

14841

Which of the following does not involve lens capsule?

14842

A 55 year old male with vision 6/12 in both eyes, complaints of Glare at night, especially while driving. What could be the possible diagnosis?

14843

Which of the following is false about secondary cataract?

14844

The procedure given below is done by:

14845

The incision length for procedure given below is:

14846

Choice of treatment for the condition given below:

14847

Most common cause of the image given below is:

14848

The most common complication of the image given below:

14849

A 6 month old baby presents with bilateral cataract. A urine test is requested to suspect:

14850

All of the following associations are true, except:

14851

Which of the following is the only reversible cataract?

14852

Cataract in patients of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of

14853

Bread-crumb appearance is seen in:

14854

Oil drop cataract is characteristic of:

14855

An infant with intolerance to breast feed, vomiting and diarrhoea develops cataract. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14856

Onion ring appearance is seen in which of the following:

14857

The earliest change in the cortical cataract is:

14858

The following metabolic state is associated with cataract:

14859

Which route of rug administration has been shown in the image:

14860

With advancement cataract surgery is performed with the aid of lasers resulting in smaller incisions and fewer postoperative complications. What is the frequency of laser used in the procedure shown above?

14861

A 60 year old male gives history of cataract surgery 1 year back. He now complaints of diminished vision and on slit lamp examination the following finding are seen. What is the most likely cause of his loss of vision?

14862

A 60 year old male, known case of diabetes underwent a cataract surgery. 36 hours after surgery the patient presents with the following picture. What is the first line of management?

14863

A regular contact lens user presents with complaints of severe pain, photophobia and blurring of vision for more than two weeks not responding to standard treatment. On examination, a paracentral ring shaped lesion with stromal infiltrates and overlying epithelial defects is observed in the affected eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14864

The cornea in the given below image has been stained with:

14865

The optical instrument shown in the image is used for evaluation of:

14866

The patient seen above in the image is likely to develop which of the following ocular complication?

14867

The above condition affects which layer of cornea?

14868

Which organism does not invade intact cornea?

14869

Which organism infection is virulent and may cause corneal ulcer perforation within 48hrs?

14870

Which of the following is not given as eye drops in corneal ulcer?

14871

Corneal endothelial cell counting is done by:

14872

Corneal sensation is measured by?

14873

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi?

14874

Which one of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the condition shown:

14875

Which one of the following statements regarding the clinical condition found in this 73-year-old woman is true?

14876

A 23-year-old medical student underwent photorefractive keratectomy for mild myopia; He did well during the procedure but postoperatively complained of severe pain. At 3 days postoperatively, the epithelial defect had not healed and appeared unchanged in size with ragged borders. One week he postoperatively presented as pictured. Which one of the following is least likely in the differential diagnosis?

14877

Which statement concerning the cornea is false?

14878

Which is the most common cause?

14879

Which one of the following treatments would be most effective for this condition?

14880

Which is the innermost layer of corneal epithelium?

14881

All are true regarding cornea except:

14882

Which of the following drugs is used as an adjuvant therapy for treatment of fungal corneal ulcers?

14883

Patient presented to ophthalmology OPD with glaucoma and bulging of cornea. What is the diagnosis?

14884

Drug of choice:

14885

A patient on amiodarone is diagnosed. What should be management:

14886

This occurs due to deposition of:

14887

False statement:

14888

What is the best line of management in the patient?

14889

Which one of the following statements regarding this disease is TRUE?

14890

Which metabolic disease may cause cornea verticillata?

14891

Which one of the following statements regarding keratoconus is TRUE?

14892

Which of the following is true about Herpes Simplex Keratitis?

14893

A 60-year-old man complains of LE pain and photophobia. On examination there is an erythematous rash of the periorbital skin and forehead on the left side. You also note erythema and a small vesicle on the tip of the patient's nose. What is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?

14894

A child presents with unilateral proptosis which is compressible and increases on bending forwards. It is non-pulsalite and has no thrill or bruit. MRI shows retro-orbital mass with echogenic shadows. The most probable diagnosis is:

14895

Following a RTA on fourth day, a person developed proptosis and pain over right eye. On examination there is bruise on the eye and forehead. What may be the diagnosis?

14896

A patient with history of running nose and pain over medial aspect of the eye presents with sudden onset of high grade fever, prostration, chemosis, proptosis and diplopia on lateral gaze with congestion of the optic disc. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

14897

Most common primary intraorbital malignant neoplasm in children is:

14898

All of the following are characteristics of preseptal cellulitis except:

14899

Tolosa Hunt syndrome involves:

14900

Most common ocular movement affected in thyroid ophthalmopathy:

14901

All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except:

14902

A patient developed proptosis and diplopia of 2 months duration following injury. On examination there is chemosis, conjunctival redness, and external ocular nerve palsy. Investigation of choice is:

14903

Based on the clinical picture and CT scan result given, what is the most probable diagnosis?

14904

True about orbital rhabdomyosarcoma:

14905

Most common malignant orbital tumor in adults:

14906

Which sinus infection most commonly leads to periorbital cellulitis?

14907

What is the cause for enlargement of muscle shown in this CT-scan?

14908

Most common cause of leukocoria:

14909

In the following patient, prosthetic eye is put after:

14910

The diagnosis is:

14911

The diagnosis is:

14912

The diagnosis is:

14913

Common cause of fungal orbital cellulitis in patient of diabetic ketoacidosis is:

14914

Most common orbital wall fractured in blow-out fracture orbit is:

14915

A diabetic patient came two days after cataract surgery with following presentation. He also has severe pain and redness in eyes. Which of the following is the first step in the management of this patient?

14916

Eyisceration of eye is not done in:

14917

Which is not done in endopthalmitis?

14918

Most common intraocular metastasis in females is from which of the following primary tumor?

14919

Bilateral proptosis in children is the most common presentation of:

14920

Enophthalmos caused by fracture of:

14921

The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:

14922

Identify the instrument:

14923

Identify the sign:

14924

A 5-year-old white boy presents with difficulty seeing the blackboard at school. Upon exam, he is found to be highly myopic. He is short of stature and has short stubby fingers with broad hands and tight joints. Which of the following is most likely?

14925

Which of the following is correct concerning drug-induced cataracts?

14926

Which of the following types of cataracts is classically associated with myotonic dystrophy?

14927

A patient has the cataract pictured in image. Which is not a true statement about this patient?

14928

A 6-month-old infant presents with unilateral, complete cataracts. There is no family history of eye disease. Which would be most helpful in determining the etiology?

14929

Which of the following concerning polar cataracts is correct?

14930

Which of the following is correct regarding cataract surgery in patients with uveitis?

14931

A 10-year-old boy presents with the bilateral, symmetric findings. His left eye is pictured. He is tall with blond hair. Both of his parents appear normal. Which of the following is least likely to be found in this patient?

14932

Which of the following has NOT been suggested as a possible preventive measure n the development of cataracts?

14933

Differential diagnosis of the above image includes all of the following except:

14934

Which of the statements is most likely to be false regarding the above cataract?

14935

The patient in the image is a 65 year old male, complaints of gradual painless loss of vision. On examination, visual acuity in right eye is 3/60, fundus is not visible. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14936

A 60 year old male gives history of cataract surgery 1 year back. He now complaints of diminished vision and on slit lamp examination the following finding are seen. What is the most likely cause of his loss of vision?

14937

The patient developed pain and severe loss of vision 36 hours after cataract surgery. On examination the following was seen. Which of the following is the least useful for treatment of the given pathology?

14938

Which route of rug administration has been shown in the image?

14939

A 60 year old male, known case of diabetes underwent a cataract surgery. 36 hours after surgery the patient presents with the following picture. What is the first line of management?

14940

The histological features of the following are true:

14941

OL power was calculated to be +22.00 D for a planned cataract surgery with PCIOL implantation. An IOL of 20.00D was placed in the capsular bag due to unforeseen circumstances. What will be the post operative refractory status of the patient?

14942

The earliest change in the cortical cataract is:

14943

Image is seen in:

14944

The molecule which is the initiator of cataract formation in the lens of the eye and whose 1-phosphate derivative is responsible for liver failure is:

14945

The following statement about ocular effects of congenital rubella syndrome is false:

14946

In congenital cataract, true is:

14947

Which of the following statements is false regarding the aging human crystalline lens?

14948

This can lead to which glaucoma:

14949

It shows deposition of:

14950

True statement about crystalline lens:

14951

An infant presents with bilateral white pupillary reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is:

14952

Which of the following does not handle the oxidative damage in lens?

14953

Which of the following is true regarding concentration of proteins in senile cataract?

14954

The vitamin A supplement administered in Prevention of Nutritional Blindness in Children Programme contain:

14955

True about chalazion:

14956

In the grading of trachoma, trachomatous inflammations follicular is defined as the presence of:

14957

A malnourished child from poor socio-economic status, residing in overcrowded and dirty areas presents with a nodule around limbus with hyperaemia of conjunctiva. Other to significant findings were axillary and cervical lymph adenopathy:

14958

Which of the following is true about pterygium?

14959

All are true about membranous conjunctivitis except:

14960

All are secondary signs except:

14961

The diagnosis is:

14962

The diagnosis is:

14963

The condition seen below would cause maximum visual disturbance due to:

14964

It is due to:

14965

Identify the ocular pathology:

14966

6-year-old child has decreased vision. Examination of the eye shows the above corneal picture. Mierostopic examination shows lymphocytes, corneal epithelial cells that have cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. Most likely diagnosis:

14967

Which of the following is false regarding acute conjunctivitis?

14968

Angular conjunctivitis is caused by:

14969

Which of the following organism causing acute bacterial conjunctivitis is NOT associated with a polymorphonuclear response?

14970

Most common conjunctivitis causing blindness in newborn:

14971

Identify the condition:

14972

Type of hypersensitivity reaction:

14973

Identify the ocular pathology:

14974

Most severe cause of conjunctivitis of newborn:

14975

Pinguecula is best characterized histologically by:

14976

Ramu age 10 years, present with itching in his eye, foreign body sensation and ropy discharge since several months. These symptoms are more prominent in summer. Most probable diagnosis is:

14977

Conjunctival epithelium is:

14978

What is the initial management of congenital dacryocystitiş?

14979

Identify the ocular pathology:

14980

8 years old female brought by her mother with the features as shown in the following picture. Her father is also having similar feature. What is the most likely diagnosis?

14981

Identify the lesion:

14982

Dacryocystorhinostomy involves:

14983

A 60 year old man presented with watering from the left eye since one year. Syringing revealed a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done by:

14984

Most common tumor of lacrimal gland:

14985

The diagnosis is:

14986

The diagnosis is:

14987

The diagnosis is:

14988

Identify the below finding:

14989

True regarding tarsal plate is all except:

14990

The diagnosis is:

14991

The following slide indicates:

14992

Phenol red thread test is used for dry eye. This test:

14993

NLD opens in the inferior meatus:

14994

Most common type of ptosis:

14995

All of the following are true about the above eyelid condition except:

14996

A 5-year-old boy presents with severe ptosis associated with poor levator function. Which of the following will be the treatment?

14997

This sign is seen in:

14998

Identify:

14999

Anterior subcapsular lens changes can occur by all except:

15000

Which of the following statement is false about chloroquine keratopathy?

15001

Corneal chrysiasis is caused by:

15002

Topiramate causes which type of glaucoma?

15003

Drugs causing dry eye are all except:

15004

It is found with drug toxicity:

15005

Nystagmus can be induced by:

15006

Rifabutin causes:

15007

All of the following are causes of the fundus picture except:

15008

Chronic systemic steroid use causes:

15009

Ingestion of all of the following can cause optic neuropathy except:

15010

Which drug used during general anesthesia is associated with an increase in intraocular pressure?

15011

Which one of the following steroid preparations is most likely to cause an increase in intraocular pressure in susceptible eyes?

15012

Which of the following is correct concerning drug induced cataracts?

15013

Contraction of visual field is seen with which anticonvulsant:

15014

Angle closure glaucoma can be precipitated by:

15015

All of the following are true for a patient with a history of chloroquine use and the above fundus picture except:

15016

This condition given in image can occur with all except:

15017

Identify the condition in image:

15018

All are the following used to control raised IOP except:

15019

Which anti-glaucoma drug causes apnea in children?

15020

A patient came to the casualty with acute attack of asthma after starting treatment of glaucoma. The causative drug is:

15021

Retinitis pigmentosa is associated with deficiency of:

15022

Intravenous (I.V.) Mannitol is used in which of the following conditions:

15023

Treatment of retinoblastoma is by:

15024

This scotoma is seen after correction of Aphakia by:

15025

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, iridodonesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

15026

A 35 year old male complains of vision distortion. The distortion increases progressively in both the meridians on wearing his spectacles. All of the following are correct regarding the problem of patient except:

15027

This is seen in:

15028

What will be the prescription for spectacles in a patient having Simple myopic with the rule astigmatism?

15029

When using the plane mirror technique during retinoscopy, which one of the following statements stands wrong?

15030

While performing this test, if the patient reports that he sees red letters more clear than green, it indicates that he is slightly:

15031

Identify the error of refraction depicted in the given Image?

15032

Diagnose the refractive condition of the given eye:

15033

All of the following are true about the patient with the above fundus image all except:

15034

Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia?

15035

Ophthalmic exam before refractive surgery are all except:

15036

All are true except:

15037

Cornea has high absorption at:

15038

The wavelength of laser (in nanometers) for shaping cornea in refractive surgery is:

15039

A lady wants Lasik surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All the following things are suitable for performing lasik except:

15040

All of the following are laser ablation corneal procedures except:

15041

Drugs contraindicated in Refractive Surgeries are all except:

15042

Lasers used in refractive surgeries are all except:

15043

Minimum thickness of residual bed should be:

15044

Which of the following type of lens is used for the treatment of myopia?

15045

1 mm change axial length of the eyeball would change the refracting power of the eye by:

15046

Pseudopapillitis is seen in:

15047

The drug used to prevent corneal haze:

15048

A patient with diabetic macular edema develops glaucoma. Which anti-glaucoma drug is least preferred in this patient?

15049

Clinical presentation of a 26 year old myopic male with raised IOP is given below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

15050

Neovascular glaucoma may be associated with all of the following except:

15051

Inverse glaucoma occurs in:

15052

Syndrome of Lowe is characterized by all except:

15053

All the following can be seen in anomaly of Axenfeld, except:

15054

All the following are true concerning Rieger syndrome except:

15055

In chronic simple glaucoma the most common field defect is:

15056

Malignant glaucoma is seen in:

15057

Triple procedure in glaucoma includes all the following except:

15058

Mechanism of steroid induced glaucoma is:

15059

Krukenberg spindle:

15060

Which of the following may be seen in Pigmentary glaucoma:

15061

Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in:

15062

Treatment option for glaucoma includes all except:

15063

The major mechanism of aqueous humor formation is:

15064

Increased intraocular tension is seen in all except:

15065

Irido Corneal Endothelial syndrome is characterized by:

15066

True about pigmentary glaucoma all except:

15067

A patient with diabetic macular edema develops glaucoma. Which antiglaucoma drug is least preferred in this patient?

15068

Pilocarpine eye drops act as:

15069

Neovascularization of iris is frequently seen in all except:

15070

Glaucoma valve implant is used in which of the following surgery?

15071

Which anti glaucoma drug causes apnea in children?

15072

Intravenous (I.V.) Mannitol is used in which of the following conditions:

15073

A patient came to the casualty with acute attack of asthma after starting treatment of glaucoma. The causative drug is:

15074

Which of the following statement is false about Jones dye test?

15075

All are true regarding tear film except:

15076

Mucin tear film deficiency occurs in:

15077

Xerostomia, Xerophthalmia area part of:

15078

Causes of epiphora all except:

15079

Probing and irrigation is not done in:

15080

The given instrument is used in which of the following:

15081

The test shown in the picture is for:

15082

Phenol red thread test dry eye, true is:

15083

Pleomorphic adenoma of the lacrimal gland moves the eyeball:

15084

In congenital darcryocystitis which structure is blocked?

15085

Dacryocystorhinostomy involves:

15086

What is the initial management of congenital dacryocystitis?

15087

Negative Jones-1 and jones-II Dye test indicate:

15088

Which is the best investigation to monitor vision in a patient with history of trauma to the right eye with an iron foreign body?

15089

A 38-year-old woman had a left iron intraocular foreign body removed one year ago. Her current visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left. She is at risk of developing all of the following except:

15090

What is the most important sign of Globe rupture due to blunt trauma?

15091

A patient gives a history of chuna falling into his eyes. All of the following would be a part of his immediate management except:

15092

A young boy presents to the ophthalmology department with decreased vision, six months after being hit by a tennis ball in the eye. Which of the following findings on optical examination is suggestive of Blunt injury to the eye?

15093

About Nasolacrimal duct, which is not true:

15094

What is the anatomical relation of the upper lacrimal punctum with respect to lower punctum:

15095

Most common site of congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is:

15096

Goblet cells are seen in:

15097

Schirmer test detects abnormality of which nerve:

15098

What is the most common ocular manifestation in rheumatoid arthritis?

15099

The WHO definition of low vision in children:

15100

What are the WHO criteria for defining blindness?

15101

Which of the following is not a criteria for blindness according to NPCB?

15102

The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is:

15103

According to WHO, the most common cause of preventable blindness in India?

15104

Most common cause of blindness in India is?

15105

Which of the following is output indicator for NPCB?

15106

Which of the following is called eye donation fortnight?

15107

Which agency is not a partner of Vision 2020?

15108

If blind school surveys are used for estimation of total blindness in India, it will lead to:

15109

True about component of vision 2020 all except:

15110

This can be all except:

15111

Which of the follow is indication of tectonic keratoplasty?

15112

Which of the following is DALK?

15113

This image depicts which type of keratoplasty:

15114

Racoon eyes are seen in fracture of which part of the orbit?

15115

Hyphema is:

15116

Blow out fracture of orbit involves:

15117

A case of injury to right brow due to a fall from scooter presents with sudden loss of vision in the right eye. The pupil shows absent direct reflex but a normal consensual pupillary reflex is present. The fundus is normal. The treatment of choice is:

15118

Blow out fracture of orbit most commonly involves:

15119

Which is the best investigation to monitor vision in a patient with history of trauma to the right eye with an iron foreign body?

15120

A 38-year-old woman had a left iron intraocular foreign body removed one year ago. Her current visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left. She is at risk of developing all of the following except:

15121

What is the most important sign of Globe rupture due to blunt trauma?

15122

It is characteristic for which of the following condition:

15123

An 18-year-old boy comes to the eye casualty with history of injury with a tennis ball. On examination there is no perforation but there is hyphema. The most likely source of the blood is:

15124

Most common cause of fracture of roof of orbit:

15125

True about blow out fracture of the orbit is:

15126

Which orbital bone is most likely to fracture with blunt trauma to the eye?

15127

Copper foreign body in the eye, which of the following will be seen:

15128

D Shaped pupil is seen in:

15129

Investigation of choice for intraocular foreign body is:

15130

Which of the following is an inert metal that can be left alone in eye?

15131

A 25-year-old male, welder by profession presents with complaints of redness, pain and irritation since morning. On examination, the findings in the below image are seen. What is the best line of management?

15132

A patient presented with diplopia and restricted ocular movements. CT scan shows the image given below. What is the most probable cause?

15133

A young boy presents to the ophthalmology department with decreased vision, six months after being hit by a tennis ball in the eye. Which of the following findings on optical examination is suggestive of Blunt injury to the eye?

15134

Which muscle is a synergist to the lateral rectus?

15135

Which muscle is the primary depressor of the eye when it is abducted 23 degree from the midline?

15136

All of the following are characteristics of congenital third nerve palsy EXCEPT:

15137

A new born has strabismus. Which of the following is the rationale for surgically correcting this problem during early childhood?

15138

Lost muscle in squint surgery is:

15139

Diplopia in Superior Oblique palsy is most correctly described as:

15140

Right trochlear nerve palsy can lead to all except:

15141

A 32-year-old female presents with insidious onset of diplopia. On alternate cover testing, the patient has a right hypertropia, worse on right head tilt and left gaze. A palsy of which muscle might cause her symptoms?

15142

Which of the following is the nucleus for upward gaze?

15143

15-year-old female came to the OPD with history of fever, headache and blurring of vision for the past 1 week. She also complaints of diplopia since 1 day on looking to the right side. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her condition?

15144

Cavernous sinus thrombosis following sinusitis results in all of the following signs except:

15145

Child with mild squint. Intrauterine, birth history, development history till date all normal. Corneal reflex normal. All other eye parameters normal except exaggerated epicanthal fold. Diagnosis:

15146

A 30 years old man came at the outpatient department because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are:

15147

A 26 years old male with restriction of eye movements in all directions and moderate ptosis but with no diplopia or squint. Diagnosis is:

15148

A patient presents with diplopia with limitation of adduction in the left eye and abducting saccade in the right eye. Convergence is preserved. Most likely etiology is:

15149

A patient presented with his head tilted towards right. On examination, he was having left hypertropia which increased on looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed is:

15150

Inferior rectus muscle characteristics is:

15151

Yolk muscle pair is:

15152

Which one of the following extra ocular muscles is served by a contra lateral brainstem sub nucleus?

15153

Superior oblique testing for 4th nerve is done by checking it is in-torsion while asking the subject to look:

15154

Weakest portion of sclera is:

15155

Which among the following is the characteristic feature of scleromalacia perforans?

15156

Not true about Blue sclera:

15157

False about Nodular episcleritis:

15158

Patient presented to ophthalmology OPD with glaucoma and bulging of cornea. What is the diagnosis?

15159

Which is not a differential diagnosis of blue sclera?

15160

Which of the following suggests episcleritis while differentiating it with scleritis?

15161

Ciliary staphyloma occurs due to all of the following except:

15162

In scleritis, all are true except:

15163

Scleritis is associated with some systemic disease including connective tissue disorder in:

15164

The most common systemic association of scleritis:

15165

Scleromalacia perforans complication of:

15166

Most common cause of posterior staphyloma is:

15167

Sclera is thinnest at:

15168

Weakest area of sclera:

15169

Blue sclera is seen in all of the following conditions except:

15170

A 21-year-old patient with glaucoma presents with bulging cornea. What is the diagnosis?

15171

The diagnosis is:

15172

The diagnosis is:

15173

The diagnosis is:

15174

Identify the ocular pathology:

15175

The above image is taken from a 70 year-old woman who complained of left epiphora and ocular irritation. She had left lower lid basal cell carcinoma excision six months earlier. What is the diagnosis?

15176

Which instrument is seen in the image?

15177

Identify the condition:

15178

Identify the condition:

15179

A 10-year-old child presented with brownish discoloured and deformed anterior teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. Which antibiotic could be responsible for the condition?

15180

Penicillinase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G. Which one of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against all strains of each of the above organisms?

15181

A 28-year-old man with allergic cough and cold has been treated with different antibiotics on several occasions. During the course of one such treatment he developed  A severe diarrhea and was hospitalized. All of the following are true except?

15182

A 40-year-old white woman reports that this has occurred several times over the last year despite antibiotic treatment. Upon review of her medical records, you notice that she has been treated for her recurrent urinary tract infections, which have been caused by drug-resistant strains of Klebsiella, which is having extended spectrum beta lactamase enzyme activity. You should put the patient on which Beta-lactam drug?

15183

A 45-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of a 20 days history of severe sinus congestion and fevers to 101 degree F. He describes his sinus discharge as purulent. He has been trying amoxicillin therapy with anti-cold medicines for the last 1 week with no improvement in his symptoms. You should prescribe him an antibiotic:

15184

A 30-year-old burn victim is readmitted to the hospital for possible infection at his burn site. He had suffered a third-degree burn 4 weeks earlier. The patient has a fever of 102 degree F, a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, and his wound is oozing purulent discharge. You begin broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy after taking sample for culture. The culture grows out pseudomonas. You decide to change the of the patient antibiotic regimen to this narrow spectrum medication:

15185

A 37-year-old HIV-positive man presents to the emergency room with a fever and cough. He says that he has been compliant with his medication regimen, but he developed a cough 2 weeks ago and now he finds himself feeling short of breath upon exertion. On physical examination, you hear diffuse rhonchi and the chest X-ray shows bilateral infiltrates. You begin antibiotic therapy immediately and inform the patient that he will need to take a prophylactic antibiotic to prevent future recurrences of this?

15186

A 20-year-old college student presents to the health clinic. She has just returned from a summer trip, where she backpacked along the hillsides for several days. She complains of a bloody diarrhea that has lasted for 5 days now. You are confident that the patient has an infection and you send stool cultures to confirm your suspicions. You recommend that the patient should start taking this medication?

15187

A 38-year-old diabetic woman presents to your clinic complaining of burning micturition while pee. On examination you observe thin, greyish white vaginal discharge which is associated with foul-smelling fishy vaginal odour and vaginal itching. Which drug as vaginal suppository should be used to cure the infection?

15188

A 35-year-old presents to the emergency room, complaining of progressive dyspnea and fever. He is currently being treated for tuberculosis. Imaging demonstrates multifocal lesions in both lobes. He is admitted to the intensive care unit. BAL demonstrates Aspergillus. You decide to start treating for invasive aspergillosis with Voriconazole; an agent that acts through:

15189

A 32-year-old male physician from Paris, is planning to participate in a medical conference to India. In addition to a hepatitis vaccine, he wishes to take prophylactic medications for other serious illnesses that he may encounter. You advised him a medication that will serve as chemoprophylaxis for malaria. It should start 1 week before and it should be continued for?

15190

A 35-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of chills and fever episodically. He states that the fever bouts will occur every 2 to 3 days and last for several hours at a time. His history is significant for malaria and his malaria was believed to be successfully treated with a full course of chloroquine. On physical examination, the patient looks pale with marked hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. You believe that the patient has dormant liver malaria and you prescribe a medication that will eradicate this infection?

15191

A 18-year-old college hostel student presents to the health clinic complaining of an intensely itchy rash over the last 5 days. She states that two of her roommates are also suffering from similar symptoms. On examination, you observe a pimple-like rash that is most prominent between the fingers. You prescribe the patient a topical lotion, which acts to block sodium flow in parasitic neuronal cells, and you recommend that she and her roommates wash all bedding, towels and clothing in hot water?

15192

Regarding the recently introduced lipid formulation of amphotericin B like liposomal Amphotericin-B, which one of the following statements is accurate?

15193

A 40 year old alcoholic male with a h/o seizures is admitted with a 3 week h/o fever, generalized weakness, poor appetite, and cough productive of green, foul-smelling sputum. On physical examination, the temperature is 100.3 degrees, pulse is 96 beats/minute, RR is 20 breaths per minute, and BP is 120/80 mm. There are many missing teeth with gingivitis and dental caries. He has rales and decreased breath sounds over the right base. Chest X-ray shows consolidation in the superior segment of the right lower lobe. What is the best antibiotic to treat this patient?

15194

Fluconazole should not be given to the patient being treated with fexofenadine because:

15195

True regarding treatment of cardiovascular syphilis:

15196

What is true except regarding drugs associated with ototoxicity:

15197

Followings are the correct combination of drug and its mechanism of action except:

15198

A young girl has paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate with palpitations and shortness of breath near to her exam dates. Panic attacks were diagnosed by physician. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for prophylaxis to prevent tachycardia in this patient?

15199

An elderly woman, who is a chronic smoker, diagnosed with lung cancer has abnormally low serum osmolality and hyponatremia. Which of the following drug is used to treat this:

15200

A lady has taken medication of ameiobiasis infection. In a party she drank alcohol. She has nausea vomiting and dizziness. Which anti–amoebic drug could have lead to interaction with alcohol to produce these symptoms?

15201

Which anti-asthma drug is avoided with Erythromycin?

15202

Least teratogenic antiepileptic drug in pregnancy is

15203

A female with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with fever and dysuria. A preliminary diagnosis of cystitis was made. Which of the following drug will be safe to use for this patient

15204

Praziquantal is used for the treatment of

15205

Drug of choice for nasal carriers of MRSA is

15206

Which combination of seizures and it is first line treatment drug is false?

15207

One pregnant lady on lithium therapy came for antenatal visit in OPD. What is the risk the exposed fetus is having by this drug:

15208

Which antidepressant acts via inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine:

15209

One patient developed muscular rigidity and hyperthermia after giving Halothane anaesthetic drug. Which ion is responsible for these symptoms?

15210

One drug addict person presented with ulceration over skin. This patient also having itching and scratch marks over skin. He is having tachycardia, hypertension and mydriasis. Which substance is causing these symptoms:

15211

Which of the following drug is best to be used for medical closure of patent ductus arteriosus:

15212

A female presented with pain and redness in her great toe. Serum uric acid level was 9.7 mg/dl. Apart from analgesic, one more drug was prescribed to her that decreases the formation of uric acid. Which enzyme is likely to be inhibited by this drug:

15213

Which of the following antimicrobial agent is contraindicated in a patient with seizure disorder:

15214

A patient having h/o travelling to Assam, developed fever, chills, rigors and altered sensorium. Peripheral smear shows presence of plasmodium falciparum. What is the treatment of choice for this patient:

15215

Patient underwent surgery and during recovery he was shouting and having hallucinations. Which anaesthetic drug was used?

15216

A patient having unilateral headache, associated with nausea and vomiting. Which drug can be used to decrease number of these type of headache episodes?

15217

Best treatment of this condition:

15218

Patient presented with 6 episodes of depression, mania and hypomania in last 1 year with recovery phase in between. What is the probable diagnosis and drug used is?

15219

A child brought to emergency with seizures. Airways have been secured and antiepileptic was given. What is the first line drug to control seizures?

15220

A female came to general OPD with pain and inflammation of many joints. After examination and further investigations was diagnosed as rheumatoid arthritis. Doctor prescribed methotrexate for this. Which of the following is mechanism of action in this drug?

15221

An elderly patient came with features of Parkinsonism like rigidity, hypokinesia etc. Which of the following is not prescribed to this patient:

15222

A patient of pancreatic carcinoma. You gave morphine for relieving pain. After few days, the pain is not relieved as relieved earlier. Why?

15223

A patient suffering for rectal carcinoma and on chemotherapy drugs develops severe profuse diarrhea. Which of the flowing drug should start first to control this diarrhea:

15224

A patient comes to you with breathlessness, dry cough with reduced exercise capacity. On X-ray examination, diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis is made. Which of the following drug can be used for the treatment of this condition:

15225

A truck driver with HIV positivity develops cryptococcal meningitis. Which drug is best to start:

15226

A 68 year old male cancer patient on chemotherapy developed neutropenia. Which of the following drug is used to increase the immunity in this person?

15227

Drugs used for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

15228

A 38 year old college professor suffering from depression comes to you with complaints of unable to get involved in process of intercourse with his wife. Which of the following anti-depressant is best to be prescribed to him:

15229

A patient was started on lamotrigine) 50 mg daily for treatment of epilepsy. Gradually, the dose of the drug is increased every 1-2 weeks to reach the final dose of 200 mg per day. This step up titration of lamotrigine dose is done in order to prevent or minimize the development of:

15230

Which of the following drug used for pain relief in arthritis acts by both opioid and non-opioid mechanisms?

15231

Which of the following is a newer drug approved for MDR-TB patients:

15232

After taking some drug for acute attack of migraine a patient developed nausea and vomiting. He also developed tingling and numbness in the tip of the most finger that also turned blue. Which of the following us the most likely implicated in causing the above finding

15233

A 36 year man came with reddening of the conjunctiva suspected of taking drug. On examination having increased pulse rate and decreases in blood pressure and in psychomotor performance but pupil is normal. His signs and symptoms are likely to be due to:

15234

A 32-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a routine physical examination. Overall, she feels well and has no complaints. She has no past medical history other than tobacco use. She states that she has been smoking about 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the last 10 years. You strongly encourage her to quit smoking and she seems willing to try to stop using tobacco. You offer to prescribe her a medication that has been shown to aid in smoking cessation by acting as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors. What is that?

15235

Chronic alcoholic suddenly stops drinking and getting is in Delirium. Best management is:

15236

All are the newer modalities in epilepsy treatment except:

15237

A 55-year-old man complained to his physician of blurred vision, night blindness, light flashes, and photophobia. The man was diagnosed with mild rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago and was taking a combination therapy that included a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). Ophthalmoscopy disclosed a macular area of hyper pigmentation surrounded by a zone of hypopigmentation on the left retina. Which of the following drugs most likely caused of the patient signs and symptoms?

15238

A 53-year-old woman recently diagnosed with gouty arthritis started a treatment with a drug that inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to inhibition of tubulin polymerization. Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely take?

15239

Schedule X drugs are all except

15240

A 48-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department because of serious breathing difficulty. Two hours earlier, she had taken a drug for a headache. The patient had been suffering from sinusitis and nasal polyps for 6 months. Physical examination showed severe bronchospasm. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient’s signs and symptoms?

15241

Which of the following agent is DOC for NSAID induced gastric ulcer

15242

What is true about ondansetron except

15243

Tolerance develop to all of the following action of opioids except?

15244

Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular blocking agent used in day care surgeries:

15245

A pregnant lady was given indomethacin in 26 weeks to treat arthritic pain. It could lead to?

15246

Mechanism of action of Buprenorphine used for opioid deaddiction:

15247

A patient on bipolar disorder treatment developed hypertension. He was started on thiazides for hypertension. After few days, he developed coarse tremors, confusion and weakness of limbs. Which drug toxity occurred?

15248

CB-NAAT is done in TB patients to detect resistance due to mutation in:

15249

Which drug may be prescribed to treat hypothyrodism?

15250

Lack of ADH causes diabetes insipidus. This drug may be prescribed to combat the disorder

15251

This drug combats acromegaly by acting as somatostatin, a growth hormone release inhibiting factor

15252

This drug treats hyperthyroidism by inhibiting T3 and T4 production in the thyroid gland, and by preventing T3 conversion to T4 in tissues

15253

This drug inhibits/slows the digestion of sugars in the digestive tract

15254

The sodium glucose co-transporter inhibitors are a ____ and its function is to _____

15255

Post-menopausal women should not take hormone replacement therapy if

15256

Iodide preparations can be used in following situations, EXCEPT:

15257

Correct statements about crystalline (regular) insulin include all of the following, EXCEPT:

15258

Diabetic coma (e.g., ketoacidosis) is treated by the administration of:

15259

Currently used alpha-glucosidase inhibitors include the following, EXCEPT:

15260

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors act by

15261

Which of the following drugs does recommend as first line therapy for overweight patients with type 2 diabetes?

15262

The antithrombotic drug which inhibits cyclooxygenase enzymes is:

15263

The daily dose of elemental iron for maximal haemopoietic response in an anaemic adult is:

15264

Megaloblastic anaemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency:

15265

Folinic acid is specifically indicated for:

15266

Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for:

15267

Select the correct statement about ethamsylate:

15268

Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway:

15269

Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that:

15270

Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy:

15271

Which drug name is not a generic name?

15272

Sodium hydrogen carbonate is sold as a drug under various names such as alkali, baking soda, uracol, and sodium bicarbonate. Which of the following is considered a proprietary name for this substance?

15273

Drugs are often protein-bound in the bloodstream. What is the principal protein that does this best?

15274

Under what conditions is it most important to store sodium nitroprusside?

15275

A margin of drug safety is the dose range which places it:

15276

In reference to the use of medicines in pregnancy, a category X drug is described as a medicine:

15277

In which state are drugs more likely to be well absorbed?

15278

Generally, the most reliable indicator for paediatric dose calculations is:

15279

Why is it important to assess the number of medications an elderly client is taking?

15280

Select the antiasthma drug which cannot be administered by inhalation:

15281

Select the fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator:

15282

The most prominent and dose related side effect of salbutamol is:

15283

Which of the following ingredients has neither specific antitussive nor expectorant nor bronchodilator action, but is commonly present in proprietary cough formulations:

15284

Which of these are in use as antitussives?

15285

Where are cromoglycate and nedocromil sodium not useful?

15286

Which medications are cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagonists?

15287

The agent known to enhance the toxicity of digoxin is:

15288

A highly ionized drug

15289

All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except

15290

The following drugs have significant drug interactions with digoxin except:

15291

One of the following is not true about nesiritide

15292

Bronchoconstriction is main side effect of:

15293

Regarding therapeutic uses of adrenergic agonists:

15294

A 60 years old asthmatic man comes in for a checkup and complains that he is having some difficulty in starting to urinate. Physical examination indicates that the man has a blood pressure of 160/100 mm of Hg and has lightly enlarged prostate. Which of the following medications would be useful in treating both of these conditions:

15295

A 39 years old male has recently started mono therapy for mild hypertension. At his most recent office visit, he complains of tiredness and not being able to complete three sets of tennis. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be taking for hypertension?

15296

Echothiophate:

15297

A 68 years old man presents to the emergency department with acute heart failure. You decide that this patient requires immediate drug therapy to improve his cardiac function. Which one of the following drugs would be most beneficial?

15298

Which one of the following drugs, when administered IV, can decrease blood flow to the skin, increase blood flow to the skeletal muscle, and increase the force of contraction and heart rate:

15299

Ephedrine:

15300

Which of the following is NOT an effect of therapeutically used estrogens?

15301

Combined oral contraceptives usually consist of an estrogen and:

15302

Flutamide is:

15303

Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen-receptor modulator that acts therapeutically as an estrogen agonist in bone and as an estrogen antagonist in:

15304

Receptors for estrogens, progestins, and androgens are classified as which of the following?

15305

The rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of dopamine is:

15306

Brimonidine:

15307

Amiloride:

15308

Clonidine:

15309

The first sign of sodium nitroprusside toxicity is:

15310

Ephedrine:

15311

Thiazide Diuretics

15312

Labetalol:

15313

Frusemide does not cause:

15314

The effects of beta blockers-the following is not true

15315

Phentolamine:

15316

Chlorpropamide:

15317

Sulphonylureas:

15318

With regards to sulfonylureas:

15319

Where is Muscarinic 1 receptors found?

15320

What type of drug is Methacholine?

15321

What type of drug is Edrophonium?

15322

Kishore, a farmer comes to you in the emergency in comatose state. Patient had profuse sweating and lacrimation diarrhea and urination were apparent. On examination pupil was constricted and BP of the farmer was 80/60 mmHg. You make a diagnosis of anticholinesterase poisoning you decided to administer him atropine. All of the following actions will be reversed by atropine EXCEPT:

15323

A 38 year old college professor suffering from depression comes to you with complaints of unable to get involved in process of intercourse with his wife. Which of the following anti-depressant is best to be prescribed to him:

15324

The osteoid is composed of all except:

15325

All are the features of sesamoid bone except?

15326

All of the following bones ossify before birth except:

15327

The type of joint in between basiocciput and basisphenoid:

15328

The innervated structures of joints are all except:

15329

Type IV collagen fibers are present in all of the following structures except:

15330

All of the following cells are multinucleated except:

15331

All are the modification of deep fascia except:

15332

What is the role played by the extensors of wrist in making powerful fist:

15333

The fenestrated capillary is present in all of the following structures except:

15334

A 45-year-old woman having her yearly physical examination was found to have a hard, painless lump in the upper lateral quadrant of the left breast. On examination with her arms at her sides, the left nipple was seen to be higher than the right, and a small dimple of skin was noted over the lump. On examination of the left axilla, three small, hard discrete nodules could be palpated below the lower border of the pectoralis major muscle. The right breast was normal. A diagnosis of carcinoma of the left breast was made, with secondary deposits in the axilla. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which?

15335

Level I of axillary lymph node is:

15336

The fascia around nerve bundle of brachial plexus is derived from:

15337

All are the supraclavicular nerves of brachial plexus except:

15338

Median nerve lesion at wrist cause paralysis of all of the following except:

15339

The nerve B in the given figure is:

15340

The action of indicated muscle A in the given figure is all EXCEPT:

15341

Axillary artery is divided into three parts by:

15342

A young secretary, running from her office, had a glass door swing back in her face. To protect herself, she held out her left hand, which smashed through the glass. On admission to the hospital, she was bleeding profusely from a superficial laceration in front of her left wrist. She had sensory loss over the palmar aspect of the medial one and a half fingers but normal sensation of the back of these fingers over the middle and proximal phalanges. She had difficulty in grasping a piece of paper between her left index and middle fingers. All her long flexor tendons were intact. The following statements concerning this patient are correct except which?

15343

All of the following muscle are pierced by nerves except:

15344

All are the branches of thyrocervical trunk except:

15345

The dermatome of thumb is:

15346

A 45-year-old woman is being examined as a candidate for cosmetic breast surgery. The surgeon notes that both of her breasts sag considerably. Which structure has most likely become stretched to result in this condition?

15347

A 48-year-old female court stenographer is admitted to the orthopedic clinic with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, with which she has suffered for almost a year. Which muscles most typically become weakened in this condition?

15348

A 3-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with severe pain. History taking reveals that the girl was violently lifted by her raised arm by her mother to prevent the girl from walking in front of a moving car. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the pain?

15349

The trapezius muscle is supplied by the:

15350

What stabilises the abducted shoulder?

15351

The nerve which innervates the infraspinatus muscle arises from which part of the brachial plexus?

15352

If a patient has difficulty flexing the elbow, which nerve would you expect to be injured?

15353

The anterior mediastinum contains:

15354

All statements are true about given figure except:

15355

On examination of a posteroanterior chest radiograph of an 18-year-old woman, it was seen that the left dome of the diaphragm was higher than the right dome and reached to the upper border of the fourth rib. The position of the left dome of the diaphragm could be explained by one of the following conditions except which?

15356

The hilum of right lung is arched by:

15357

Inferior most structure of right hilum is:

15358

All are true about pulmonary pleura except:

15359

A premature infant has progressive difficulty in breathing and is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. Which cells are deficient in synthesizing surfactant in this syndrome?

15360

The base of heart is formed by:

15361

A 69-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with intense left chest pain. ECG reveals hypokinetic ventricular septal muscle, myocardial infarction in the anterior two thirds of the interventricular septum, and left anterior ventricular wall. The ECG of patient also exhibited left bundle branch block. Which of the following arteries is most likely occluded?

15362

Even if the thrombosis is present in coronary sinus, which of the following cardiac vein might remain normal in diameter?

15363

A 3-year-old male patient presents with a clinically significant atrial septal defect (ASD). The ASD usually results from incomplete closure of which of the following structures?

15364

Postoperative examination of a 68-year-old male who underwent mitral valve replacement demonstrates significant cardiac hypertrophy (Figure). Which of the following structures would be most likely to be compressed?

15365

Which of the following structure is not present in left ventricle?

15366

All are the branches of internal thoracic artery except:

15367

All are true about thoracic duct except:

15368

The intercostal space contain:

15369

The intercostal space contain:

15370

The femoral canal contain:

15371

Hip flexion is done by all except:

15372

All are the branches of lumbar plexus except:

15373

The sensory innervation of the cleft between first and second toes of foot is:

15374

All are the muscles of anterior compartment of leg except:

15375

Altered sensation over the area of great saphenous vein in the leg seen due to an injury of which of the following nerves:

15376

The nerve supply of long head of Biceps femoris is:

15377

The muscle connecting the pelvic girdle to the upper limb is:

15378

Morphologically tibial collateral ligament represents degenerated tendon of which one of the following muscles?

15379

Positive sign of trendelenburg could result from paralysis of which muscle:

15380

Superior gluteal nerve supplies all of the following muscle except:

15381

The muscle causing dorsiflexion of foot are all except:

15382

Upon removal of a leg cast, 15-year-old boys complain of numbness of the dorsum of his right foot and inability to dorsiflex and evert his foot. Which is the most probable site of the nerve compression that resulted in these symptoms?

15383

A 10-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a tree in which she was playing with her friends. Radiographic and physical examinations reveal Osgood-Schlatter disease (Figure). Which of the following bony structures is chiefly affected?

15384

The medial umbilical fold of peritoneum is produced by which structure:

15385

All are true about inguinal canal except:

15386

In rectus sheath which branch of aorta make anastomosis with superior epigastric artery:

15387

The portal vein is formed by the union of:

15388

A 67-year-old man has severe cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has enlarged anastomoses between which of the following pairs of veins?

15389

Identify the arrow marked structure in the given figure:

15390

The lesser opentum has following content except:

15391

A 61-year-old woman had been scheduled for a cholecystectomy. During the operation the scissors of the surgical resident accidentally entered the tissues immediately posterior to the epiploic (omental) foramen (its posterior boundary). The surgical field was filled immediately by profuse bleeding. Which of the following vessels was the most likely source of bleeding?

15392

According to the classification of Couinaud, the 4th segment of the liver is:

15393

The pericentral zone of liver acinus is more prone to:

15394

The minor duodenal papilla is an opening of:

15395

All are true about coeliac trunk except:

15396

Posterior gastric artery is a branch of:

15397

A 20-year-old soccer player was accidentally kicked on the left side of her chest. On returning to the locker room she said she felt faint and collapsed to the floor. On examination in the emergency department, she was found to be in hypovolemic shock. She had tenderness and muscle rigidity in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She also had extreme local tenderness over her left 10th rib in the mid-axillary line. The symptoms and signs displayed by this patient can be explained by the following statements except which?

15398

The appendices epiploicae are present in

15399

The structure that does not cross the midline is

15400

The pouch of Douglas is situated between

15401

The submucosal folds in small intestine is known as:

15402

All are the primary retro-peritoneal organs except:

15403

True statement about upper half of anal canal is

15404

A 32-year-old mother complains of serious pain in the coccygeal area some days after giving birth. To determine whether the coccyx is involved, a local anesthetic is first injected in the region of the coccyx and then dynamic MRI studies are performed. The MRI reveals coccydynia, which confirms that her coccyx dislocates upon sitting. The local anesthetic is used to interrupt which of the following nerve pathways?

15405

Scaphocephaly is an early closer of

15406

A 40-year-old unconscious man is admitted to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball. A CT scan examination reveals a fractured pterion and an epidural hematoma. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely to be injured?

15407

All structures pass through the marked foramen A except:

15408

Identify the arrow marked (29) structure in the given figure:

15409

All are unpaired dural venous sinuses except:

15410

The lobes of submandibular gland are divided by which muscle:

15411

All are supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve except:

15412

Select the INCORRECT option among the following that name the nerves supplying the muscles marked A, B, C and D in the image:

15413

The common facial vein drain into:

15414

The parotid duct pierce the buccinator:

15415

Select the INCORRECT option among the following that name the structures marked A, B, C and D:

15416

The following muscles of larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except

15417

A 22-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department and intubated. An endotracheal tube is passed through an opening between the vocal folds. What is the name of this opening?

15418

A 52-year-old man was eating his dinner in a seafood restaurant when he suddenly choked on a piece of fish. He gasped that he had a bone stuck in his throat. Assuming that the fish bone was stuck in the piriform fossa, the following statements are correct except which?

15419

The superior rectus muscle is supplied by:

15420

Facial nerve supplies, all of the following gland except

15421

What type of muscle is masseter

15422

All the following statements are true with reference to the pharynx EXCEPT that:

15423

All the following statements are true about the lateral wall of nose EXCEPT that it:

15424

The general sensation from anterior 2/3rd of tongue is mediated by:

15425

A 3-day-old male has a noticeably small mandible. A CT scan and physical examinations reveal hypoplasia of the mandible, cleft palate, and defects of the eye and ear. Abnormal development of which of the following pharyngeal arches will most likely produce such symptoms?

15426

A 34-year-old male complains of hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds). Injury to which of the following cranial nerves is responsible?

15427

The neural tube begin to close from which region:

15428

All are neural crest derivatives except:

15429

Olive is seen in which part of brain:

15430

The cranial nerve attached dorsolateral sulcus of medulla are all except

15431

All are somatic efferent nerve except:

15432

Neurilema is the part of

15433

The blood supply to temporal pole of cerebral hemisphere is by:

15434

Identify the central sulcus of Rolando:

15435

The corticospinal fibers arise predominantly from which layer of cerebral cortex

15436

In which of the following sensory nuclei of the trigeminal nerve lie

15437

Tanycytes are found principally in which of the following

15438

Which nuclei are included in striatum

15439

The cranial nerves having parasympathetic fibres are all except:

15440

Which of the following is unpaired vessel in CNS?

15441

The cerebral cortex contains all except:

15442

The primary visual field corresponds to which number Brodmann of:

15443

The lower motor neuron lesion present with all except:

15444

12 year old with suspected of Pulmonary Koch. Screening of sputum will require ___ stain

15445

You have conducted a renal transplant. How will you dispose blood stained gloves

15446

33 years old with fever and rash after Aedes mosquito bite. All are possible except

15447

Munnabhai MBBS was given punishment duty in ICU for 2 weeks. Anterior nostril swab screening was positive for highly resistant Gram positive cocci. What is the most likely resistance pattern

15448

A 34 year old with crush injury pelvis had a full bladder on presentation. Catheterization was not possible. What is this procedure for urine sample collection?

15449

You are the public health physician with Municipal Corporation. Which chemical is used to treat municipal water, how is the biological chlorine demand decided, what should be the end user chlorine concentration and how it is tested?

15450

43 year old patient with low grade evening fever and weight loss. Sputum revealed >20 acid fast bacilli in every 100 X field. Grading?

15451

A Covid-19 positive MBBS student transmits Covid-19 to 3 girlfriends in his class in 2020. What is the R naught

15452

An HIV positive female gave birth to a neonate with full term normal delivery. Which of the following is contraindicated?

15453

68 year old patient with diabetic foot. Culture revealed lactose fermenting bacteria. Which method can be used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing

15454

12 year old presented with step ladder fever and rose spots. All are possible except

15455

All patients got infected by a bacterium growing in savlon. What is your clinical suspicion?

15456

33 year old with rice water stools 15 episodes daily for past 24 hours with vomiting after drinking water from a tube-well. Examination revealed dehydration. Which is the first test to be done to diagnose?

15457

9 year old boy presented with abscess depicted in blue. Diagnosis and most common cause

15458

16 years old with severe acne. Etiology, treatment?

15459

34 years old man developed spastic paralysis few days after road accident in India. First symptom expected would be

15460

22 year old positive for Kernig sign and Brudzinski sign. CSF picture of raised pressure, raised proteins, numerous neutrophils and reduced glucose is suggestive of

15461

88 year old patient with chronic cough and hemoptysis. Nikshay Poshan Yojana is related to

15462

13 year old schoolgirl with recent menarche forgot to remove her vaginal tampons and had to be admitted in ICU for a toxin mediated disease. Which antibiotics can reduce toxin synthesis

15463

14 year child with Hutchisons triad. All are included except?

15464

45 year old chronic alcoholic developed high fever, breathlessness and dyspnoea on exertion. Chest X ray revealed consolidation in right lower zone. Most common cause, type of hemolysis on blood agar and capsule status?

15465

20 year old patient with native valve endocarditis. Most common cause and diagnostic criteria

15466

65 years old with hemorrhagic diarrhea. Etiology, toxin and treatment?

15467

62 year old with Grade 2 disabilities after long history of untreated bilateral skin lesions and poor cell mediated immunity. Diagnosis, first line test and most important drug

15468

45 year old with disseminated TB diagnosis, liquid culture media?

15469

25 years old with Donovanosis after unprotected sexual contact. Etiology, clinical feature?

15470

5 year old child with Nikolskys sign positive after infection by Gram positive cocci. Diagnosis?

15471

12 year old baby unimmunized child living in a refugee camp was brought with sore throat, myocarditis and paralysis. What is expected in general/local examination?

15472

Urethral smear from a 24 year old after unprotected sexual contact. Identification and treatment

15473

35 year old policeman sustained a gunshot wound in left leg during a criminal encounter. He was brought after 3 days during your hospital duty with anaerobic bacterial myonecrosis. Etiology, treatment?

15474

14 year old schoolboy ate steamed momos with schezwan sauce from a street food stall. He developed dysentery after 24 hours. Etiology, treatment of choice?

15475

78 years old with breathlessness, fever, dyspnoea due to lobar consolidation. All are possible etiology except

15476

82 years old with long standing diabetes mellitus with multiple spontaneously occurring non-traumatic wounds in both feet. Culture on blood agar revealed swarming, Diagnosis, etiology?

15477

Entire village in an African country developed acute watery diarrhoea along with vomiting after drinking from a common source of water. Which transport and selective media to be used?

15478

44 year old multiparous Indian lady with GERD due to bacterial gastritis. Etiology and first line test?

15479

International space station astronauts found a shipment containing bacterial spores which was suspected as an attack of bioterrorism. Most probable bacteria?

15480

Young lab technician put a new test in which a bacteria was growing near the colony of Staph aureus on blood agar. This bacteria was cultured from CSF sample of a meningitis patient. Name of test, and name of bacteria?

15481

A new born infant was brought by parents with inspiratory whoop followed by cough. Gram negative coccobacillus with thumb print appearance was found. Diagnosis, etiology?

15482

52 year old milkman with undulant fever due to a zoonotic disease acquired from handling of cows and buffaloes. Diagnosis?

15483

42 year old rice farmer from Andaman with fever, icterus, hypotension due to a spirochaetal infection. Diagnosis, etiology?

15484

A slum area was found to have many patients dying due to a louse borne infection. Bacterial cultures on solid and liquid media were not contributory. Diagnosis, etiology?

15485

FMGE aspirants in Gautam Nagar celebrated a birthday party enjoying Chinese fried rice along with suitable accompaniments including rum and deep fried snacks. All of them developed vomiting within 6 hours of partying. Etiology and treatment?

15486

22 year old with genital Chlamydiasis. Etiology, treatment?

15487

77 year old TB patient on regular treatment. Which drug acts best on intracellular bacteria and most common side effect of that drug?

15488

A baby born to a Neisseria gonorrhoeae infected mother was referred to ophthalmologist. Diagnosis and treatment?

15489

14 year old teenager came with complaints of nocturnal enuresis and perianal itching. Drug of choice is

15490

37 years old with strawberry vagina. How will male partner present?

15491

12 year old child with anchovy sauce pus. Diagnosis and treatment?

15492

Treatment of 3 year old with Ascariasis

15493

Peripheral blood smear of a 30 year old female presenting with fever, chills and rigors showed the following. Drug of choice for treatment and chemoprophylaxis in India is

15494

12 year old subjected to DEC provocation test. Diagnosis?

15495

Peripheral blood from 34 year old found to have accole forms. Diagnosis?

15496

44 year male with tapeworm infection after eating pork. Diagnosis, treatment?

15497

57 year old bitten by this creature on face. Transmits all except

15498

All are correct about malaria treatment except

15499

36 year old resident of Darjeeling with fever, hepatosplenomegaly and blackish discoloration on skin after sandfly bite. Clinical diagnosis, testing and treatment?

15500

9 year old girl was given PAIR therapy. Diagnosis, etiology?

15501

58 years old HIV positive on cotrimoxazole prophylaxis. Protection will be conferred to all except

15502

34 year primigravida with 24 weeks POG from area with Chandler’s index >300. Urgent investigation would be?

15503

15 year female with webspace itching. Diagnosis, causative agent and treatment?

15504

9 year old child with acute flaccid paralysis with tripod sign. Diagnosis, treatment?

15505

37 year old detected to have lymphoma of Burkitt. Etiology?

15506

40 year old discovery channel wildlife photographer bitten by his immunized pet dog on the foot without oozing of blood in Amazon rain forest. Class of bite, number of vaccine doses and post exposure prophylaxis?

15507

New influenza pandemic started in 2030 in Gautam Nagar due to re-assortment. Which is the mixing pot?

15508

32 year female with breakbone fever, rash, gum bleeding after Aedes bite. Diagnosis, supportive treatment?

15509

27 year female with facial nerve palsy, eruptions on tympanic membrane, external auditory meatus and tip of tongue. Diagnosis, etiology?

15510

44 years old with an genital warts of viral etiology. Diagnosis, etiology?

15511

33 years old with Swine influenza. All are correct except

15512

45 year old Covid RT-PCR positive with respiratory rate 24-30/min, SpO2 90-93 percent in room air. All are recommended except

15513

3 year old child with a self-limiting ssDNA virus infection. Diagnosis?

15514

A flight of asylum seekers from West Africa is intending to make an emergency landing at Delhi airport. You are the airport health officer. Which of the following would you be most concerned with

15515

Identify the intracellular inclusion body from suckling mouse brain for post-mortem diagnosis of a fatal zoonosis seen in a 45 year old patient in India. Which stain is used? Where it is most commonly found?

15516

33 year old female with fever and severe joint pains after Aedes bite. Diagnosis, treatment?

15517

43 year old accidentally found to have this lesion on tongue during prosthodontic treatment. Identify the lesion and causative agent

15518

A 50 year old drug addicted female presented with immune compromised state of a viral disease. Which marker can be detected consistently throughout the entire course of disease?

15519

A doctor sustained a NSI from biomedical waste. Which is the appropriate PEP

15520

2 year old child with acute watery viral diarrhoea was admitted to paediatric ward. After 24 hours, other admitted children also had clinically similar diarrhea. Etiology, toxin?

15521

65 year female with chronic hepatitis negative for HBsAg, HBeAg, Anti HBc. Treatment, vaccine?

15522

39 year old unvaccinated female infected by Covid-19 in an international flight in 2021. All are correct except

15523

52 year old geologist with upper respiratory illness with the following virus. Receptor and treatment

15524

16 year old rock star addicted to i.v. drugs presented with fever. Which test you will advise initially?

15525

2 year old child admitted with acute bronchiolitis of viral etiology. Most probable etiology, treatment

15526

22 year old MBBS student with fever and lymphadenopathy after kissing a Covid-19 negative stranger on a one night stand. Diagnosis, screening test, treatment?

15527

15 year old MMRV immunized traveller from UK to India with multiple centrifugal rashes on hands and lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis, treatment, vaccine?

15528

46 years old with Crueutzfeldt Jacob disease. Etiology, treatment and mortality rate?

15529

New influenza pandemic started in 2030 on earth was being studied by a human colony on Mars for quarantine of space travellers. Genetic mechanism for evolution of this pandemic is?

15530

15 year old female immunized for Covid-19 and influenza with fever, nasal catarrh, sneezing, and rhinorrhea after kissing a stranger in a park. Diagnosis, etiology, treatment?

15531

24 year developed severe dengue second time, although had mild dengue first time. Diagnosis, reason?

15532

35 year old athlete uses antifungal powder in before wearing shoes. This is prophylaxis against

15533

8 year old Covid-19 patient in ICU since 15 days presented with black discoloration of face. Diagnosis, etiology and feature

15534

45 year old Indian farmer reported with multiple sinuses in the right foot due to fungal etiology. Diagnosis?

15535

33 year old G2P2 with white vaginal discharge since two weeks. No features suggestive of sexually transmitted infections (STI). Gram positive budding yeast cells were seen but no clue cells seen. Diagnosis?

15536

All are correct vaccines except

15537

All are correct vaccines except

15538

All are correct vaccines except

15539

44 year old patient sustained polytrauma due to bike accident. FAST revealed hemoperitoneum due to splenic rupture. Emergency splenectomy was done. Splenectomy increases risk of infection against

15540

Newborn baby got infected by Aggrigatibacter actinomycetemcomitans. First antibody synthesized will be

15541

10 week child was given pentavalent vaccine. All are included except

15542

45 year old with toxin mediated disease was given toxoid. What kind of immunity?

15543

47 year received monoclonal antibody therapy. All are possible except

15544

42 year old primigravida reported for vaccination consultation. Which of the following is contraindicated?

15545

33 year old deep sea diver was bitten by a shark leading to bacterial infection. Serological testing after 10 days revealed the following antibody in his serum. Identification and valency

15546

48 years old with history of multiple blood transfusions. At risk disease are all except?

15547

Serodiscordant couple to be advised for HIV prevention. Which of the following is safe?

15548

You are the medical officer for examining an outbreak of a respiratory infection in Tihar Jail. N95 is recommended for protection against all the following diseases except

15549

65 year female given needle free nasal vaccine?

15550

39 years old with upper respiratory infection. All are possible except

15551

36 years old with viral erythema. All are possible except

15552

All are included in Sustainable Development Goals 3 except

15553

2 year old child with congenital syphilis. All are possible except

15554

46 years old with fever and centripetal rash. All are possible except

15555

49 year old with muscle power grade V in all limbs, high muscle tone, clonus, exaggerated deep tendon jerks. All are possible except

15556

34 year old Canadian travelling for first time to India with fever and loose motions. Diagnosis, most common etiology and treatment?

15557

26 year old honeymooner with burning micturition, urgency, hesitancy and frequency. Diagnosis, treatment?

15558

36 year old with a cutaneous disease transmitted sexually. All are possible except

15559

26 year male suspected of syphilis. Which are the likely tests for screening, confirmation and prognosis after treatment?

15560

16 years old with cold abscess. All are correct except

15561

49 years old with upper respiratory infection. All are possible except

15562

36 years old with cephalocaudal rash. All are possible except

15563

Match the following Streptococci

15564

Enzymes of isomerase class catalyze:

15565

At which pH value do most proteins exhibit their maximum activity?

15566

When (S) is equal to Km, which of the following conditions exist?

15567

Estimation of the gamma glutamyltransferase is useful to detect one of the following conditions:

15568

In non-competitive enzyme action:

15569

Malonate is an inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase, a key enzyme in the Krebs tricarboxylic acid cycle. The presence of malonate will affect the kinetic parameters of succinate dehydrogenase in which one of the following ways?

15570

A 40-year-old tobacco farmer is seen in the ER with bradycardia, profuse sweating, vomiting, increased salivation, and blurred vision. He was spraying his field with malathion when the hose ruptured and he was covered with the malathion. Which of the following types of inhibition of enzymes does this poisoning represent?

15571

In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase 1 increases?

15572

The following graph shows a linear relationship between reaction rate and _____

15573

Which of the following is best marker of acute myocardial infarction?

15574

The main pathways of metabolism in brain are:

15575

The glycolytic degradation of ingested glucose commences with the action of which of the following enzymes?

15576

As cells in the erythrocytic lineage mature and lose their nuclei, mitochondria, and ribosomes, which of the following pathways can still be used to produce ATP?

15577

Table sugar which is used in making tea is:

15578

Newborn with severe acidosis and vomiting has elevated serum levels of lactate and alanine. This suggests a deficiency in which enzyme?

15579

A patient has been exposed to a toxic compound that increases the permeability of mitochondrial membranes for protons. Which of the following events in liver cells would you expect to occur?

15580

All the following compounds are members of the electron transport chain except:

15581

All the following statements are true with regards to gluconeogenesis, except:

15582

It is very important to feed the baby very soon after birth, because during the first few hours after birth the enzyme Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is present in very low amounts, and this fact compromises:

15583

In Galactosemia the Cataract is due to the production of:

15584

Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic process?

15585

Out of 24 mols of ATP formed in citric acid cycle, two molecules of ATP can be formed at substrate level, by which of the following reaction?

15586

After digestion of a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sugar as its primary ingredients, the major carbohydrate products entering the blood are which one of the following?

15587

Transketolase in HMP pathway function as

15588

Substrate-level phosphorylation differs from oxidative phosphorylation in that:

15589

The radiograph shows the Narrowing of joint spaces due calcification of intervertebral disc this condition is seen in?

15590

Glutathione is a:

15591

An amino acid that does not form an alpha-helix is:

15592

Some amino acids are termed non-essential as they:

15593

Histones are proteins which:

15594

Which of the following amino acids is most responsible for the buffering capacity of hemoglobin and other proteins?

15595

Albinism is a disorder involving what substance?

15596

A patient has an inherited disorder in which the administration of aspartame could be detrimental to her health. This patient most likely has which of the following genetic disorders?

15597

In a 55- year-old man, who has been diagnosed with cirrhosis of liver, Ammonia is not getting detoxified and can damage brain. Which of the following amino acids can covalently bind ammonia, transport and store in a nontoxic form?

15598

Urea is synthesized in:

15599

In a patient suffering from Cystinuria, which out of the following amino acids is not seen in urine of affected patients?

15600

Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence?

15601

An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following?

15602

Histamine, a chemical mediator of allergies and anaphylaxis, is synthesized from amino acid Histidine by which of the following processes?

15603

The synthesis of all of the following compounds except one is deficient in a patient suffering from Phenylketonuria:

15604

A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of abdominal cramps and diarrhea after drinking milk. What is the most likely cause of his problem?

15605

All of the following are associated with formation of methaemoglobinaemia, except:

15606

An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be expected to be deficient in which of the following nonessential amino acids, assuming that it is not obtained from dietary sources?

15607

Which of the following statements about redox potential is false?

15608

Which of the following enzymes catalyze the irreversible steps of glycolysis?

15609

Inhibitor of electron transport which inhibits transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria

15610

Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is used in gluconeogenesis:

15611

When choline of lecithin is replaced by ethanolamine the product is?

15612

The smell of the fat turned rancid is due to:

15613

First step in fatty acid synthesis involve:

15614

Which statement best describes the oxidation of odd chain fatty acids?

15615

LDL are formed as a result of degradation of:

15616

Which are the major factors facilitating development of atherosclerosis?

15617

A fatty acid with 15 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation and produce how much acetyl CoA molecule?

15618

Which of the following is true about ketone bodies?

15619

All the following statements about ketone bodies are true except:

15620

A 30-year-old man has been fasting for several days. His blood glucose level is now about 60 percent of its normal value, but he does not feel lightheaded because his brain has reduced its need for serum glucose by using which of the following substances as an alternate energy source?

15621

The structure of oleic acid can be described as

15622

Delta9 indicates a double bond between carbon atoms of the fatty acids:

15623

Iodine number denotes

15624

Nitrogen atoms of purines are derived from:

15625

A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is:

15626

The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme

15627

All are true about Lesch-Nyhan syndrome except:

15628

A palindrome is a sequence of nucleotide in DNA that:

15629

Okazaki fragment are synthesized in:

15630

Following enzymes are used in DNA synthesis are all except:

15631

Starting from 3 end (acceptor arm ) the correct sequence(towards 5 end) of the arm in the tRNA is:

15632

Which of the following blot techniques is used for identification of protein?

15633

Splicing phenomenon, which occurs in primary transcript for mRNA synthesis takes place in:

15634

Translocase is an enzyme required in the process of:

15635

Degeneracy of the genetic code denotes the existence of:

15636

All are post-transcriptional changes, except

15637

Shine dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

15638

Genes are:

15639

Nonsense codons bring about

15640

The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA

15641

An increased melting temperature of duplex DNA results from a high content of:

15642

End product of pyrimidine metabolism is:

15643

Laboratory tests for a 45 year old male alcoholic patient show an accumulation of lactate and pyruvate in bodily fluids, suggesting a block in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. He appears confused and shows a slight weakness of eye movement. This patient should most probably be treated with injections of:

15644

Patients with gout will have localized concentrations of needle shaped, negatively birefringent crystals of which substance?

15645

Rule of Chargaff state that:

15646

During PCR the DNA strands are separated using

15647

A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32 percent adenine, 18 percent guanine, 17 percent cytosine and 33 percent thymine. The nucleic acid must be:

15648

A febrile 45-year-old man who has been an alcoholic for the past 3 years reports severe pain in the right metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe. Findings on physical examination include erythema and heat over the joint. A complete blood cell count shows an absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis with greater than 10 percent band neutrophils in a 100-cell count. Synovial fluid shows needle-shaped crystals that have been phagocytosed by neutrophils. What finding best describes the pathophysiologic process?

15649

Prothrombin time remains prolonged even after parenteral administration of vitamin K in

15650

Which of the following is not a dietary antioxidant?

15651

Deficiency of vitamin A causes the following except

15652

Vitamin K plays an essential role in

15653

Vitamin necessary for CoA synthesis?

15654

The following vitamin is important in non-oxidative decarboxylation, transamination and transsulfuration reactions

15655

Most of the vitamin B12 in the body is stored as

15656

Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because

15657

Treatment of Multiple Carboxylase Deficiency is:

15658

A chronic alcoholic develops severe memory loss with marked confabulation. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins would be most likely to contribute to the neurologic damage underlying these symptoms?

15659

Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to:

15660

Malonicaciduria is due to the deficiency of?

15661

Children with dry and wet beriberi typically have a deficiency of which vitamin?

15662

Laboratory tests for a 45 year old male alcoholic patient show an accumulation of lactate and pyruvate in bodily fluids, suggesting a block in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA. He appears confused and shows a slight weakness of eye movement. This patient should most probably be treated with injections of

15663

Which of the following vitamins has antioxidant properties, reduces the incidence of heart attacks and deficiency of which can lead to hemolysis and neurological problems

15664

A patient on bipolar disorder treatment developed hypertension. He was started on thiazides for hypertension. After few days, he developed coarse tremors, confusion and weakness of limbs. Which drug toxicity occurred?

15665

True about competitive inhibition is:

15666

Not a prodrug:

15667

Neostigmine used in all these conditions except:

15668

Most important investigation for monitoring of clozapine therapy:

15669

Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular blocking agent used in day care surgeries:

15670

Dopamine, in less than 2mcg/kg/min dose, in shock leads to:

15671

Steady state concentration of a drug is achieved after how many hours if half-life of the drug is 2 hours and following first order kinetic elimination:

15672

Drug used to perform stress echo is:

15673

Belladona poisoning, All are seen except:

15674

Healthy volunteers are recruited in which phase of clinical trials

15675

Which of the following agent is DOC for NSAID induced gastric ulcer

15676

A 50-year-old woman complained to her physician of regurgitation of foul tasting fluid into her mouth and occasional nausea and vomiting. The physician prescribed a drug that can both prevent nausea and vomiting and promote upper gastrointestinal motility. Blockade of which of the following receptors most likely contributed to the therapeutic effect of the drug in the disease of patient?

15677

A 41-year-old woman complained to her physician of increasing frequency and urgency of bowel movements that she attributed to increased stress at work. The woman was diagnosed with spastic colon 4 years ago but was able to tolerate the symptoms until recently, when she noted the increasing frequency of bowel movements. A drug from which of the following classes could be appropriate to treat the disorder of patient?

15678

A 46-year-old woman recently diagnosed with classic migraine had a headache attack at least once a week. Ergotamine was prescribed to prevent the impending attacks. Which of the following actions most likely contributed to the therapeutic effect of the drug in the disorder of patient?

15679

A 47-year-old man presented to the clinic complaining of a recent onset of repeating episodes of vertigo associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient was otherwise healthy and denied use of alcohol or illicit drugs. Physical examination was unremarkable, but a provocative test elicited severe vertigo. A diagnosis was made, and a pharmacotherapy was prescribed. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

15680

A 48-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department because of serious breathing difficulty. Two hours earlier, she had taken a drug for a headache. The patient had been suffering from sinusitis and nasal polyps for 6 months. Physical examination showed severe bronchospasm. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the signs and symptoms of patient?

15681

A 53-year-old woman recently diagnosed with gouty arthritis started a treatment with a drug that inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to inhibition of tubulin polymerization. Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely take?

15682

A 60-year-old man hospitalized following a myocardial infarction showed a pronounced decrease in blood pressure and urine output 2 hours after the admission. A diagnosis of cardiogenic shock was made, and an emergency therapy was started. An adrenergic drug was given by intravenous infusion. Which of the following drugs fitting this profile would be appropriate for the patient?

15683

A 62-year-old woman had no bowel movements 4 days after surgery to remove a colon cancer. A diagnosis of a dynamic ileus was made, and an intramuscular injection of neostigmine was given. The activation of which of the following pairs of receptors most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the disorder of patient?

15684

Anti-diabetic drug not required dose adjustment in a patient of diabetes having chronic renal disease is:

15685

CB-NAAT is done to detect resistance due to mutation in

15686

In a patient with NSTEMI, all of the following would be given except:

15687

Which of the following is best to be used for induction of ovulation in polycystic ovarian disease patients:

15688

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug is contraindicated in a patient who is taking metoprolol:

15689

A bed ridden female patient with catheter related UTI by klebsiella pneumoniae; which of the following drug you choose if carbapenems are resistant:

15690

Lemon on stick appearance seen with which therapy:

15691

Which antiviral drug is use in both HIV and hepatitis B:

15692

Which of the following insulin may be given via intravenous route:

15693

Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a predominant peripheral vasodilator action and tocolytic effect:

15694

A 53-year-old woman is being treated for atrial flutter subsequent to a myocardial infarction. After commencing treatment she experiences prolonged depression, bradycardia and wheezing. Which of the following agents was the patient prescribed?

15695

Drug of choice for nasal carriers of MRSA is

15696

A 30-year- old woman recently diagnosed with moderate intermittent asthma started a treatment with inhaled albuterol as needed. Which of the following effects on pulmonary function testing most likely occurred soon after drug administration?

15697

A 13-year-old boy suffering from acute lymphoblastic leukemia was admitted to the hospital for the third cycle of anti-cancer therapy, which included high-dose methotrexate. Which of the following drugs should be given to the patient to counteract methotrexate toxicity?

15698

A 51-year-old woman suffering from chronic asthma was admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting, extreme restlessness, insomnia, tremor, mental confusion, and fever (103.1 degree F, 39.5 degree C). After her sister died a few days ago, she experienced increased hunger, dyspnea on exertion, palpitations, and diarrhea. Laboratory data on admission included a free thyroxine (FT4) level of 11 ng/d L (norm al 0.9−2.0 ng/d L) and undetectable thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH, thyrotropin) levels. Which of the following drugs should be included in the emergency treatment of the patient?

15699

A 43-year-old man was admitted unconscious to the emergency department. The man had been suffering from bronchogenic carcinoma for 8 months. Vital signs on admission were blood pressure 90/50 mmHg, pulse 95 bpm, respirations 10/min. Physical examination revealed signs of increased intracranial pressure, and a computed tomography scan disclosed diffuse cerebral edema due to brain metastases. The appropriate emergency treatment of this patient should include which of the following drugs?

15700

A 10-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department with the admitting diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Further exams confirmed the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis, and a drug was given prophylactically to all the heath personnel assisting the boy. The female personnel were instructed that hormonal contraceptives were not effective when taken with the given drug, as that drug was able to significantly reduce plasma concentration of estrogens and progestins. Which of the following was most likely the drug used to prevent the infection in close contacts of this boy?

15701

A 24-year-old obese woman in her 26th week of pregnancy was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus after a positive glucose tolerance test. She was otherwise healthy, and her past medical history was unremarkable. Dietary management failed to control the blood glucose, and her physician decided to prescribe anti-diabetic therapy. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for the patient at this time?

15702

A 59-year-old man suffering from type 2 diabetes had been receiving an oral anti-diabetic therapy that included a drug that closes adenosine triphosphate (ATP)−sensitive K+ channels on pancreatic beta-cell membranes. Which of the following drugs most likely uses this mechanism of action?

15703

A 48-year-old woman presented to the clinic because of chest pain on exertion for the past 2 days. Physical examination showed a woman in no apparent distress. Physical signs were blood pressure 105/60mmHg, pulse 85 bpm, respirations 15 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation revealed a regular rhythm with no abnormal cardiac sounds or murmurs. An electrocardiogram after exercise stress testing confirmed the diagnosis of exertional angina, and therapy with sublingual nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate was started. Which of the following adverse effects would be most likely to occur in this patient?

15704

Plague is transmitted by

15705

Reaction of Quellung is seen in all except

15706

Black fever and black water fever are seen in

15707

Man is the intermediate host in all except

15708

Meningococcal vaccine given to Hajj travelers includes the following serotypes of Neisseria meningitides

15709

Milk ring test and Whey agglutination tests are done for

15710

Dettol and savlon contain

15711

DEC provocation test is done in

15712

Reason for cut off titres in Widal test is

15713

Oroya fever is caused by

15714

All are correct except

15715

A 51 year old patient had a history of foul smelling non sticky stools, for which no treatment was taken. Later he had pain in the right hypochondrium. Liver aspirate showed Anchovy sauce pus. Diagnosis?

15716

A 28 year old male presented with painless chancre on external genitalia along with painless lymphadenopathy. Smear from chancre stained by Fontana stain revealed thin spirally coiled bacilli. How will you screen, confirm and treat?

15717

A 25 year old female presented with fever and pain in throat. Throat examination revealed the following. Diagnosis, most common causative organism and treatment?

15718

Botulinum toxin is used for all except

15719

All are correct except

15720

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by

15721

All are correct intestinal ulcers except

15722

Amsel criteria and Nugent score used in

15723

Which of the following is wrong

15724

Varicella zoster virus becomes latent in

15725

All are correct except

15726

All diseases have been eradicated except

15727

Primary receptor and co-receptors are:

15728

All are matched syndromes except:

15729

Which drug is not indicated in Omicron variant of Covid-19?

15730

Parents of a newborn came for counselling for diseases transmitted by breast feeding All diseases can be transmitted by breast feeding except

15731

A 17 year old underwent spontaneous abortion. How will the abortus be discarded?

15732

All are neurotropic viruses except

15733

A newborn baby kept in isolation and not given any vaccine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

15734

The surgical neck of the humerus is related to:

15735

The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the:

15736

The action of Latissimusdorsi

15737

The dermatome of middle finger is:

15738

The MCP joint is:

15739

The opening in central tendon of diaphragm transmits:

15740

Which broncho pulmonary segment is absent in left lung?

15741

The coronary dominance is determined by:

15742

Attachment of Sibson fascia is at vertebra:

15743

The membranatectoria is derived from:

15744

The nerve supply of long head of biceps femoris is:

15745

The largest branch of lumber plexus is:

15746

In walking hip bone of suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscle acting on the supported side of the body:

15747

Injury to which nerve would result in foot drop:

15748

The longest muscle in the body is:

15749

All are the anterior visceral branches of abdominal aorta except:

15750

At the time of puberty the capacity of stomach is:

15751

The blood supply of gall bladder is by cystic artery, branch from:

15752

The pericentral zone of liver acinus is more prone to:

15753

The white pulp is present in:

15754

The skin at angle of jaw is supplied by

15755

All of the following are branches of external carotid artery except

15756

Which of the following structure is seen in Nasopharynx?

15757

How many anterior ethmoidal air sinuses are

15758

Thymus develops from

15759

The upper motor neuron lesion present with all except:

15760

The CSF from lateral ventricle to 3rd ventricle moves via which foramen?

15761

The cranial nerve attached at ventro-lateral sulas of medulla oblandata is:

15762

The blood supply to temporal pole cerebral hemisphere is by:

15763

The somite develops from:

15764

The Michaehis-Menten hypothesis:

15765

Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?

15766

Spermatozoa in seminal fluid utilizes the following sugar for metabolism:

15767

Glycogen while being acted upon by active phosphorylase is converted first to:

15768

Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic process?

15769

A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared with a normal person, after eating a bowl of milk and oatmeal sweetened with table sugar, this patient will have higher levels of which one of the following? Choose the one best answer:

15770

Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of:

15771

McArdle disease is due to the deficiency of

15772

The bond in proteins that is not broken under usual conditions of denaturation:

15773

All the following statements about albinism are correct except

15774

Tyrosinosis is due to defect in the enzyme:

15775

An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following?

15776

Absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase causes

15777

An important feature of maple syrup urine disease is

15778

An 8-month-old baby girl had normal growth and development for the first few months, but then progressively deteriorated with deafness, blindness, atrophied muscle, inability to swallow, and seizures. Early on in the diagnosis of the child, it was noticed that a cherry red macula was present in both eyes. Considering the child in the above case, measurement of which one of the following would enable one to determine whether the mutation were in the hex A or hex B gene?

15779

Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver is found in:

15780

Unpleasant odours and taste in a fat (rancidity) can be delayed or prevented by the addition of:

15781

Gaucher disease is due to deficiency of the enzyme:

15782

All the following statements about carnitine are true except:

15783

A digestive secretion that does not contain any digestive enzyme is:

15784

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex linked, recessive absence of HGPRTase, may lead to

15785

The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of:

15786

IN a DNA molecule, the guanine content is 40 percent, the adenine content will be:

15787

Deficiency of Vitamin A causes:

15788

Concentration of pyruvic acid and lactic acid in blood is increased due to deficiency of the vitamin:

15789

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58 percent, WBC 13,300/mU/L, and platelets 600,000/mU/L. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97 percent on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?

15790

What occurs following activation of basophils?

15791

Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which of the following?

15792

Horner syndrome occurs when sympathetic nerve fibers to the eye are interrupted, leading to which of the following symptoms on the affected side of the face?

15793

Area of Broca is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to area of Broca?

15794

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential is due to:

15795

Increased gamma efferent discharge is seen in all except:

15796

Person with eyes closed and mind wandering will show in EEG:

15797

A 53-year-old woman is found, by arteriography, to have 50 percent narrowing of her left renal artery. What is the expected change in blood flow through the stenotic artery?

15798

A electrocardiogram (ECG) of a person has no P wave, but has a normal QRS complex and a normal T wave. Therefore, his pacemaker is located in the:

15799

Which of the following is the result of an inward Na+ current?

15800

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the end-diastolic volume of patient?

15801

A healthy 22-year-old female medical student has an exercise stress test at a local health club. An increase in which of the following is most likely to occur in this skeletal of woman muscles during exercise?

15802

A 65-year-old man is suffering from congestive heart failure. He has a cardiac output of 4 L/min, arterial pressure of 115/85 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Further tests by a cardiologist reveal that the patient has a right atrial pressure of 10 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected in this patient?

15803

If a patient undergoing spinal anaesthesia experiences a large decrease in arterial pressure and goes into shock, which of the following would be the therapy of choice?

15804

A 66-year-old man, who has had a sympathectomy, experiences a greater than normal fall in arterial pressure upon standing up. The explanation for this occurrence is:

15805

The basis of Korotkoff sounds is due to:

15806

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his:

15807

A 20-year-old man presents with increasing daytime somnolence. A 24-hour sleep study showing a sudden onset of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep without previous slow wave sleep confirms a diagnosis of narcolepsy. REM sleep decreases the secretion of growth hormone. The physiological secretion of growth hormone is increased by which of the following:

15808

A 75-year-old woman with primary hyperparathyroidism presents at her office of physician with dehydration and malaise. Which of the following plasma levels are most likely to be decreased:

15809

A 22-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 25 U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?

15810

A 39-year-old man with an enlarged head, hands, and feet, osteoarthritic vertebral changes, and hirsutism presents with a complaint of gynecomastia and lactation. The patient is most likely suffering from a tumor in which of the following locations:

15811

14-year-old adolescent girl reports blood in her urine 2 weeks after she had a sore throat. She has uremia and a blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg with peripheral edema, suggestive of volume expansion secondary to salt and water retention. Which of the following is the approximate extracellular fluid volume of a normal individual?

15812

Which of the following temporal sequences is correct for excitation– contraction coupling in skeletal muscle?

15813

A key difference in the mechanism of excitation contraction coupling between the muscle of the pharynx and the muscle of the wall of the small intestine is that:

15814

You are charged with the development of a new drug, which increased the absolute refractory period of the ventricular muscle. Which of the following left ventricular characteristics of this drug would most likely produce the desired effect?

15815

Excitation contraction coupling in skeletal muscle involves all of the following events EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

15816

Under normal physiological conditions, blood flow to the skeletal muscles is determined mainly by which of the following?

15817

Which of the following vessels has the greatest total cross-sectional area in the circulatory system?

15818

Blood flow to a tissue remains relatively constant despite a reduction in arterial pressure (autoregulation). Which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the reduction in arterial pressure?

15819

A 59-year-old woman has osteoporosis, hypertension, hirsutism, and hyperpigmentation. Magnetic resonance imaging indicates that the pituitary gland is not enlarged. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with these findings?

15820

Which of the following contributes to sodium escape in Conn syndrome?

15821

Men who take large doses of testosterone-like androgenic steroids for long periods are sterile in the reproductive sense of the word. What is the explanation for this finding?

15822

If a woman hears her baby cry, she may experience milk ejection from the nipples even before the baby is placed to the breast. What is the explanation for this?

15823

Neonates that are kept in 100 percent oxygen incubators for several days become blind when they are removed from the incubator, a condition referred to as retrolental fibroplasia. What is the explanation for the loss of sight?

15824

A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency room with a fracture in the neck of the femur. Radiographs reveal generalized demineralization of the bone in the area. Her plasma calcium ion concentration is significantly greater than normal: 12.2 mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is consistent with this presentation?

15825

Seven days after ovulation, pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) decreases rapidly. What is the cause of this decrease in secretion?

15826

A 65-year-old man has a 25-year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician because of swelling in his legs. A decrease in which of the following is likely to contribute to the development of edema in his legs?

15827

A 10-year-old boy consumes a cheeseburger, fries, and chocolate shake. The meal stimulates the release of several gastrointestinal hormones. The presence of fat, carbohydrate, or protein in the duodenum stimulates the release of which of the following hormones from the duodenal mucosa?

15828

The cephalic phase of gastric secretion accounts for about 30 percent of the acid response to a meal. Which of the following can totally eliminate the cephalic phase of gastric secretion?

15829

Parasympathetic stimulation increases gastrointestinal motility and sympathetic stimulation decreases motility. The autonomic nervous system controls gut motility by changing which of the following?

15830

A tsunami tidal wave hits the coastal part of India and the people living there are forced to drink unclean water. Within the next several days, a large number of people develop severe diarrhea and about half of these people expire. Samples of drinking water are positive for Vibrio cholerae. Which of the following types of ion channels is most likely to be irreversibly opened in the epithelial cells of the crypts of Lieberkühn in these people with severe diarrhea?

15831

Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15 percent of the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism?

15832

Light entering the eye passes through which retinal layer first?

15833

Which of the following is an important functional parameter of pain receptors?

15834

Which of the following is a group of neurons in the pain suppression pathway that utilizes enkephalin as a neurotransmitter?

15835

A healthy, 45-year-old man is reading the newspaper. Which of the following muscles are used for quiet breathing?

15836

In normal kidneys, which of the following is true of the osmolarity of renal tubular fluid that flows through the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa?

15837

Which of the following is filtered most readily by the glomerular capillaries?

15838

At a first-grade parent teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the paediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones?

15839

When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, a special set of respiratory neurons that are inactive during normal quiet breathing then becomes active, contributing to the respiratory drive. These neurons are located in which of the following structures:

15840

When oxygen moves through the thin side of the blood-gas barrier from the alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell, it passes the following layers in order?

15841

Why is milk produced only after delivery, not before?

15842

Use the values below to answer the following question. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure=47 mm Hg, Bowman space hydrostatic pressure=10 mm Hg, Bowman space oncotic pressure=0 mm Hg, at what value of glomerular capillary oncotic pressure would glomerular filtration stop?

15843

A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a new diuretic targeted to act on the Na+ reabsorption site from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the following transport processes is the new drug affecting?

15844

A 92-year-old man presents with dehydration following 4 days of persistent diarrhea. Under this circumstance, hypotonic fluid would be expected in which of the following:

15845

An 83-year-old woman with sepsis develops multiorgan failure. Based on her blood urea nitrogen of greater than 100 mg/dL, she is placed on continuous venovenous hemodialysis. Which of the following factors will increase the diffusive clearance of solutes across the semipermeable dialysis membrane:

15846

A 78-year-old woman recovering from a stroke is observed to have altered mental status. She is taken from the nursing home to the emergency department, where physical examination shows signs of dehydration and laboratory test results show a blood glucose concentration of 600 mg/dL and plasma osmolarity of 340 mOsm/L. Which of the following physiological variables is likely increased in this patient?

15847

True regarding nephron function:

15848

A 5-year-old boy presents with abnormal running, jumping, and hopping. His parents have observed that he uses his arms to climb up his legs when rising from the floor. The paediatrician suspects Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and electromyography confirms a myopathy. The amount of force produced by a skeletal muscle can be increased by which of the following:

15849

A 35-year-old male smoker presents with burning epigastric pain that is most pronounced on an empty stomach. In addition to peptic ulcer disease and gastric acid hypersecretion, the patient has a paroxysmal rise in serum gastrin in response to intravenous (IV) secretin. Normally, basal acid output is increased by which of the following:

15850

A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because?

15851

A 32-year-old female experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. Visceral pain:

15852

During a nerve action potential, a stimulus is delivered as indicated by the arrow shown in the following figure. In response to the stimulus, a second action potential

15853

A 32-year-old woman undergoing an appendectomy develops malignant hyperthermia following halothane anaesthesia. What changes in skeletal muscle cause body temperature to increase in this condition?

15854

A healthy 30-year-old woman is referred for a life insurance physical exam. History reveals that she has never smoked and vesicular breath sounds are heard at the periphery of the lung with auscultation. In the spirometry tracing below of patient, the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) equals which of the following?

15855

During which interval on the electrocardiogram (ECG) below does the aortic valve close?

15856

A 19-year-old man severs an artery in a motorcycle accident. A bystander applies a tourniquet to stop the bleeding. When the paramedics arrive, the blood pressure of the injured man was only slightly hypotensive and his pupils were reactive. The greatest percentage of the redistributed blood volume came from which of the following

15857

A 52-year-old woman with a chief complaint of snoring is referred for a sleep study. As shown in the graph below, the concentration of a hormone varied over the 24-hour period of study. This diurnal variation in plasma level results from the secretion of which of the following hormones

15858

Identify the cell shown by the arrow A in the picture:

15859

Identify the sugar molecule attached shown by the green colour in the A blood group:

15860

A 45-year-old female office worker had been experiencing tingling in her index and middle fingers and thumb of her right hand. Recently, her wrist and hand had become weak. Her physician ordered a nerve conduction test to evaluate her for carpal tunnel syndrome. Which one of the following nerves has the slowest conduction velocity?

15861

In the haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curves shown above, the shift from curve A to curve B is associated with:

15862

A 45-year-old male had a meal containing wild mushrooms that he picked in a field earlier in the day. Within a few hours after eating, he developed nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, sweating, and salivation. Which of the following statements about the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?

15863

Gastric pressures seldom rise above the levels that breach the lower esophageal sphincter, even when the stomach is filled with a meal, due to which of the following processes

15864

Identify the cell shown by the arrow A in the given picture:

15865

Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colour for matching than a normal person, then ha has a colour anomaly. More red colour is needed in case of

15866

Which of the following physiological processes is not correctly paired with a structure?

15867

The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle:

15868

Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing luteinizing hormone surge is associated with which of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:

15869

Out of the various phases of the action potential (recorded with one electrode inside the cell), which one has the longest duration:

15870

A professional athlete in her mid-20s has not had a menstrual cycle for 5 years, although a bone density scan revealed normal skeletal mineralization. Which of the following facts elicited during the taking of her medical history may explain these observations?

15871

Which of the following is responsible for carrying the polio virus from the terminal part of the neuron to the cell body?

15872

A 62-year-old woman experienced a rapid onset of blurry vision along with loss of central vision. A comprehensive eye exam showed that she had wet age-related macular degeneration. The fovea of the eye:

15873

Water is absorbed in the jejunum, ileum, and colon and excreted in the feces. Arrange these in order of the amount of water absorbed or excreted from greatest to smallest:

15874

A 37-year-old female was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. One of the potential consequences of this disorder is diminished taste sensitivity. Taste receptors:

15875

What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway?

15876

A healthy 29-year-old man runs a 10-km race on a hot day and becomes very dehydrated. Assuming that his antidiuretic hormone levels are very high, in which part of the renal tubule is the most water reabsorbed:

15877

What is the complication can occur after the partial gastric section as shown in the picture below?

15878

The physiological response to the heat as shown in the picture is due to the release of which neurotransmitter:

15879

The following given instrument is used to measure:

15880

In the picture, which type of transport process is shown:

15881

Identify the type of chart:

15882

In the following picture shown, the sensation of pain is decreased by which of the mechanism:

15883

Which of the following statements regarding the basilar membrane is correct?

15884

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

15885

Identify the cell shown by the arrow:

15886

Inflation of lungs induces further inflation is explained by:

15887

In the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs, which of the following occurs in venous blood?

15888

Sensory receptor potentials:

15889

Thumb has

15890

Hepato-splenomegaly is noticed in patients suffering from:

15891

Disease of Paget:

15892

All of the following are sesamoid bones except:

15893

Osteoporosis can occur in

15894

Disease of Pagent occurs due to dysfunction in:

15895

Hand-foot syndrome is found in:

15896

Osteogenesis imperfecta: defect lies in

15897

Patients suffering from achondroplasia have

15898

In children, all are true except:

15899

Major mineral of the bone is:

15900

Indicators of bone formation includes all the following except:

15901

Trident hands are seen in

15902

Orthopaedics anomalies seen in down syndrome is:

15903

Increased bone density is seen in all except:

15904

Madelung deformity is seen in

15905

Brown tumors are seen in

15906

Losser zones are predominantly seen in:

15907

Wimberger sign is seen in:

15908

Muller lines are seen in

15909

Ivory phalax is seen in

15910

Bony changes seen in thallasemia

15911

Not useful in management of osteoporosis:

15912

Paget disease: pick incorrect

15913

Predominant collagen in meniscus is:

15914

Most common cause of pseudoarthrosis is:

15915

Drugs which cause osteomalacial include:

15916

Wide intercondylar notch is seen in

15917

Senile osteoporosis will radiologically manifest only when greater than what percent of the skeleton is lost?

15918

Drugs which decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis are all except?

15919

Paget disease: pick incorrect

15920

Characteristic feature of achondroplasia is:

15921

Vitamin D resistant rickets:

15922

Indicator of bone formation

15923

Typical radiological changes of scurvy are seen at

15924

Pancytopenia may occur in

15925

Osteoporosis: fractures most commonly involve

15926

Infantile cortical hyperostosis is known as

15927

Most common joint affected by osteochondritis dessicans is

15928

Most common site of osteoporotic fracture is:

15929

Gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis is

15930

Wandering acetabulum is seen in:

15931

Picture frame vertebra is seen in

15932

Champaigne glass pelvis is seen in

15933

Which of the following collagen is predominatly defective in osteogenesis imperfect

15934

A 58-year-old male patient reported to the dental hospital with the complaint of difficulty in chewing food as his teeth were not in contact during mastication. History revealed that, there were swellings in the maxillary right and left posterior teeth region, which started 6 years back. On examination, extra-orally bilateral diffuse swellings were seen in the malar and zygomatic region bilaterally. Likely diagnosis

15935

A child was playing unattended in a playground. He fell down and sustained the following injury. Examination revealed a diffuse swelling around distal 1/3rd of forearm. Palpation did not reveal any abnormal mobility. Bony crepitus was also not noticed. X ray was done which returned the following picture. This kind of injury is more common in which age group

15936

A 35-year-old female patient reported with the chief complaint of deposits on teeth from the past 6-7 months. She also complained of intermittent mild pain in the lower back region from the past three months which aggravated on daily activity and was relieved by rest. There was no history of trauma and fractures in any other part of the body. General examination revealed a short stature, thin built with normal skin and gait. There was pallor present in the palpebral conjunctiva, nails, and the palms. On extra oral examination hypertelorism, exophthalmos, depressed nasal bridge, broad face, and a prognathic mandible were noted. Likely inheritance pattern of the disease

15937

A 55-year-old overweight man for 10 years. He presents to orthopaedics because he noticed moderate deformity and a significant amount of swelling. His wife has noticed also that the foot appears flatter when her husband is standing. On examination, there is an area of ulceration on the sole left foot of this men. There are signs also of inflammation including swelling, erythema and an increase in temperature of the skin compared to the unaffected foot. Co–morbidity likely to be associated are all of the following except

15938

A middle aged woman, known case of diabetes, developed severe pain after she slipped and landed on her right shoulder. X-ray showed no fracture and she was reassured. A few days later she is still having difficulty washing and dressing, although there is hardly any pain in her shoulder. On examination, the area was non tender, but she had a markedly reduced range of movement, particularly with external rotation. There were no associated neurological or vascular deficits. Likely diagnosis

15939

Patchy opacities may be noticed on chest X-ray in

15940

Stress fracture commonly involves:

15941

Occult fracture of neck femur is best diagnosed by:

15942

A 64 year old man had road traffic accident and sustained fracture of femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable cause can be:

15943

The classical example of muscular violence is:

15944

Compartment syndrome is treatment by

15945

True about Eponymous fractures is all except

15946

An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at postero medial aspect of both legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is:

15947

Commonest site of march fracture is:

15948

All of the following fractures facilitate nonunion except:

15949

The commonest cause of pathological fracture is generalized affection is:

15950

Mirel criteria is developed for the evaluation of

15951

Myositis ossificans:

15952

Common sites of non-union are

15953

Fat embolism is more common in

15954

Crush injury: management includes all of the following except:

15955

Earliest reliable sign in case of compartment syndrome is

15956

Most common cause of psedo-arthosis is

15957

Spina ventosa affects:

15958

Tuberculosis spine: pick correct

15959

True about osteomyelitis is all except

15960

Acute osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by

15961

Acute suppurative arthritis is associated with all except:

15962

Gissane angle in intraarticular fracture of calcaneum:

15963

Wandering acetabulum is seen in

15964

Tuberculosis of bone is characterized by:

15965

In a patient suffering from septic arthritis of hip: hip would be held in the position of

15966

Technetium scan all are correct except:

15967

Earliest changes seen in tuberculosis of hip are

15968

Tuberculosis: which of the following type is commonest

15969

Pencil in cup deformity is noticed in

15970

Metacarpophalangeal joints are spared in

15971

Gout: tophi are composed of

15972

Z deformity in rheumatoid arthritis is

15973

Elbow of student is:

15974

Most common joint to be affected in septic arthritis is

15975

All are Seen in ankylosing spondylitis except:

15976

Bamboo spine is seen in

15977

CASPAR criterion is used for:

15978

Most common cause of loose bodies in joints is:

15979

Piano key sign is seen in

15980

Most common extra articular manifestation in ankylosing spondylitis is:

15981

Psoriatic arthritis is seen in _____ percent patients with psoriasis

15982

Rodent facies are seen in

15983

A 40-year-old man is bothered by slowly progressive loss of mobility of his spine at the hips since the age of 25. He has a brother who is similarly affected. On physical examination there is loss of lumbar lordosis with decreased range of motion at his hips. Earliest changes in this disease are seen in which region?

15984

A 55 year-old man has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination he has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have?

15985

A 49-year-old woman has noted increasing difficulty with movement of her left hand for the past 2 years. On examination she cannot completely extend the left middle finger. In the palm of her hand at the base of this finger there is an ill-defined mass that is very firm to palpation. What will microscopic examination of this excised mass most likely show?

15986

Osteoarthritis involves all of the joints except:

15987

Rheumatoid arthritis typically affect

15988

RA factor:

15989

Felty syndrome includes all of the following except:

15990

Ankylosing spondylitis: pick incorrect

15991

Serious complications of ankylosing spondylitis is

15992

Drug of choice for psoriatic arthritis is

15993

Drug effective in acute gout is

15994

Triple deformity of the knee is seen in

15995

Most common cause of carperl tunnel syndrome is

15996

Trigger finger: most common to be involved are

15997

Congenital dislocation of hip: treatment for patient presenting at 6-18 months of age is

15998

A young male was brought to causality with alleged history of road side accident: On examination, patient was found to be hemodynamically stable, however his left lower limb was found to be shortened, internally rotated and adducted. Type of injury sustained is

15999

Avascular necrosis of femoral head, can be commonly observed in which age group:

16000

Shenton line is broken in:

16001

Pauwell classification is based upon

16002

Most common complication of intertrochanteric fracture femur is:

16003

Best treatment for fracture neck femur in a 65 year old lady is:

16004

Which is true about dislocation of hip joint

16005

Sciatic nerve palsy may occur in the following injury:

16006

Congenital dislocation of hip: in neonates, preferred investigation is:

16007

Shenton line is broken in

16008

Slipped capital femorasl epiphysis: most common age of presentation

16009

Best modality to diagnose perthes disease is:

16010

Artery to ligamentum teres is a branch of:

16011

Medial circumflex femoral artery is a branch of

16012

Commonest deformity in DDH is

16013

DDH: pick incorrect

16014

All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic fracture except:

16015

Which one of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluation of suspected Perthes disease?

16016

Slipped capital femorasl epiphysis: most common age of presentation

16017

Blood supply to head and neck of femur is mainly from?

16018

Investigation of choice for perthes disease

16019

DDH: femoral osteotomhy may be required in patients presenting between

16020

Developmental dysplasia of hip is commoner in

16021

Which of the following lines is deranged in DDH

16022

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is common in

16023

Most common cause of limp in children is

16024

Most common type of fracture neck femur

16025

Meyer procedure is useful for:

16026

A 62 year old female sustained femur neck fracture after falling off the stair case. She was immediately rushed to emergency department. X-ray was done and the injury was confirmed. According to a relevant classification system given below, she sustained type III fracture. Further the patient claims to have no complaints related to hip joint and has been maintaining an active lifestyle. Preferred treatment in this case would be

16027

Gun stock deformity is:

16028

Thumb of Game keeper is

16029

Tennis elbow is

16030

Scaphoid fracture: pick in-correct

16031

Knuckle bender splint is used for

16032

Fracture of Chhauffer is all except

16033

Putti plant operation is done for

16034

Volkmans ischemic contracture: muscle involved

16035

All are injuries of lower end of radius except:

16036

The term fracture of bennett is used to describe:

16037

Mallet finger is

16038

Commonest type of shoulder dislocation

16039

Lesion of Bankart is seen at

16040

Which of the following is test of posterior glenohumeral instability

16041

True statement regarding fracture of clavicle is

16042

In fracture surgical neck of humerus, the following nerve injury is common

16043

Hanging cast is used in

16044

Three point relationship is reversed in all, except

16045

A child is spun around by holding his hand by his father. While doing this the child started crying and does not allow his father to touch his elbow. The diagnosis is

16046

Monteggia fracture is a fracture of

16047

Following displacement seen in fracture of colle except

16048

Most common complication of fracture of colle is

16049

Nonunion is the complication of

16050

Recurrent dislocation of shoulder management: Bristow operation is

16051

Supracondylar fracture of humerus: most common complication is

16052

Volkman ischemic contracture: most commonly involved muscle group is

16053

Most common and 2nd most common nerve to be involved in supracondylar fracture of humerus respectively is

16054

Which of the following fracture is extra-articular?

16055

Fracture of Toddler is a ______ fracture:

16056

Thumb of Game keeper develops due to

16057

Most common position for shoulder joint to dislocate is

16058

Test of Phalen is useful in

16059

Pulled elbow: commonest age group is

16060

Scaphoid fracture: most common site is

16061

Montegia fracture dislocation involves all except

16062

The lesions associated with recurrent dislocation of shoulder include all, except

16063

Bristow operation is done for

16064

Which of the following is tested using the Lift off test

16065

All are intra-articular fractures except?

16066

Most common complication of supracondylar fracture is

16067

Jupitor fracture is

16068

Reverse monteggia fracture is

16069

Most common and 2nd most common complication fracture of colle is

16070

Most common site of fracture scaphoid is

16071

Cozen test is positive in

16072

An elderly woman suffered a fall and landed on her shoulder. Immediately she complained of severe pain. She is being treated for hypertension and diabetes mellitus. On examination there is a large bruise,swelling and tenderness to palpation over the right shoulder girdle. There is no neurovascular deficit though. Appropriate management would be

16073

The man in the image, an industrial worker tried to push a heavy wooden box with industrial batteries. When he could not get it moving, out of frustration he took a run up and gave a sudden heavy push to the box. He developed severe pain at his wrist joint shortly after. On examination diffuse swelling and bony crepitus was noticed. X-ray was done which revealed the following picture. Appropriate treatment of the condition is

16074

The following deformity is seen in

16075

The following surgery is done for _______ complication

16076

A motorcyclist sustained a high speed crash and sustained multiple injuries, one of his X-rays shows the injury is seen as described below. Preferred treatment of the condition

16077

Osteosarcoma: commonly affects which large joint in the body

16078

Sarcoma of Ewing has all of the following except

16079

Bone cyst is most commonly found in

16080

Which of the malignancies are radiosensitive

16081

Sarcoma of Ewing is associated with

16082

Osteoblastic secondaries are noticed in

16083

Chondroblastoma is a tumour of:

16084

Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:

16085

Solitary bone cyst is most common in the

16086

A patient presents with pneumothorax. Examination shows a swelling over knee. Chest X-ray shows lung nodules, give your most probable diagnosis:

16087

A 15 year old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-ray of the leg rule out of a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

16088

Commonest cause and commonest site in case of pathological fracture is:

16089

Multiple myeloma: all are true except

16090

Chordoma: most commonly arises from:

16091

Osteoid osteoma: is most commonly found at

16092

Corduroy appearance is seen in

16093

All are true regarding synovial sarcoma except?

16094

All the statements are true about exotosis, except

16095

Which of the following have an eccentric location

16096

Turn-o-plasty is used in the treatment of which of the following tumors?

16097

Physaliferous cells (large vacuolated cells) on histopathology are characteristic of?

16098

Multiple myeloma: most common age group is

16099

Osteosarcoma: pick incorrect

16100

Giant cell tumour commonly arises from

16101

Most common benign bone tumour is

16102

Predominant type of periosteal reaction seen in sarcoma of Ewing

16103

Most common site of adamantioma is:

16104

Most common primary malignant tumour affecting bones is

16105

Commonest site of metastatic bone disease is

16106

Soap bubble appearance is seen in

16107

Enchondroma commonly arises from

16108

Multiple enchondromas are seen in

16109

Amongst the following metastasis are least common in

16110

Following typical appearance on FNAC occurs in which of the following tumours

16111

A 23-year-old woman presented with history of worsening pain in the left heel, associated with a swelling. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan revealed a 5-cm lesion in the left calcaneus. A core needle biopsy showed bone that was infiltrated with poorly differentiated round malignant cells that were positive for CD99. Positron-emission tomography–computed tomography (PET-CT) scan showed multiple mild hot spots in the bony skeleton, including the lumbar spine at L3 and L5 vertebral bodies, the right femur, and the left femur, and numerous small lung nodules. Next step in management of the patient would be

16112

Which of the following is usually a surgical emergency

16113

Disease of Caffey is:

16114

Which is the first reflex to appear after spinal trauma recovery begins

16115

Nerve root of brachial plexus is

16116

Median nerve supplies all of the following except

16117

Squaring of patella is seen in

16118

Most serious spinal injuries can be sustained by

16119

Amputation of Body includes removal of

16120

Lasegue test is performed in

16121

Dennis brown splint is used for

16122

ROOS test detects

16123

Neuropathic joints are seen in

16124

Test of Tinel is positive

16125

Tourniquet paralysis is an unfortunate complication which leads to

16126

The nerve roots involved in Erb palsy is:

16127

All of the following features can be observed after the injury to axillary nerve, except:

16128

A patient presented with claw hand after a Supracondylar fracture was reduced and plaster applied. The diagnosis is:

16129

Dislocation of which one of the following carpal bones can present as median nerve palsy?

16130

Pointing index sign in seen in ______ nerve palsy

16131

Median nerve injury at the wrist causes

16132

Ape thumb deformity is observed in lesions of

16133

The Card test tests the function of

16134

Sign of Froment is present in paralysis of ______injury

16135

Sign of Froment is positive due to paralysis of

16136

Commonest cause of wrist drop is

16137

Test of Phalen is positive in

16138

True about carpel tunnel syndrome is all except

16139

Tarsometatarsal amputation is also known as

16140

In flap method of amputation which structure is kept shorter than the level of amputation

16141

Fracture of Jumper is seen in

16142

The correct order of the priorities in the initial management of head injury is

16143

Internal splints (fixation devices) are used in all except

16144

The trunk of brachial plexus most prone to injury is

16145

All of the following are examples of skin traction except

16146

Gait of Scissor is seen in

16147

Schmorls nodes are seen in

16148

Club foot management: Evan Dillwyn procedure is used in the age group

16149

Most common cause of pseudoarthrosis is

16150

Battered baby syndrome

16151

Adson test detects

16152

Hand foot syndrome is found in

16153

Which of the following are used for giving skeletal traction

16154

Traction of Gallow: indications include

16155

Agnes Hunt traction is used for?

16156

A middle aged male was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?

16157

Disease of Kinebock is due to avascular necrosis of

16158

Disease of Freiberg is

16159

Schmorls nodes are seen in

16160

Cozen test is performed to detect

16161

All of the following are true about fracture of the atlas vertebra, except

16162

Cotton fracture involves all of the above except

16163

Orthopaedics comes from the Greek words meaning what?

16164

A joint is innervated by the articular branches of the nerves which supply the muscles which move the joint. This law is known as

16165

Bone of Rider is present in

16166

Most important pathology in CTEV is

16167

Treatment of club foot in a child 14 years of age

16168

Phocomelia is

16169

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Blount disease?

16170

Triad of Klippel Feil syndrome consists of all except?

16171

Hypercalcemia is associated with all except:

16172

A middle aged male was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?

16173

Scottish tarrier appearance is seen in

16174

Disc prolapse is common at

16175

Most common cause of CTEV is

16176

Posteromedial soft tissue release is done in patients

16177

Median nerve injury cause failure of _____ at forearm

16178

Finkelstein test is used for

16179

Foot drop occurs due to injury to which nerve

16180

Identify the following device

16181

A 46 year old male went on to donate blood in a blood donation camp. Unfortunately he was diagnosed to be suffering from HIV infection. The person is question is prone to develop

16182

A 42-year-old male has a history of 6 months of pain in the lower thoracic region. Recently, the patient developed weakness in the right lower extremity, bladder and bowel movement. Plain x-rays were normal, but a CT myelography was done which showed following picture. Which of the following is the best suggested treatment?

16183

A previously fit 24-year-old office employee presented to the Emergency Department following a valgus injury to his left knee. He fell through a table whilst standing on it and his foot became stuck. On examination he was unable to weight bear with gross swelling to the medial aspect of his knee. Apart from fracture seen in the image, which structure is likely to be injured

16184

Most common structure injured along with the fracture shown in image below is

16185

Identify the fracture

16186

An overcrowded lorry ferrying young boys to a milltary recruitment centre got toppled over. A 19 year old boy sustained injuries to his foot. At the time of his examination his foot was found to be planter flexed. X ray was done which returned the following picture. The injury sustained is

16187

A retired professor presented to orthopaedics OPD with complaint of a painless swelling at the back of one of his knees. However some early morning stiffness in the knee is also present. This man walks with a slight limp. He has a mild varus deformity of the knee and there is an obvious swelling at the back of the knee in the region of the popliteal fossa. The midline lump is painless to palpation, cool, non-pulsatile, non-tender and fluctuant. There is reduced range of flexion and he is unable to fully extend this knee compared to the other. MRI was done which returned following picture. Likely diagnosis

16188

The pathology shown in the x-ray image below occurs primarily due to defect of which bone

16189

While playing a lawn tennis match, a young girl fell down on a cemented court. She complained of pain and was given pain killer medicines. Further she could not complete the match and went on to take some rest .The pain did not abate next day too. She sought orthopaedics opinion. X-ray was advised which returned the following picture. Next step in the management would be

16190

A 15 year old boy is noticed to be having lump around his knee. The boy explained that the lump had been there for nearly 6 months but has been increasing in size over the recent few weeks. On examination there is firm, irregular and tender mass arising from the proximal tibia. The boy describes no pain on palpation of the lump and his range of movement is full. There are no other lumps. Radiographs of his knee are shown below. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and serum alkaline phosphatase are raised

16191

An elderly man is referred is complaining of hip pain for some months. He was suspected osteoarthritis hence a pelvic X-ray was done, and he was prescribed NSAIDs. The pain has settled somewhat with analgesia. But his X-ray picture( shown below) prompted the attending doctor to consider the existence of

16192

A 7-year-old boy fell from his bicycle on his outstretched right arm in abduction with the elbow in extension. Examination of his right elbow reveals some swelling. On palpation of the elbow, he has localized tenderness, associated with a significant reduced range of motion of the elbow flexion and extension. He has no neurovascular deficit of the arm. Radiograph is shown as below. Preferred management of the condition is

16193

A 22-year-old man was slipped on a wet pavement. He complained of immediate pain and swelling at the base of his thumb following a valgus force being placed onto his abducted metacarpophalangeal joint. On Examination He has some swelling at the base of his thumb. On palpation he complains of tenderness over his thumb carpometacarpal joint. He demonstrates reduced range of movement in his thumb. Appropriate management is

16194

An elderly man met with a roadside accident. After the impact he complained of pain in the superior aspect of his right knee. On Examination this elderly man has a closed injury and swelling in the distal aspect of the femur and knee. He has some obvious tenderness to palpation around the distal femur. The radiographs were done which returned the following picture. The attending doctor advised other investigations which shall include all of the following except

16195

80-year-old woman living alone has presented to the emergency department after a fall. She has been lying for hours before being attended. She complains of pain in the groin and inability to bear weight on the affected side. Further she is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. She previously walked short distances with the aid of one stick. On Examination the affected leg has shortening and external rotation, and she is unable to actively move her hip due to the pain. Optimum management for her would be

16196

A young man sustained injury to his right leg while playing football. He was unable to bear weight. Doctor was called and the man was wheeled to hospital. On Examination he has some moderate swelling of the leg, continuity of skin was maintained. But the leg appears deformed. Distal pulses and sensation are present. Radiographs are shown as below. Preferred management is

16197

During college hours, two rogue students got involved in a fist fight and one of the students sustained the following injury. Instability was also noticed on different x-ray views. Preferred treatment is

16198

A 60 year old male patient presented with pain in the region of right hip radiationg to groin and buttock. He also complains of limp. On examination, all extremes of movements were found to be painful. X ray was done which returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis

16199

A 44 year old male fell from 1st floor of building onto an outstretched, internally rotated arm. The examiner noticed limited range of active and passive external rotation. X ray was done which returned the following picture. 1st treatment to be offered to this patient is

16200

The patient slipped of a ladder and grabbed one of its rails. He presented to causality with severe pain. Injection diclofenac was given and an x-ray was done. If a closed reduction is attempted, what are the likely complications which can appear

16201

A middle aged woman fell down riding a horse and her foot was caught in the stirrup. On Examination the foot has swelling in the mid foot region associated with ecchymosis on the plantar aspect. She is unable to bear weight on the foot owing to pain. Likely diagnosis

16202

A 56 year old patient presents with pain right hip for several months with associated limp. There is no history of trauma. Preferred treatment is

16203

Identify the fracture

16204

The following typical findings in seen in

16205

Cause of the following finding can be

16206

A 68 year old male presented to emergency department with severe pain and swelling in the knee joint. X rays were taken which returned the following findings. Likely diagnosis

16207

The following finding can be seen in

16208

A 9 year old child attending orthopaedics clinic presented with pain in the hip join exacerbated by activity. X rays were taken which returned the following findings. Likely diagnosis

16209

The following appearance is seen in

16210

The common age of presentation of the following condition is

16211

Drugs which can give rise to the following findings include

16212

A 40 year old male presented to causality department with history of road side accident. X rays were taken which returned the following picture. The clinical features include

16213

A 56 year old patient presents with pain right hip for several months with associated limp. There is no history of trauma. Preferred treatment is

16214

The following condition develops due to

16215

During college hours, two rogue students got involved in a fist fight and one of the students sustained the following injury. Instability was also noticed on different X-ray views. Preferred treatment is

16216

Identify the following fracture

16217

Identify the following pathology

16218

Identify the deformity: This type of deformity is most commonly seen in

16219

The following fracture is commonly seen in which age group

16220

Most commonly injured nerve in such kinds of fracture is

16221

Identify the following pathology

16222

The following type of fractures are seen in

16223

Identify the deformity caused

16224

Mechanism of the force which causes the following fracture is

16225

Identify the pathology

16226

Identify the pathology

16227

Identify the clinical condition

16228

A patient presents to orthoapedics with complaints of bone pains and repeat fractures. He was diagnosed to be suffering from a rare genetic condition. X-ray was done with following findings. Identify the condition

16229

Most common long term complication of the following fracture is

16230

The following type of pelvis is seen in

16231

The following finding is seen in

16232

A 70 year old male presented to orthopaedics ODP with history of back pain for last 5 days. The patient was apparently well before, and his back pain appeared after suffering a fall in the garden. MRI was done which returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis

16233

A 76 year old female was brought to surgical emergency after a history of fall from staircase. X rays were done which returned the following picture. Most common complication of the condition , amongst the following is

16234

The line marked as X and Y are

16235

The following fracture is commonly seen in which age group?

16236

Identify the following pathology

16237

The clinical investigation being performed would test the damage to

16238

Clinical investigation being performed is

16239

The investigation being performed shall detect

16240

Treatment which can be offered to this patient

16241

The following sign may be elicited in which of the following conditions

16242

Identify the following instrument

16243

Identify the clinical test being performed

16244

Identify the test being performed

16245

Identify the riser cast

16246

Identify the device

16247

A 16 year old female attending the orthopaedics clinic presented with following findings. The deformity is usually associated with

16248

Histopathological examination of a tibialdiaphyseal lesion returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis

16249

The following test is used to check the integrity of

16250

Identify the following device

16251

The following clinical examination is useful for

16252

Identify the following device

16253

The following device is used for

16254

Identify the following amputation

16255

Identify the test being performed

16256

Identify the associated pathology

16257

The following cast is used for fracture of which bone

16258

Identify the pathology

16259

The following device is

16260

Identify the pathology

16261

Identify the test

16262

Identify the following pathology

16263

Identify the pathology

16264

The classification system used is

16265

Identify the pathology

16266

Identify the pathology

16267

Identify the device

16268

The following typical appearance on microscopy is seen in

16269

Which of the following nerve is being tested?

16270

Following investigation is performed to test the presence of

16271

Identify the likely injury/condition

16272

22 year man presented to emergency department after having sustained the following injury. X-rays were performed which showed

16273

The following device may be useful during the management of

16274

A 44 year old patient, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to OPD with complaints of worsening of her joint pains and constitutional symptoms. He was diagnosed several years ago, and was advised DMARDs. However he stopped taking these medications after his condition improved significantly. Upon examination the following was noticed. Which of the following is true?

16275

Which of the following is tested using the following test?

16276

A 58-year-old male patient reported to the dental hospital with the complaint of difficulty in chewing food as his teeth were not in contact during mastication. History revealed that, there were swellings in the maxillary right and left posterior teeth region, which started 6 years back. On examination, extra-orally bilateral diffuse swellings were seen in the malar and zygomatic region bilaterally. Likely diagnosis

16277

Boutonniere deformity is

16278

Ganglion: commonest site is

16279

In senile age which of the following findings can be seen on microscopic examination

16280

Adults can decrease the aging changes by supplementing their diet with Vitamin E per day. This effect of Vitamin E is mediated by the following mechanism

16281

60 year old male has increasing difficulty breathing for the past 3 weeks. He is afebrile. On examination there is pitting edema and on chest X-ray bilateral pleural effusion. Following finding is most likely to be present

16282

60 year old female had an episode of altered consciousness 2 weeks ago. On gross examination in the brain, most likely diagnosis is

16283

60 year old male has occlusion of cerebral artery which resulted in inability to move her right arm. After giving thrombolytic therapy she regains, some ability to move her arm. After giving thrombolytic therapy, which of the following cellular changes subsided?

16284

50 year old man has renal failure for the past 3 years. On microscopic examination of renal biopsy there is deposition of pink amorphous material on hematoxylin and eosin staining. On immunohistochemical staining these deposits is positive lambda light chains. Most likely the condition present is

16285

22 year old female has chest pain and arthralgias for the past 2 years. On examination there is anemia and on chest X-ray there is bilateral pleural effusions. Initial test to be done is

16286

Male child, 1 year of age has failure to thrive and has history of 2 episodes of pneumonia. There were no congenital anomalies at birth. Most likely diagnosis is

16287

Renal transplantation was done after matching by tissue typing for HLA-DR (Class II) antigens. By tissue typing which of the following immunologic abnormalities has been avoided?

16288

25 year old female has symmetrical, proximal weakness for 6 months. Her antinuclear antibody test is positive along with anti-Mi-2. Following additional findings will be present

16289

Which of the following hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by release of IL-4 and IL-5?

16290

Glomerulonephritis seen in Systemic lupus erythematosus is mediated by

16291

In 30 year old man there are features of Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis and scleroderma. His antinuclear antibody test is positive. Following tests is likely to be positive

16292

Following Streptococcal pharyngitis there is passage of dark coloured urine after 10 days. On urine examination there is 3+ blood. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity mechanism is responsible for these findings?

16293

45 year old female has difficulty in moving fingers, difficulty in swallowing and has lost facial wrinkles that were developing. On skin biopsy there is extensive dermal fibrosis but no inflammatory cell infiltrates. Most likely conditions is

16294

True regarding the inheritance of autosomal dominant disorders is

16295

Out of the following true statement regarding autosomal recessive disorders is

16296

Inheritance of both pair of chromosome from a single parents is called

16297

Myotonic dystrophy type 1 is an example of trinucleotide repeat mutation. Following repeat is seen

16298

In Leber hereditary optic neuropathy, mode of inheritance is

16299

In X linked dominant inheritance, true is

16300

Epigenetic modification causing the gene silencing. It is seen in

16301

Out of the following disorders anticipation is seen in

16302

5 year old child has defect in the cytoskeletal elements of the red cell membrane. Mode of inheritance of this disorder is

16303

All are true about X linked recessive disorders except

16304

52 year old female has episodes of altered mental status for the past month. On Doppler examination, there is bilateral carotid artery involvement and was given folic acid supplementation. Following finding is most likely to be present

16305

Heart failure cells are seen in left ventricular failure. They are modified

16306

Pulmonary edema seen in left ventricular failure is due to pathological mechanism

16307

Correct sequence of events in normal hemostasis is

16308

During vascular injury, platelets are attached to endothelium via Von Willebrand factor by the receptor

16309

At the end of a normal menstrual cycle the endometrium breaks down. On microscopic examination there is cellular fragmentation. Pathological basis for this is

16310

35 year old male on chest X-ray has 2 cm nodule in the right middle lobe. On microscopic examination there is caseous necrosis and calcification. This calcification is due to

16311

3 year old child had liver transplantation done due to inborn error of metabolism. After 1 year, the size of each liver in donor and recipient is greater than at the time of transplantation. This is explained by

16312

In a cell there is formation of misfolded proteins. This can lead to the activation of the following cytoplasmic enzyme

16313

50 year old male has cardiac arrest. Thrombolytic therapy is given. Which of the following cellular processes is most likely to occur in myocardium following thrombolytic therapy

16314

Venous embolus that passes through an interatrial or interventricular defect and reaches systemic arterial circulation is called

16315

All are the cause of systemic thromboembolism except

16316

All are the features of post-mortem clot except

16317

28 year old female after vaginal delivery had severe dyspnea, cyanosis, and shock followed by neurologic impairment and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Most likely cause is

16318

Most common congenital cause of hypercoagulation is Leiden mutation. It is due to mutation in clotting factor

16319

55 year old female has lump in her left breast. On physical examination breast mass is fixed to the chest wall. On microscopic examination there is hyperchromatism and pleomorphism. The neoplastic cells are more likely to be in which of the following phases of cell cycle

16320

Absence of the following gene will result in multiplication of damaged DNA

16321

40 year old male has reddish nodular lesions present on the lower limb. There is no itching and are not painful. Lesions are increasing in size and number over the past 4 months. Most likely cause is

16322

Out of the following microscopic findings, which is most likely to indicate that the neoplasm is malignant

16323

55 year old man has worked in a plastic factory for the last 20 years. He has history of weight loss, nausea and vomiting over the past 6 months. On abdominal CT there is a mass in right lobe of liver. Most likely it is due to exposure to

16324

Child was born with a single functional wild type allele of a tumor suppressor gene. At the age of 6 years normal allele is lost through a point mutation. Which of the following neoplasm is most likely to arise by this mechanism?

16325

Carcinogens are substances causing cancer. Which of the following neoplasm is due to virus oncogenesis

16326

33 year old female has dull pain for the last two months. On physical examination there is a mass palpable the right lower quadrant. On abdominal ultrasound there is a 6 cm mass involving the right ovary. On surgical resection, ovary is cystic and filled with hair. Most likely neoplasm is

16327

65 years old male has history of painless hematuria for the past 3 months. On microscopic examination the cell have hyperchromatism and increased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio involving the full thickness of the epithelium. These changes are confined to the epithelium above the basement membrane. These findings are suggestive of

16328

70 year old male is found to have adenocarcinoma of colon. Most likely genetic changes is

16329

10 year old boy has history of running nose and watery eyes each time when there is changes of season. These symptoms are medicated by which of the following chemical mediator

16330

During wound healing, there is in growth of new capillaries within the first week. It is most likely due to

16331

50 year old male has history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and worsening congestive heart failure. These is history of dyspnea and orthopnea for the past 2 months. On chest X-ray there is bilateral pleural effusion. Which of the following characteristic indicated that effusion is a transudate

16332

Zinc plays a role in the wound healing. It is helpful in the process of

16333

12 year old boy, abdominal surgery was done for appendicitis. The most of tensile strength will be achieved in

16334

18 year old male had laceration on the left medial aspect of his leg. Wound is closed with sutures. Which of the following factors will help in wound healing?

16335

52 year old male has difficulty in breathing for the past 1 week. He is afebrile and has pitting edema present upto the level of knees. Most likely finding is

16336

55 year old male has fracture of left femur and is hospitalized for 2 weeks. Now he has swollen left leg. There is pain on movement of the leg and tenderness to palpation. Most likely complication which can occur is

16337

Out of the following substances which enhances engulfment, so more bacteria are destroyed during inflammation is

16338

In pharyngeal infection there is swelling, erythema and pharyngeal purulent exudate. Most likely inflammation present is

16339

A CSF picture of raised pressure, proteins, neutrophils and reduced glucose is suggestive of

16340

Drug of choice for the following is

16341

Mosquito control can be done by all except

16342

DEC provocation test is done in

16343

Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively

16344

The cornea of eye in image shows which type of defect

16345

A 3-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with severe pain. History taking reveals that the girl was violently lifted by her raised arm by her mother to prevent the girl from walking in front of a moving car. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the pain?

16346

A 49-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a cold and pale foot. Physical examination reveals that the patient suffers from peripheral vascular disease and his popliteal artery is occluded and no pulse is felt upon palpation. What is the landmark to feel the pulse of the femoral artery?

16347

A child presented with history of ingestion of some unknown plant and developed mydriasis, tachycardia, dry mouth, warm skin and delirium. Which of the following group of drugs is used to treat for symptoms of this child

16348

Epinephrine is added to xylocaine injection: All are true except

16349

Which of the following is not true regarding clinical trials

16350

A young girl has paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate with palpitations and shortness of breath near to her exam dates. Panic attacks were diagnosed by physician. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for prophylaxis in this patient?

16351

A 51-year-old woman has a history of recurrent nephrolithiasis, now diagnosed as having osteoporosis. The most useful diuretic agent to prescribe in this patient is

16352

A female patient was on warfarin therapy for prosthetic valves. What advice should be given to her regarding use of this drug during early pregnancy

16353

A patient presented after road traffic accident. This patient is having raised ICP but no intracranial hematoma was seen. Which is the best drug to start in this patient to manage his condition

16354

A new drug is developed that blocks the transporter for H+ secretion in gastric parietal cells. Which of the following transport processes is being inhibited?

16355

A 49-year-old male patient with severe disease of Crohn has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because

16356

A newly developed local anaesthetic blocks Na+ channels in nerves. Which of the following effects on the action potential would it be expected to produce

16357

A 40-year-old male presents with hyperpigmentation as shown in Image. It occurs due to

16358

Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding the following method of hanging

16359

Your patient has lost the ability to discriminate between two points presented simultaneously to the skin of the left hand. Your neurological evaluation is most likely to reveal a lesion in the

16360

Neurons that send axons into the cerebellum in the middle cerebellar peduncle are controlled by which part of the brain?

16361

Starting from 3 end (acceptor arm) the correct sequence(towards 5 end) of the arm in the tRNA is

16362

Features which are suggestive of viability except

16363

Bluish discolouration during healing of a contusion is due to

16364

Which one is the best inquest in India

16365

A 40-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of fatigue. She had recently been treated for an infection. Her laboratory values are RBC 1.8×106/Mul, Hb 5.2 g/dL, hematocrit (Hct) 15, WBC 7.6×103/Mul, platelet count 320,000/Mul, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fL, and reticulocyte count 24 percent. What is the most likely explanation for this presentation?

16366

A patient having history of travelling to Assam, developed fever, chills, rigors and altered sensorium. Peripheral smear shows presence of plasmodium falciparum. What is the treatment of choice for this patient

16367

Which of these drugs is the most efficacious?

16368

All coronaviruses epidemics started in respective years and places except

16369

India is considered capital of which infectious disease

16370

All are correct disease etiology pairs except

16371

Identify the correct combination

16372

According to section 320 IPC, which one is not considered as grievous hurt

16373

Most common extra pulmonary TB is

16374

Type of diarrhoea in cholera and rotavirus is

16375

All cause enteric fever except

16376

Match the following

16377

55 year old male has malignant lymphoma. He is treated with chemotherapeutic agent, which results in loss of individual neoplastic cells through fragmentation of individual cells nuclei and cytoplasm. Over the next months, the lymphoma decreased in size. Neoplasm has responded to the therapy by the mechanism

16378

60 year old female has cough & fever for the past 2 days. On sputum culture there is Staphylococcus aureus. She is given antibiotic therapy and two weeks later there is fever but no cough. Most likely diagnosis is

16379

25 year old motorcyclist had blunt force abdominal trauma. In response to this injury, cells in tissues of abdomen are stimulated to enter the G1 phase of the cell cycle from the G0 phase. Which of the following cell types is most likely to remain in G0 following this injury

16380

22 year old female has a palpable nodule in the thyroid gland. There is no lymphadenopathy. On fine needle aspiration cytology following picture was seen. Which of the following findings would you consider in her past history to indicate a risk factor for this neoplasm

16381

Hereditary renal cell cancer, pheochromocytomas, hemangioblastoma of the central nervous system, retinal angioma are associated with the loss of tumour suppressor gene

16382

A female presented with pain and redness in her great toe. Serum uric acid level was 9.7 mg/dl. Apart from analgesic, one more drug was prescribed to her that decreases the formation of uric acid. Which enzyme is likely to be inhibited by this drug

16383

Which of the following explains the suppression of lactation during pregnancy?

16384

60 year old male is diagnosed to have small cell lung carcinoma. On bone scan there is no metastases. On physiological examination, he has puffiness of face, pedal edema, bruises of skin and blood pressure 165/100 mmHg. On immunohistochemical staining, the tumour cell s likely to be positive for which of the following hormone

16385

Drugs used in narcoanalysis are all except

16386

Identify the lesion

16387

Liquefied compressed gases at room temperature are all except

16388

The maximum systemic absorption of a local anesthetic is seen with

16389

A man goes on a hunger strike and confines himself to a liquid diet with minimal calories. Which of the following would occur after 4 to 5 hours?

16390

If 2, 4-dinitrophenol is added to tightly coupled mitochondria that are actively oxidizing succinate

16391

Which of the following can be formed by hydroxylation of phenylalanine?

16392

60 year old male has chronic cough and was diagnosed squamous cell carcinoma in his left lung. During surgery hilar lymph nodes were enlarged and jet black in colour throughout. Appearance of hilar lymph nodes is due to

16393

60 year old male suffers from an attack of acute myocardial infarction. Thrombolytic therapy with tissue plasminogen activator was administrated to restore coronary blood flow. In spite of the therapy, degree of myocardial fibre injury may increase because of

16394

20 year old man had road side traffic accident. There was extensive blood loss and patient remains hypotensive for hours during transport to hospital. Least damage will be seen in the following tissue

16395

A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department after a car crash. Radiographic examination reveals a whiplash injury in addition to hyperextension of her cervical spine. Which of the following ligaments will most likely be injured?

16396

Which of the following structures is not derived from the diencephalon?

16397

Asking the patient to adduct the eye and then look down tests

16398

A 54-year-old female marathon runner presents with pain in her right wrist that resulted when she fell with force on her outstretched hand. Radiographic studies indicate an anterior dislocation of a carpal bone (figure). Which of the following bones is most likely dislocated?

16399

A 37-year-old male is admitted to the hospital after an injury to his foot while playing flag football with friends on a Saturday morning. A series of radiographs demonstrates a fracture involving the talocrural (tibiotalar, ankle) joint. Which movements are the major ones to be affected by this injury?

16400

54-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department after he was struck by an automobile. Radiographic examination revealed a fracture through the crista galli of the anterior cranial fossa, resulting in slow, local bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely source of bleeding?

16401

A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with severe chest pain. Angiography demonstrates a severe coronary occlusion. A thrombolytic agent is administered to re-establish perfusion. Which of the following does the thrombolytic agent activate

16402

When a person moves from a supine position to a standing position, which of the following compensatory changes occurs?

16403

An electrocardiogram (ECG) of 30-year-old female patient shows two P waves preceding each QRS complex. The interpretation of this pattern is

16404

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats per min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the end-diastolic volume of patient?

16405

A 3-year-old male who fell from a tree complains of severe pain over the right side of his chest because of a rib fracture at the mid axillary line. He is admitted to the hospital due to his difficulty breathing. Radiographic and physical examinations reveal atelectasis, resulting from the accumulation of blood in his pleural space and resulting hemothorax. What is the most likely the source of bleeding to cause the hemothorax?

16406

A 42-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital after suffering a ruptured spleen in a skiing accident. Physical examination reveals intense pain that radiates to the region of the left shoulder, presumably due to irritation of the diaphragm. Which of the following signs best describes this condition?

16407

A premature infant has progressive difficulty in breathing and is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome. Which cells are deficient in synthesizing surfactant in this syndrome?

16408

80-year-old men with a history of a recent change in his treatment for moderately severe hypertension is complaining of dizziness while getting up from bed and when suddenly stand up after prolonged sitting. Which of the following drug is most likely to cause this problem?

16409

A 34-weeks pregnant lady presented with seizures. Her blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Which drugs should be used for the treatment of this patient?

16410

A lady has taken medication of ameiobiasis infection. In a party she drank alcohol. She has nausea vomiting and dizziness. Which anti-amoebic drug could have lead to interaction with alcohol to produce these symptoms?

16411

A 34-year-old male complains of hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds). Injury to which of the following cranial nerves is responsible?

16412

The following statements concerning the cerebral aqueduct are correct except

16413

10 year old healthy girl has reddish, raised nodule on the skin of the upper part of her chest. It has been present for years and has not appreciably changed in size or color. It is most likely

16414

When exercising, a 19-year-old man develops an acute episodes painful cramp. Administration of oral glucose during the acute episodes does not alleviate the symptoms. Additional studies show that blood lactate not increased after exercise. The patient most likely has a deficiency of what enzyme?

16415

In the biosynthetic pathways for the Synthesis of heme, creatine, and guanine, which one of the following amino acids directly provides carbon atoms that appear in the final product?

16416

A key difference in the mechanism of excitation–contraction coupling between the muscle of the pharynx and the muscle of the wall of the small intestine is that

16417

A 92-year-old man presents with dehydration following 4 days of persistent diarrhea. Under this circumstance, hypotonic fluid would be expected in which of the following

16418

A 65-year-old alcoholic developed chest pain and cough with an expectoration of sputum. A blood sample revealed that his white blood cell count was 42,000/Mul. What is the origin of these WBCs?

16419

Area of Broca is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to area of Broca?

16420

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential is due to

16421

All are properties of spinal cord reflex except

16422

Which of the following is false about fatty acids?

16423

A 35-year-old woman has had ptosis and diplopia for the past 6 months. She recently has developed leg muscle fatigability that causes her difficulty with running, walking, and climbing stairs. She is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, and pyridostigmine bromide is prescribed. During treatment, what is the most likely effect of pyridostigmine on the reaction catalyzed by acetyl cholinesterase?

16424

Very early in embryonic development, testosterone is formed within the male embryo. What is the function of this hormone at this stage of development

16425

Male infant was born at term. At 1 year of age he has failure to thrive and recurrent pneumonias. Which of the following disease is the most likely have?

16426

50 year old female comes with complaints of fingers becoming pale and painful on exposure to cold. Her anti-nuclear antibody test is positive. There is no other significant history. She is most likely to have which of the following auto immune disease:

16427

60 year old female has arthritis over the last 15 years. On physiological examination arthritis involves her hand and feet and there are joint deformities. Rectal biopsy shows submuscous deposition of pink amorphous material that stains positively with Congo red. Which of the following procures or proteins most likely give rise to these deposits?

16428

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (Vt) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

16429

A tripeptide has

16430

Seborrheic dermatitis is caused by

16431

Fracture of Hangman is

16432

Tandem bullet is also known as

16433

Which of the following is not true about secondary protein structure?

16434

Which of the following statements is true?

16435

Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is used in gluconeogenesis

16436

The reaction in DNA replication catalyzed by DNA ligase is

16437

Transcription is catalyzed by

16438

Which of the following R group is responsible for buffering in proteins:

16439

34 weeks infant, weight is 1.7kg. Kangaroo mother care is initiated in this child. Hallmark of Kangaroo mother care is

16440

Criteria for effective phototherapy in new-born is

16441

Patient presented with lethargy, loss of appetite and low grade fever. Chest X-ray was done. It is suggestive of

16442

Out of the following which can remain open after 6 months without any clinical significance is

16443

In the Patent ductus arteriosus which of the following can be seen

16444

Which of the following is seen in respiratory distress syndrome in neonate

16445

In a 8 month old child following speech and language skill is seen

16446

Child birth weight 4 kg now has blood glucose level 30mg/dL at 24 hours of age. Apgar score was 8 and 10. On examination jitteriness is present. There is no murmur and normal male genitalia. Most appropriate initial test is

16447

Among the following maternal factors, fetal growth is least affected by

16448

Which of the following is false with respect to the Image showed below?

16449

In an infant of diabetic mother, there is polycythemia and glucose level of 65mg/dL. This infant is at increased risk for developing

16450

All of the following can cause sensorineural hearing loss in children except

16451

2-year-old boy has spasticity in both lower limbs. Deep tendon reflexes are increased. MRI of his brain is most likely to show

16452

Mother received opiate medication for pain relief 1 hour before delivery. After birth, the baby does not have spontaneous respirations and does not improve with stimulation. Most appropriate next step is

16453

Most important transition event that occurs with birth is

16454

In cystic fibrosis total of 1900 mutation can be seen. Most common mutation is Phe 508 del. This mutation leads to following change in CFTR protein

16455

Hallucination is a disorder of

16456

A 25-year-old woman has moderate tearing pain in her left eye. She was recently placed on topical corticosteroids for suspected allergic conjunctivitis. A gram stain and Giemsa stain are negative for organisms. A fluorescein stain of the eye exhibits the above image. What is the most likely diagnosis?

16457

A 74 year old patient has been on hydroxychloroquine for last 10 years. The doctor examined the eye and found some drug deposition in cornea. Fundus examination also revealed central lesions. Which is true from the following?

16458

All are seen in PTSD except

16459

Drug of Choice of resistant schizophrenia is

16460

70 years old patient came with complaints of chronic abdominal pain. Identify the following investigation done

16461

30 year old primigravida came with complains of vaginal bleeding, pain abdomen and vomiting. Uterus is enlarged, soft, non-tender. Ultrasonography was done and is as follow. Most likely diagnosis is

16462

A 60year old female presents with history of a globus sensation in the neck, dysphagia, bad breath and aspiration pneumonia. Barium swallow shows the following appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

16463

A 32 year old female patient came with complaints of headache for a few days. On examination she was found to have blood pressure significantly higher than normal. Following Image is the CT Angiography finding of her. Diagnose the condition

16464

A 36-year-old multiparous woman, 20-weeks pregnant, presents to surgery OPD with complaint of a persistent, tender left breast mass for last 3 weeks. There is no past history of breast problems and no family history of breast or ovarian cancer, and she previously successfully breast-fed her other children. Physical examination discloses a firm but not hard, slightly tender, discrete 3x2 cm mass without any overlying skin changes. The patient came with a recent bilateral mammogram, which showed only dense breast tissue without any obvious abnormalities, read as BIRADS 1 Further management should be

16465

The following image is that of ductography performed on a 32 year old female. Most common clinical feature of the condition she is suffering from

16466

A 46 year old woman presents with history of chronic non healing rash involving her left nipple. Rest of the general physical examination and local examination were found to be un-remarkable. Mammography was advised, which did not turn out to be informative. Next step in management shall be

16467

A 32-year-old woman attends the breast clinic with a strong family history of breast cancer. Two of her sisters, her mother and her maternal daughter of aunt had breast cancer at an early age. She wants to know her risk of getting breast cancer

16468

A 48-year-old woman feels a hard lump that is painless and gradually increasing in size over the past 4 months. Her mammogram shows a speculated mass in the right breast. BIRADS staging would be

16469

A 45-year-old woman presented with a painless lump in her left breast. Biopsy was performed which shows the duct lobular units distended by tumour cells, exhibiting round nuclei and small nucleoli. The cancer cells form solid clusters that pack and distend lobular acini. Next step in management should be

16470

A 42-year-old woman presents to surgery OPD complaining of persistent nipple discharge for last 4 months. Breast examination reveals no lump in either breast but blood stained discharge from a single duct on her right breast. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

16471

A 42 year old bank employee, mother of two presented to surgery OPD with complaint of a swelling in her right breast. On examination the swelling was found to be mobile and not adherent to any other structure. Considering her age and positive family history (mother of patient had died from carcinoma breast at 66 years of age), the doctor advised her to undergo triple assessment. The FNAC report read as C2.She should be advised to

16472

A 45-years-old patient with 6 months of non-foul smelling ear discharge and hearing loss. The TM appearance is given below. Treatment includes all except

16473

A 27 year old male who was involved in a fist fight after excessive drinking was brought to the casualty. Apart from a 1 x 2 cm laceration on his right cheek, the below finding is seen. This is treated with

16474

A 55-year-old woman undergoes breast-conserving surgery (a lumpectomy) fora small T1 tumour. The axillary lymph nodes are negative. Which of the following is the next step in therapy?

16475

A 53-year-old woman undergoes a modified radical mastectomy for a T2N2M0 infiltrating ductal carcinoma breast. During follow up she complains of hypoesthesia ofthe upper posteromedial aspect of the ipsilateral arm. Likely cause of the above mentioned condition is

16476

A patient was wheeled in to surgery emergency with alleged history of sustaining injuries in a brawl, He is conscious oriented and his Blood pressure was found to be 114/70 and pulse rate of 96 per minute. He was admitted and to monitor input and output, it was decided to catheterise him; however blood was noticed oozing out from urethra, management now includes

16477

A worker working a steel industry underwent routine ENT evaluation. An audiogram was obtained as given below. Which statement is wrong regarding the above condition?

16478

The following therapy is used in the treatment of?

16479

A 21 year male presented to emergency room with complaints of severe pain right testis radiating to lower abdomen, upon examination right testis was hanging at a level lower than left testis. Most suitable Management option is:

16480

A 21 year old patient presents to surgical emergency with complaint of excruciating pain right testis. Medical officer in-charge suspected it to be a case of torsion testis. How will the diagnosis be established clinically, pick correct option

16481

A 50 year old policeman reports to your OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and heartburn after meals. His weight has increased considerably during last few years. His medical history and family history are unremarkeable. However personal history reveals that he has been drinking about 60gms equivalent of alcoholic drinks every day. Preferred treatment for this patient would be

16482

A 62 year old retired bank officer, non-alcoholic, non-smoker, presents to surgery OPD with complaints of gastroesophageal reflux. She is being treated with cap omeprazole once a day for 6 weeks, but her regurgitation has been ever increasing. She is a diabetic and being treated on oral hypoglycaemic agents for last 15 years. Her BMI is 38. Likely diagnosis

16483

A 42 year old railway station announcement clerk, presents to surgical OPD with complaints of difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. He is maintaining normal weight and no other abnormality are noticed. Initial investigation in this case should be

16484

A 1-week-old infant is brought to the hospital because of vomiting. An upper gastrointestinal (GI) series reveals duodenal obstruction. On laparotomy, annular pancreas is found. Which of the following statements about annular pancreas is TRUE?

16485

A 50-year-old woman complains of weakness, profuse watery diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain. She reports a 10-lb weight loss. Her serum potassium is 2.8 mEq/L. Select the most likely diagnosis

16486

A 56 year old male, with history of diabetes for 15 years complaints of loss of vision. Diagnose the pathology based on the fundus fluorescein angiography shown in image

16487

A farmer came with complaints of blurred vision, watering and pain in the eye. He gives history of injury with a stick. On examination the clinical picture given is seen. What is the best line of management in the patient?

16488

A 67-year-old woman is noted to have a gradual increase in the size of the abdomen. A CT scan reveals a large pancreatic mass. The lesion was excised, on pathology examination, it is shown to be a TRUE cyst. Which statement is correct regarding true cysts?

16489

A 40-year-old man with a history of alcohol consumption of 25-year duration is admitted with a history of a 6-lb weight loss and upper abdominal pain of 3-weeks duration. Examination reveals fullness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 99 degree F, and his WBC count is 10,000. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

16490

Following a motor vehicle accident a truck driver complains of severe abdominal pain. Serum amylase level is markedly increased to 800 U. Sign of Grey Turner is seen in the flanks. Pancreatic trauma is suspected. Which statement is true of pancreatic trauma?

16491

Tumours present in the mentioned triangular area ________

16492

For the patient in the above mentioned question, as and when the endoscopy was planned, it showed an ulcerated 3 cm lesion with irregular borders about 5 cms distal to gastro-oeosphageal junction. Next treatment should be

16493

A 62 year-old patient underwent a transurethral resection of prostate. His prostate size was 80 gms and surgery lasted for one and a half hour. Even on post-operative day 2, Irrigation with 1.5 percent glycine had to be continued as his catheter still shows some evidence of hematuria. But the patient became very drowsy, and developed oliguria. Further, some pitting oedema of his ankles and sacrum was also noticed. In due course patient also developed seizures. Appropriate management of the patient is

16494

A 55 year old, otherwise healthy, male presented to surgical emergency with complaint of acute retention of urine. He was catheterised. The procedure was uneventful. In due course USG KUB was performed which revealed an enlarged prostate, management of the case would involve (choose the most appropriate answer)

16495

A 58 year old patient underwent TURP and recovered well. 3 year after the surgery, the patient is due to visit his urologist yet again for follow up. He explains to the attending doctor that he is uncomfortable with Digital Rectal examination. The urologist should

16496

A 27 year old primigravida with 41weeks of gestation presents to OBG OPD with concerns of not progressing into labor. She has not had any ANC visits priorly. She says she has no comorbidities. On examination, P-90 per min, BP-110/74mmHg, afebrile RR-14 per min, saturation normal, pallor present. Abdominal examination shows fundus just below xiphisternum, vertical lie, presentation not clear, FHR-140 per min. PV examination shows cervix unaffected, admits tip of finger. NST was variable. USG and lab investigations were advised. After examination, she was induced and delivered a fetus as shown in the Image. The effect of this condition on physiology of labour is

16497

A 30 year old G2P1 with 37 weeks of gestation presents with history of reduced fetal movements since 1day. She has no comorbidities. Her previous lab investigations and USG are normal. On examination, P-90 per min, saturation normal, pallor+, BP-128/78mmHg, RR-14 per min, afebrile. Abdominal examination shows fundus just below xiphisternum, vertical lie, cephalic presentation, head engaged, FHR-110 per min. NST had variable and late Decelerations. Cord compression was suspected. Induction of labour was done and she had a normal vaginal delivery. The placenta is shown below. It is

16498

A 79-year-old man is examined for severe pain in the iliac crest. Metastatic disease from prostatic cancer is confirmed. What is the treatment offered initially to most patients with metastatic prostatic cancer?

16499

A 65 years old patient, on treatment for bipolar disorders develops obstipation, vomiting. His blood pressure is 146/9, HR is 104 per minute. Clinician also notices massive abdominal distention. Likely cause is

16500

Based on clinical features of the disease, a 26 year old patient, a native of south eastern Uttar Pradesh was thought to be suffering from inflammatory bowel disease. However to establish the diagnosis firmly an endocopy was advised, which revealed transverse ulcers in small intestine, similar changes were observed in 2 more segments of small bowel. Most appropriate line of management should be

16501

A young male presented to OPD with complaint of persistent diarrhoea and fatigue. He was put on medications after establishing the diagnosis. However the patient later developed muscle weakness, centripetal obesity and rounded face. Drug most commonly incriminated in this condition is

16502

35 year old, alcoholic came with complaint of severe abdominal pain in epigastrium radiating to the back. Pulse rate is 124 per min, Blood pressure is 96/62 mmHg. CT abdomen is as shown. Probable diagnosis is

16503

Ultrasonography done in pregnant female, following picture is shown. This is known as

16504

A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and obstipation. He reports taking laxatives off and on for chronic constipation. On examination, the abdomen is mildly distended, tympanic to percussion, and there is mild tenderness in the lower abdomen in particular. Per rectal examination shows and empty rectum. An abdominal X-ray shows sudden cut-off the sigmoid gas at its lower end and proximal dilation of the colon. Which one of the following is the most accurate tool to reach a diagnosis with high certainty?

16505

An index of operational efficiency of the Malaria Control Program is

16506

All of the following are true about cluster except

16507

A data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied, and dissatisfied. This is a

16508

When the confidence level of a test is increased which of the following will happen

16509

Best method to compare new test and gold standard test

16510

A 5-year-old boy has been examined and finding is shown below. All would constitute part of management except

16511

Identify the Cartilage marked by arrow

16512

Levey-Jennings chart is used for monitoring

16513

Measure of central tendency is

16514

Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by

16515

Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by

16516

While applying Chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be

16517

Histogram is used to describe

16518

If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kgs, then the standard deviation of this sample will be

16519

A 32-year-old multigravida presents with vaginal spotting at 33 weeks gestation. Physical examination reveals a fun gating cervical mass, and biopsy confirms invasive squamous cell carcinoma. She undergoes caesarean delivery followed immediately by radical hysterectomy. The specimen is shown here. Which of the Following statements is FALSE?

16520

Specificity of a screening test is the ability of a test to detect

16521

The standard normal distribution

16522

Case finding in RNTCP is based on

16523

On SAFE strategy false is

16524

Under the National Program for Control of Blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students

16525

In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India?

16526

In which of the Indian states the maximum number of AIDS cases have been reported till now

16527

60 year non-smoker male presented with on and off productive cough for 6 months. There is no history of fever. On physical examination there is clubbing of fingers and causes crepitations over the lung base. CT was done and is as shown. Probably diagnosis is

16528

New-born male baby presented with there is congestive heart failure. On examination enlarged fontanelles, loud cranial bruit and following radiological finding was seen. Most likely diagnosis is

16529

Leprosy is considered a public health problems if the prevalence of leprosy is more than

16530

The Vitamin A supplement administered in Prevention of Nutritional Blindness in Children Program contain

16531

As per the World Health Organization guidelines , iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in a community if the prevalence of goitre in school age children in more than

16532

Under the national TB program, for a PHC to be called a PHC-R, requisite is

16533

A person wants to visit a malaria endemic area of low level chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria. The best chemoprophylaxis is

16534

A patient with sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis is on ATT for the last 5 months but the patient is still positive for AFB in the sputum. This case refers to

16535

Under the Registration Act of 1969, death is to be registered with in

16536

All are true regarding malaria except

16537

FALSE about Leprosy Eradication Program is

16538

Chi-square test is used to measure the degree of

16539

This is part of anaesthesia machine to which cylinders attached. The part is called

16540

The patient with a hypo pigmented macule and V-shaped area of leukoderma with white forelock on the mid-forehead present since birth comes to the OPD. There was no other cutaneous manifestation. All is true about it except:

16541

A 60 year old female patient complaining blistering lesions on her body came to the department. No mucosal involvement. Immunofluorescence showing IgG autoantibodies on direct fluorescence. Also HPE was done as shown below. What is true about the same?

16542

Incidence of halothane hepatitis is

16543

This cuff is type of

16544

A male presents with a rash, which is preceded by discomfort and burning; only the parts of the skin exposed to the sun were affected. The rash itself consists of urticarial wheals and a degree of swelling and is quite itchy. The patient sometimes feels nauseated when the rash is present. Being in the sun for just a few moments is enough to provoke the rash. Diagnosis is?

16545

Identify the structure marked X?

16546

Which of the following regarding the given image is false?

16547

An 83-year-old male was admitted to hospital for a flare of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in winters. After 1 week he complains of some itchiness on his lower legs. The crazy-paving pattern is seen on leg. What is the diagnosis?

16548

A 52 year old man presents to surgical OPD with complaint of fresh rectal bleeding covering his stools. He has long-standing history of constipation. He mentions no pain on defecation. Which one of the following can be the most likely cause?

16549

A 36 year old sales manager complained of abdominal pain and diarrhea one week after returning from an extensive tour. He first noticed abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa which resolved subsequently. On examination, the abdomen is non-tender and soft with no rigidity or guarding. However, digital rectal exam is tender. Which of the following investigation would be confirmatory?

16550

A retired employee of an insurance company, 62 years of age was diagnosed to be suffering from carcinoma caecum. Which of the following would have been initial symptoms which he may have ignored?

16551

A middle aged male with disease of Crohn involving colon was being managed with 40 mg prednisone daily for the past one year. As the condition did not respond favourably to medical management, Elective colectomy was planned. The procedure was uncomplicated, and he was adequately resuscitated. In the post-operative period, the patient developed fever and became hypotensive (mean arterial pressure dropped to 54mm/hg). What is next step in management?

16552

Most important activity in Diarrheal Disease Control Program for primary prevention is

16553

A 2 year old patient had below lesion with patches of partial alopecia, often circular in shape. Green fluorescence under the light of Wood is seen. Which infection is it?

16554

Identify the instrument shown in the photograph?

16555

A 38 year old patient has presented in casualty after RTA (Road traffic Accident) few hours back with CSF Rhinorrhoea. Next line of Management is:

16556

A 10-year-old boy presents with torticollis, a tender swelling behind the angle of mandible and fever. He had history of ear discharge for the past 6 years. Examination of the ear showed purulent discharge and granulations in the ear canal. Most probable diagnosis is

16557

A 10 year old boy developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of diphtheria. On examination, his right vocal cord was paralysed. The treatment of choice for paralysed vocal cord will be

16558

A male patient pawan, age 30 years presented with Trismus, fever, swelling pushing the tonsils medially and spreading laterally posterior to the middle sternocleidomastoid. He gives a history of excision of 3rd molar few days back for dental caries. The diagnosis is

16559

A 29 year old woman was found to have hemoglobin of 7.8 g/dl. With a reticulocyte count of 0.8 percent. The peripherial blood smear showed microcytic hypochromic anemia, Hemoglobin A2 and hemoglobin F levels were 2.4 percent and 1.3 percent respectively. The serum iron and the total iron binding capacity were 15 micro g/dl, and 420 micro g/dl, respectively. The most likely cause of anemia is

16560

Which of the following is not seen in hereditary spherocytosis?

16561

Microangiopathic Hemolytic anemia is seen in all except

16562

True about aplastic anemia is all except

16563

False about the picture shown below?

16564

Identify the type of stones

16565

A patient with lymphona of Hodking presents with isolated cervical lymphadenopathy. Biopsy from the lesion shows characteristic lacunar cells. The treatment of choice for this patient is

16566

Which of the following condition is also associated with raised levels of Foetal Hemoglobin (HBF)?

16567

A 78 year old man who lives alone and prepares his own food is found to have ecchymotic patches over posterior aspect of his lower extremities. He has haemorrhagic areas around hair follicles, hairs are fragmented and splinter haemorrhages are present in nail beds and several hematomas are present in the muscles of arms and legs. PT and CT are normal. This clinical syndrome is most likely due to

16568

Mid-Diastolic Murmur with presystolic accentuation is typically seen in

16569

A patient in regular rhythm presents with absent P waves on ECG. Leads II, III and AVF reveal a Saw-Tooth pattern. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

16570

In pulmonary stenosis is the interval between first heart sound (S1) and Systolic ejection click

16571

The most important modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis is

16572

Tako-Tsubo cardiomyopathy is a type of

16573

All of the following finding would be expected in a person with coarctation of the aorta

16574

Acute Lung injury is characterized by all except

16575

Given Image shows the radiograph of a 64-year-old man who has neck pain and weakness of the upper and lower extremities following a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals 3/5 quadriceps muscle strength and 4/5 hip flexors strength but no ankle dorsiflexion or plantar flexion. He has 1/5 intrinsic muscle strength and 3/5 finger flexors strength. He is awake, alert, and cooperative. Management should consist of

16576

A 72-year-old woman presents with bone pain and tenderness in her lower extremities and left clavicle. Physical examination reveals tenderness to palpation on her lower legs and left MID clavicle. Laboratory studies reveal elevated calcium, decreased phosphate, and elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH). X-ray reveals the following. Which of the following is the diagnosis

16577

A patient was admitted to the casualty with hysteria, and anxiety. Estimation of arterial plasma showed PH of 7.53, HCO3 of 22 meq and PCO2 of 27 mmHg. Which of the following is the patient likely to have?

16578

All of the following are characteristic feature of obstructive pulmonary disease. except

16579

Uremic complications typically arise during which of the following phases renal failure?

16580

Non oliguric acute renal failure is typically associated with

16581

Hypercoagulation in Nephrotic syndrome is caused by

16582

Premalignant conditions of stomach include all, except

16583

Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by

16584

Features of Typhoid Ulcers include all of the following except

16585

A 29 year old patient with jaundice is positive for HBsAg, HBeAg and IgM anti HBC but negative for anti HBs and anti HBe. The probable diagnosis is

16586

A 36 year old male patient with a BMI of 41.5 kg/sq. m presented with progressive dyspnoea since 10 days. The patient is a known case of dyslipidaemia and is currently on fibrates. On examination, BP 144/86 mm of Hg, HR 122 bpm, RR 16 bpm and SpO2 93 percent in room air. Systemic examination did not reveal any specific finding. Chest radiograph was normal, for further evaluation, the physician requested for cross sectional imaging. A section of the CT Thorax is given below. What is your diagnosis?

16587

The following is the least likely manifestation of Acute Budd-Chiary syndrome

16588

Granulomatosis of Wegener does not affect

16589

An elderly female presents to the emergency department with history of fever, headache and double vision. Biopsy of temporal artery revealed pan arteritis. The most likely diagnosis is

16590

Henoch Schonlein purpura is characterized by all, except

16591

Keratoderma Blenorrhagica is typically seen in

16592

All of the following are clinical features of Cushing syndrome except

16593

An obese lady aged 45 years, was brought to emergency in a semi-comatose condition. The laboratory investigations showed K + (5.8 mmol/L), Na+ (136 mmol/L), blood pH (7.1), HC03 (12 mmol/L), ketone bodies (350 mg/dl). The expected level of blood glucose for this lady is

16594

In which of the following intensive management of diabetes needed except

16595

Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory features except

16596

Cluster headache is characterized by all, except

16597

Which of the following enzymes is believed to be deficient in Parkinsonism

16598

A 25 years old lady with history of fever for 1 month presents with headache and ataxia. Brain imaging shows dilated ventricles and significant basal exudates. Which of the following will be the most likely CSF finding

16599

Tic Douloureux is facial pain traveling through which of the following nerves?

16600

Ice pack test is done for

16601

Use of oral contraceptive pills are known to protect against following malignancies, except

16602

Norgestimate in OC pills has the following advantage

16603

A 24 year old primigravida with 32weeks of gestation presents with headache, nausea, vomiting, blurring of vision since 1day. She has no comorbidities. Her previous lab investigations and USG are normal. On examination, P- 88/min, BP-180/96mmHg, RR-14/min, saturation- 92 percent, afebrile, B/L pedal edema present. Her repeat BP examination showed 174/96mmHg. Urine Dipstick showed 3+proteinuria. On admission, she had an episode of generalised tonic clonic seizures. NST performed is shown below. True about management of this patient is

16604

A 46-year-old woman with known HIV infection and prior regular menstrual cycle comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of postcoital spotting and irregular vaginal bleeding. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She is sexually active with multiple sex partners and inconsistent usage of contraception. Current medications include a combined antiretroviral treatment regimen and an oral contraceptive. A photomicrograph of a biopsy specimen obtained from the cervix is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

16605

In abdominal hysterectomy, the first clamp includes

16606

Among the surgeries to correct SUL, the long-term success rate is maximum with

16607

A 12 year old girl, who is yet to attain her menarche presents with abdominal pain and a lump in abdomen. On further investigations, ovarian mass was noted. Her serum biomarkers are normal except for elevated AFP. Staging laparotomy was done and the histopathology Image is given below. What is the diagnosis?

16608

A 30-year-old woman presents to clinic complaining of pelvic pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past two years. The patient reports that her last menstrual period was one week ago. She does not take any medications and denies alcohol and cigarette use. Physical examination reveals an enlarged uterus palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Image shows an ultrasound of the uterus of women. On interview, the woman says that she wanted to have more children in the future. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this condition of woman?

16609

A 28-year-old female presents to the emergency department after being in a motor vehicle accident. She is 30 weeks pregnant, and up to this point has had a normal pregnancy. On physical exam she her heart rate is 130 beats per min, and her blood pressure is 96/50 mm Hg. She has a mobile mass in the right upper quadrant, and her uterus size is consistent with a 20-week gestational age. The on-call obstetrician immediately brings the patient to the surgical suite for an emergency caesarean section. In order to control the bleeding, the surgeon dissects the right cardinal (transverse cervical) ligament. What important structure(s) within the cardinal ligament was accessed?

16610

A 28 year old primigravida with 39weeks of gestation presents to OBG OPD for normal ANC. She has gestational diabetes and is on medication for the same. Her blood sugar levels are now under normal limits, she follows a strict diet, HbA1C is 6 percent. Her previous USG had no abnormalities. On examination, P–90 per min, BP-130/82mmHg, RR-14 per min, afebrile, saturation normal, pallor present. Abdominal examination shows fundus just below xiphisternum, vertical lie, cephalic presentation, head not yet engaged, FHR-140 per min. Her pelvis was assessed for vaginal delivery as she may have to deliver a macrocosmic baby, the Image of measurement of which diameter is shown below

16611

All of the following are risk factors for vaginal candidiasis, EXCEPT

16612

A 35-year-old woman presents with primary infertility and palpable adnexal mass. Her CA 125 level is 90 U/mI. The most likely diagnosis is

16613

Which of the following is least likely to cause dysmenorrhea?

16614

A 59-year-old woman undergoes vaginal hysterectomy and anteroposterior repair for uterine prolapsed. Which of the following is a complication of this procedure that often develops within 2 weeks of surgery?

16615

A 32 year old with 38 weeks of gestation presents with history of pain abdomen, contractions, show. She is retro positive and is on treatment for the same. Her previous lab investigations and USG are normal. She is on oral iron and calcium tablets. On examination, P-90 per min, BP- 130/90mmHg, RR-14 per min, saturation normal, a febrile. Abdominal examination shows fundus just below xiphisternum, vertical lie, cephalic presentation, and head engaged, FHR-140/min, contractions- 4/10mins. PV examination shows cervix soft, effaced, 5cm dilated, 2cm long, head at station 0, membranes intact. NST normal. The patient had normal vaginal delivery. Baby weighed 2.7kg and was administered nevirapine. The placenta was as shown below. True statements are all except

16616

A 24 year old primigravida with 38weeks of gestation presents with pain abdomen, backache, contractions and show. She is a case of type I DM on treatment and well controlled blood sugar levels. Her previous lab investigations and USG are normal. On examination, P-80/min, BP-120/88mmHg, RR-13/min, afebrile, saturation normal, pallor +. Abdominal examination shows fundus just below xiphisternum, vertical lie, cephalic presentation, and head engaged, FHR-140/min, contractions 5/10mins. PV examination shows cervix soft, effaced, dilated-7cm, 1.5cm length, head at station +1, membranes absent. NST was normal. The labour was monitored and after delivery of the head, progress of labour was not seen. Recoil of head back against the perineum was seen. The obstetrician performs the maneuver shown below. The name of the maneuver is

16617

A 24 year old G3P1A1 with 38 weeks of pregnancy presents with history of pain abdomen, show. She was detected with covid19 2 days ago and was under home isolation as her vitals were well maintained and had no comorbidities. Her previous reports and USG are normal. On examination, P-100/min, BP-80/60mm Hg, RR-24 per min, temperature- 100F, saturation 90 percent. Abdominal examination shows vertical lie, cephalic presentation with engaged head, FHR-140 per min. On PV examination, cervix dilated 5cm, 2cm long, effaced, head at station +2, ruptured membranes. The second stage of labour was cut short by using the instrument shown in the Image. False statement is

16618

A 26 year old G2P1 female with 39weeks of pregnancy presents with history of fever, cough, and breathlessness since 3days. There is history of contact to a covid-19 positive case in the family. She has no comorbidities. Lab investigations and USG are normal. On examination, P-94 per min, BP- 100/70 mmHg, temperature 99F, RR-20 per min, saturation 90 percent. Abdominal examination shows vertical lie, cephalic presentation, head engaged, FHR-140 per min. No signs of labour present. Her lab investigations were sent, rapid antigen test for covid19 was positive. NST was done and is shown below. True statement is

16619

A 22 year old woman presents to the OPD with complaints of burning sensation during urination and fishy smelling, greyish white vaginal discharge. A smear of the discharge showed the following cells on microscopic examination. Addition of KOH accentuated the fishy odour of the discharge. What is the most appropriate drug for the treatment of this patient considering the most likely diagnosis?

16620

A 27 year old G2P1 with 37weeks of gestation presents with pain abdomen and contractions associated with show. Her previous delivery was a home delivery and she has not had ANC for the present gestation. She has not had any lab investigations or prior USG. On examination, P-90 per min, BP 126/84 mmHg, RR-12 per min, pallor+, afebrile, saturation normal. Abdominal examination shows fundus between xiphisternum and umbilicus, vertical lie, cephalic presentation, head engaged, FHR-140 per min, contractions of 2-3/20mins. PV examination shows cervix soft, admits tip of finger, membranes intact, head felt at station 0. Her blood samples were sent for lab investigations. Her blood group was identified as a negative. On examination of blood group of her husband was O positive. She has no history of any injection in previous pregnancy as it was a home delivery. She was explained about the complications.  She had vaginal delivery of still born fetus as shown below. True statement are all except

16621

Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except

16622

Registered medical practitioner (RMP) can perform medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) in first trimester if he/she has assisted in _______ MTPs

16623

A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, complains of severe, progressive secondary dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Pelvic examination demonstrates a tender, diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal tenderness. Results of endometrial biopsy are normal. This patient most likely has

16624

All of the following are true for a patient with a history of chloroquine use and the above fundus picture except

16625

Reciprocal inhibition of direct antagonist of contracting muscle of same eye is

16626

10 year old male patient complaints of nyctalopia tubular vision. He was further investigated and blood smear was taken. What is the probable diagnosis?

16627

On examination – there was anisocoria. When a torch light is shown in right eye of a patient-right pupil constrict but left does not When the torch light was shown in left eye-right pupil constrict but left does not Probable diagnosis out of the following could be

16628

A 5 year old boy presents with leucocoria in the right eye which is diagnosed as, retinoblastoma involving the entire globe. Examination of the left eye revealed a small 2-3 mm tumor in the periphery. What will be the ideal management of this patient?

16629

Indocyanine Green Angiography (ICG Angiography) is most useful in detecting

16630

Which organism infection is virulent and may cause corneal ulcer perforation within 48 hrs?

16631

A male patient with a history of hyper mature cataract presents with a 2 day history of ciliary congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has 1 deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left is eye normal. The diagnosis is

16632

IOL power was calculated to be +22.00 D for a planned cataract surgery with PCIOL implantation. An IOL of 20.00D was placed in the capsular bag due to unforeseen circumstances. What will be the post-operative refractory status of the patient?

16633

Patient presented to ophthalmology OPD with glaucoma and bulging of cornea. What is the diagnosis?

16634

A patient presents with flashing light, sudden floaters and perception of a curtain falling in front of the eye. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

16635

A patient presented to ER with pain in the right hip after a Road accident .On examination BP- 130/80, HR-90bpm, Spo2- 95 percent. Restricted right hip movement. Patient is lying in the posture as shown in the Image. Most likely diagnosis would be

16636

A 32-year-old woman sustained an elbow dislocation, and management consisted of early range of motion. Examination at the 3-month follow-up appointment reveals that she has regained elbow motion but has a weak pinch. A clinical photograph is shown in Image. What is the most likely diagnosis?

16637

The nerve tested by the following given test does not innervate which muscle?

16638

2.5 kg baby girl was born to a primigravida, O positive at 37 weeks of gestation. At 72 hours child is active, total serum bilirubin is 14mg/dL, and blood group is a positive. The delivery was uneventful. Following finding you expect in this child

16639

42 year old male has loss of weight, fever and dyspnea for 1 month. Chest X-ray shows prominent hilar lymphadenopathy. On lung biopsy and microscopic examination there is no acid fast bacilli and no atypical cells. He is most likely having

16640

60 year old male with history of smoking is diagnosed to have small cell carcinoma of lung. Which of the following finding is expected to be present?

16641

30 year old male has high grade fever for a week, associated with cough and yellowish sputum. On chest X-ray there is consolidation in the left upper lobe. Examination of the sputum shows neutrophils. Most likely infectious agent is

16642

Pancoast tumour in the lungs are located in the following location

16643

8 year boy has acute onset of dyspnea and wheezing. He is having cough with thick mucus plug. On chest X-ray there is hyperinflation. He has history of similar episodes before. Sputum has increased number of eosinophils. Most likely diagnosis is

16644

45 year old female, non-smoker has fever and cough for the past 4 days. She does not have hemoptysis. There are decreased breath sounds over the right upper lung. On chest X-ray there is infiltrate in the right upper lobe. She is suspected to have bronchogenic carcinoma. Most likely neoplasm is

16645

60 year old female has been bedridden for 4 weeks. There is sudden onset of dyspnea. On chest X-ray there is wedge-shaped area present. Most likely diagnosis is

16646

In a 45 year old female there is swelling of her lower legs since 2 months. On chest X-ray there is bilateral pleural effusion. Liver enzymes are deranged. Most likely underlying cause is:

16647

In alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency there is panacinar form of emphysema. This affects the following part in lungs

16648

Asbestosis starts in the lungs in the following part

16649

All of the following are true regarding Barrett esophagus except

16650

50 year old female has epigastric pain for the past month. On physical examination her stool is positive for occult blood. Laboratory findings have increased alkaline phosphatase. Most likely cause is

16651

2 year old boy has history of chronic foul smelling diarrhea for the past 1 year. No abdominal pain or mass is present. On upper GI endoscopy biopsy is taken from the duodenum. On microscopic examination there is absence of villi, and hyperplastic appearing crypts. Most useful therapy is

16652

50 year old man, alcoholic has history of episodes of abdominal pain in the last 1 year. On abdominal CT there is a cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas. Most likely diagnosis is

16653

In Peutz Jeghers syndrome polyps are mainly seen in jejunum. They are the example of

16654

In a female, many family members have decreased mental function and motor coordination in their middle age. Clinically here is presence of choreoathetosis. On genetic testing there is increased trinucleotide CAG repeats. Likely lesion in brain is

16655

40 year old male has sudden onset of severe headache. On cerebral angiogram there is presence of aneurysm in circle of Willis. On ultrasonography there is presence of bilateral cysts in both kidney. Most likely pathological finding is

16656

60 year old male has headache since 2 months. There is also history of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. On MRI brain there is a mass with necrosis in the left cerebral hemisphere extending across corpus callosum into the right hemisphere. Most likely neoplasm is

16657

55 year old male transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) for 3 years. There is sudden onset of the left hemiparesis. On MRI imaging there is a 4 cm diameter cystic area in the right frontal parietal region. Most likely underlying condition is

16658

50 year old male has distal symmetric sensory polyneuropathy. There is also presence of non-healing ulceration on left foot. He has myocardial infarction and angioplasty was done. Most likely laboratory findings present will be

16659

40 year old man has diarrhea, polyarthritis for 1 year. On abdominal CT there is only generalized lymphadenopathy. On biopsy of duodenum there are PAS-positive macrophages in the submucosa. Most likely diagnosis is

16660

60 year old male has deranged liver enzymes. There is no history of alcohol intake. There is also presence of arthritis, dark pigmentation of skin and hyperglycemia. Diagnosis is

16661

Necrolytic migratory erythema can be seen in the following tumour

16662

30 year old man has bloody mucoid diarrhea and abdominal pain for 2 weeks. Stool is positive for occult blood. On colonscopy there is erythematous colonic mucosa extending from the rectum to splenic flexure. There is risk of

16663

42 year old male has abdominal liver function test and on CT scan there is enlarged liver. On liver biopsy there is presence of hepatocytic necrosis, Mallory hyaline and macrovesicular steatosis. Most likely diagnosis is

16664

60 year old smoker has history of haematuria for the last 1 month. There is no proteinuria and no glycosuria. Most likely diagnosis is

16665

70 year male has benign prostate hyperplasia. On examination serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL. Which of the following renal abnormalities is most likely to be present

16666

Wire loop lesions are seen on microscopic examination in a female suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus. It is due to following deposition in glomerulus

16667

60 year old male was detected to have 2 cysts in his left kidney. The kidneys are normal in size. Renal function test is normal. On urine examination there is no blood, ketones or glucose. Most likely diagnosis is

16668

8 year old child is suspected to be having minimal change disease. On electron microscopy following finding will be seen

16669

10 year old boy is suffering from renal disease. He is also having ocular lens dislocation and auditory nerve deafness. Following appearance will be seen in glomerulus on microscopic examination

16670

There is history of myocardial infarction in 55 year old man. He has decreased cardiac output leading to decreased urine output. The serum creatinine level is 3.5 mg/dL. Which of the following pathological finding will be seen in kidney?

16671

In granulomatosis with polyangitis following type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is seen

16672

55 year old man has poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. There is proteinuria and glycosuria. Following renal diseases is likely to be present

16673

60 year old female has chronic arthritis for the past 3 years. She is taking aspirin and paracetamol for the pain. Renal function test is deranged. Most likely pathological finding in kidneys is

16674

45 year old female has low grade fever and pain in her neck for 3 days. On examination there is enlarged thyroid. On biopsy of the thyroid gland reveals granulomatous inflammation and the presence of giant cells. Most likely diagnosis is

16675

33 year old female presented with swelling in her neck. On examination there is nodule in the left lobe of the thyroid. On Congo red stained there is birefringent amyloid stroma. Most likely diagnosis is

16676

55 year old male had renal transplantation 3 years ago. He was started on glucocorticoids therapy to prevent the rejection of transplantation. He came to the hospital for screening and the adrenal biopsy was done. Most likely finding to be present is

16677

45 year old female, has complaints of weakness and restless. She complains of her skin seems darker, although she rarely goes outside because she is too tired for outdoor activities. On physical examination, she is afebrile and her blood pressure is 85/50 mm/Hg. On chest radiography shows no abnormal findings. Most likely diagnosis is

16678

31 year old female, who has two healthy children, came with history of amenorrhea for the past 6 months. Pregnancy test is negative and for last 2 weeks there is mild production from her breasts. There is history of headache for the past 3 months and there is also difficulty in vision. Most likely diagnosis is

16679

77 year old female has diffuse, symmetrical thyroid enlargement without tenderness. She is hypertensive, thyroidectomy is performed, immunostaining for calcitonin is positive and neoplasm has an amyloid stroma with congo red staining. Most likely thyroid neoplasm is

16680

26 year old primigravida has vaginal bleeding after the onset of labour at 38 weeks gestation. She was diagnosed placenta previa and caesarean section was done. She remained hypotensive and 6 units of packed RBC were transfused. Postpartum she is unable to breast fed the infant. She has become more sluggish and tired. Which of the following pathologic lesions is she most likely to have had following delivery

16681

50 year old male came with the presence of bone pain and hands for the past 6 months. On physical examination there is no swelling or redness of his hands, no joint deformity. Laboratory studies show calcium 7.8mg/dL and phosphorous 5.7mg/dL. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present

16682

30 year old female has weight gain of 5 kg over the past 6 months. She has normal menstrual periods. She is hypertensive, skin shows marked plethora and abdominal striae are present. On laboratory studies blood glucose is 181mg/dL. Which of the following is most likely to be present

16683

60 year old female has diffuse, dull, constant abdominal pain for the past 2 months. On physical examination there are no abnormal findings present. On abdominal CT a 3 cm right adrenal mass is present. Which of the following features is the most reliable indicator that the mass is malignant

16684

40 year old female has painless swelling of her neck for the past 2 months. On physical examination there is diffuse enlargement of thyroid. On laboratory studies there is an increased titer of anti-thyroid peroxidase and anti thyrobulin antibodies. Which of the following complication is she most likely to develop

16685

15 year old boy has history of headaches for 2 months and difficulty in vision. Head CT scan shows 4 cm mass expanding the sella turcica with calcification. Most likely diagnosis is

16686

58 year old male, smoker for 35 year comes with history of hypertension since 1 year. On examination there is obesity in truncal distribution, plethora and bruises on his skin even with minor trauma. Most likely there is

16687

Most common manifestation of asbestos exposure in lungs is

16688

All are seen in hypersensitivity pneumonitis except

16689

All are true about allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilliosis except

16690

30 year old man has cramping abdominal pain for the past 2 weeks associated with fever and low volume diarrhea. On colonoscopy, muscosal edema and ulceration in the ascending colon but transverse and descending portion of the colon are not affected. Lab studies show serum anti saccharomyces antibodies. Which of the following microscopic findings is most likely to be present in biopsies from the colon

16691

35 year old female has history of intermittent bloody diarrhea for 5 years. Stool sample is positive for occult blood. On colonoscopy there is friable, erythematous mucosa that extend from the rectum to the mid transverse colon. On microscopic examination there is superficial mucosal ulceration. This patient is at greatest risk for development of which of the following condition

16692

60 year old male has complaints of anorexia, vomiting and abdominal pain along with weight loss of 6 Kg over the past 2 months. On examination there is supra clavicular non-tender lymphadenopathy. On abdominal CT shrunken stomach with thickening of the gastric wall. Multiple masses are present in the liver. Most likely cause of this condition is

16693

A healthy 20 year old man has a family history of colon cancer with onset at a young age. There are no other abnormal physical findings. On colonoscopy there are 200 adenomas present in colon. It is due to involvement of

16694

75 year old female who exercises regularly falls down the stairs and injures her right hip. On radiograph of pelvis there is no fracture but calcification of the small muscular arteries. It is most probable due to

16695

21 year old man has chest pain which is relieved by sublingual nitroglycerine. On lab studies total serum cholesterol is 350mg/dL and blood glucose is 120 mg/dL. His brother died of myocardial infarction at the age of 30 years. He is most likely having

16696

45 years old male, smoker complains of pain in the lower extremities on ambulation for more than 400 meters for the past 3 months. Lower limbs are cool, pale without swelling or erythema. No dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial pulses are palpable. Which of the following abnormalities of vessel explain the condition

16697

On examination of abdominal aorta, there is dilation present below the origin of renal arteries. Most common cause for this

16698

Serum marker that is synthesized and released from liver and is a risk factor for atherosclerosis is

16699

The below given condition is likely due to deficiency of?

16700

A child was having mid upper arm circumference of 12cm. The child will be classified into which category?

16701

A mother brings her 10 month old child for routine vaccination. She told the doctor that my child had taken tab prednisolone for 8 weeks for some renal problem but now stopped since last 1 month, which vaccine to be avoided by doctor?

16702

The following vaccine vial reaches to you, what will you do with the vial?

16703

A new drug does not cure a disease but decrease the risk of complications and mortality. What will be the change seen?

16704

A 55year old man had been working in a benzene factory for long time. He got retired 5 years ago and what could be a possible complication?

16705

A community has total population of 10000. Children ranging from 0-6 years are 2000. Literate persons are 4000. What is the effective literacy rate?

16706

Epidemiology is the study and analysis of the distribution, patterns and determinants of health and disease conditions in defined populations. Which among the following correctly defines generation time in epidemiology?

16707

A medical officer in PHC was explaining to the community during mass immunization program that COVID vaccine was not lead to impotency as many people were adamant that vaccination cause impotency. Which kind of barrier in communication is described?

16708

A 3 year old baby was brought to hospital with complains of fever, severe watery diarrhea and vomiting. On history taking mother revealed that she has not been able to follow the vaccination schedule. The baby is infected with rota virus; the RV vaccine can be given till what age if missed?

16709

A 5 year old boy was brought to the hospital for vaccination by his mother. According to the latest guidelines of vaccination, which of the following is applicable for this age?

16710

Quantitative method to study previous research studies is?

16711

Infant mortality rate does not include?

16712

Which of the following vaccines do not provide herd immunity?

16713

Live attenuated vaccine can be given to:

16714

A patient came with class 3 dog bite; previous prophylaxis for monkey bite was given 6 months ago. What is the next step in management?

16715

Lead time is

16716

A 10 year old boy is brought to emergency in altered sensorium and ongoing seizures. His family belongs to rural area and they give history that child is unimmunized and further history taking reveals that he had fever with erythematous rash few years ago. The child was more likely suffering from which among the following disease?

16717

In a case of epidemic, 3 villages are affected simultaneously with typhoid cases. Upon study, it is found that one milk man is going to all these 3 villages. Identify the type of epidemic

16718

Which of the following defines ability of an organism to cause an infection?

16719

A study started in month of Feb 2022, where labour room records of patient admitted in month of Jan 2022 with labour pain was analysed to know effect of oxytocin use for induction or augmentation of labour to neonatal outcome. Which type of study was used?

16720

Study the given formula carefully and identify the X. X= True Negatives/True Negatives + False Positives

16721

True about PQLI?

16722

Which is the best indicator for measurement of socio-economic growth and development in a society?

16723

A 2year old child bottle fed, irritable and extreme thirsty since 2 days brought to PHC. 14 episodes of diarrhoea in last week and child was eager to drink. What should be done?

16724

An ANM receives two open vaccine vials, MR and Pentavalent vaccine vial. Which can be used for the immunization round?

16725

A child presents with normal height but weight lesser than expected for that height. He is classified under?

16726

A study conducted on people who are having depression and on healthy individual and their time given to all social media was recorded. Which is the type of study used?

16727

Match the vaccines with their strains?

16728

A 20 year old pregnant female at 7 weeks of gestation presents to you for MTP. Which among the following drug is used for MTP?

16729

Acute encephalitis syndrome cases were reported from Gorakhpur, UP. The health authorities decided for mass vaccination under the universal immunization program. Identify vaccine type and route

16730

Registration of births to married on state and national level is done by

16731

Late expanding stage of demographic cycle is characterized by

16732

Population attributable risk is defined as?

16733

Target couple is

16734

In a prospective study, 1200 patients were randomly selected to study the effect of a new drug. The drug will be given for 5 years and its association with cataract will be studied. What type of study is this?

16735

An infant was brought to PHC for immunization; he was vaccinated by the nurse who reconstituted the vaccine with sterile water before administration. Which among the following vaccine the nurse has likely administered?

16736

If we stop all surveillance activity in India after not detecting new cases of disease, then disease is in state of?

16737

A child more than 12 months old less than 8kg weight, malnourished with vitamin A deficiency, oral dose required is

16738

Number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to

16739

A person who was absolutely fit and fine, suddenly develops severe headache and become unconscious. On hospitalization diagnosed as a case of hemiplegia due to brain haemorrhage. He remained in paralyzed state for 5 years before death at age of 68 years. These 5 years of suffering included as?

16740

In a study it was found that diabetes patients are having 4 times higher sedentary habit than non-diabetic patient correct parameter is?

16741

Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is:

16742

A HIV positive patient was also diagnosed with TB. Which among the following is true about the treatment?

16743

In assessing the association between maternal nutritional status and the birth weight of the new-borns, two investigators A and B studied separately and found significant result with OR with 0.8 and 1.2 respectively. From this information, what can you infer about the study?

16744

A patient comes with small clean wound on knee 10x2 cm, 12 hours old. He had taken TT 10 years back for another injury. What should be done?

16745

In a population of 10,000 the sex ratio is more than 1000. What is the correct option from below?

16746

A pregnant occupational worker can be exposed to maximum how much amount of radiation?

16747

Which among the following bio safety level is used for viral isolation in cell culture and its characterization in COVID-19?

16748

A disaster is a sudden, calamitous event that seriously disrupts the functioning of a community or society and causes human, material, economic and environmental losses. In disaster management all are correct except?

16749

A patient came to you with below given complaint and you suspect nutritional deficiency of essential fatty acids and retinoids. Which of these has the maximum natural source of retinoids?

16750

A medical officer examines workers in mines and suspected Silicosis. What should be his comments?

16751

The Factories Act, 1948 is a social legislation which has been enacted for occupational safety, health and welfare of workers at work places. What is the maximum number of work hours/ week, prescribed under the Factories act?

16752

In rural areas, patient does not have insurance. But under ESI act, registered medical practitioner can render which of the following service to the beneficiary?

16753

A couple brought their son to doctor. They were worried because their sun likes to eat food from multinational companies. What we will call this shift from consumption of traditional natural foods to western fast foods in the society?

16754

The highest amount of protein is present in which of the following?

16755

In a village, young men with history of successive crop failure develop progressive spastic paraparesis, upper motor neuron signs and gait instability. Most likely toxin responsible for this condition is?

16756

A female patient with macrocytic anaemia, homocystinuria and normal methylmalonate levels. Which vitamin therapy can help in this?

16757

A married couple has 1 child birth recently. They entered into which phase of family cycle?

16758

Which is the largest fund for population and reproduction related programs?

16759

A speech gathering in sequence on a particular topic with 4-6 experts on stage is which mode of health communication?

16760

A person working with 30 year history of working in cotton textile manufacturing industry and develops breathlessness. It is likely to be associated with?

16761

A 35year old patient from Bihar comes with generalized bone pain and was diagnosed to have Fluorosis. Fluorosis of bone is commonly associated with?

16762

Patients from different age groups from a village in West Bengal came to clinic with illness. On examination, it is noted that all of them were having edema. On history taking, it was found that they were consuming mustard seeds bought from the same local shop. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

16763

In a hospital, systematic observation and recording of doctors spending time with patients care and time without care of patient is calculated for future management purposes. The type of management technique used is

16764

According to Sustainable Development Goal 3-Ensure healthy life and promote wellbeing for all at all ages, Target 3.1 is to reduce maternal mortality ratio by 2030 is less than

16765

rue about benefits given under scheme launched by the institution with following logo is

16766

The below given phenomenon is shown by a disease, where 12 cases are above surface, 20 at the surface and 50 beneath. Which disease has the following pattern?

16767

A patient complains of dimness of vision in dim light. Examination reveals dryness of eyes and corneal surface. You have diagnosed Xerophthalmia, which WHO classification it is classified into?

16768

As a Medical Officer of a PHC, you want to talk and discuss some health related issue with antenatal mothers. How many members will you include in focused group discussion?

16769

A mother stopped lactating when the baby was 3 months old so, she decided to give buffalo milk to baby. What is true about buffalo milk in comparison to human milk?

16770

A 37 weeks pregnant lady with HBS antigen positive and HBE antigen negative; how to deal with new born?

16771

If decision makers have to do comparative analysis of all available alternatives over their cost effectiveness to find best solution of a problem. Management technique is?

16772

Pulses and cereals are deficient in which amino acid?

16773

A 10 week pregnant woman brought to the clinic with dog bite category 2, 4 hours prior. What shall be your advice?

16774

Which of the following is not the work responsibility of ASHA worker?

16775

An ASHA worker under NRHM, which of the following is the best impact indicator for evaluation performance of ASHA?

16776

An ASHA worker as a part of NRHM, how much incentives are given to her for ensuring spacing of 3 years after the birth of first child?

16777

Cafeteria approach is related to which of the following?

16778

A healthcare worker visits fortnightly in a village and collects blood sample and prepares blood smear. The blood smear of malaria is examined at which level?

16779

A 22 year old pregnant woman presented to subcenter with history of eating papaya. She is suspecting that she might have aborted the child, the patient is getting anxious, which healthcare worker will visit the house of female to counsel her in this situation?

16780

A 30 year old lady presented to OPD with C/O pain lower abdomen with H/O copper insertion 3 years back, on USG investigation it was confirmed that copper is extra uterine near ovary, its removal is done by?

16781

A healthcare worker going to the community in search of cases is called as an active surveillance. Which of the following diseases are not included in active surveillance in India?

16782

Which of the following is not a health worker at village level?

16783

What will be the content in the given contraceptive?

16784

A researcher undertakes follow-up study for a certain time period duration, and tells that the people increasingly develop the disease with time, then it is expressed as

16785

A 34 year old woman presents after 6 weeks of delivery. She wants contraception for the next 3 years, what will be the best contraceptive in this case?

16786

What is the dose of levonorgestrel used for emergency contraception?

16787

Essential components of RCH programme in India include all of the following except?

16788

A lady wants contraceptive advice so she visited nearby family planning clinic. During history taking it was noted that her mother and her elder sister had been operated for breast cancer in past one year. Preferred contraception for this woman is?

16789

True about incentives given to ASHA worker in Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram?

16790

All are functions of Anganwadi workers except?

16791

All are true about non scalpel vasectomy except

16792

A woman 25-45 year old belonging to same village, married/divorced with well communication skill and leadership quality and selected by village panchayat. She is eligible to work as

16793

The image shown below depicts which level of prevention?

16794

A particular contraceptive X is used by 100 couples in the community for a period of 2 years. During this period 20 women became pregnant despite of use of contraceptive X. The index of pearl for contraceptive X will be?

16795

A lady is reporting to PHC with eighth week in pregnancy with IUCD in place. She has decided to continue pregnancy and on examination IUCD thread was visible through cervical OS. How to proceed in this case?

16796

Which is the most commonly performed investigation in a pregnant female at subcentre?

16797

True about population norms

16798

A patient from rural village presented to PHC with abnormal darkening of skin, fever, abdominal pain, swollen lymph nodes and splenomegaly with below given HPE on spleen biopsy. Which of the following is the drug prescribed?

16799

A 26 years old male presented with fever, chills, night sweats and diarrhea. The physician is suspecting malaria. Dipstick test was performed for rapid diagnosis of P. falciparum, it is based on which protein?

16800

How would you demonstrate balanced diet to uneducated patient’s relatives and family pictorially?

16801

All the below given are components of Nalgonda technique except?

16802

A village had an outbreak of meningitis with the below given rash. Which among the following is the best drug to be used for mass chemoprophylaxis of a large population in this village?

16803

The following apparatus is used for?

16804

Under Vision 2020, in a school vision screening program, a teacher checks vision of all students and will refer them on low vision to?

16805

Which of the following is not transmitted by mosquito in the given image?

16806

If you are posted as a Medical Officer in an area under NVBDCP and you will be advised to spray Malathion for malaria prophylaxis. What could be the probable decision you will take regarding frequency of Malathion spray?

16807

Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

16808

A patient who is a known case of HIV now presents with cough and fever to OPD. Sputum smear came out to be negative but Chest X-ray symptoms are suggestive of TB. What is the next step in management?

16809

A patient was diagnosed with TT leprosy, the patient had to be started on multi drug therapy. All the following drugs are included in the regime except?

16810

A person from Delhi went to Assam for their trip and is now suffering from malaria for 4 days. He has now developed vomiting, altered sensorium and hallucinations. Blood smear tests show Plasmodium falciparum. What drug should be given?

16811

Identify the following diagram as given in the image

16812

Which of the following is true regarding the following image?

16813

In different types of graphs, secular trend of disease is best represented by

16814

Match the STD color coded kits with their names

16815

A family member is volunteering for blood donation for a person with RTA. Before giving blood transfusion, which of the following is not tested for?

16816

Many young adults and children are admitted in ED with complains of exacerbation of asthma on May 2nd. There is no history of chronic bronchitis or heart disease in these patients. Which of the following pollutant is most common cause for this condition?

16817

A patient is resistant to Isoniazid, Rifampicin, Ofloxacin and Kanamycin. What type of resistance is being shown by the patient?

16818

Match the contraceptives with their type

16819

True regarding iron folic acid supplementation under Anemia Mukt Bharat program is

16820

A patient presents with multiple inguinal and axillary buboes. Which among the following is a vector for his condition?

16821

A 25 years old married female was diagnosed with pulmonary TB and so started on ATT under NTEP. She was taking OCPs for contraception but the doctor advises to add on condoms for additional protection. What is the underlying cause?

16822

Which is the instrument used to measure absolute humidity in air?

16823

After a flood in the state of Orissa, the district health authorities distributed Doxycycline and chemical poison spray. Identify the chemical

16824

A 55 years old farmer from the state of Chhattisgarh presented with progressive muscle weakness, stiffness and pain in both legs. On examination, pure motor paresis is noted. What further history will you take?

16825

Components of Kuppuswamy scale are

16826

Why is sugar added in ORS?

16827

Under NACP, HIV targeted intervention is not done in?

16828

Provision of services at the centre represented by the given logo includes

16829

In triage black colour is for?

16830

Quintan fever is caused by?

16831

A person was diagnosed with Beri-Beri with features of edema, pleural effusion causing respiratory distress. Thiamine deficiency results in decrease energy production, because TPP

16832

According to NVBDCP, operational efficiency for malaria control is best assessed by?

16833

The given arthropod vector can transmit all the below given diseases except?

16834

For monitoring of food standards in international market, standard followed is

16835

A study is undertaken to determine whether drinking more than 10 cups of coffee a day is associated with hypertension. The blood pressure readings were taken of persons who drink more than 8 cups and persons who drink no coffee. The results are as follows

16836

Which is the WHO index for obesity?

16837

All below given diseases are included in the WHO program represented by given logo except?

16838

What is the cut off level of blindness given by WHO?

16839

A 30 year old male went to hospital for prophylactic check-up after his dad died due to some cardiac vascular disease. What is the level of prevention?

16840

Severity of disease depends on which of the following factor? 

16841

A person before entering India was started on malaria chemoprophylaxis, now he returned back to America how long he should continue this chemoprophylaxis?

16842

If a new disease like yellow fever comes in India; within how much time we have to inform WHO?

16843

A camp was organized to spread awareness about prevention of covid infection. All are true for covid-19 except?

16844

Under programme of given logo, guidelines to start therapy

16845

The virus in the below given image undergoes antigenic variations leading to epidemics. What is the likely cause of antigenic shifts?

16846

Following a train accident, emergency response team members reach to the site of accident and they tried to segregate patients as per triage guidelines. Which ministry will be on high alert?

16847

In a group of 100 children with mean weight of 40 Kg with standard deviation of 1 Kg, which statement is correct?

16848

Calculate caloric requirement by a moderate worker female lactating her 4 months old child?

16849

As a health worker you are promoting for use of face mask, frequent hand wash, social distancing to fight against corona disease. Which is the level of prevention?

16850

There are 100 children in a population, out of which 28 are immunized for chickenpox. Two children developed chickenpox on the same day. 14 more children developed chickenpox with next 5 to 7 days. What is the secondary attack rate of chickenpox?

16851

To compare construction material used in urban and rural areas, a study was conducted and it was reported that use of bricks, cement and sand was 60 percent, 25 percent and 15 percent and 60 percent, 30 percent and 10 percent respectively. Which among the following statistical test is used for analysis?

16852

A 38-year-old construction worker sustained a crush injury to his right thigh after a crane fell on his leg at the work site. He is brought to the emergency department for evaluation. He has significant right leg pain and pain with passive stretch. The leg is tense to palpation. What is the most likely intra-compartmental pressure measurement of this right leg of patient?

16853

Regarding examination of the hand and wrist, which of the following statements are false?

16854

Regarding tendon injuries and repair, which of the following statements are true?

16855

Regarding bursae, which of the following statements are true?

16856

A 21-year-old man presents acutely with pain and tenderness over volar aspect of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIPJ) of the ring finger. On examination the ring finger has no active flexion of the DIPJ. Radiographs of the finger are normal. Treatment includes

16857

A patient presents to orthoapedics with complaints of bone pains and repeat fractures. He was diagnosed to be suffering from a rare genetic condition. X-ray was done with following findings. Identify the condition

16858

A 34 year old female working in a firecracker industry, presents to orthopaedics OPD with complaints of polyarthralgia and persistent back ache. Physical examination was unremarkeable. On blood examination she was found to have lower than normal calcium and phosphate levels. Parathyroid hormone levels were elevated. Which of the following drug should be prescribed to patient?

16859

A 62 year old patient complains of recent onset hip pain for which he visits a general practitioner. A detailed general physical examination is carried out whereby he also is diagnosed to be suffering from hearing loss. He is advised blood investigations which reveal threefold rise of serum alkaline phosphatase and a normal serum calcium and serum phosphorus. Most probable diagnosis in this case would be

16860

A 40-year-old carpenter is brought to emergency after a 6-foot fall off a ladder. Clinical examination shows a slightly deformed left lower limb with a 0.5-cm soft tissue defect over the anterolateral aspect of his leg. The wound appears relatively clean with no gross contaminants present. Radiographs depict a short oblique proximal one-third diaphyseal tibia fracture. What is his Gustilo open fracture classification grade?

16861

A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department having fallen off a ladder. He complains of pain in the right hip. He is normally fit and well. Hip X-rays show a displaced intracapsular fracture. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

16862

A 15-year-old boy attends the emergency department with a 2-week history of pain in the left lower leg and fever. On examination, there is a tender, irregular swelling of the tibia. X-ray of the leg shows a lytic lesion with a laminated periosteal reaction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

16863

A 70 year old farmer presents to OPD with complaints of back ache, which worsened after a fall. Clinical investigations revealed evidence of Anaemia. A serum calcium level was found to be elevated. His PSA (prostate specific antigen) was 6ng/ml. skull x-ray shows diffuse osteopenia. Likely diagnosis is

16864

A child presents to OPD with history of fever, and diffuse enlargement of leg. X-ray was done which shows the following picture. Preferred treatment would include

16865

A 16-year-old boy finds a prominent hard lump on the back of his knee, which restricts flexion but has not changed significantly in size over the past 6 to 12 months. Radiographs reveal a pedunculated projection from the bone

16866

A college student presents to clinic of orthopedician with complaints of dull, aching pain in his right thigh after jogging during the past nine months. He visited college dispensary where he was advised diclofenac, which relieves the pain but it reoccurs after a while. Any history suggestive of direct trauma could not be elicited. Physical examination too did not show any abnormalities of the right lower extremity. X-ray were ordered, which showed cortical thickening of the distal one-third of the shaft of femur with a central nidus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

16867

A 17-year-old male presented with increasing pain in the left upper arm of approximately 3 months duration and a recent onset of low-grade fever. On physical examination, there was some local tenderness and soft tissue swelling over the proximal and mid thirds of the left humerus. Plain radiograph shows a large ill-defined, destructive, diaphyseal intramedullary lesion. Most likey diagnosis is

16868

A 54-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of a painful right shoulder. The pain is present on almost all movements and movements in the joint are restricted because of the pain. Both active and passive movements result in pain. Plain radiographs of the shoulder are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

16869

Regarding examination of the shoulder and elbow, which of the following statements are true?

16870

A 55 year old postman presented to surgery emergency with alleged history of fall from a wet pavement. Preferred management of the condition is

16871

An 18-year-old boy is brought into the emergency department following an epileptic seizure. On recovery he complains of pain in the right shoulder. Examination reveals the arm to be held adducted and internally rotated with fullness at the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Which of the following motion would be most problematic for the patient

16872

A 6-year-old boy who had a fracture above the left elbow and was treated in a plaster cast is brought into the GP practice by his mother a few days after plaster removal. She is worried due to the abnormal positioning of his forearm. On examination, his left forearm appears to be shortened and held in flexion at the wrist and the fingers. Which of the following complications has led to this appearance?

16873

A 7-year-old child presented with intermittent limp and pain in the right hip and knee. On examination, flexion and extension movements were free and there was no tenderness and no muscle wasting. X-ray examination confirmed the diagnosis of

16874

A 13-year-old boy is referred to your office with a right-sided SCFE after workup over several weeks by his pediatrician for insidious right knee pain. On exam, he has obligatory external rotation with hip flexion and is refusing to bear weight. His TSH is 8.5 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

16875

A 33-year-old male patient is brought to the causality department after a sustained axial loading on a flexed knee joint in a high-speed car crash. On examination, his right lower extremity is slightly flexed, adducted, and internally rotated. He should undergo closed reduction within 6 hours to prevent

16876

A 12-year-old African American male with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with severe left upper extremity pain particularly near the elbow joint and fevers. Blood cultures are obtained, and broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and fluid resuscitation are initiated. What is the most likely causative organism in this patient?

16877

A 22-year-old male basketball player presents with a swollen, painful left knee. He was on a fast break and as he began to jump for an alley-oop, he felt his knee give out and he collapsed to the floor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

16878

A 24-year-old man sustains a twisting injury to his knee, with his body turning outwards (the tibia rotates inwards) as he falls while climbing a mountain. His binding fails to release and he feels a crack in his knee. Nothing seems to be out of place, but it swells immediately and he has to be brought down off the mountain on a stretcher. Which of the following investigations would be positive in this patient

16879

An 18-year-old driver is involved in a high-energy motor vehicle accident. He sustains facial injuries from the windscreen and a fractured sternum from the steering wheel, and his right knee is painful and swollen. Radiographs are unremarkable. Which of the following structures may have been damaged

16880

A 32 year-old woman who plays football on weekends complains of pain over the medial aspect of the left knee and intermittent problems with an inability to straighten her leg. Which of the following investigations would be positive?

16881

A motor mechanic develops pain in his right elbow. The pain gets worst as day progresses. On palpation there is a point of maximal tenderness just distal to the lateral epicondyle. His pain is reproduced on extension/flexion of his affected wrist. Optimum treatment

16882

Following investigation is performed to test the presence of

16883

Identify the clinical condition

16884

Identify the likely injury/condition

16885

Which one of the following could the most likely finding in a patient with mid-shaft humerus fractures?

16886

A college student presents with a swollen and painful right knee. He cannot recall any history of injury, but suffers from malaise and burning micturition. On examination he is pyrexial, and the knee has a large effusion, local temperature is raised. The knee is very painful to move

16887

A kindergarten school child, presents with a limp and no prior history of trauma. On clinical assessment there is a mild decreased range of movement, with pain in the right hip. She is found to be febrile. However temperature is mildly raised at 37.8. CRP is 15 and ESR is 10. Ultrasound was done, which reveals a moderate hip effusion, with microbiological analysis of the aspirate revealing no organisms

16888

A 17 year old rickshaw puller presented in orthopaedics OPD with complaint of persistent back ache. Patient also reports history of loss of weight over last one year. His general physical examination revealed asthenic built and anaemia. Local examination revealed the spine being held in rigid posture and coin test was found to be positive. Investigations were performed and a probable diagnosis was reached at. Most appropriate management offered by the attending clinicians would be

16889

A 34 year old domestic help was brought to orthopaedics OPD by her employers with complaints of persistent back pain. Here general physical examination was unremarkable except for iron deficiency anaemia. Blood tests were performed which revealed a significantly high ESR of around 40 mm first hour WG. X-rays were performed which revealed loss of curvature of spine and reduction of intervertebral disc spaces. Likely diagnosis is

16890

A 38-year-old man has had problems with sciatica for many years. He lifts a heavy object and subsequently develops severe back pain, bilateral leg pain and perineal numbness. Likely diagnosis

16891

A 52-year-old woman complains of discomfort over the lateral aspect of her right wrist and thumb. There is a positive test of Finkelstein. Likely diagnosis

16892

A 48-year-old man complains of being intermittently unable to extend his right ring finger, with a clicking sensation sometimes felt. There is a tender swollen nodule over the palmar aspect of the affected finger. Likely diagnosis

16893

A 58-year-old man with a history of chronic liver disease attends with a bilateral fixed flexion deformity of the ring and little fingers, left worse than right. Likely diagnosis?

16894

A 76-year-old man presents with severe right groin pain, regular night and rest pain and limiting his day-to-day activities. Radiographs of the hip demonstrate moderate to severe osteoarthritis of the right hip. Preferred treatment?

16895

Osgood–Schlatter disease is noticed around

16896

The extreme motion which would cause such fracture (in the circle) would be

16897

Identify the fracture

16898

Identify the fracture

16899

A 44 year old male, presented with insidious onset back pain which has worsened over last few days. Patient also has marked weight loss. Likely diagnosis

16900

The following sign presents due to pathology affecting

16901

After a several kilometre long hiking trip, 26 year old patient presents with complaint of continuous pain near right ankle and foot which worsens with activity. Examination shows severe point tenderness. X-rays were done which were unremarkable. Preferred treatment is

16902

Identify the surgery being performed

16903

The terrible triad of elbow involves all of the following except

16904

Identify the amputation

16905

Identify the disease

16906

The extreme motion which would cause such fracture would be

16907

Line of Shenton is broken in

16908

Montegia fracture dislocation involves all except

16909

Myositis ossificans

16910

Pulled elbow: commonest age group is:

16911

Commonest cause and commonest site in case of pathological fracture is

16912

A patient of acute kidney injury presented in emergency ECG shows. Best modality of treatment for such cardiac changes:

16913

A patient suffered from vomiting and diarrhea for past 24hr his urine frequency was reduced. what will u find in this patient

16914

A patient presented with peri-orbital puffiness. Most likely we have to rule out

16915

Incorrect about Wilson disease

16916

Acute renal failure result in

16917

Which of the following conditions typically has rickets with normal or low calcium, elevated phosphorus, elevated parathormone and elevated alkaline phosphatase?

16918

A young boy with skin rashes (purpura), acute onset, oliguria, CNS manifestation after 5 days of diarrhea is suffering from

16919

All indicates pre renal AKI except

16920

All following are at risk group adult meriting Hepatitis B vaccination in low endemic areas except

16921

Uremic complications typically arises during which of the following phase of renal failure

16922

Clinical features of minimal change: glomerulopathy are all except

16923

Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?

16924

Disabling periumbilical pain within 10 minutes of eating food with history of weight loss. Past history is positive for myocardial infarction in last year indicates

16925

Drug of choice of acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, except

16926

Fractional excretion of sodium less than 1 seen in

16927

Following are absolute indication for hemo-dialysis except

16928

Gitelman syndrome incorrect is

16929

Which of the following presents with hypokalemia and metabolic acidosis?

16930

A 40 year old man comes with complaints of vomiting for last 3 days. ABG report shows a pH=7.22, pCO2=21 mmHg and HCO3=9meq/dl. Diagnosis is

16931

All are true about performing an ABG except

16932

Osmotic demyelination syndrome develops due to rapid correction of hyponatremia at a level exceeding

16933

Poorly controlled diabetes with blood sugar of 450 mg percent is associated with

16934

Calprotectin is used as an inflammatory marker in IBD. Which of the following is not assessed by calprotectin

16935

All of the following are risk factor for development of peptic ulcer except

16936

All of the following syndrome presents as hematuria with hemoptysis except

16937

Most common cause of nephrotic range proteinuria in an adult is

16938

Good pasture syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except

16939

Hypergastrinemia with hypochlorhydia is seen in

16940

All of the following statements about Hepatitis B are true, except

16941

A nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client with atelectasis. The nurse analyzes the results and determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which of the following validates the findings of nurse

16942

A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypo ventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which of the following?

16943

The nurse is planning care for a patient with fluid volume overload and hyponatremia. Which of the following should be included in this plan of patient care?

16944

What is the correction of sodium deficit

16945

Serology of patient is given below diagnosis is

16946

Which one of the following is not advocated in the management of hepatic encephalopathy

16947

All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease except

16948

All are complications of ulcerative colitis, except

16949

Gitelman syndrome differs from Bartter syndrome in all except

16950

A patient presents with severe colitis associated with an overgrowth of clostridium difficile in the lower part of intestine. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition

16951

The nurse is caring for a client who has been in good health up to the present and is admitted with cellulitis of the hand. The serum potassium level of client was 4.5mEq/L yesterday. Today the level is 7mEq/L. Which of the following is the next appropriate nursing action

16952

First-line therapy for routine peptic duodenal ulcer disease includes

16953

All of the following parameter indicate liver disease, except

16954

A patient with chronic liver disease develops seizure. All of the following are false regarding pathogenesis except

16955

A patient can donate blood if his serology shows

16956

A patient serology reveals HBsAG positive, IgM and Anti HBc negative. Diagnosis

16957

Flapping tremor may be seen in all of the following condition except

16958

See the image below for question 

16959

All the images shown are seen in hepatocellular failure except

16960

Please take a look at this EEG. All are predisposing condition leading is this EEG except

16961

Please take a look at this EEG. All are predisposing condition leading is this EEG except. Puscells – 10/HPF, RBC – 0-1/HPF, Protein – Nil, Sugar – Nil. Microscopic examination showed this image. Probable diagnosis and management include all except.

16962

A 30 year old female presented to OPD with complaint of weight loss & constipation. Her X ray abdomen showed like this. There is no history of Koch contact. Next line of management would be

16963

Urine examination of a patient showed following lab value. Diagnosis

16964

A 42 year old male, complaining of recurrent peptic ulceration associated with weight loss. Endoscopic biopsy of gastroedophageal function revealed. Likely diagnosis

16965

All are causes of splenomegaly except

16966

Identify the graph depicting temporal association in Hepatitis B. Identify the missing parameter

16967

All of the following enzymes indicates cholestasis except

16968

Bilirubin formation prematurity taken place in

16969

Identity the scan and medication for which it is done

16970

Most critical manifestation of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is

16971

High anion gap acidosis is seen in

16972

A 50-years old chronic alcoholic with drinking history of 20 years came with yellowish discoloration of sclera, abdominal distention and decreased urine output. What is the next best step in management of this patient

16973

An elderly diabetic female has presented with multiple episodes of vomiting after few hours of consuming food from outside. On admission BP is low and ABG shows pH = 7.5, pCO2 = 45 mm Hg and HCO-3 = 30 mEq. Na+ = 130, K+ = 3.5 and Chloride = 90 mEq/L. What is the etiology of these findings

16974

A 30-year-old patient was behaving strangely and developed an episode of seizure on presentation to ER. On work-up of patient, urine osmolality=1000 mOsm/kg and plasma osmolality = 200 mOsm/kg. Which of the following is most probable dyselec trolytemia present in this case

16975

What does the following image shows

16976

The image shows signs of which disease

16977

Cause of central cyanosis include all of the following except

16978

Which of the following is not a feature of consolidation

16979

All of the following define severe ARDS according to the Berlin definition of ARDS except:

16980

In ARDS, not true is

16981

All of the following are more commonly seen in Klebsiella pneumonia than in pneumococcal pneumonia except

16982

All of the following constitute primary diagnostic criteria, for ABPA, except

16983

All of the following are true about emphysema except

16984

A drug is to be delivered by a nebulizer. The size of a droplet for its humidification is

16985

An adult with asthma presents with asthma symptoms every day and wakes up in the night approximately 2 to 3 days in a week. He can be classified as having:

16986

A 68-year-old patient presents with cough and sputum production. On examination, he is well oriented with BP = 110/70 mmHg and respiratory rate = 20/min. On auscultation, bronchial breath sounds were heard with scattered crackles. Lab reports showed urea 44mg/dL (Normal: 5 – 20 mg/dL). What is the treatment protocol?

16987

A 40-year-old basketball player with history of sudden syncope and similar history in the past presented to the emergency. On examination, BP was low, ECG showed deep Q waves on V5 and V6 leads with T-wave inversion and evidence of left ventricular atrophy. ECHO showed systolic anterior movement of mitral valve. Which of the following are correct options about this condition?

16988

Which of the following is the only drug that decreases mortality in a patient with severe COVID–19 on respiratory support

16989

A 65-years old man presented to hospital complaints of palpitation and sudden onset chest pain. ECG shows MI changes. Which of the following marker is having high sensitivity and specificity, 2–4 hours post myocardial injury?

16990

During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the:

16991

A man working in a coal mining factory for 16 years develops symptoms of progressively worsening breathlessness and cough with expectoration a spirometry was performed and his values were as follows FEV1-1.4 I/min FVC 2.8 I/min and with FEV1/FVC ratio of 50. What could be the cause?

16992

A 24 year old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. Treatment is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulizers and IV hydrocortisone. Despite initial treatment there is no improvement. what is the next step in management

16993

A known case of COPD with acute exacerbation presented in emergency. Patient was conscious, alert, PR = 110/min, on chest examination there were B/L wheeze. ABG shows pH=7.3, PCO2=58, HCO3= 20. Which is not true in management?

16994

The best chances of recovery after successful cardiopulmonary resuscitation are seen in:

16995

Which of the following lung disease is shown in the image below:

16996

A 10-year-old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity measured as 200/140 mmHg. Femoral pulses were not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is

16997

True statement about Ductus Arteriosus is:

16998

A 5-year-old child presents with left ventricular hypertrophy and central cyanosis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

16999

All of the following statements about Tetralogy of fallot are true, except

17000

In cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed by two persons the ratio of compression to breaths is

17001

Non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension

17002

According to the NCEP–ATP III definition of Metabolic Syndrome, all of the following criteria for Men are correct EXCEPT

17003

Hepatomegaly with liver pulsation indicates:

17004

Which of the following is not a major Framingham criteria in CHF:

17005

All of the following features can differentiate between ventricular tachycardia and supraventricular tachycardia except

17006

All of the following phases of the jugular venous pulse and their causes are correctly matched, except

17007

Which of the following best represents the sequence of events in Iron Deficiency anemia

17008

Which of the following is seen in chronic inflammatory anemia?

17009

A 7-year-old girl presents with repeated episodes of bleeding into joints. APTT is prolonged and PT is normal. The most likely diagnosis is

17010

Which of the following indicates modified shock index?

17011

Which of the following is not required in case a second puff is to be taken from an inhaler?

17012

Peripheral blood film showing this type of neutrophils is seen in:

17013

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

17014

Match list I with list II and select correct answer using code given below the list:

17015

A female patient with hysteria was hyperventilating. She subsequently developed carpopedal spasm. On work up, ABG value of pH=7.53, pCO=20 mmHg, HCO=26 mEq/L is seen. The clinical diagnosis is:

17016

A 10 years old child with AIDS presented with fever, cough with purulent sputum and difficulty in breathing. On auscultation, bronchial sounds were heard with coarse crepitations in right infra-mammary and infra-scapular area. Chest X-ray showed right lower lobe consolidation. His current CD4 count is 55 and is not on regular medication. Which of the following is the etiological agent for this presentation?

17017

A 50 years old patient presents with nocturnal cough, breathlessness and wheezing episodes for 4 weeks. Absolute eosinophil count is 5000 (n=40-400 cells/cu mm) and miliary pattern is noticed on chest X-ray. What is the likely diagnosis?

17018

Patient presents with breathlessness, easy fatigue, and peripheral edema. On auscultation, a mid diastolic murmur with giant/steep a wave in JVP was seen. What is the likely diagnosis?

17019

A 10-years old child with recurrent pulmonary infections now presents with bulky stools with fat greater than 10 grams. Which of the following is true about this patient?

17020

Arrange the order of sequence of events in JVP after P wave in ECG:

17021

What is the diagnosis based on the ECG given below?

17022

ECG Tracings of V5 and AVR leads in a patient with acute chest pain are depicted in the images. What is the likely diagnosis?

17023

Patient presented with sudden onset difficulty in breathing with RR 28/min, chest pain and normal blood pressure. X-ray was taken which is given below. What is the diagnosis?

17024

The ECG strip in the question represents:

17025

Identify the procedure:

17026

What can be diagnosed from the given ECG pattern?

17027

In the given graph, if the RR interval is 25 mm, what would be the correct heart rate?

17028

Which of the following statement is incorrect about the given figures?

17029

What ECG finding is shown here?

17030

Which of the following drug is responsible for such ECG effect as shown in the given figure?

17031

Which instrument is shown in the given picture and what is the use of it?

17032

Chest X-ray of a 1-year-old child shows a boot shaped heart produced by elevated left ventricle combined with a small or absent main pulmonary artery segment and vascularity of the pulmonary artery is reduced. On the basis of radiographic evaluation it was suggested that the child is suffering from tetralogy of Fallot. Which technique should be used to confirm the radiographic findings?

17033

Identify the marked part of the instrument shown:

17034

An 11 year old child was bought to radiology department for chest X-ray with history of cough for 2 weeks duration. What will be the likely diagnosis in this case?

17035

What does the enlarged view of given chest X-ray depicts?

17036

All of the following are not used in BLS algorithm except:

17037

All are cause of wide complex tachycardia except:

17038

Identify the tachycardia algorithm. A in box stands for:

17039

All of the following are correct regarding this procedure except:

17040

Which of the following is the correct depiction of this low voltage ECG graph?

17041

All of the following are causes of LAD except:

17042

A 45 year old man presented with a daily headache. He describes 2 attacks per day over the past 3 weeks. Each attack least about an hour and awakens the patient from sleep. The patient has noted associated tearing and reddening of his right eye as well as nasal stuffiness. The pain is deep, excruciating and limited to the right side of the head. The neurologic examination is non focal. The most likely diagnosis headache of this patient is:

17043

A 64 old year lady Kamla complains of severe unilateral headache of the right side and blindness for 2 days. On examination there is a thick cord like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hour in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is:

17044

Bulbar paralysis refers to:

17045

Which of the following sensation are transmitted by the Dorsal Tract/Posterior column:

17046

A patient known to have mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation presents with acute onset of weakness in the left upper limb which recovered completely in 2 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

17047

All of the following are true about aphasia of Broca except:

17048

A patient with injury to paracentral lobule has all of the following features except:

17049

Which of the following sites is not involved in a posterior cerebral artery infarct?

17050

Damage to Auditory Cortex on one side causes:

17051

All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:

17052

All of the following are true about delirium tremens except:

17053

Which of the following is not included in the cardinal features of disease of Parkinson?

17054

All of the following are features of Pseudotumourcerebri, except:

17055

Which of the following is a typical feature of syndrome of Korsakoff?

17056

Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in TBM?

17057

Which of the following is the most common presentation of Neurocysticercosis?

17058

All of the following are seen in Neurofibromatosis except:

17059

All of the following statements about Guillain-Barre syndrome are true, except:

17060

Dystrophic gene mutation leads to:

17061

Multiple sclerosis is associated with all of the following, except:

17062

A head injury patient, who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused and localizes to pain. What is the Glasgow coma score?

17063

Non-noxious stimuli perceived as pain is termed as:

17064

ANCA is not associated with which of the following disease?

17065

An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in 3rd and 4th fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the BP is 170/110 mmHg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examination were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibody, antibody to dsDNA and DNA and ANCA were negative. Most likely diagnosis is:

17066

Clinical trial of Asthma, Peripheral Eosinophilia and Mononeuritis multiplex suggests a diagnosis of:

17067

A 52 year old lady presents with throbbing continuous headache on both sides of the forehead that gets worse while chewing. The likely diagnosis is:

17068

Which of the following features regarding disease of Kawasaki is not true?

17069

All are true about purpura of Henoch Scholein except:

17070

According to current guidelines, which of the following is not a clinical manifestation used to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus?

17071

Which of the following is not a characteristic deformity associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

17072

A 40 year old female being evaluated for fever of unknown origin presents with arthralgia and a salmon colored rash. Blood investigations reveal increased ferritin and reduced glycosylated ferritin levels. What is the likely diagnosis?

17073

All are seronegative (spondyloepiphyseal) arthritis with ocular manifestations, except:

17074

All are associated with MEN 2 except:

17075

Intake of exogenous steroid cause:

17076

In syndrome Conn the following are true, except:

17077

The following are feature of primary hyperaldosteronism:

17078

A 40 year old male patient is suffering from type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should not be used in such patient?

17079

All of causes of hyperprolactinemia, except:

17080

In a patient if administration of exogenous vasopressin does not increase the osmolality of urine the likely cause is:

17081

Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory feature except:

17082

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypothyroidism?

17083

In Thyrotoxicosis, beta-Blocker do not control:

17084

Weight gain occurs in all, except:

17085

Identify the condition shown in the CT Scan below:

17086

A woman presents with pain, swelling and redness of small joints of the hand. There were associated complaints of Morning stiffness. The swelling spared the DIP joints. The image of the hands of patient is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17087

A patient of RTA presents in emergency with inability to speak. On examination, the patient presented with difficulty in speak and impaired repetition. He was however able to understand what he wanted to speak. Which of following marked area of brain is involved in this?

17088

A patient presents to the Emergency with altered consciousness. A Non Contrast CT scan shows the following Image. What is your diagnosis?

17089

The following person is performing deep tendon reflex in a patient. Which of these is not a correct statement?

17090

The following set of X-rays are suggestive of:

17091

Which disease has been shown in this image?

17092

Identify the lesion:

17093

Diagnose the disease:

17094

Comment on the diagnosis based on the image shown below:

17095

What does the arrow indicates in the MRI report of a child in the given image?

17096

Following statements about sarcoidosis is false?

17097

Urethritis is seen in:

17098

Which of the following is the most common initial presentation in a patient with myasthenia gravis?

17099

All of the following statements regarding treatment of GBS are true, except:

17100

A 10 year old girl presents with fever convulsion, neck rigidity. CSF-Findings are protein 150 mg, Sugar 40 mg, chloride 50 ug/dl with lymphadenopathy:

17101

In which condition the following procedure is followed?

17102

A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusion state, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral front temporal hyper intense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:

17103

Which of the following types of neuropathy are seen in Diabetes?

17104

Which of following statements is TRUE regarding myasthenia gravis?

17105

Which of the following fevers has been depicted in this temperature chart?

17106

Below shown image is which type of obesity:

17107

Nightmares occur in:

17108

Delusion of infidelity on part of the sexual partner is called as:

17109

A useful diagnostic procedure for distinguish psychogenic and organic impotence is:

17110

Squeeze technique is used for:

17111

A 30-year-old unmarried woman from a low socioeconomic status family believes that a rich boy staging in her neighborhood is in deep love with her. The boy clearly denies his love towards this lady. Still the lady insists that his denial is a secret affirmation of his love towards her. She makes desperate attempts to meet the boy despite resistance from her family. She also develops sadness at times when her effect to meet the boy does not materialize. She is able to maintain her daily routine. She however remains preoccupied with the thoughts of this boy. She is likely to be suffering from:

17112

A patient came with complaints of having a deformed nose and that nobody took him seriously because of this deformity. He has visited several cosmetic surgeons there was nothing wrong with his nose. He is most likely suffering from:

17113

Who is the father of psychoananlysis?

17114

A middle-aged man is chronically preoccupied with his health. For many years he feared that his irregular bowel functions meant he had cancer. Now he is very preoccupied about having a serious heart disease, despite his assurance of physician that the occasional extra beats he detects when he checks his pulse are completely benign. What is his most likely diagnosis?

17115

A 35-year-old man with bipolar disorder, most recent episode mixed, comes to the clinic for routine follow-up examination. His condition has been difficult to control and has required treatment with multiple medications during the past two years. The patient says his mood has been stable with his current regimen, but for the past three months, he has had tremor primarily affecting his hands. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of tremor of this patient?

17116

Confabulation means:

17117

The wife of a man in a hilly area has died 7 days back. He has since seen his dead wife twice and she asked him to die, the diagnosis is:

17118

A 37-year-old man comes to the office after he experienced what he says was a nervous breakdown. The patient says that after he recently declared bankruptcy, losing his home and his business, he became very depressed. During this time, he began to hear voices telling him that he was useless and should kill himself. The patient says his symptoms stopped after approximately one week. He has had no similar episodes. Medical history includes no psychiatric conditions. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and results of laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

17119

The active substance in hashish is:

17120

Physical withdrawal symptoms are absent in patients

17121

False regarding Histrionic personality disorder

17122

While driving, a 40-year-old man with no previous history refused to stop for the traffic police. He was subsequently brought into the accident and emergency department (AED) by them. You are the resident working in the AED. When you assess him, he states that he was hearing voices in clear consciousness. He admits to a history of alcohol use. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

17123

Treatment of alcohol dependence is by all except?

17124

A person drinking alcohol says that he is doing so to overcome family problems. The defense mechanism involved is:

17125

Drug abuse of which substance shows symptoms similar to Schizophrenia:

17126

A motivational syndrome is seen in:

17127

A 40 year old man who become sweaty with palpitation before giving a speech in public otherwise he does very good at his job, he is having:

17128

A female presents with the history of slashed wrists and attempted suicide, now she presents with similar history. The diagnosis is?

17129

All are features of autistic disorders except?

17130

Drug used for treatment of nocturnal enuresis is?

17131

A 30-year-old man suffered from eight episodes of mood disturbances within a single year. These mood episodes met the diagnostic criteria for major depression, mania and hypomania. These episodes were separated by remission. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

17132

An 8-year-old child was found to be very restless and hyperactive in the classroom, making it difficult for the other students to concentrate. He ran around the class all day long and could not sit in one place for a long time. He got very agitated when the toy in his hand was taken away. The most likely diagnosis is:

17133

Culture bound syndrome seen in India are the following:

17134

Patient with grandiose character. Does not care about others. Feels himself to be unique

17135

A middle aged lady present to you with nausea dyspepsia abdominal distention. She had a past history of going to many doctors and being treated for many disorders. She has been treated by a rheumatologist for aches and pains, cardiologist for her palpitations and gave her propranolol without improvement, a neurologist for her epilepsy. On examination you find a tense anxious woman in spite of her daily dose of benzodiazepine. There are scar from appendectomy and hysterectomy operations. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

17136

A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies?

17137

You are asked to immediately resuscitate a patient who has been brought to the emergency room with opioid poisoning. He is in a state of profound respiratory distress. Which of the following drugs should you choose to administer to bring his breathing back to normal:

17138

The term involutional melancholia was used by kraeplein to describe?

17139

True about BPD type-II is

17140

Features of OCD are all except

17141

All are true for conversion reaction except

17142

True regarding syndrome of Ganser is

17143

A 20 year old girl enjoys wearing male clothes. It gives her more confidence and after these episodes she is absolutely normal girl. The likely diagnosis is

17144

Sexual stimulation obtained through some inanimate object is called as

17145

A characteristic feature of bulimia nervosa

17146

The NREM sleep is commonly associated with

17147

A 10 year old child found to have a mental age of 8 years on IQ testing. He has

17148

A patient on antidepressant developed sudden hypertension on consuming wine. Responsible drug is

17149

Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with

17150

All are the features of korsakoff syndrome except

17151

Treatment is not required in withdrawal of

17152

All are associated with encephalopathy of wernicke except

17153

Criteria of Bleuler for schizophrenia includes all except

17154

First rank symptoms of schizophrenia are all except

17155

A lady while driving a car meets an accident and admitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged she often gets up in night and feels terrified and has fear to sit in a car again. The diagnosis is

17156

Most common substance abuse in India is

17157

A 50 year old man presents to OPD complaining that he often feels that room is spinning when he gets up after sleep or turns his head. He has not lost consciousness and no chest pain with normal ECG. On examination, rapidly turning head leads to nystagmus. Hearing is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

17158

A person complains of hearing loss and PTA reveals poor BC and AC. He gives history of hospital admission few weeks ago in view of meningitis. You suspect the spread of infection to inner ear via which route?

17159

A middle aged patient presents to you with complaints of progressive hearing loss in right ear over the past 7 years. He also states that he experiences vertigo and recently started experiencing retro-orbital pain. What is the best investigation?

17160

A 35 year old pregnant female complains of bilateral gradually progressive hearing loss, which aggravated since last few weeks. The patient was advised tympanometry, which of the following graph will be seen?

17161

A patient following peanut consumption presented with laryngeal edema, stridor, and hoarseness of voice and swelling of tongue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17162

A patient of head injury following a RTA was brought to the hospital. Patient was conscious having clear nasal discharge through the right nostril. NCCT Head was done which revealed a non-operable injury to the frontobasal area. What is the most appropriate management?

17163

An elderly diabetic patient was brought with features of facial palsy. He also complains of severe earache since long and ear discharge. Otoscopy reveals granulations inside EAC. All are true about his condition except?

17164

A 3 year old child was brought to the emergency with complains of foreign body ingestion. The X-ray performed is given below. What will be the best management approach?

17165

A child underwent adenoidectomy in view of adenoid hypertrophy. Which among the following complication will not be seen in this child after adenoidectomy?

17166

You are an ENT resident and get call from surgery ward for a patient with severe respiratory distress and stridor. Patient has no perioral numbness and carpopedal spasm is absent. Patient underwent thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer in morning. What is the likely complication he is suffering from?

17167

A 14 year old boy presents with frequent profuse nasal bleeding. His Hb was found to 6.4 g/dl and peripheral smear shows normocytic normochromic anemia. CECT performed is given below which shows a mass. What is the site of origin for this tumor?

17168

A patient presented to emergency with sudden onset right sided facial weakness, tingling sensation and drooping of mouth on right side with headache. The patient was advised oral steroids and acyclovir but after 3 weeks patient returns with no improvement. What shall be the next best step?

17169

A 58 year old male presents with persistent fullness of left ear for 3 months and hearing loss. On examination, there is fluid behind tympanic membrane. Impedance audiometry shows type B curve. The next step for the management of this patient would be:

17170

Bone anchored hearing aid can be used in which of the following?

17171

A person presented with tinnitus and hearing loss over the past year. You ordered a PTA which is shown below. Identify the condition:

17172

A patient presents with frank bleeding from nose to emergency. Bleeding is not controlled by pressure and the bleeding site could not be identified. What is the next best step in treatment?

17173

A patient underwent surgery for removal of cystic mass in the neck. Post-operatively patient had aspirations without any change in voice. Which is the likely nerve injured?

17174

All the structures are derived from the 4th branchial arch except?

17175

A patient who was suffering from earache, retro-auricular pain with profuse muco-purulent pulsatile otorrhea presented to you. Examination finding is given below. What is best management option?

17176

Which among the following statement is true regarding the condition given in the image?

17177

Which is the X-ray view of Paranasal Sinuses on which all sinuses are visible?

17178

A patient presents to you with whitish patches over the buccal mucosa and tongue, these patches bleed on removal. The patient is a known case of bronchial asthma and currently taking treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17179

A patient underwent superficial parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. Fe months later, the patient complains of facial sweating and skin flushing when he eats food as shown in the image. Which nerve injury is responsible for his condition?

17180

A patient presents to OPD with mild hearing loss and heaviness in ear. Otoscopic examination is given below. What is the likely diagnosis?

17181

A middle aged female comes to OPD with complaints of hearing loss, pulsatile tinnitus, ear ache referred to the throat and examination reveals red bleeding mass. What is the likely diagnosis?

17182

A neonate was brought to you by parents with complaints of noisy breathing. On examination, stridor increases when child cries and decreases on prone position and laryngoscopy reveals floppy epiglottis. What is the best treatment option?

17183

A patient is brought by his wife with complaints of foul smell and anosmia. On examination, crusts are present inside nasal cavity and nodules over the external nose. The biopsy from these nodules is given below. What is the likely causative agent of this condition?

17184

A child is brought with complaints of progressive respiratory distress, biphasic stridor, and hoarseness of voice. Mother gives history of such episodes in past and examination reveals Cotton Myer grade 2 subglottic stenosis. What is the best treatment?

17185

A patient suffering from CSOM, now complains of headache and spikey fever with rigors. On examination, tenderness and edema is noted over mastoid area. CECT head is given below. What is the diagnosis?

17186

Which of the following is correct regarding structures passing between constrictors?

17187

A male patient Muthu, age 30 years presented with trismus, fever, chin swelling along the floor of mouth. He gives history of excision of 3rd molar few days back for dental caries. The diagnosis is:

17188

A patient of NF-2 was complaining of bilateral gradually progressive hearing loss and PTA reveal 100 dB of hearing loss in both ears. The patient was planned for auditory brainstem implant, the electrode is surgically placed in?

17189

The commonest genetic defect of inner ear causing deafness is:

17190

A patient was having severe earache and ear discharge from right EAC. Few days later, he developed swelling over the right cheek and pain in the jaw. You suspect parotid abscess, which is the route of spread for infection?

17191

A patient presented to OPD was having mild hearing loss and ear was impacted in EAC. An intern was asked to perform ear syringing, patient suddenly collapses after the procedure. What is the cause?

17192

An 8 year old child presents to you with complaints of hearing loss. There is no prior history of ear discharge or pain or any surgery. Otoscopic examination of tympanic membrane is given below. Likely diagnosis is:

17193

All the below given statements about tracheostomy are false except?

17194

The arrow marked structure in below given endoscopic image is the most common site for?

17195

A weight-lifter presents with cystic neck swelling on lateral aspect of neck since last few months. On pressing, hissing sound is heard and X-ray performed is given below. What is the likely diagnosis?

17196

A 55 year old chronic smoker and alcoholic presents with hoarseness of voice and feeling of lump inside the throat. Direct laryngoscopy and biopsy confirms malignancy, the mass involved both the vocal cords with intact mobility without nodal metastasis. What is the best treatment option?

17197

In case of antepartum haemorrhage, meternal blood loss is seen in all of the following except:

17198

A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examination uterus is contracted with increased tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. Most likely diagnosis is:

17199

A 32 year old Fourth gravida at 37 weeks of gestation is brought to emergency department with history of bleeding per vagina for two hours. On examination, she is pale. What should be the next step in management?

17200

A primigravida, at 37 weeks of gestation reported to the labour room with central placenta previa and vagina bleeding. Her vitals are stable. P/A examination reveals uterus is relaxed and fetus is cephalic in presentation. Fetal heart sounds are normal. There is no active vagina bleeding at present on local examination. The best management for her age is?

17201

A 22 year old pregnant female presented to obstetric emergency at 20 weeks of gestation, with C/O - Vaginal spotting. On examination she was found to have an enlarged uterus up to 26 weeks size. No FHS was audible. The fetal Doppler also failed to reveal the presence of any heart sound. Serum HCG levels were raised, and were found to be 100,000 mIU/ml. Which of the following test is most appropriate?

17202

Which of the following pathologic features is most helpful in distinguishing complete hydatidiform mole from normal placenta?

17203

A 35 year old female mother of two presents to gynaecology emergency with vaginal bleeding, at 12 weeks of gestation. She also reports excessive nausea and vomiting. On examination the fundal height corresponds to 22 weeks. An ultrasound was done, which shows snow storm appearance and bilateral enlarged cystic ovaries. Optimum management would include:

17204

A female presents with 8 weeks amenorrhea with pain left lower abdomen. On USG, there was thick endometrium with mass in lateral adnexa. Most probable diagnosis:

17205

Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for ectopic pregnancy?

17206

A 26 year old woman with 6 weeks of amenorrhea presented with pain in lower abdomen. A urine pregnancy test was done - positive.  On examination pulse rate is 90/min. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. There is tenderness in the right hypogastrium. On pelvic examination, the uterus was found to be normal in size and tenderness was noticed in the right vaginal fornix. The likely diagnosis is:

17207

Medical management for an ectopic pregnancy can be considered if:

17208

During a laparotomy for a suspected ectopic pregnancy in a 24 year old woman who wishes to bear children, you find a ruptured left tubal ectopic with about 400 mL of blood in the peritoneal cavity. The other tube appears normal and the ovaries are uninvolved. What is the accepted treatment?

17209

A 32 weeks pregnant female presents with labour pains and minimal vaginal discharge. On analysis of the cervical vaginal discharge, Fibronectin was found. What is the probable diagnosis?

17210

A 32-weeks pregnant with a cervical cerclage inserted at 14 weeks, presents to the labour room with a confirmed diagnosis of PPROM. She is clinically well with no uterine activity. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her?

17211

A 24 year old woman with no prenatal care at 29 weeks gestation presents with painful contractions and pressure. Her cervix is 3 cm, 60 percent effaced, and breech at –2 station. There is no evidence of ruptured membranes. Her contractions are every 3 minutes. FHT is normal. Maternal vital signs are stable. What should you do?

17212

A primigravida came in spontaneous preterm labour at 32 weeks of pregnancy. There is no other medical risk factor. No history of fever. Blood pressure is normal. There is no leakage or bleeding per vagina. She is 4 centimetre dilated. 80% effaced cervix and a bag of membranes is present. What is the management?

17213

A 28 year old female, who is 33 weeks pregnant with her second child, has uncontrolled hypertension. What risk factor below found in the patient health history places her at risk for abruption placentae?

17214

The most worrisome sign or symptom of potentially serious pathology in late pregnancy is which of the following?

17215

What is the first sign of Magnesium sulphate toxicity?

17216

Primary and secondary PPH differs from each other on the basis of:

17217

A 40 year old woman with H/O - three previous vaginal deliveries, experiences brisk vaginal bleeding immediately following vaginal delivery of 36 week gestation twins (birth wt. 2.0 and 1.9 kg). An episiotomy was not required. The placenta was delivered without complication. The estimated blood loss is 700 ml. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for the excessive genital tract bleeding?

17218

A patient calls your clinic complaining of continued heavy vaginal bleeding. She had an uncomplicated vaginal birth 2 weeks ago of her second child. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following differentials?

17219

A 34 year old multigravida had a normal delivery. After delivery there is difficulty in delivering the placenta, traction is applied on the umbilical cord. Immediately after which the woman develops sudden severe abdominal pain and copious vaginal bleeding. Her BP is 70/40 mmHg and PR-62/min. The placenta has separated but, the uterine fundus is no longer palpable at the umbilicus. What is the likely diagnosis?

17220

True about diabetes in pregnancy are all except:

17221

In GDM, maternal hyperglycemia is independently and significantly linked to all of the following adverse outcomes except:

17222

A 28-year-old woman presents to your office at 8 weeks gestation. She has a history of diabetes since the age of 14. She uses insulin and denies any complications related to her diabetes. Which of the following is the most common birth defect associated with diabetes?

17223

A 22 year old primigravida visit for antenatal check up in the obstetrics OPD, with a 22 weeks pregnancy. On examination uterine height was found to be corresponding to the 16 week size. USG shows an AFI of 4 cms. What is the likely diagnosis:

17224

A 34 year old primigravida presents to emergency room with complaints of respiratory distress. An ultrasound was done which shows a live fetus in breech position. Placenta was found to be anterior and estimated birth weight of the baby was found to be 1.8 kilograms. Amniotic Fluid Index was found to be 35 centimetre. The best management of the patient is

17225

A 25 year old primary gravida at 15 weeks pregnant presents with complaint of pain in the lower abdomen for a couple of hours. She also has some vaginal spotting on physical examination. The uterus size corresponds to 10 weeks and the OS is closed. There is no cardiac activity in the fetus. Likely diagnosis is

17226

A 26 year old woman whose last menstrual period (LMP) was 2 months ago develops bleeding, uterine cramps, and passes tissue per vagina. Two hours later, she is still bleeding heavily. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17227

Anti-phospholipid is syndrome associated with all of the following except

17228

The following maneuver is used for

17229

A 35 year old primirgravida who conceived after IVF therapy came for an antenatal checkup at 38 weeks of gestation. Her obstetrics history revealed that she was pregnant with DCDA twins. On examination, the first twin was found to be in breech position and the maternal blood pressure was found to be greater than 140/90 mmHg on two occasions with grade 1+ proteinuria. What should be done next?

17230

After a normal labor and delivery of monozygotic twins at 35 weeks of gestation, one is found to be polycythemic, and the other small and markedly anemic. What is the most likely etiology of this phenomenon?

17231

A 19 year old primigravida with unsure LMP presents to initiate prenatal care. You attempt to estimate gestational age. The uterine fundus is palpable at the level of the pubic symphysis, and fetal heart tones are audible by electronic Doppler. On the basis of this information, what is the approximate gestational age?

17232

A woman is in 2nd stage of labor with right occipitoposterior position with fully dilated cervix. Forceps are applied and tried to rotate the head. In which type of pelvis, the head cannot be rotated?

17233

A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts less than 2 minutes and is usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called:

17234

The plane from the sacral promontory to the inner posterior surface of the pubic symphysis is an important dimension of the pelvis for normal delivery. What is the name of this plane?

17235

Identify the maneuver shown in figure

17236

Triple marker test includes

17237

All of the following statements are true regarding the parameter being shown on the USG except:

17238

A 20 year old primigravida has undergone ultrasound. There is a single intrauterine gestation sac of 20 mm, yolk sac 3 mm but cardiac activity is not visualized. The diagnosis is

17239

A woman is seen in the OPD with c/o off and on dull aching pain in the lower abdomen. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago. Clinical pelvic examination is normal. UPT is positive. TVS shows the following finding. This is suggestive of

17240

Osiander sign indicates

17241

Identify the lie of the fetus in the following image

17242

All are true about HCG except

17243

Engagement is best defined as which of the following?

17244

A pregnant client is making her first visit at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She has previous history of stillbirth at 39 weeks, 2 years back, twin daughters 3 years ago born at 36 weeks and history of ectopic 5 years back. Her obstetrical score is

17245

All are true about Schultz method of placental separation except

17246

A young primigravida delivers a 3 kg healthy baby by spontaneous vaginal delivery in the cephalic vertex position. The newborn is noted to have an endematous swelling of the scalp near the vertex. The newborn is vigorous and breast feeding normally. What do you counsel the woman?

17247

A 38 year old G2P1 at 39 weeks is in labor. She has had one prior vaginal delivery a 3.8 kg infant. One week ago, the estimated fetal weight was 3.2 kg by ultrasound. Over the past 3 hours her cervical examination remains unchanged at 6 cm. Fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. An intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) reveals two contractions in 10 minutes with amplitude of 40 mmHg each. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?

17248

After a delivery complicated by a shoulder dystocia, a newborn is found to have paralysis of one arm with the forearm extended and rotated inward next to the trunk. These findings are most consistent with which of the following?

17249

What position is this baby in figure?

17250

Physiological anemia in pregnancy-all are true except

17251

Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in

17252

A 28 year old female comes for antenatal visit at 6 weeks POG. Her TSH levels are low and free T4 levels are elevated. Initial treatment is started with

17253

A 27-year-old G3P2 with B negative blood group, her husband A+, presents at 32 weeks of gestation. Her ICT is positive with titre 1.32. What is the next line of management?

17254

Anti D is given if Rh negative mother has

17255

Pregnancy should be avoided within 1 month of receiving which of the following vaccinations?

17256

A 24-year-old woman experiences an antepartum stillbirth at 34 weeks gestation. Which one of the following maternal serological investigations may be helpful in identifying a cause for the stillbirth?

17257

A pregnant lady acquires chickenpox 3 days prior to delivery. She delivers by normal. Which of the following statement is true

17258

What is the implantation of a placenta in which there is a defect in the fibrinoid layer at the implantation site, allowing the placental villi to invade and penetrate into but not through the myometrium called?

17259

A 38 weeks pregnant woman has developed confirmed primary genital herpes. She is presently being treated with acyclovir. She has confirmed SROM since 2 h. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her?

17260

Placenta show the given below is:

17261

With reference to fetal heart rate, a non-stress test is considered reactive when

17262

A 35-year-old complains of increasing dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain. Her pelvic examination demonstrates tenderness and nodularity over her uterosacral ligaments and a 4-cm right ovarian cyst. Which of the following is her most likely diagnosis?

17263

A 44 year old patient who is currently using oral contraceptive pills to control menorrhagia had a hysterectomy for uterine enlargement. Which histological description supports the diagnosis of adenomyosis?

17264

The biochemical changes in established case of Stein leventhal syndrome are as mentioned except

17265

A 16 year old girl comes with complaint of mild abnormal hair growth over the face for last two years her menstrual cycles have become mostly regular although she misses her period occasionally breast development is normal there is no clitoral hypertrophy what is the next step to arrive at a diagnosis?

17266

A 30 year old woman with history of PCOD presents for evaluation of infertility after one year of unprotected intercourse. What is the initial step in her evaluation?

17267

What is the first sign of pubertal event in girls?

17268

14-year-old girl with developed secondary sexual characteristics but amenorrhea. What is the treatment you should prefer?

17269

In turner syndrome all of the following are true except

17270

A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency with c/o - severe abdominal pain and acute urinary retention. She has not yet attained menarche. On local examination, there is tense bluish bulge at the introitus. All of the following can be additional findings in this case except

17271

All of the following are amongst the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea except

17272

A 30 year old woman has come with C/O - Amenorrhea for the past one year. She had a delivery one year ago during which 4 units of blood was transfused. There is no history of postpartum curettage. She recalls having failure of lactation. Now she also has cold intolerance. Pelvic examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17273

Endocrinological changes occurring during menopause include all of the following except

17274

Which of the following factors is protective against endometrial hyperplasia?

17275

A 48 year old female presented to gynaecology OPD with complaint of heavy menstrual bleeding. As a part of the work up of the patient, endometrial biopsy was taken, which showed the evidence of simple hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia. Preferred treatment to be offered to the patient is?

17276

A 45-year-old patient with uterine leiomyoma found on pelvic examination complains of excessive uterine bleeding. Which of the following should be the next step in the management of this patient?

17277

A 55 year old female presented o gynaecology OPD with complaints of on examination she was found to be having carcinoma endometrium involving greater than 50 percent of the myometrium extending up to vagina with positive peritoneal cytology but no involvement of the pelvic and para aortic LNs, what is the staging of the disease?

17278

A 54 year old woman has serous type of endometrial cancer, grade I with growth limited to the endometrium.  The tumor is confined to the uterus. Size of the tumor is 2 centimeter. What is the most appropriate treatment?

17279

Which of the following is false regarding types of gynaecological prolapse?

17280

A 56-year-old multipara woman presented with grade II/III uterine prolapse with cystocele. She complains of passing urine on coughing and sneezing. What is the type of urinary incontinence seen in this patient?

17281

Fothergill repair is associated with the following complications except:

17282

Most useful investigation for VVF is

17283

A 29-year-old complains of constant dribbling of urine and pain. You confirm the excoriation in the vulva and thighs and splash dysuria. To confirm your diagnosis you perform 3 swab test and the top most cotton ball is not blue in colour but is wet. The diagnosis in this case

17284

Which of the following types of vulvar cancer occurs most commonly?

17285

A woman is found to have a unilateral invasive carcinoma of vulva that is greater than 2 cm from midline but not associated with evidence of lymph node spread. Initial management should consists of

17286

A 45-year-old woman complains of pelvic pressure and abnormal uterine bleeding. Ultrasound reveals an enlarged uterus with an intramural 4 cm mass. Which of the following is the most common uterine neoplasm?

17287

Fibroids causes all of the following except?

17288

A 23-year-old woman with confirmed pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) presents with right upper quadrant pain. What is the MOST likely etiology?

17289

A patient came to the gynaecology OPD with complaints of greenish frothy vaginal discharge and intense itching. On examination, the cervix was spotted and had the appearance of a strawberry. Identify the causative organism

17290

Which of the following is not a risk factor for CA cervix?

17291

Which of the statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO?

17292

A 35 year old woman came with complaint of post coital bleeding. The physical examination is normal. What is the best step in evaluating the woman?

17293

A 50 year old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which lymph node group would be the first involved in metastatic spread of this disease beyond the cervix and uterus?

17294

All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma except

17295

A 64 year old female presented with history of abdominal discomfort, weight loss and loss of appetite. On examination she was found to have an ill-defined abdominal lump. A USG was done which shows evidence of an ovarian tumour. Most likely she is suffering from

17296

Which of the following ovarian tumors is most likely to result in virilization of a 35-year-old woman

17297

All are the components of Meigs syndrome, except

17298

Call–Exner bodies are found in

17299

A patient with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism desires ovulation. What is the initial treatment of choice

17300

The ultrasound of a young woman with infertility is suggestive of a uterine anomaly. Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis

17301

P1L1, had Cu-T inserted 2 years back, On examination Cu-T thread not seen. USG shows CuT within uterine cavity. Method of removal is

17302

What is the most likely cause for beaded appearance on fallopian tubes with clubbed ends of fimbriae on HSG

17303

A 31-year-old patient is preparing to start in vitro fertilization (IVF) because of obstructed fallopian tubes. On HSG, it is noted that she has large dilated hydrosalpinges present bilaterally. What should be your next step

17304

According to the 2010 WHO criteria what are the characteristic of normal semen analysis?

17305

A 36 year old male presented to the gynecology clinic with complaint of Azoospermia, the diagnostic test which can distinguish between testicular failure and obstruction of the vast deference is

17306

Oral contraceptive pills reduce the risk of endometrial cancer by

17307

The following statements are true about intrauterine devices (IUD) except

17308

What is the main mechanism of action of the following contraceptive device

17309

Toxic shock syndrome has been associated with which of the following contraceptive methods?

17310

Which of the following is the absolute contraindication to the use of this device

17311

Identify the following device and non-contraceptive benefits of this device includes all except

17312

Rate of release of progesterone from LNG IUS is

17313

A 27 year old P1L1 wants contraception for 6 months. She has dysmenorrhea and is a known case of complicated migraine. On USG, uterus has multiple fibroids and distorted uterine cavity. Contraception of choice is

17314

A patient has delivered her first child after an uncomplicated pregnancy and term vaginal delivery. As part of her postpartum counselling lactation, she is asked to avoid

17315

Which of the following can be used for emergency contraception up to 5 days following unprotected intercourse

17316

A 40 year old, smoker, obese (BMI 40), 3 previous LSCS. Family complete, seeks permanent effective contraception. Partner refuses to take contraception precautions. Best method is

17317

Correct statement about non scalpel vasectomy

17318

Identify the finding in the HSG image. Likely diagnosis is

17319

Formation of the external genitalia in the fetus is influenced by multiple factors. Which of the following factors is the most important

17320

Which of the following hormones are produced by the corpus luteum?

17321

In ovarian cycle increased level of LH is due to

17322

Lindsay tumour primarily affects

17323

A 40-year-old man presents with a history of a slow-growing, painless mass in the base of his tongue that has been present for several years. On examination, a firm, non-tender mass is palpated at the base of the tongue. Imaging studies reveal a lingual thyroid. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

17324

Which of the following features are NOT consistent with anaplastic carcinoma?

17325

After undergoing thyroid surgery for graves diseases, a 38 year old school teacher complains of hoarseness. Laryngoscpy was repeated which confirmed left side vocal cord to be lying in median position. Likely injured nerve(s) is

17326

A 45-year-old woman presents with a thyroid nodule that was incidentally discovered during a routine physical exam. She has no symptoms and no personal or family history of thyroid cancer. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals a follicular lesion. What is the next best step in management?

17327

A 35-year-old woman with a history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (MEN 2A) presents with a thyroid nodule. A biopsy confirms medullary thyroid cancer. What is the appropriate next step in management?

17328

A 37-year-old woman presents to the clinic with 2 days of sudden onset pain in the anterior neck radiating to the jaw. She is otherwise well having reported a full recovery from a cold a week ago. What findings are NOT consistent with her diagnosis?

17329

A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight gain, constipation, and cold intolerance. Physical examination reveals a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland that is firm and non-tender. Laboratory studies show an elevated serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a low serum free thyroxine (T4) level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17330

A 55 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaints of a neck swelling. On clinical examination, the swelling was confirmed to be arising from thyroid gland. Further the serum calcitonin levels were also found to be raised. Pick incorrect:

17331

A 13 year old boy is brought to surgery OPD by his parents after they noticed a swellings in his neck. Cervical lymph nodes were also found enlarged. FNAC was done which shows multinucleated cells in the background of bubble-gum colloid. Likely diagnosis:

17332

A 6 year old boy is brought to surgery OPD by his parents with 5 months history of a painless slow growing mass in the neck, left of the midline. An ultrasound was done which returned the following picture. Preferred treatment is:

17333

Which of the following statements about necrotising soft-tissue infections are true?

17334

An 18-year-old boy who had an appendicectomy for a gangrenous appendix 1 week ago presents to surgery emergency with complaints of diarrhoea, fever and lower abdominal pain. On examination he is clinically febrile, heart rate 96/minute and blood pressure 126/86. Likely diagnosis:

17335

An 80-year-old male presents with a history of left iliac fossa (LIF) pain for last 10 days. This has increased significantly over the last couple of days and is now associated with fever. Patient also reports burning micturition. On examination he is very unwell and has signs of peritonitis over the LIF with a vaguely palpable tender mass. Likely diagnosis:

17336

A 25-year-old female gives a history of high-grade fever with chills for the last 2 weeks, and diarrhoea for the last 10 days. She is a resident of a working hostel of women and complains that several of her colleagues have also been unwell. She also complains of a dragging pain in the upper left abdomen that gets relieved on taking rest. On examination, she is dehydrated and febrile. Likely diagnosis:

17337

An elderly male has been rescued from a burning building. He was lying unconscious when spotted by the rescue team. His face is blistered and eyelids are swollen. His BP is 114/76, HR is 90/min and RR is 30 minute. Next step in management should be:

17338

A 60-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with second-degree burns on his back and arms after a propane tank explosion. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and hypertension. What is the appropriate fluid resuscitation strategy for this patient?

17339

A 50-year-old man is admitted to the burn unit with third-degree burns on his chest and abdomen after a gasoline spill and fire. He is intubated and mechanically ventilated. What is the appropriate nutritional support for this patient?

17340

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with second-degree burns on his hands, chest, and arms following a house fire. His vital signs are stable, and he is alert and oriented. What is the initial management strategy for this patient?

17341

A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall from a height. He has a GCS score of 15, but he complains of severe headache and nausea. A CT scan of his head reveals a small extra dural hematoma. What is the appropriate management strategy for this patient?

17342

A 40-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12 and a right-sided pupil dilation. A computed tomography (CT) scan of his head reveals a large extra dural hematoma. What is the appropriate management strategy for this patient?

17343

A patient presents to the emergency department with blunt abdominal trauma and hemodynamic instability. Imaging reveals a Grade IV liver laceration with active extravasation of contrast material. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

17344

A 63-year-old man underwent gastric resection for severe peptic ulcer disease. He had complete relief of his symptoms but developed dumping syndrome. This patient is most likely to complain of which of the following?

17345

A 64 year-old man was evaluated for moderate protein deficiency. He underwent a gastrectomy 20 years earlier. He is more likely to show which of the following?

17346

A 60-year-old man has a 10-year history of achalasia. His dysphagia has been worsening, and he underwent an esophageal dilation; shortly after this procedure, he develops acute chest pain, tachycardia, and fever 6 hours after esophageal dilatation for achalasia. Which of the following diagnostic procedures is most appropriate for this patient?

17347

A 35-year-old man complains of dysphagia of almost 2 years duration. Occasionally he has regurgitation of foul-smelling stale food and frothy sputum. He has been treated for chest infection a few times by his GP. He has lost some weight and looks slightly malnourished:

17348

A 50-year-old female with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates to the back. She is tachycardic and hypotensive. What is the next best step in management?

17349

A 65 year old male presents with complaints of pain epigastrium and generalized weakness. The pain subsides transiently with antacids and NSAIDs, but reappears later. Investigations were done which revealed patient having microcytic hypochromic anaemia. Reports of patient having no long term relief with proton pump inhibitor therapy. Appropriate Next investigation should be:

17350

A 40-year-old male smoker presents with history of projectile non-bilious vomiting for the past week. The vomitus contains residue of food items eaten previously and is foul-smelling. The vomiting is associated with bouts of severe upper abdominal colicky pain that are relieved after vomiting. He gives history of episodes of upper abdominal gnawing pain in the past. On examination, the patient is dehydrated and has a pulse rate of 100/min and a BP of 100/60 mmHg. There is distension in the epigastrium and umbilical regions. Likely diagnosis:

17351

A 55-year-old school bus driver was diagnosed 3 months ago with an antral ulcer. He was treated for H. pylori and continues to take a PPI. Repeat endoscopy demonstrates that the ulcer has not healed. What is the next treatment option?

17352

A 64-year-old supermarket manager had an elective operation for duodenal ulcer disease. He has not returned to work because he has diarrhea with more than 20 bowel movements per day. Medication has been ineffective. The exact details of his operation cannot be ascertained. What operation was most likely performed?

17353

A 50-year-old man presents with vague gastric complaints. Findings on physical examination are unremarkable. The serum albumin level is markedly reduced (1.8 g/100 mL). A barium study of the stomach shows massive gastric folds within the proximal stomach. These findings are confirmed by endoscopy. Which of the following is acceptable treatment?

17354

A 70-year-old woman complains of abdominal discomfort, anorexia, and a 10-lb weight loss. Endoscopy reveals a polypoid lesion in the antrum. The lesion is biopsied and the patient is informed that she has early gastric cancer (EGC). Why?

17355

A 70-year-old female is brought to causality with complains of generalised abdominal pain and distension for 36 hours. She also complains of vomiting, which started as greenish vomiting, which has now been replaced with brownish feculent material. She is dehydrated with a distended abdomen and a small tender lump in her right groin of which she is unaware. Likely level of the obstruction is:

17356

A 60 year-old housewife complains of undue shortness of breath while going about her daily activities. On examination she looks very pale. An irregular non-tender lump in her right iliac fossa. Likely diagnosis is:

17357

A 79-year-old man has had abdominal pain for 4 days. An operation is performed, and a gangrenous appendix is removed. The stump is inverted. Why does acute appendicitis in elderly patients and in children have a worse prognosis?

17358

The complication that is more likely to occur after resection of the ileum rather than of an equivalent length of jejunum is the failure to absorb which of the following?

17359

A CT scan of patient reveals diverticulitis confined to the sigmoid colon. There is no associated pericolic abscess. What is best course of treatment?

17360

An elderly nursing home patient is brought to the hospital with recent onset of colicky abdominal pain, distension and obstipation on examination, the abdomen is markedly distended and tympanitic. There is no marked tenderness. Plain abdominal x-ray shows a markedly distended loop located mainly in the right upper quadrant. The likely diagnosis is:

17361

A 64-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distention. Bowel sounds are increased on auscultation, and a plain film shows marked distention of loops of bowel with nonspecific pattern. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?

17362

A 64-year-old man undergoes CEA surveillance for cancer, because his brother and father both had colon cancer. What information should he be provided?

17363

A 24 year old patient presents with history of bleeding per rectum associated with constipation. The blood was bright red in colour was seen coating the outer surface of faeces. Likely diagnosis:

17364

A 6-month-old baby is brought into the emergency department by his Parents with complaints of incessant crying since morning. The parents got further worried when the child passed blood mixed mucous in this stools, once in the evening. On further detailed history taking the parents reveal episodes of crying to be present along with drawing of his legs up to the abdomen. The child was found to be clinically afebrile. Which of the following would be the best treatment option in the first instance?

17365

Optimum management of the following condition noticed on oesophagoscopy is:

17366

Intra-abdominal Swelling shown in the below presented picture shows:

17367

You are assessing a Glasgow Coma Scale of patient at the bedside. What is the score of patient based on these findings: when you arrive to the bedside of patient the patient is looking around, the patient tells you they are at a concert hall and the year is 1960 (it is 2023) but they state their correct name, and they are open to successfully open their mouth and stick out their tongue:

17368

A 28 year old male was brought to surgical emergency after he was rescued from a mangled car. His GCS score is E3V4M5. How often should his GCS should be measured?

17369

During ongoing covid 19 pandemic, an obese 41 year old alcoholic male suffered a bout of pancreatitis and had to be hospitalized. He however tested negative for covid 19 on 2 different occasions. Upon admission, his condition gradually improved and he was shifted out of ICU after 2 days. Later while being nursed in general ward, he complained of pain in his calf muscles which precluded his ambulation. On examination both his lower limbs were found to be edematous and mild tenderness was also noticed in his calf muscles. Which of the following investigations may act as a screening investigation before other relevant investigations can be carried out?

17370

Identify the following instrument:

17371

Tension pneumothorax: which of the following can be used as a diagnostic aid:

17372

Common cause of sustaining the following injury is:

17373

A 67-year-old gentleman presents with sudden right arm and leg weakness and dysphasia, and is markedly hypertensive at admission. CT scan, as a precursor to thrombolysis for acute stroke, demonstrates a bleed in the basal ganglia:

17374

A 62-year-old gentleman taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with a two-week history of headaches and clumsiness of the dominant hand. He cannot recall any impact to the head. Likely diagnosis:

17375

A 45-year-old man skidded from the road at high speed and hit a tree. Examples of deceleration injuries in this patient include:

17376

A35-year-old woman was punched in the right side of the abdomen and chest. There was some right upper abdomen tenderness but no guarding or rebound. Results of a gastrografin upper GI study showed a coiled-spring (stack of coins) appearance of the second and third part of the duodenum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17377

A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a car crash. X-rays revealed a fractured rib on the left and a fracture of the right femur. A CT scan of the abdomen showed a left-sided retroperitoneal hematoma adjacent to the left kidney and no evidence of urine extravasation. The hematoma should be managed by which of the following?

17378

A 42-year-old woman presents to the ER with the worst headache of her life. A noncontract CT scan of the head is negative for lesions or haemorrhage. She then undergoes a lumbar puncture, which appears bloody. All 4 tubes collected have red blood cell counts greater than 100,000/mL. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate management of this patient?

17379

A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a stab wound to the neck above the angle of the mandible. The blood pressure of patient is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse rate is 100 bpm, and respiration rate is 24 breaths per minute. Between initial presentation and insertion of intravenous lines, the hematoma in the upper neck enlarges significantly. What should be the next step in the management of patient?

17380

A 64-year-old woman complains of right calf pain and swelling. She recently underwent an uncomplicated left hemicolectomy for diverticular disease. A duplex ultrasound confirms the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the calf. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

17381

Which of the following surgery is not done for the treatment of this condition?

17382

Which of the following is the most common form of lymphedema?

17383

Which of the following disturbances is associated with tumorlysis syndrome?

17384

As part of her triple assessment, a 55-year-old woman undergoes a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of a breast lump. The cytology comes back as C3. Which one of the following best describes C3?

17385

Women who are at high risk for early-onset breast cancer include

17386

A 49-year-old woman undergoes a triple assessment for a left upper outer quadrant breast lump. The results of the clinical assessment show the lump to be 4 cm in diameter, with mobile ipsilateral axillary lymph nodes and no evidence of distant metastases. Which of the following is her TNM classification?

17387

Which of the following breast cancer patients is most likely to have stage III disease?

17388

What is the appropriate staging for a breast cancer patient with a 1 cm tumor and micrometastases in one axillary lymph node?

17389

A 39-year-old patient presents to your office with a left 3.5-cm breast tumor, which on core needle biopsy, is shown to be an invasive ductal cancer. On left axillary examination, she has a hard non-fixed lymph node. A biopsy of a left supraclavicular node is positive for malignancy. Her stage is currently classified as?

17390

A 38-year-old woman presents to the GP with pain in the sub areolar region of the left breast associated with occasional blood-stained nipple discharge. Apart from being extremely anxious she has no other associated symptoms. Examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17391

A 42-year-old woman attends the breast clinic with a rapidly growing irregular mass in her right breast. On examination, it is 6 cm in diameter. Core biopsy later reveals mixed epithelial and connective tissue elements. Preferred treatment

17392

A 32 year old female complains chest pain and mastalgia. The pain does not show any relation with menstrual cycle. She also does not report any history of thoracic trauma. On examination a non-supportive, tender swelling of the anterior chest wall is noticed. Management of the condition would include

17393

A 30-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and a palpable mass in her right upper quadrant. Imaging studies reveal a large hepatic mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17394

A 28-year-old man presents with abdominal pain and a palpable mass in his right upper quadrant. Imaging studies reveal a hepatic mass with areas of hemorrhage. The patient reports a history of anabolic steroid use. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17395

A 35-year-old female presents with abdominal pain and weight loss. Imaging studies reveal a large, multilocular cyst in the liver with several small cysts. Serological tests for Echinococcus granulosus are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

17396

A 35-year-old male patient presents with fever, abdominal pain, and obstructive jaundice. Imaging studies reveal a large hydatid cyst in the liver that is compressing the common bile duct. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

17397

A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of right upper abdominal pain and fever. She tells you that she has previously been investigated for abdominal pain and was found to have gallstones. She says that she has never felt this unwell with the pain before. On examination, she is markedly jaundiced with a temperature of 39 degree C and pulse rate of 130/min. There is localised peritonism in the right upper abdomen. Which of the following complications of gallstones has this patient presented with?

17398

A 38-year-old woman who has a history of intermittent right upper quadrant pain associated with eating attends the emergency department with a 3-days history of severe, unremitting abdominal pain and jaundice. A bedside ultrasound scan shows a 1 cm stone in her common bile duct. Which of the following would be most suitable management?

17399

A 55-year-old female nurse is admitted with right upper quadrant pain. She undergoes a difficult laparoscopic cholecystectomy. At the end of the operation, a urinary catheter is inserted prior to extubation. Soon afterwards the blood pressure of patient drops to 50/30 mmHg, her heart rate is 170/minute and she becomes difficult to ventilate. Likely cause of her condition is

17400

A 63-year-old man underwent a total gastrectomy for cancer stomach. While in the ICU, 12 hours postoperatively, his blood pressure has fallen to 80 mm Hg systolic, he is peripherally cold and his capillary refill time is 5 seconds. Further, he has been oliguric for the last 3 hours. Likely diagnosis

17401

An otherwise healthy, 28-year-old motorcyclist rider got involved in a road traffic accident and was admitted with a femoral fracture and a fracture-dislocation of his elbow treated by internal fixation. On the second postoperative day he is hypoxic, confused, and agitated and has developed a petechial rash. A chest x ray was obtained, which may show

17402

A 46 year old diabetic patient presented to surgery causality with complaint of severe pain abdomen especially localized to right hypochondrium. She also complains of multiple episodes of vomiting. CT scan was done which returned the following picture. Preferred management is

17403

A 50 year old male patient who had suffered from ileocacecal tuberculosis a year back presented to surgery OPD with complaints of sub-acute intestinal obstruction.  The patient had successfully completed his ATT. The patient was managed conservatively and was discharged. However as a part of management for the present clinical condition, he underwent CECT abdomen which revealed the following findings. Preferred management is:

17404

A 42-year-old woman sustains an iatrogenic bile duct injury during laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following statements best describes the management of injury to the biliary tree?

17405

A 50-year-old woman with known gallstones presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back together with nausea and vomiting. Examination reveals localised epigastric peritonitis and investigations reveal an amylase of 650 u/L. Which of the following would indicate a poor prognosis in this condition?

17406

A 65-year-old man is on the surgical ward being treated for pancreatitis. Initially he appeared to be improving, however on day 4 he develops fever and increasing epigastric pain. His serum C-reactive protein is noted to be rising. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

17407

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with increasing itching and upper abdominal discomfort. His wife has noticed that he is looking ‘yellow’. On examination, there is a non-tender mass in the right upper quadrant. The patient has a history of ulcerative colitis, which is currently in remission. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17408

A 62-year-old man presents as a general surgical emergency with jaundice, associated with anorexia, low-grade fever, early satiety and weight loss. He had gallstones 20 years ago, which were managed by way of sphincterotomy and he has had no interim problems, being otherwise fit and well. What is the most appropriate investigation?

17409

A 65-year-old man undergoing abdominal ultrasound scan is diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Which of the following statements best describes primary HCC?

17410

A 62-year-old man presents to the GP with a lump in the left groin which has been present for over 2 months. On examination, the lump is above the inguinal ligament. It is reducible and has a cough impulse, but does not extend into the scrotum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

17411

A new born baby boy is found to have visible intestine emerging from his abdomen. There is no covering to the contents. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

17412

A 44-year-old man presents to the GP having noticed a painless swelling in the right side of the scrotum. On examination, the scrotum is swollen and non-tender. The swelling trans illuminates and the testis itself are not palpable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17413

A 48-year-old-woman presents with a long-standing, painless swelling on her right thigh which disappears on lying flat. She is otherwise well. On examination, the swelling is bluish and non-pulsatile. It lies below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17414

A 12-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother having noticed a painless swelling on the left side of her neck following a recent cold. On examination, there is a smooth, fluctuant, non-tender swelling anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17415

A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at 1 am with a 3- hour history of pain in his right testicle. He denies any trauma but does a lot of long distance running. Examination is difficult due to pain; however the right testicle does appear to be swollen, slightly red and extremely tender. Which of the following do you do next?

17416

An 8-year-old boy is brought into the emergency department with a 3-day history of right-sided testicular pain. His mother tells you he was off school a week ago with complaints of feeling unwell and jaw pain on eating. On examination, there is unilateral generalised swelling and tenderness of the right testis. Which of the following treatment options is most appropriate?

17417

A 27-year-old man presents to the GP practice having noticed a painless swelling of his right testicle. He is otherwise well. On examination, the testis is enlarged, firm and has a nodular texture. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17418

A 62-year-old asymptomatic man is noted to have a prostate that is normal in shape and size on digital rectal examination. His PSA level is 30 ng/mL. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?

17419

A 42-year-old man requests prostate “testing” because his father has recently been given a diagnosis of prostate cancer. You perform a DRE, which reveals a normal-sized, smooth prostate gland. A PSA test is then performed and is run immediately because the patient insists on knowing the results before leaving the office. The PSA result is 3.2 ng/mL (normal, 2.5 ng/mL). Which of the following is the best next step?

17420

A 75-year-old male complains of general malaise, lethargy, abdominal distension and urinary incontinence. On examination he has a large painless mass in his suprapubic region arising from the pelvis and has continuous urinary dribbling. The mass is dull on percussion. He is a type 2 diabetic on oral medication. Management is

17421

A 60-year-old man complains of haematuria associated with pain in his left loin radiating to the lower abdomen for about 2 months. He passes clots that are ‘worm-like’. On examination he has an enlarged left kidney, and scrotal examination reveals a varicocele of which he was unaware

17422

A 60-year-old female patient was seen as an emergency with high temperature, rigors, and pain in her right loin. She had a blood pressure of 160/70 mmHg, bounding pulse of 90/minute, and extreme tenderness in her right loin

17423

A 45-year-old female patient complains of nagging pain in her right loin and urinary frequency for several months. On examination she has tenderness in her loin over the kidney. Urine examination shows red blood cells and a growth of a gram negative bacteria

17424

A 40-year-old man has come to A/E complaining of a sudden onset of very severe pain in his left loin of 4 hours duration, radiating to the front of the lumbar area and groin and the left testis. He has vomited a couple of times and has urinary frequency. On examination he is writhing in pain and cannot find a comfortable position

17425

A male child of 3 years has been brought by his mother, who noticed while bathing him that the right side of his abdomen felt larger than the left and was asymmetrical; she thought that there was probably a lump in his abdomen

17426

A 60-year-old man complains of haematuria and painful micturition, and he occasionally finds that his micturition stream suddenly stops. He has learned to re-start his stream by changing position. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality

17427

A 70-year-old male, a heavy smoker for more than 50 years, complains of painless, profuse and periodic haematuria for 6 weeks. The blood is uniformly mixed with the urine. He has frequency of micturition and some retropubic discomfort. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Preferred treatment

17428

A 70-year-old male complains of poor micturition stream, post-micturition dribbling and a feeling of insufficient emptying of his bladder. He has some dysuria. On occasions he has found that shortly after micturition he again passes a large amount of urine. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Likely diagnosis

17429

A 35-year-old female patient complains of frequency of micturition and bilateral loin discomfort. She has low grade pyrexia, general malaise and weight loss. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Urine examination carried out by her doctor shows sterile pyuria. Likely organism involved

17430

Which of the following statements is/are false?

17431

An Anxious patient, presents with complaint of greatly decreased ejaculate. He also complains of smoky urine at times. Patient had underwent TURP and recovered well. Management includes

17432

A 69-year-old man with poorly controlled insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus comes to see you in the urology outpatient department complaining of troublesome incontinence. He tells you he does not feel the urge to pass urine. What is the most likely cause?

17433

A 59-year-old man presents with an 8-month history of urinary hesitancy, poor stream and the sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. He is otherwise well. On examination, his prostate is homogeneously enlarged and smooth. Which of the following interventions would be indicated?

17434

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-hour history of left loin pain radiating to the left groin. He is known to have benign prostatic hypertrophy and recurrent urinary tract infections. The intravenous urogram (IVU) shows a standing column on the left. Which of the following types of stone is most likely to have caused his symptoms?

17435

False about the picture shown below?

17436

The picture is suggestive of?

17437

A 21-year-old man is brought into the emergency department with penile pain and swelling following a fall onto the crossbar of a bicycle. On examination, the penis is oedematous and bruised and there is blood at the urethral meatus. He is otherwise stable. Which of the following investigations is indicated?

17438

A 54-year-old man presents with a 2-day history of upper abdominal and shoulder tip pain on the right side. He also complains of difficulty breathing and episodes of fever and sweats. He underwent a laparotomy 2 weeks ago following a perforated appendix. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17439

A 42-year old man presents to the GP with a slowly-enlarging mass in the left side of his neck which has been present for 3 months. On examination, the mass is 2 cm in diameter, non-tender, pulsatile and can be moved from side to side, but not up or down. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17440

An 8-year-old boy is brought into the emergency department by his father with a 1-day history of fever, right-sided abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He has no past medical history of note, but has recently recovered from a cold. On examination, he has a temperature of 39 degree C and is tender, but not guarding, in the right iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17441

A 56-year-old woman presents with a lump on the left side of her neck which has been slowly enlarging over the last few months. On examination, there is a 2 cm firm, painless, mobile lump near the angle of the left jaw. She is still able to move her facial muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17442

Identify the following knot

17443

Which of the clinical investigation is being performed in the following image

17444

The first person who gave successful spinal anaesthesia

17445

Which one is not a goal of anaesthesia?

17446

The following image is-mallampatti grade:

17447

ASA grading is related to:

17448

Fasting time before surgery for clear liquids:

17449

Which one of the following drugs is essentially stopped before anaesthesia?

17450

Atropine in anaesthesia has all the following uses except:

17451

Midazolam is used as premedication because of which property:

17452

Elderly patient with fracture right hip, anaesthesia of choice is:

17453

Best anaesthesia technique for 25 years female with heart disease for LSCS:

17454

Identify the following:

17455

Rotameter is a part of:

17456

The doctor on duty asks the technician to get a black cylinder that has a white shoulder. Which cylinder is the doctor asking for?

17457

Best anaesthetic breathing circuit used for spontaneously breathing adult:

17458

Which one of the following is stored in a cylinder?

17459

Minimum alveolar concentration is associated with:

17460

Diffusion hypoxia is seen with which of the following?

17461

Which of the following agents is hepatotoxic?

17462

Bone depression is seen with which one of the following?

17463

Which of the following produces maximum bronchial irritation?

17464

Induction agent of choice for pediatric patient undergoing general anaesthesia is?

17465

Which one of the following is not a barbiturate:

17466

Administration of Thiopentone is contra-indicated in:

17467

Drug of choice for electro convulsive therapy:

17468

Drug of choice for induction in a patient of cirrhosis of liver for liver transplant?

17469

Which of the following anesthetic is safe in heart failure?

17470

IV induction agent with maximum incidence of vomiting:

17471

Ketamine acts on which receptor?

17472

Anti-convulsant in nature:

17473

Which one of the following should be avoided in a patient of asthma?

17474

Site of action of atracurium:

17475

Which one of the following produces depolarizing block:

17476

The most cardio stable neuromuscular blocking agent:

17477

Which one of the following is not a property of atracurium?

17478

The following device is:

17479

Most common mode of NM monitor used to monitor the action of pancuronium:

17480

True about EMLA:

17481

Which one of the following is amino-ester?

17482

Local anesthesia has its basic effect by action at:

17483

Shortest acting local anaesthetic out of the following:

17484

The spread of the spinal anesthetic solution is not affected by:

17485

One of the commonest intra operative complication seen immediately after spinal anaesthesia:

17486

Most common post-operative side effect of spinal anaesthesia:

17487

Contraindications to epidural includes all of the following except:

17488

Local anaesthetic contra-indicated in intravenous regional anaesthesia:

17489

A patient during pre anesthetic check-up gives a family history of sudden rise in temperature during surgery that had happened to his father 20 years  ago. Which of the following should not be used in this patient?

17490

The adjacent graph indicates which of the following:

17491

Pulse-oximeter shows in-accurate reading in which of the following?

17492

The size of this endotracheal tube is:

17493

Kindly identify the laryngoscope blade:

17494

The device shown is a:

17495

This device shown is best used during:

17496

All the following are complications of central line insertion in the IJV except:

17497

During the 2 rescuer CPR of a child, chest compression to ventilation ratio is:

17498

During the 2 rescuer CPR, the rescuers change roles approximately:

17499

The heimlich maneuver is done during:

17500

The following may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:

17501

Vagolytic property is seen with:

17502

Suggamadex is related to which of the following:

17503

Which of the following can cause allergic reactions?

17504

What is the angle subtended by top most letter of chart of Snellen at distance of 6 meter?

17505

Corneal endothelium is embryologically derived from

17506

Cause of decreased vision due to defect shown in visual?

17507

False about Bitot spots is?

17508

All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except

17509

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

17510

Changes seen in the conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency

17511

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of the of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas on the palpebral conjunctiva is

17512

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

17513

Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

17514

A 28 years old male complains of glare in both eyes. The cornea shows whorl-like opacities in the epithelium. He gives history of long term treatment with Amiodarone. The most likely diagnosis is:

17515

A patient presents with history of Chuna particles falling in the eye. Which of the following should not be done?

17516

Herbert pits are seen in:

17517

Cataract in diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is:

17518

Which is the most important factor in the prevention of postoperative endophthalmitis?

17519

A 56 year old man presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with history of pain and decrease in vision after aninitial improvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

17520

A 55 years old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

17521

The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens:

17522

Which of the following is not needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery:

17523

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

17524

All are true except:

17525

Which of the following is the only reversible cataract?

17526

Cataract of Rider is seen in

17527

Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in:

17528

A 30-day-old neonate was presented with a history of photophobia and excessive lacrimation. On examination, both the lacrimal duct systems are normal, but there was a large cornea with haziness. The diagnosis is:

17529

Imbert-fick law is used for which of the following type of tonometry:

17530

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following:

17531

The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma:

17532

Treatment of choice for open angle glaucoma in the other eye is:

17533

Which of the following anti-glaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?

17534

A young patient with a history of contact lens use presents with foreign body sensation, red eye watery discharge. Most probable diagnosis is:

17535

A farmer presented with pain, photophobia and watering from the eye for the last 36 hours. On examination, an 1 x 2 cm ulcer is seen as shown in the image below. Identify the lesion marked?

17536

Identify the given condition with inward turning of lid margin:

17537

A child presents with defects in vision, but on examination fundus is normal. What could be the diagnosis?

17538

A mother brings her child to eye OPD with complaints of difficulty in watching blackboard. What could be the most probable reason?

17539

A person suffered an injury to eye with vegetative matter/leaf a few days-ago and has now developed pain and photophobia. What could be the most likely cause?

17540

A young boy complains of itching, watering of eyes and rhinorrhea. On examination, the following image is seen. What is the diagnosis?

17541

A child with a history of malnutrition was examined and the following image of the eye was seen. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

17542

What is the most common treatment for recurrent pterygium?

17543

Which of the following is the gold standard for measuring intraocular pressure?

17544

Refractive error found here is:

17545

Diagnosis is:

17546

A patient comes to OPD with decreased vision in his left eye and opacification of cornea. On history taking, he told he had undergone cataract surgery 6 years back. What is the next line of management in this case?

17547

A patient presented with anterior uveitis in OPD. Which of the following can be associated with his condition

17548

What is not correct regarding the clinical condition as shown in the image?

17549

A 15 years old boy presents to a clinic with difficulty in coordination of movements and abdominal pain. On further examination copper deposition in a ring form is seen in cornea. Most likely diagnosis?

17550

Identify the lesion:

17551

Line of Arlt is seen in which condition?

17552

Ring of Fleischer is seen in:

17553

A 68 year old male came to OPD with chief complaints of diminution of vision in both eyes. IOP in both eyes was 24 mm Hg and there was an inferior notch seen in the optic nerve head. On visual fields there was a paracentral scotoma. Which of the following is the drug of choice?

17554

A 67 Year old hypertensive patient presents with sudden painless loss of vision in the emergency and his fundus examination shows a pale retina with a cherry red spot in the center and afferent pupillary defect. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

17555

This instrument is used in:

17556

Visual acuity of a person improves on looking through the pinhole. This indicates:

17557

A child aged 1.5 years old comes with leukocoria and Flexner Winter Steiner rosettes as shown in the image. The most probable diagnosis is:

17558

After an accident from metal works, a mechanic got injured from a metallic foreign body. Investigation of the choice is?

17559

Patient had a fight, following which he presented with non-reactive pupils and painful ocular movements. The most probable diagnosis is?

17560

A lady suffers sudden painful loss of vision with worsening pain on eye movements. A relative afferent pupillary defect is present. On perimetry, there is a central scotoma in the involved eye. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

17561

A 3 month old child presents with watering and discharge which increases on pressing the inner corner of the eye. What is the best management for his condition?

17562

A lady presents with pain, proptosis, orbital swelling and loss of vision. On examination, the given image is noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17563

A man suffered trauma to the right eye with a punch. Which of the following will be the most likely to occur in this case?

17564

What is the diagnosis from the given fundus image of a diabetic patient with painless loss of vision?

17565

A person with a brain lesion presents with macular sparing homonymous hemianopia. What could be the site of the lesion?

17566

The above pathology is associated with:

17567

A patient present with an ocular motion defect. The position of the eyeball is shown in the image below. Identify the nerve involved in following defect:

17568

Instrument shown in the image is used for which of the following clinical conditions?

17569

A patient with miosis, anhidrosis and mild drooping of eyelid is presented to the clinic. What is the likely diagnosis?

17570

If the eye has a perforating injury, which area is most susceptible for developing sympathetic ophthalmitis?

17571

Microaneurysms are found in which disease?

17572

Which of the following is used in acute uveitis?

17573

Identify the investigation:

17574

Which of the following is the most common ocular presentation of syndrome of Marfan

17575

Which of them is not a characteristic of open angle glaucoma?

17576

Which is the gold standard in tonometers?

17577

Which test is being demonstrated here?

17578

Not used in color vision testing:

17579

In 3rd nerve palsy all seen except?

17580

Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by which part of the eye?

17581

Normal eye power is:

17582

Keratometry is used to assess:

17583

Internal hordeolum is due to inflammation of:

17584

Phlyctenular conjunctivitis seen due to:

17585

A patient came to OPD with intense watering, pain and photophobia. She was a regular contact lens user and she forgot to remove contact lenses at night. On examination there was an epithelial defect. What is the first line of treatment?

17586

Crowding phenomenon is seen in:

17587

Contraindicated in keratitis is:

17588

Find out the clinical condition as shown in the photo:

17589

Appropriate treatment for the mild congenital ptosis:

17590

Which of the following is seen in retinitis pigmentosa?

17591

Lamina cribrosa is absent in:

17592

Spots of Roth are seen in:

17593

Identify the test shown in the image:

17594

Identify the instrument:

17595

On performing retinoscopy using a plane mirror in a patient who has a refractive error of -3D sphere with -2cylinder at 90 degree from a distance of 1 m, the reflex would move:

17596

Most common cause of ocular morbidity in India:

17597

A patient Mohan, aged 60 years, needs an eye examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his eyes but not paralyse his ciliary muscles. Choose the drug:

17598

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, irido-donesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

17599

A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegicretinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. at 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm that clears up in about 2 minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

17600

What should not be done in this patient?

17601

All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

17602

In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen EXCEPT:

17603

There is a retained intraocular iron foreign body. What is the best investigation for monitoring vision?

17604

A 20 years old boy presents with history of tennis ball injury to the right eye. On examination a red spot is seen on the macula. The most likely diagnosis is:

17605

Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:

17606

Out of the following reticulocytosis is seen in:

17607

True regarding normal adult bone marrow is:

17608

Extra medullary hematopoiesis is formation of RBC outside the bone marrow. It can be seen in all of the following conditions except:

17609

In a normal adult, the types of hemoglobin seen are:

17610

Normal shape of red blood cells is biconcave. In which of the following there is not biconcave RBCs present:

17611

Out of the following which is the first stage of iron deficiency:

17612

60 year old man has history of generalized weakness and easy fatigability since 2 months. On examination haemoglobin is 10 gm/dL, MCV – 90 fL, MCH – 30pg, Serum iron decreased, serum ferritin increased and total iron binding capacity is decreased. Most likely diagnosis is:

17613

Out of the following earliest specific indicator of folate deficiency is:

17614

In which of the following pernicious anemia can be present:

17615

In chronic extravascular haemolytic anemia, out of the following finding seen in:

17616

10 year old boy was admitted for elective cholecystectomy. On examination there is icterus and splenomegaly. Complete blood count shows Hb 10gm/dL, MCV–90fL and MCHC is 37. Most likely diagnosis is:

17617

Out of the following normal form of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is:

17618

Hydroxyurea is used in the treatment of sickle cell disease. It results in reduction of all of the following except:

17619

Crizanlizumab is a drug used in sickle cell anemia. Mechanism of action is:

17620

Out of the following hemoglobinuria is not seen in:

17621

Child is diagnosed as having thalassemia major. All of the findings can be seen except:

17622

16 year old boy presents with generalized weakness and breathlessness on exertion. On examination there is pallor, icterus and spleen tip is palpable. On examination Hb–8.5gm/dL, MCV–65 fL, WBC–10,000/cumm and platelet count 2,50,000/cumm. Serum ferritin is increased. Most likely diagnosis:

17623

Dohle bodies can be seen in neutrophils in myelodysplastic syndrome. They are formed of cellular organelles:

17624

Child has sudden onset of skin rash in last 24 hours. There is history of fever 2 weeks before. On examination there is no hepatosplenomegly and thrombocytopenia present. All of the following statements are true except:

17625

Skin lesion can also be seen due to haemorrhage. All of the following can occur due to haemorrhage except:

17626

In a patient being evaluated for haemorrhage there is increased prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, normal fibrinogen and normal platelet count. It can be due to:

17627

32 years old female has history of menorrhagia since last 6 months. There is also history of passage of blood in stools for last 2 days. On examination there is no organomegaly or lymphadenopathy. On examination haemoglobin–14.2 gm/dL, platelet count–24,000/cumm and WBC count–7000/cumm. The patient was given platelet transfusion but her platelet count does not increase. After splenectomy platelet count increased. most likely cause for her bleeding tendency is:

17628

Child diagnosed as sickle cell anemia is having multiple episodes of pneumonia and meningitis. Causative organism on culture include Streptococcus pneumonia and haemophilus influenza. Most likely cause for repeated infections in this child:

17629

14 year old boy had abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle accident. On admission there was decreased hematocrit. Surgery was done and liver laceration was repaired and 1 litre of bloody fluid was removed from the peritoneal cavity. Child remained stable and CBC was performed 3 days later. Which of the following findings is likely present in the peripheral blood:

17630

30 years old female given birth to 32 weeks gestation, hydropic stillborn male infant. On autopsy there is hepatosplenomegaly, serous effusions in all body cavities and generalized hydrops. Which of the following findings are most likely to be present on haemoglobin electrophoresis of the fetal RBCs:

17631

16 years old male has history of passage of dark colored urine. There is also history of portal vein thrombosis in last year and multiple bacterial infections for the past 5 years. On examination Hb is 9.5 gm/dL and platelet is 2 Lakhs/cumm. This is due to mutation in which of the following gene product:

17632

40 year old man has history of flank pain and fever. On urine culture there is E. coli present. 2 days later there is passage of blood in stool and ecchymosis of the skin. Complete blood count shows haemoglobin 9 gm/dL and platelet count 90,000/cumm. Decrease in haemoglobin is due to:

17633

In hereditary spherocytosis, splenectomy reduces the severity of anemia. This beneficial effect of splenectomy is due to the following process:

17634

5 year old boy has history of easy bruising since infancy. On physical examination there is no organomegaly. On examination partial thromboplastin time is increased and there is less than 1 percent factor VIII activity measured in plasma. If the child is not treated which of the following can be seen:

17635

60 year old female has history of sudden onset of headache since last 2 days which is worsening. On physical examination she is disoriented. On examination haemoglobin 9.5 gm/dL and platelet count is 45,000/cumm. Renal function tests are deranged and on peripheral blood smear there is schistocytes. Most likely diagnosis:

17636

25 year old male passes dark brown urine several days after starting the antimalarial drug primaquine. He appears pale and is afebrile. There is no organomegaly. On laboratory studies, serum haptoglobin level is decreased. Most likely cause of this finding is:

17637

28 year old female has pallor and mild splenomegaly. On laboratory studies there is spherocytes and direct test of Coomb is positive. Most likely underlying disease is:

17638

65 years old female has feeling of tiredness and weakness for 4 months. There is no fever, no hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. On examination Hb - 9gm/dL and PBF – there is microcytosis and hypochromia. Which of the following is most likely cause for this finding?

17639

70 years old male has superficial haemorrhage on gums and skin of arms and legs over the past 3 weeks. On examination platelet count, prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time is normal. Platelet function studies are normal. Most likely cause of the haemorrhage is:

17640

Child is suspected to have acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Percentage of blasts presents in bone marrow should be:

17641

Out of the following the cause of anemia in chronic lymphocytic leukemia is:

17642

Ibrutinib is a drug used in chronic lymphocytic leukemia. It acts by inhibiting:

17643

In chronic myeloid leukemia, there is presence of Philadelphia chromosome t9:22. It is due to translocation of:

17644

A pregnant female is found be having chronic myeloid leukemia. There is risk of placental insufficiency due to hyperleukocytosis. Treatment should be done with:

17645

In the pathogenesis of classical Hodgkin Lymphoma there is involvement of chromosome:

17646

There is presence of small lymphocytes and characteristic folded cerebriform nucleus in:

17647

In a 60 year male there is history of headache. On examination there is anemia and increased immunoglobulin M level. Most likely diagnosis is:

17648

Which of these infectious agents has not been associated with development of non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

17649

All of the following are Epstein Barr associated lymphomas in HIV-positive patients, except:

17650

Osteolytic lesions are seen in all of the following except:

17651

In immune thrombocytopenia in HIV patient which of the following treatment should not be used:

17652

Which of the following diseases does not have an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern?

17653

Transfusion of platelets is contraindicated in which of the following?

17654

Out of the following in which there is most likely that spleen size will be normal?

17655

An 80 year old man is feeling tired for the past 6 months. On physical examination, there are no abnormal findings. On laboratory evaluation show haemoglobin 9.4gm/dL, mean corpuscular volume 72fL. On peripheral blood smear following is most likely to be seen in:

17656

50 year old has arthritis and swelling of feet for the past year. On chest X-ray there is cardiomegaly. On examination haemoglobin is 13 gm/dL, MCV 86 fL and platelet count is 3 Lakhs/cumm. Serum iron and ferritin is increased. out of the following most likely is:

17657

Emicizumab, is a monoclonal antibody useful in:

17658

Auer rods are seen only in:

17659

Out of the following which increases the erythrocyte sedimentation rate most:

17660

After splenectomy in peripheral smear all of the following cells can be seen except:

17661

20 year old male person was diagnosed as having aplastic anemia .which of the following is the treatment of choice?

17662

Hepcidin is a negative regulator of the iron metabolism. It acts on the receptor:

17663

Definition of refractoriness to oral iron therapy is:

17664

Sideroblastic anemia can result from:

17665

Soluble transferrin receptor level are increased in:

17666

Most severe form of scabies:

17667

Sign of Auspitz is seen in:

17668

Tense bullous lesions are seen in:

17669

Painful ulcers over genitalia are caused by:

17670

Acantholysis is characteristic feature of:

17671

Coral red fluorescence on lamp of Wood is seen in:

17672

Atopic dermatitis can be diagnosed by:

17673

Exclamation mark hairs are seen in:

17674

Itch of Dhobi is:

17675

Tinea versicolor is caused by:

17676

Tinea unguium affects:

17677

Cutaneous TB secondary to underlying tissue is called:

17678

Lymphogranuloma Venerum/LGV is caused by:

17679

Characteristic lesion of scabies is:

17680

Herald patch is the 1st feature of:

17681

24 years old male complains of mild urethral discharge after sexual contact with a sex-worker. Drug used to treat such a patient:

17682

A 40 years female developed persistent oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk andextremities. Direct examination of skin biopsy Immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis and suprabasal split with acantholytic cells. The probable diagnosis is:

17683

A 19 years male develops painless penile ulcer 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker. Likely diagnosis is:

17684

A 27 years old male had burning micturition and urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both knees and ankles, redness of the eye and skin lesions. Most likely diagnosis is:

17685

A 34-years old maize farmer attended the Skin OPD with the complaints of diarrhea, dermatitis and mental retardation. Most likely diagnosis:

17686

Multiple, necrotic ulcers in prepuce of penis with tender, suppurative unilateral inguinal nodes is caused by:

17687

Multiple erythematous annular lesions with peripheral collarette of scales arranged predominantly on trunk are seen in:

17688

Boggy swelling on head with easily pluckable hair in a young child is:

17689

A 30 years old male presented with pruritic, flat topped, polygonal, shiny violaceous papules with flexural distribution. The most likely diagnosis is:

17690

Tense blisters on flexor surfaces and anti-BPAG1 andanti-BPAG2 antibodies suggest the diagnosis of:

17691

A 7 years old child with history of asthma has developed itching and rashes in the axilla, groin and popliteal region. Most likely diagnosis:

17692

A lady has family history of asthma. She presented with itching in cubital fossa and popliteal fossa. Most likely diagnosis:

17693

A 50 years old patient presented with erythematous scaly plaques over trunk and extremities for last 10 years. Lesions are occasionally itchy. There is history of remission and relapse with exacerbation during winters. Most likely diagnosis:

17694

A 23 years old lady presents with vesicular lesions in the buccal mucosa andflaccid blisters on the skin. The possible diagnosis is:

17695

A known case of lepromatous leprosy was initiated on treatment. She developed painful erythematous papules with fever and lymphadenopathy. Most likely reactional state:

17696

Such presentation is seen in:

17697

Such a presentation is seen in:

17698

Drug of choice for this condition:

17699

Such lesions are suggestive of:

17700

A patient presented with pitting of nails, subungual hyperkeratosis and oil drop changes. Clinical image is shown below. Most likely diagnosis:

17701

A patient presented with blisters. His histology is as shown below. Most likely diagnosis:

17702

A male presents with a violaceous papule which is pruritic. There is pterygium of nail with cicatricial alopecia. Most likely diagnosis:

17703

An obese lady presented to the Skin OPD with the complains of dark patches over neck as shown in the figure. It is associated with:

17704

Management of such a condition:

17705

Treatment of such a condition:

17706

Spot diagnosis:

17707

Site of injury developed this kind of lesion. This is known as:

17708

Removal of psoriatic scales leads to this kind of presentation. This is known as:

17709

Management of such a condition:

17710

Management of such a condition: 

17711

Phenomenon of Koebner is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

17712

All of the following are true for lepromin test EXCEPT:

17713

Staphylococccus causes all EXCEPT:

17714

Hutchinson triad includes all EXCEPT:

17715

Which of the following is NOT used for diagnosing syphilis:

17716

Nikolsky sign is positive in all of the following EXCEPT:

17717

Intra-epidermal blisters are seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

17718

The following disease can cause bullous lesions in the skin EXCEPT:

17719

All of the following are histological feature of lichen planus EXCEPT:

17720

All of the following conditions may lead to plaque formation EXCEPT:

17721

Identify the diagnosis in this barium enema image

17722

The Chest X-Ray here shows evidence of

17723

The USG image given here denotes

17724

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well-defined parenchymal nodules implies which stage of sarcoidosis?

17725

A plain radiograph of the hand shows evidence of sub periosteal erosion along the radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the middle and index fingers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17726

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot?

17727

Which one of the following radiological findings would favour a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 2 over neurofibromatosis type 1?

17728

The most common extra-axial intracranial mass lesion showing intense post contrast enhancement is

17729

Investigation of choice for studying renal scarring and renal structure is

17730

Suprasellar calcification on skull X Ray is a feature of

17731

Which of the following is the least likely radiological finding if an acute pulmonary embolus is present?

17732

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Transposition of Great Vessels?

17733

Which of these is the screening modality of choice for DCIS (Ductal carcinoma in-situ) of breast?

17734

Breast within a breast appearance on mammography is seen in

17735

In a 40-year-old woman complaining of ankle pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of the navicular bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17736

Identify the diagnosis

17737

Identify the diagnosis on this image

17738

The X Ray here is suggestive of

17739

A barium swallow examination demonstrates oesophagus giving the appearance of a cork screw. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17740

Identify the diagnosis

17741

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrine disturbance and cafe-au-lait spots form a classical triad of?

17742

What would be the expected imaging findings in diaphyseal aclasis?

17743

In a 40-year-old woman complaining of wrist pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of the lunate bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

17744

In which part of the prostate gland is BPH most likely to arise?

17745

A diagnosis of Tuberous sclerosis is being considered. The presence of which of the following intracranial tumours would be strongly supportive of this diagnosis?

17746

Minimum radiation exposure is seen in

17747

Identify the image

17748

Identify the image

17749

Identify the image

17750

Identify the image

17751

The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is:

17752

Sclerotic type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of

17753

The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in:

17754

The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is:

17755

Which of the following causes inferior rib- notching on the chest radiography?

17756

The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is:

17757

Which of these uses ionizing radiation?

17758

Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?

17759

Typically bilateral superolateral dislocation of the lens is seen in:

17760

The gold standard procedure for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:

17761

The most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

17762

Sign of Spalding occurs after:

17763

Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?

17764

Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in

17765

Brown tumours are seen in:

17766

IVP in a patient with Ureterocele will show

17767

Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass with calcification seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child

17768

Investigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is:

17769

Figure of 8 in Chest X-ray is seen in

17770

The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except:

17771

One week full term baby is noticed to have doll eye movement by mother. Next action is to:

17772

Which of the following sign of social development does not develop at 9 months of age?

17773

Zinc deficiency is associated with increased risk of all the following except:

17774

Out of the following absolute contraindication to breast feeding is:

17775

In children <5 year of age, highest prevalence of micronutrient and trace elements is that of:

17776

Child is diagnosed to have severe acute malnutrition. During stabilization phase all of the following can be given except:

17777

14 year old girl is diagnosed as having obesity. All of the following are a part of initial evaluation except:

17778

Child is being evaluated for rickets. Biochemical findings include decreased serum phosphorous, increased alkaline phosphatase level and increased PTH level. Most likely diagnosis is:

17779

Death from thiamine deficiency is usually due to:

17780

Out of the following diagnosis of pellagra in children can be confirmed by:

17781

In scurvy radiographic features seen are ground glass appearance of bone and pencil line cortex. These can also seen in:

17782

Consumption of large doses of Vitamin C can cause, which of the following:

17783

Out of the following urinary phosphorous is reduced in:

17784

18 months old child was playing in playroom. He develops an attack of wheezing and difficulty in breathing. On admission RR-62/min and O2 saturation – 92 percent. Most appropriate next action is:

17785

Endotracheal intubation can be done in all of the following except:

17786

All of the following are the signs of increased intracranial pressure except:

17787

Which of the following is true regarding development in syndrome of Down?

17788

Williams and DiGeorge syndrome have following chromosomal abnormalities:

17789

Regarding screening in syndrome of Down, all the following should be done every year except:

17790

Which of the following chromosomal disorder incidence is not increased with increased maternal age?

17791

5 year female child was diagnosed as Turner syndrome (45, XO). On karyotyping there is also presence of Y chromosome, mosaicism. Most appropriate next step is:

17792

In Turner syndrome monitoring for all of the following is required except:

17793

Which of the following statements is true regarding malnutrition?

17794

According to WHO in moderate acute malnutrition weight for height is:

17795

Late preterm child is defined as gestational age:

17796

All of the following are the signs of good attachment by baby to the breast of mother except:

17797

10 days old child is appearing jaundiced. There is also presence of pallor and hepatomegaly. All of the following can be the cause except:

17798

Regarding reflex of Moro all of the following is true except:

17799

Normally palmar grasp reflex disappears by 3-4 months of age. Persistence beyond 4 months can be seen in:

17800

All of the following findings on chest X-ray are correctly match in neonate except:

17801

All are the risk factors for the early onset sepsis in new born except:

17802

During pregnancy, mother was detected to have polyhydramnios. There is risk of following in child at birth:

17803

3 days old child is not accepting feeds properly. On examination there is presence of jaundice. There is history of rupture of membranes 24 hours before delivery. Mother blood group is O positive. Which of the following tests should be done initially?

17804

Antenatal steroids are given to mother if pregnancy duration is more than 24 weeks to less than 34 weeks. They decrease incidence of all of the following except:

17805

Neonate is diagnosed to have seizure on day 2 after birth. There is no significant antenatal history and no history of abnormal events during delivery. Which of the following is first investigation to be done?

17806

In neonate having suspicion of neonatal sepsis, sepsis screen is done. All are the components of sepsis screen except:

17807

A male new born at term gestation is born by normal vaginal delivery. Mother has fever and vesicular rash all over the body. True statement is:

17808

Congenital intrauterine infection may affect the brain. Brain involvement is most commonly seen in:

17809

In neonate there is none shivering thermogenesis due to presence of brown fat. It is due to the release of hormone:

17810

Out of the following most suppressed hormone in severe acute malnutrition is:

17811

According to World Health Organization, the ideal temperature of delivery room should be:

17812

In a 4 year old child all of the following milestones are present except:

17813

Mother is having seizure disorder and taking phenobarbitone during pregnancy. There is risk of haemorrhagic disorder of new born. Child will have bleeding on day:

17814

In F100 diet for severe acute malnutrition the amount of protein is:

17815

All of the following are indications to start positive pressure ventilation in a new born except:

17816

New born baby is meconium stained and is having laboured breathing at birth. On examination cyanosis is present. Most appropriate next step is:

17817

In comparison of breast milk to milk of cow, breast milk is deficient in:

17818

Term male infant is having symmetrical intrauterine growth restriction. The ponderal index in this child will be:

17819

Child was delivered by forceps application. On fourth day after birth there is swelling on scalp, fluctuant and limited to left parietal bone. Most likely it is:

17820

In a preterm child born at 30 weeks of gestation, there is intraventricular haemorrhage. There is risk of following in the child:

17821

Preterm child has risk of necrotising enterocolitis. All are risk factors for NEC except:

17822

In necrotising enterocolitis all of the following radiological signs can be seen all except:

17823

In neonatal jaundice the cause of jaundice should be determined in all of the following conditions except:

17824

Child at 18 hours of age is having blood in stool and vitals are stable. Next step in management is:

17825

Mother is diagnosed to have herpetic lesion in genital tract. Maximum chances of transmission to the child is in:

17826

New born is diagnosed to have a skin nodule in the lumbar region. On skin biopsy it is diagnosed as lipoma. Next step to be done is:

17827

In a full term neonate there is small pustules with no underlying erythema. On gram staining there is neutrophils without bacteria. Most likely is:

17828

Out of the following which tissue shows GLUT1 staining positive:

17829

3 year old girl has a painless left sided abdominal mass, crossing the midline and displacing the left kidney inferiorly. It is encasing the left renal vein but not invading it. Most likely it is:

17830

8 year old child has headache. On MRI there is posterior fossa tumour and secondary obstructive hydrocephalus. All of the following brain tumour can cause except:

17831

Child has sudden onset of respiratory distress along with fever. He is not able to swallow and lie down in supine position. Which of the following organism is responsible for this:

17832

3 year old boy has history of recurrent wheezing. Out of the following symptoms suggestive of asthma is:

17833

Recurrent pneumonia is defined as presence of more than 2 episodes per year with no radiological evidence in between. All of the following are the causes of recurrent pneumonia involving both lungs except:

17834

3 months old child is having difficulty in breathing which started after upper respiratory infection. On examination there is presence of bilateral rhonchi and fine crepts. Which of the following should be used as treatment:

17835

3 year old boy has sudden onset of coughing and difficulty in breathing. There is wheeze present on right side of chest and there is no fever. Most likely it is suggestive of:

17836

10 year old child has diagnosis of asthma. He comes to the emergency with chest tightness, dyspnea, wheeze and respiratory distress. Management should include all except:

17837

5 years old child has history of hypopigmented lesions on face since birth, mental retardation and epilepsy. It can be suggestive of:

17838

Out of the following X linked dominant neurocutaneous syndrome is:

17839

Presence of neurodevelopmental regression and hypsarrhythmia pattern on EEG is seen in the following:

17840

Check the image given below

17841

8 year old boy has difficulty in walking. There is unsteady gait on examination. On CT scan there is a mass arising from cerebellum. Most likely is:

17842

1 year old child has crossing of lower limb and Babinski’s sign is positive. Underlying pathological condition is:

17843

15 month old child has cough, fever and one episode of generalized seizure for 5 minutes. There is similar history of 3 months back. All of the following statements are true except:

17844

15 year old girl complains of occipital headache. They mainly occurs in morning and wakes her from sleep. There is sometimes vomiting associated. School performance has decreased. Most likely diagnosis is:

17845

6 year old boy has difficulty in releasing things once he grabs. There is history of cataract surgery and presence of facial weakness. On ECG there is presence of cardiac arrhythmias. There is difficulty in walking long distance. Mode of inheritance of this disorder:

17846

3 year old girl had meningomyelocele which was repaired after birth. Now there is history of fever, lethargy, vomiting and abdominal pain for 3 days. There is also history of dribbling of urine. Most likely cause for this is:

17847

9 months old child, who was born preterm at 30 weeks of gestation is being treated for gastro esophageal reflux. The eyes are as shown and there is history of repeated vomiting. Most likely underlying cause for this is:

17848

6 year old boy has complaints of making unusual sounds and drooling from his mouth during sleep. On awakening the child talks normally. School performance is normal and clinical examination is normal. Most likely diagnosis is:

17849

Regarding EEG in febrile seizure which of the following is not true:

17850

Febrile status epilepticus is febrile seizure lasting for more than:

17851

All of the following complications can be seen in neurofibromatosis 1 except:

17852

Child is having generalized tonic clonic seizure for 5 minutes. All of the following medication are useful except:

17853

16 years male is diagnosed with delayed puberty. On examination there is anosmia along with isolated gonadotropin deficiency. It is suggestive of:

17854

All of the following are causes of delayed puberty in male except:

17855

Child was diagnosed as a case of congenital adrenal hyperplasia with 21 hydroxylase deficiency. Child was started on fludrocortisone. Monitoring of dose of fludrocortisone is done by all of the following except:

17856

In affected infant with 21 hydroxylase deficiency signs and symptoms of salt wasting crisis develops at:

17857

5 year old child is being evaluated for hypothyroidism. All of the following investigations are helpful in diagnosis except:

17858

Regarding screening for congenital hypothyroidism following is true:

17859

Out of the following most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is:

17860

8 year female child has recurrent menstrual cycle since 6 months. There is history of decreased thirst but no visual defects. There is no significant history in past. Most likely diagnosis is:

17861

For improvement in linear growth, growth hormone can be given in all of the following except:

17862

10 year old boy, diagnosed as type 1 diabetes mellitus came with history of not gaining height since 1 year. Child has become lethargic and does not want to engage in playful activities. Glycosylated haemoglobin is in normal range. There is no history of loss of weight. Most likely cause is:

17863

3 year old boy has history of bedwetting in the night. Child is dry during the day for the last 1 year. No history of constipation. Most appropriate initial management is:

17864

2 year old boy has history of abdominal pain, weight loss and lethargy. On examination there is presence of abdominal mass. Out of the following most useful in making the diagnosis is:

17865

4 weeks old male child comes with history of jaundice. His stool are pale yellow in color. Child was born at term and is always breastfed. On examination there is hepatomegaly. Initial investigation to be done is:

17866

3 year old child has been treated for urinary tract infection and received antibiotics. Which of the following radiological investigation needs to be done to know the underlying cause:

17867

In nephrotic syndrome there is increased incidence of infection due to loss of factor B in urine. Most common organism causing infection is streptococcus pnuemoniae. It usually causes:

17868

In neonate glomerule filtration rate is 25ml/min/1.73m2. It reaches adult level at the age of:

17869

Most common chronic glomerulopathy seen in children is IgA nephropathy. True regarding IgA nephropathy is:

17870

Child is passing red colored urine after 4 weeks of skin infection. There is hypertension and serum C3 is decreased. Which of the following will be useful in diagnosis:

17871

In haemolytic uremic syndrome, antibiotics can be given in:

17872

Child was diagnosed as nephrotic syndrome and started on steroids. After 6 weeks of steroids still proteinuria is persisting. Next step to be done is:

17873

6 weeks child presents with difficulty in breathing and feeding. There is history of chest infection before. On examination hepatomegaly is present. Child is suspected to have congestive heart failure. It is most likely due to:

17874

Preterm child born at 32 weeks of gestation is having murmur in both systole and diastole at left upper sternal border. Next line of management is:

17875

18 months old girl comes with history of two episodes of respiratory tract infection. There is no cyanosis and pulses are equal volume in all 4 limbs. There is presence of pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. Most likely diagnosis is:

17876

6 years old girl has swelling of left knee. The child has fever and pink rash over the trunk. There is history of respiratory tract infection 2 weeks before. All of the following investigation are to be done except:

17877

Which of the following is true regarding fetal circulation?

17878

12 year old boy has sudden collapse while playing. On awaking he says as having severe chest pain with sweating. On examination there is ejection systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border. Most likely diagnosis is:

17879

Child complains of pain in both lower limbs on exercise. On echocardiography was diagnosed as coartation of Aorta. All of the findings can be seen except:

17880

In management of hypoxic spell seen in tetralogy of Fallot all of the following are useful in management except:

17881

Most potent postglandin produced by ductus arterious in the fetal circulation is:

17882

In Tetralogy fallot there is presence of subvalvular pulmonic stenosis and ventricular septal defect. The murmur is present due to:

17883

All of the following are regarding transposition of great arteries except:

17884

Prophylaxis for infective endocarditis is required in all of the following except:

17885

All are the complications seen in cystic fibrosis except:

17886

All of the following features can be seen in gastrointestinal tract in neonate having cystic fibrosis except:

17887

On culture of the sputum presence of following pathogen is suggestive of cystic fibrosis:

17888

In a 1 year old child with difficulty in breathing which of the following is considered as a danger sign:

17889

Enterotoxin produced by Rota virus is:

17890

Zinc supplementation in children with diarrhea leads to the following except:

17891

Which of the following is not correct about Duke major criteria

17892

A young patient sustains cardiac arrest, in the medical ward. Immediate defibrillation is advised when the ECG shows:

17893

A patient presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 and pulse rate of 100 following blunt trauma to the chest: Diagnosis is

17894

All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except

17895

A patient with acute inferior wall myocardial infarction has developed shock. Which of the following is the most likely cause of shock

17896

A 40-year-old male, chronic smoker comes with acute epigastric discomfort, for past one hour. ECG showing ST segment elevation in inferior leads. What is the immediate intervention?

17897

ST elevation and hyperacute T waves in precordial leads V1 to V6 and in lead a VL indicates

17898

A 35-year-old athlete has height 184 cm, arm span 194 cm, pulse rate 64/min, BP 148/64 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals long diastolic murmur over right 2nd intercostal space on routine examination. The probable diagnosis is:

17899

All of the following may be seen as severity of mitral stenosis increases except

17900

Which clinical sign is suggestive of elevated pulmonary wedge pressure in mitral stenosis?

17901

Increased hydrostatic pressure in left sided congestive heart failure causes

17902

All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except:

17903

A patient came with early diastolic murmur in the second intercostal space and had differential BP recording in the upper limb with one arm showing measurement of 150/110 mmHg and the other showing 90/60. All of the following can be cause except:

17904

In myocardial infarction, the correct sequence of increase in enzyme level is:

17905

A young boy is born with a heart murmur that is subsequently diagnosed as Ebstein anomaly. Which of the following drugs, taken by the mother, may have contributed to this case of congenital heart disease?

17906

Which of the following is true regarding mitral stenosis?

17907

Regarding atrioventricular block, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

17908

A 65-year-old woman presents with heart failure. Her echocardiogram shows a restrictive cardiomyopathy but with structurally normal valves. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

17909

A 57-year-old female school cleaner is undergoing investigation for breathlessness. Which of the following is not in keeping with a diagnosis of constrictive pericarditis?

17910

A 26-year-old female with a small ventriculo-septal defect (VSD) presents in the sixth week of pregnancy. She has been told that she would need antibiotic prophylaxis for dental surgery, and various other procedures. She asks you to tell her whether she will have to take this during her pregnancy, and if so, at which point it will be needed

17911

For management of AF, which ONE of the following is TRUE?

17912

Which of the following antimicrobials is associated with prolongation of the QT interval?

17913

A 65-year-old man was advised to start oral digoxin at a dose of 250 µg daily. His physician explained that the full effect of this treatment would not be apparent for at least a week. Which one of the following pharmacokinetic variables did the physician use to give this explanation?

17914

A patient has an irregularly irregular heart rate of 140 beats per minute, but his other vital signs are stable. The most probable dysrhythmia in this patient is:

17915

Mr. Shyam is a 50-year-old male who presented with one hour of chest pressure and electrocardiographic findings of acute inferior myocardial infarction. He denied known heart disease, contraindications to thrombolytic therapy were not present, and he underwent successful thrombolysis. Within hours, he complains of right groin pain and develops an inguinal mass. On further questioning, he admits to being hospitalized for chest pain 48 hours prior to this admission. He is experiencing:

17916

A 60 year old woman presents with dyspnea, dysphagia, weight loss, and an irregularly irregular rhythm with a rate of 165. Likely underlying etiologies include all EXCEPT:

17917

A high school basketball star was noted on the preseason physical examination to have an apical systolic murmur, the intensity of which decreased with squatting and hand grip. He was advised to have an echocardiogram but continued to practice. During a strenuous workout he collapsed and could not be resuscitated. Autopsy revealed:

17918

According to Starling law, when the end-diastolic volume increases, resulting in myocardial stretch, how does the heart maintain an adequate cardiac output?

17919

A 78-year-old female is referred by her GP with high blood pressure. Over the last three months her blood pressure is noted to be around 180/80 mmHg. She has a body mass index of 25.5 kg/m2 and is a non-smoker. There are no features to suggest a secondary cause for her hypertension. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her blood pressure?

17920

A 56-year-old male with left ventricular systolic dysfunction was dyspnoeic on climbing stairs but not at rest. The patient was commenced on ramipril and furosemide. Which one of the following drugs would improve the prognosis of patient?

17921

A 65-year-old man has an ejection systolic murmur and narrow pulse pressure on clinical examination. There is no history of chest pain, breathlessness or syncope. An ECHO confirms aortic stenosis and shows an aortic valve gradient of 40 mmHg. There is good left ventricular function. Which of the following management options is the most appropriate choice in this case?

17922

A 73-year-old male is referred with palpitations. On 24 hour ambulatory ECG monitoring he is shown to have paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and is treated with amiodarone. Through blockade of which of the following receptors is the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone most attributed?

17923

A 63-year-old male is admitted with a 30 minute history of central chest pain associated with nausea and sweating. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which of the following coronary arteries is most likely to be occluded?

17924

On physical examination a 65-year-old man is found to have pulsus alternans where there is regular alternation of the force of his radial pulse. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis?

17925

A truck driver with HIV positivity develops cryptococcal meningitis. Which drug is best to start:

17926

Release of histamine and leukotrienes from mast cells is prevented by

17927

A school going children not able to focus on his school work and displaying hyperactivity. Which of the following drug improve this patient symptoms

17928

All of the following statements are true in levodopa treatment in parkinsonism except

17929

Which of the following is use of modafinil

17930

Which of the following is true regarding bromocriptine use

17931

Anti-depressant used in Bed wetting in children is

17932

What is the best time to start folic acid in a patient on antiepileptic

17933

Which of the following pair is correct side effect of drugs

17934

True regarding second generation antihistaminics are all except

17935

All are correct except

17936

Compulsive gambling, hypersexuality, and over-eating are unusual side effects associated with which of these drugs?

17937

An ICU patient with severe Head injury requires a neuromuscular blocking agent to assist in his ventilator management. He has liver disease and is currently in renal failure. Which neuromuscular blocker is the best choice for this patient?

17938

A 30 years old pregnant woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which has been managed successfully with NSAIDs. However, she has recently visited her general practitioner complaining of burning epigastric pain worsened by food intake. Which of the following ulcer medication is most likely contraindicated in this patient

17939

Which of the following drug is used to counteract Opioid induced constipation without antagonizing central opioid action?

17940

A 60 year old man was posted for bronchoscopy. After anesthetic administration, hed developed chest wall rigidity and ineffective sponatenous ventilation. Attempts at manual ventilation were unsuccessful due to non-complaint chest wall. The opioid causing this problem could be

17941

Match the following

17942

Match the following

17943

EXTENDED MATCHING - Match the following regarding the properties of drug and the drug responsible

17944

Which one of the following anticancer drugs used topically for treatment of laryngo treacheal stenosis?

17945

Sodium thiosulfate useful for treating Cisplatin induced

17946

Which of the following is the not adverse response to occur as a result of the vincristine?

17947

Morphine for pain is not to be used in

17948

A 55-year-old man complained to his physician of blurred vision, night blindness, light flashes, and photophobia. The man was diagnosed with mild rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago and was taking a combination therapy that included a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD). Ophthalmoscopy disclosed a macular area of hyper pigmentation surrounded by a zone of hypopigmentation on the left retina. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient’s signs and symptoms?

17949

A 53-year-old woman recently diagnosed with gouty arthritis started a treatment with a drug that inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to inhibition of tubulin polymerization. Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely take?

17950

Schedule X drugs are all except

17951

A 48-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department because of serious breathing difficulty. Two hours earlier, she had taken a drug for a headache. The patient had been suffering from sinusitis and nasal polyps for 6 months. Physical examination showed severe bronchospasm. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient’s signs and symptoms?

17952

Which of the following agent is DOC for NSAID induced gastric ulcer

17953

What is true about ondansetron except

17954

Tolerance develops to all of the following action of opioids except?

17955

Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular blocking agent used in day care surgeries:

17956

A pregnant lady was given indomethacin in 26 weeks to treat arthritic pain. It could lead to?

17957

Mechanism of action of Buprenorphine used for opioid deaddiction:

17958

A patient on bipolar disorder treatment developed hypertension. He was started on thiazides for hypertension. After few days, he developed coarse tremors, confusion and weakness of limbs. Which drug toxicity occurred?

17959

Lack of ADH causes diabetes insipidus. This drug may be prescribed to combat the disorder

17960

Megaloblastic anemia developing under the following condition is due entirely to folate deficiency not associated with vitamin B12 deficiency:

17961

Darbepoetin is indicated for:

17962

Fluconazole should not be given to the patient being treated with fexofenadine because:

17963

A young girl has paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate with palpitations and shortness of breath near to her exam dates. Panic attacks were diagnosed by physician. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for prophylaxis to prevent tachycardia in this patient?

17964

An elderly woman, who is a chronic smoker, diagnosed with lung cancer has abnormally low serum osmolality and hyponatremia. Which of the following drug is used to treat this:

17965

Least teratogenic antiepileptic drug in pregnancy is

17966

Which combination of seizures and it is first line treatment drug is false?

17967

One pregnant lady on lithium therapy came for antenatal visit in OPD. What is the risk the exposed fetus is having by this drug:

17968

Which antidepressant acts via inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine:

17969

One patient developed muscular rigidity and hyperthermia after giving Halothane anaesthetic drug. Which ion is responsible for these symptoms?

17970

One drug addict person presented with ulceration over skin. This patient also having itching and scratch marks over skin. He is having tachycardia, hypertension and mydriasis. Which substance is causing these symptoms:

17971

A female presented with pain and redness in her great toe. Serum uric acid level was 9.7 mg/dl. Apart from analgesic, one more drug was prescribed to her that decreases the formation of uric acid. Which enzyme is likely to be inhibited by this drug:

17972

Patient underwent surgery and during recovery he was shouting and having hallucinations. Which anaesthetic drug was used?

17973

A patient having unilateral headache, associated with nausea and vomiting. Which drug can be used to decrease number of these type of headache episodes?

17974

Patient presented with 6 episodes of depression, mania and hypomania in last 1 year with recovery phase in between. What is the probable diagnosis and drug used is?

17975

A child brought to emergency with seizures which started 15 minutes before. Airways have been secured and antiepileptic was given. What is the first line drug to control seizures?

17976

A female came to general OPD with pain and inflammation of many joints. After examination and further investigations was diagnosed as rheumatoid arthritis. Doctor prescribed methotrexate for this. Which of the following is mechanism of action in this drug?

17977

An elderly patient came with features of Parkinsonism like rigidity, hypokinesia etc. Which of the following is not prescribed to this patient:

17978

A patient of pancreatic carcinoma. You gave morphine for relieving pain. After few days, the pain is not relieved as relieved earlier. Why?

17979

A patient suffering for rectal carcinoma and on chemotherapy drugs develops severe profuse diarrhea. Which of the flowing drug should start first to control this diarrhea:

17980

A 68 year old male cancer patient on chemotherapy developed neutropenia. Which of the following drug is used to increase the immunity in this person?

17981

Iron dextran Drugs used for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

17982

A 38 year old college professor suffering from depression comes to you with complaints of unable to get involved in process of intercourse with his wife. Which of the following anti-depressant is best to be prescribed to him:

17983

A patient was started on lamotrigine) 50 mg daily for treatment of epilepsy. Gradually, the dose of the drug is increased every 1-2 weeks to reach the final dose of 200 mg per day. This step up titration of lamotrigine dose is done in order to prevent or minimize the development of:

17984

Which of the following drug used for pain relief in arthritis acts by both opioid and non opioid mechanisms?

17985

After taking some drug for acute attack of migraine a patient developed nausea and vomiting. He also developed tingling and numbness in the tip of the most finger that also turned blue. Which of the following us the most likely implicated in causing the above finding

17986

A 32-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a routine physical examination. Overall, she feels well and has no complaints. She has no past medical history other than tobacco use. She states that she has been smoking about 1 pack of cigarettes a day for the last 10 years. You strongly encourage her to quit smoking and she seems willing to try to stop using tobacco. You offer to prescribe her a medication that has been shown to aid in smoking cessation by acting as a partial agonist at nicotinic receptors. What is that?

17987

Chronic alcoholic suddenly stops drinking and getting is in Delirium. Best management is:

17988

All are the newer modalities in epilepsy treatment except:

17989

Which of the following drug will you omit from the prescription of a patient with XDR tuberculosis in pregnancy?

17990

A female patient presented with greenish vaginal discharge. Clue cells were present and Whiff test was positive in vaginal discharge. What is the drug of choice for this condition?

17991

A 30 year old man travelled to Assam. After coming back to his hometown Delhi, he developed fever, chills and rigors and altered sensorium. The peripheral smear demonstrated the presence of P. falciparum. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?

17992

Mechanism of action of doxycycline is:

17993

A female patient was treated with clindamycin and developed diarrhoea most probably pseudomembranous colitis. Which of the following is the likely organism responsible for this?

17994

A 40-year-old man complained to his physician that the drug he was taking caused an abnormal increase in the size of his breasts. Medical history of the patient was negative for past diseases or use of alcohol or drugs. Two weeks earlier, the man was diagnosed with bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and had started an appropriate treatment. Which of the following drugs most likely caused the adverse effect in this patient?

17995

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to block K+ channels in the heart responsible for cardiac repolarization, and also blocks calcium channels in the AV node

17996

Which one of the following is the most appropriate drug to use for the patient described in the following scenario

17997

Patient came with creatinine 6, otherwise asymptomatic, which drug should be stopped immediately

17998

A patient comes to the ER with a painful stab wound. The ER resident administers pentazocine for the pain. Soon after administration the patient experiences sweating, restlessness, and an increase in pain sensations. What is the most likely explanation for his symptoms

17999

Which one of the following statements about lithium is true

18000

35 year old hyperthyroid female patient was started on anti thyroid drugs. The drug acts by inhibition of release of thyroid hormone. Which drug is it

18001

Following are used to Arrest/reversal of disease progression and prolongation of survival in CHF patients except

18002

A pregnant lady was presented to medicine OPD with burning micturition and was diagnosed with UTI. Which of the following antimicrobials is preferred in this patient

18003

A patient visited an endemic area of falciparum malaria and was given prophylaxis for malaria. How many weeks he needs to the take the drug during travel

18004

A patient diagnosed with Rheumatoid arthritis was on medications. After 2 years, he developed Megaloblastic anemia and elevated liver enzymes. Which drug is most likely to cause this

18005

A 58 year old male patient was having Hypertension, CHF and microalbuminuria. Which of the following drug will be the best drug for this patient

18006

A patient came to emergency ward with low BP and features of pulmonary edema. His ejection fraction of the heart was reduced. Diuretic which is contraindicated in this condition is

18007

A 52 year old patient has history of angina and heart rate of 94bpm and also has tense personality. His BP now is 154/94mm of Hg. the preferred drug in the treatment of hypertension in this patient is

18008

A patient with atrial fibrillation and CHF was started on a drug which acts by vagomimmetic action by blocking Na K ATPase pump. What is the drug used for the management

18009

A 50 year old man is being treated for atrial arrhythmia. He develops hypothyroidism and pulmonary fibrosis after 2 years. Which one of the following antiarrythmic drug is the most likely cause

18010

A patient 58 year old had laryngeal cancer and undergone neck irradiation. After that she had decreased salivary secretion and dry mouth. This of the following drug is not useful in the above condition

18011

A patient came with BP of 190/110mmHg and has blurring of vision and ataxia. What is the best drug for this patient

18012

A patient was given IV penicillin and suddenly developed rash on skin, swelling of lips and eyelids, hypotension and difficulty in breathing. DOC in the above condition is

18013

A 50 year old male patient has long standing DMT2 from last 15 years. He has diabetic gastroparesis and presents with abdominal fullness and heartburn. Which of the following drugs will you avoid in this patient

18014

A 40 year male patient was on chemotherapy for Non Hodgkin lymphoma. His total leucocytes count is now 2000 cells/mm3. Which of the following drug is effective in this condition

18015

A 45 year old male comes to casualty with severe headache. The neurologist attends that patient and orders for investigations. After examination and investigation doctor decides that the pain is due to increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following diuretic is most useful in this situation

18016

Mr. Swamy aged 65 has HF and on medication like telmisartan 20mg and metoprolol. He comes to the OPD with complaints of shortness of breath, increased pitting ankle edema, and a 1.5kg weight gain over the last 3 days. He is stable and has no chest pain. Which of the following is the best treatment advice to the patient

18017

A 45 year old man has myocardial infarction and is being treated for the same in emergency department. Now suddenly he develops ventricular tachycardia. The best drug to treat this arrhythmia is

18018

Mr. Sonu was having stable angina and was put on isosorbide mononitrate and his symptoms were well controlled. He comes to clinic now and tells that his angina symptoms are coming more in morning, so he himself decided to take it morning and night after food. What is the best advice given to this patient

18019

A 54 year old female is on warfarin therapy for prevention of deep venous thrombosis. She now develops enteric fever and put on ciprofloxacin by the physician. After 2 days she comes with bleeding episodes. The reason is

18020

A 56-year old male is having G6PD deficiency. He develops Plasmodium vivax malaria and treated for the same. Now he complains of severe fatigue, back pain, and darkened urine. Which one of the following anti-malarial drugs used in treatment could have caused his symptoms

18021

A young frequent traveler comes to the clinic with complaints of diarrhea and fatigue. The stool specimens show bi nucleate organisms with four flagella as shown in image. Which one of the following is the DOC for the infection caused by the organism

18022

A 60-year-old female referred to a dermatologist by her primary care physician because of a painless, inflamed, erupting ulcer that has been on her right hand for two months. This patient works in her vegetable and herb garden daily and states that the lesion began as a small red papule. Despite 10 days of treatment with Cefixime, the papule has continued to enlarge. The dermatologist cultured the ulcer and the results demonstrated the patient has sporotrichosis, an infection caused by Sporothrix schenckii. What is the most appropriate therapy that should be recommended to treat the infection

18023

A 25-year-old married female was on OCPs for contraception from last 2 years. Two weeks ago she had a positive tuberculosis skin test (PPD test), and a chest radiograph showed evidence of right upper lobe infection. Without asking her drug history, she was started on standard anti mycobacterial therapy. After one and half month she came to the doctor and told that her Urine pregnancy test is positive .Which of the following drug may be the likely reason behind her UPT being positive, even after taking OCPs

18024

A 45 year old male is diagnosed with HIV. His CD4 + count are 300 cells/mm3 and his viral load is high. Which of the following will be helpful as prophylactic in preventing pneumonia due to Pneumocystis jiroveci in this patient

18025

A 66-year-old man complained of decreased libido and difficulty maintaining an erection. Which of the following is false about drugs used in its treatment

18026

A 58-year-old patient is diagnosed with ovarian cancer and was started on cisplatin but complains of severe vomiting after 6 hrs of starting cisplatin. Which of the following medications would be most effective to counteract the emesis in this

18027

A 24 year old male with a childhood history of asthma complained of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing after cleaning the dirt room. His symptoms became so severe and he came to the emergency room. Physical examination revealed diaphoresis, dyspnea, tachycardia, and tachypnea. His respiratory rate was 42 breaths per minute, pulse rate 110bpm, and blood pressure 132/65 mm Hg. Which of the following drugs addition in this situation, increases Beta 2 receptor responsiveness and reduces allergic manifestations

18028

A patient was on low dose of drug X from last 10 years for his allergic condition prescribed by a quack. He comes with blurring of vision and examination of eye was as shown in image. The drug which is responsible for above problem seen in image is

18029

A 65-year-old woman is being treated with raloxifene for osteoporosis. There is an increased risk of her developing

18030

A 32 year old patient had anaphylactic shock and was give Inj. Adrenaline 1: 1000 by IM route. The actions of histamine are antagonized by adrenaline. This type of antagonism is called

18031

The drug to be taken only on prescription by registered medical practitioner comes under which schedule

18032

In a clinical trial, a drug X was evaluated for Hypertension. It was used in healthy human volunteers and drug caused severe gastritis in them. Which phase of clinical trial it was found out

18033

A 55 year old male patient was having symptoms of excessive thirst and excessive urine production and ADH levels were very low. Which of the following drug will help in above condition of the patient

18034

A 44 year old male patient has a history of chronic gout. His BP is now 156/90mmHg and the physician decided to start him on an ARB for managing his HTN. which one of them is best to this patient

18035

A Patient on Secondary prophylaxis of MI. even with dual Antiplatelet therapy he had one more episode of acute coronary syndrome. He was also taking an over the counter drug from many days. Which of the following may be that drug?

18036

A female patient came to casualty complaining of change in colour and numbness of thumb. On asking history she told that she has taken a medicine today for migraine headache. What is the drug responsible and its treatment

18037

A 23 -year-old male Mr. X was brought to emergency room by his father. When the father was asked about history, father told that Mr. X ate some seeds from a plant and started behaving crazy. On examination he was confused, his skin was hot and dry. His pupils were dilated and unresponsive to light. Blood pressure was 180/105 mm Hg, pulse 150/min, and rectal temp 40 C (104 F). The treatment of choice for above poisoning is

18038

Patient presenter with fever, increased urinary frequency and urgency, and mental status changes. He has a penicillin allergy of anaphylaxis. Which of the following Beta-lactams is the most appropriate choice for gram-negative coverage of this patient’s urinary tract infection

18039

A 34-year-old male with a history of a seizure disorder, maintained on phenytoin and phenobarbital, presented to the emergency department for CNS depression. The phenobarbital level was 70 mg/L (15 to 40 mg/L therapeutic range) and the phenytoin level was 15 mg/L (10 to 20 mg/L therapeutic range). He denies any acute ingestion. What therapy can be considered to enhance the elimination of phenobarbital without impacting the phenytoin

18040

After starting continuous IV Infusion of a drug X, 75% of the drug steady-state concentration is reached after

18041

An actress wanted to get wrinkles removed from her face and was given local injection of Botulinum toxin. The drug acts through

18042

If codeine is coming to the market in combination with dextromethorphan as an antitussive. This combination

18043

Which of the following statement is correct for a patient on a high dose of penicillin and gentamicin

18044

A 58 year old male patient had BMI of 35. His physician started him on a drug for managing obesity. The drug lowers glucose and given via Parentral route. Identify the drug

18045

A 45-year-old man had performance anxiety and migraine headache. Propranolol was used in this patient. What comorbid condition listed below you should very cautious, while using propranolol in this patient

18046

A 25 year old female after love failure became depressed and took 10 Tablets of diazepam. She was brought to emergency room after 1 hour. She was drowsy, lethargic and confused. Which of the following drug is best used in this condition

18047

A 30 year old male patient was given drug X, as he had pain in facial nerve distribution area while chewing and talking. He now presents with Dilutional Hyponatremia and Hepatotoxicity. Which is the drug X patient is taking

18048

48 years old man complaints of swelling, redness, and pain in his right leg. The patient is diagnosed with acute DVT and requires treatment with an anticoagulant. Which of the following anticoagulant acts by directly inhibiting Xa

18049

A 68 year old woman had a thrombotic stroke and was given high dose of Alteplase by a newly joined resident in cardiology department. The antidote for its overdose is

18050

A 64-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following medications would be best choice for controlling her diabetes and to decrease mortality in Heart failure

18051

An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after he ingested a large quantity of carvedilol tablets. Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient

18052

A 32 year old woman was hospitalized and catheterized with a Foley catheter. She developed a urinary tract infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which of the following is not effective in the treatment of the infection

18053

A 28-year-old male complains of 3 days of dysuria and a purulent urethral discharge. You diagnose this to be a case of gonorrhea. Which of the following is appropriate treatment

18054

A 70-year-old male with BPH and an enlarged prostate continues to have urinary symptoms after an adequate doasge of tamsulosin. Dutasteride is added to his therapy to control symptoms. Dutasteride acts by following mechanism in BPH

18055

Area under plasma concentration and time curve signifies-

18056

ACE inhibitor - All are true except

18057

New drug approved in osteoporosis, acts via both decreased bone resorption and increased bone formation is

18058

Drug of choice for POAG

18059

Drug of choice in Lithium induced diabetes insipidus

18060

Therapeutic index signifies

18061

Pralidoxime used in organophosphorus poisoning acts by

18062

Which is true for lipid lowering agents

18063

Drug of choice for diarrhea and flushing episodes associated with carcinoid syndrome is

18064

Which of the following drug is used for treating overactive bladder

18065

Human papilloma virus induces skin wart formation. Pathologically it is indicative of:

18066

50 year old male has history of alcoholism since 15 years. Pathologically all of the following are indicative of reversible cell injury except:

18067

40 years female was taking anabolic steroids for 5 years and was diagnosed as having hepatic adenoma. Partial hepatectomy is done. Which of the following pathological change will be seen in liver after surgery?

18068

Regarding cell injury which of the following statement is true:

18069

55 year old male, has history of smoking for the past 20 years. There is history of chronic cough for the past 2 years. On bronchoscopy the bronchus shows squamous metaplasia. This pathological change is due to:

18070

30 year old female has been diagnosed as having infective endocarditis and blood culture is positive for streptococcus viridians. On echocardiography there is 1 cm vegetation on the mitral valve. The pathological change in mitral valve is due to:

18071

In atherosclerosis, xanthoma, cholesterolosis and Niemann Pick disease type C there is deposition of lipids. It is due to deposition of:

18072

Fibroblasts were recovered from amniocentesis to confirm the presence of trisomy. After some multiplications, fibroblast are no longer able to multiply. This is due to:

18073

Metastatic calcification may occur in normal tissue whenever there is hypercalcemia. This calcium principally affects the interstitial tissue of the:

18074

Out of the following endogenous pigment  formed from tyrosine and is brown black in colour is:

18075

In normal menstrual cycle there is sloughing of endometrium. On examination of the endometrium all of the following changes are seen except:

18076

35 year old male has 2 cm nodule in the right lower lobe of lung. On microscopic examination, there is caseous necrosis and calcification. This calcification is due to:

18077

Following the surgery wound was sutured. After 5 days in growth of capillaries is seen. This in growth of capillaries is due to all of the following factors except:

18078

In the wound healing which of the following substances, most likely functions intra-cellularly:

18079

Most critical factor which determines whether the skin in the region of the burn will regenerative without the need for skin grafting is:

18080

Oedema is collection of fluid in interstitial tissue or serous cavities. In all of the following cause of oedema there is decreased colloid osmotic pressure except:

18081

50 years old male had left ventricular failure causing pulmonary edema. All of the following mechanisms contribute to pulmonary edema except:

18082

32 year female had history of postprandial abdominal pain. On surgical dissection of abdomen there is presence of mass in the blood vessels. The mass is with pale strands alternating with dark strands. Which of the following statement is true:

18083

After a thrombus formation in the area of vascular injury, the propagation of the thrombus to normal arteries is prevented. The substance that prevents thrombus propagation binds to thrombin and activates protein C. Most likely this effects is produced by substance:

18084

50 year old female was diagnosed with breast cancer in the left breast and underwent a mastectomy. Post operatively there is swelling of the left arm that persisted for 6 months. On examination left arm is not tender or erythematous and is not painful to touch. Most likely it is due to:

18085

60 year old male, diagnosed as diabetes mellitus had a myocardial infarction 4 months ago. He is advised a low dose aspirin to reduce the risk of arterial thrombosis. Aspirin has greatest effect on the step:

18086

60 year old female underwent hysterectomy. She was advised ambulation day 4, but patient remained non-ambulatory. There is swelling and warmth in the left leg and local pain and tenderness in the left leg. This finding is due to:

18087

Out of the following white or pale infarcts are seen in:

18088

52 years male, known case of diabetes had developed arterial thrombosis. Out of the following true statement is:

18089

10 year old boy had injury on finger while playing with toys. All of the following will help in platelet aggregation except:

18090

25 year old female develops sudden dyspnea with cyanosis and hypotension during routine vaginal delivery of term infant. She also develops generalised seizure and there is decreased level of consciousness. Most likely to be present in the peripheral pulmonary arteries?

18091

Which of the following tumors have an increased elevation of placental alkaline phosphatase in the serum as well a positive immunohistochemical staining for a placental alkaline phosphatase?

18092

Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE and there is activation of mast cell. Which of the these products is preformed and can be immediately released:

18093

Out of the following immunodeficiency disorders, mutation in tyrosine kinase is seen in:

18094

50 year old man with chronic kidney disease has renal transplantation done with match by tissue typing for HLA DR (Class II) antigens. Due to tissue typing which of the following immunological abnormalities has been avoided:

18095

22 year old female had symmetrical, proximal weakness for 6 months. Her antinuclear antibody is positive, anti-Mi-2 is positive and anti JO-1 antibody is negative. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be present:

18096

Due to release of IL-4 and IL-5 there is hypersensitivity reaction. There is also presence of peripheral eosinophilia. This response is due to:

18097

In second pregnancy in 20 year old female there is hydrops fetalis. At birth infant has marked icterus and haemoglobin of 8gm/dL. First pregnancy was normal. Most likely cause of this icterus is:

18098

23 year old female with rheumatic fever with mitral stenosis was diagnosed as having infective endocarditis. She was given intravenous penicillin after which she had difficulty in breathing with respiratory stridor. There is also erythematous skin rash over all the body. These symptoms are due to release of chemical mediators:

18099

35 year old female, bone marrow transplantation was done for acute leukemia. After 2 weeks haemoglobin and WBC count are returning to normal. There is skin rash over her trunk and upper extremities. This skin rash is due to:

18100

55 year old female has complains of dry mouth and dry eyes during the past 2 years. The fingers do not turn blue or painful upon exposure to cold. The antinuclear antibody test is positive. Most likely long term complication which can be seen is:

18101

40 year old female has history of mild chronic diarrhea and increased number of minor respiratory infection for most part of her life. Due to accidental injury, transfusion of blood products was required. During blood transfusion there is an anaphylactic transfusion reaction. Most likely she is having:

18102

50 year old male has renal failure for the past 3 years. On microscopic examination of renal biopsy there is glomerular deposition of pink amorphous material on hematoxylin and eosin staining. After Congo red staining there is apple green birefringence. This is also positive for lambda light chains. Most likely condition present is:

18103

In amyloidosis, heart can be affected. Following changes are seen in heart:

18104

Carpal tunnel syndrome seen in amyloidosis can be seen in patients with:

18105

Growth was suspected from femur causing pain. Which of the following are suggestive of benign neoplasm:

18106

Sequence of epithelial metaplasia to dysplasia to carcinoma-in-situ would be seen in the following:

18107

In which of the following, sarcoma is most likely to be present in:

18108

Person was detected as having calcification involving the lungs. Serum calcium level is 12mg/dL. Most likely primary neoplasm is:

18109

55 year old female has history of chronic cough. On chest X-ray, mass is seen in peripheral region. On sputum cytology atypical cells are seen. Most likely it is due to:

18110

60 year old male had following appearance of the foot. On examination, the toes are cold and have no sensation to touch. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are not palpable. The findings are most typical for a patient with which of the following:

18111

50 year old male have history of exposure to inhalation of silica dust for many years. His chest X-ray is shown. Pulmonary finding are mediated due to the following inflammatory process:

18112

40 year old female had chronic, non-productive cough for 3 months, along with intermittent fever. On chest radiograph has small parenchymal nodules along with hilar and cervical lymph adenopathy. On cervical lymph node biopsy there is noncaseating granulomas present. Following inflammatory mediator causes the formation of granuloma:

18113

Child is born with a single functional allele of a tumour suppressor gene. At the age of five the remaining normal allele is lost through a point mutation. As a result, the ability to inhibit cell cycle progression until the cell is ready to divide is lost. Which of the following neoplasm most likely arise via this mechanism:

18114

Following gene is absent that would stop the cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. Due to absence increased exposure to ionizing radiation is resulting in damage to cellular DNA. Out of the following gene is:

18115

45 year old female had chronic cough with fever and weight loss for the 2 months. On sputum examination there is presence of acid fast bacilli. Most important cell in development of lung lesions is:

18116

30 year old female is taking aspirin for the past 5 years, for arthritis. The joint pain has reduced but there is occult blood in stool. This complication is due to the inhibition of the following by aspirin:

18117

20 year old female spends a day outside gardening. She has not applied sun screen lotion. In evening the face appears red. Following dermal changes is responsible for the red appearance of the face:

18118

In acute inflammation, initially there is vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation. All of the following statement regarding vasodilation are true except:

18119

Unidirectional movement of cells towards an injured tissue along chemical gradient is mediated by all of the following except:

18120

Vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as X-linked dominant trait. If a male with hypophosphatemia marries a normal female, which of the following is true regarding future progeny:

18121

Codominance gene means:

18122

Due to mutation in codon one amino acid is replaced by another amino acid. This type of mutation is:

18123

This genetic disorder is only seen in male and females are carriers. All of the following are the example of this mode of inheritance except:

18124

Clinical diagnosis of a child with a karyotype 46XY del 15 paternal is:

18125

60 year old male has multiple tumor masses in liver with central necrosis. Most likely cause is:

18126

55 year old female has an Enlarged lymph node which on biopsy shows metastatic neoplasm. Out of the following most likely primary neoplasm is:

18127

60 year old male came with lethargy and weakness. On diagnosis there is microcytic  hypochromic anemia and stool is positive for occult blood. Most likely cause is:

18128

65 year old male chronic smoker is suspected to have squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following intermediate filament suggests an epithelial origin of tumour:

18129

40 year old female has diabetes for 20 years. Which of the following finding might be seen on renal biopsy which is specific for diabetic nephropathy?

18130

12 year old male has history of passing dark coloured urine for the past 1 month. On examination there is bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and corneal erosions. On renal biopsy shows tubular epithelial foam cells by light microscopy. Which additional findings can be seen on renal biopsy?

18131

6 year old girl comes with puffiness around eyes. On lab investigations serum creatinine 0.7mg/dL, blood urea nitrogen 12 mg/dL, 4+ proteinuria. The child condition improved after glucocorticoid therapy. On electron microscopy which of the following findings will be seen:

18132

65 year old man has renal failure that is increasing for the past 5 years. On abdominal ultrasound his both kidneys are enlarged. Most likely the patient is having:

18133

14 year old boy has history of tiredness since last 1 month. On physical examination he has periorbital edema. On urine examination 4+ proteinuria is present. The boy does not improve on corticosteroid therapy. Most likely diagnosis on renal biopsy is:

18134

70 year old male was diagnosed as renal cell carcinoma. There is plethora of skin and on urinalysis there is hematuria present. On abdominal CT scan there is hepatic vein thrombosis and liver infarction. This is due to:

18135

25 year old man was diagnosed with blood pressure 145/95 mmHg. There is hematuria and proteinuria. Which of the following is most likely to be present?

18136

8 year old boy has periorbital edema. There is history of sore throat 2 weeks back. On microscopic examination there is hematuria present. On renal biopsy there is a sub-epithelial hump. Which of the following is required for confirmation of diagnosis:

18137

72 years old male has history of recurrent urinary tract infection for the last 10 years. On examination serum creatinine is 3.9mg/dL. On USG there is bilateral hydronephrosis. On urinalysis there is no hematuria, proteinuria or glucosuria. Most likely underlying condition is:

18138

Patient presents with hematuria, proteinuria on urinalysis. C3 levels are low and diagnosis of type 1 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is made. On renal biopsy deposits are present in:

18139

60 year old made has increased dyspnea for the past 2 years. There is history of cough associated with productive sputum. On examination there is crepts present in lung fields. On echocardiography heart valves are normal and ejection fraction is 30%. Underlying disease is:

18140

60 year old man has increasing abdominal discomfort and swelling of legs for the past 2 years. There is hepatomegaly and presence of pitting edema on lower limbs. On chest X-ray there is bilateral pleural effusion. Underlying cause is:

18141

65 year old female had fracture of ankle. She is non ambulatory for most her time in last 15 days. She suddenly develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea and difficulty in speaking. On MR angiography there is occlusion of left middle cerebral artery. She is most likely having:

18142

Hemochromatosis can lead to deposition of iron in multiple tissues in the body. In the heart it can lead to the following pathological change:

18143

60 year old male has complained of chest pain on exertion. On coronary angiogram done last year there was stenosis in the left circumflex coronary artery. For the past 2 weeks, the frequency of chest pain is increased. On ECG there is ST segment elevation. It is most likely due to:

18144

40 year old male has sudden onset of chest pain. On ECG there is ST segment elevation and pathologic Q waves. Most likely underlying condition is:

18145

On aortic angiography there is presence of dilation of abdominal aorta and likely diagnosis of aneurysm is made. This can be due to:

18146

60 year old man has sub sternal chest pain and pain radiates to the left arm. The patient is hospitalised at 6 hours after pain. On admission which of the following will be most useful for diagnosis:

18147

18 year old male suddenly collapses and was brought to the emergency department. On examination creatinine kinase is elevated and diagnosis of myocardial infarction is made. Most likely underlying condition is:

18148

60 year old man has non-productive cough for the past 3 months associated with hemoptysis. On chest X-ray there is a mass near the left lung hilum. On sputum cytology there is presence of hyperchromatic cells with scant cytoplasm. Most likely cause for the pulmonary disease is:

18149

Out of the following conditions of malabsorption intestinal biopsy is diagnostic:

18150

5 year old had yellowing of skin and eyes. On examination sclera is icteric and there is positive reaction for bilirubin by urine dipstick. Out of the following the child is having:

18151

60 year old man has nausea with vomiting for the last 3 years. On GI endoscopy, biopsy was taken and a microscopic examination there is well differentiated adenocarcinoma. GI endoscopy done 5 years back showed chronic gastritis. Most likely cause of this adenocarcinoma is:

18152

50 year old has difficulty in swallowing for 6 months and there is weight loss of 6 kgs. On upper GI endoscopy there is circumferential mass with overlying ulceration in the midesophageal cells with marked hyperchromatism and pleomorphism. Most likely cause is:

18153

30 year old man has abdominal pain associated with fever and diarrhea. On examination there is right lower quadrant tenderness. His stool is positive for occult blood. On colonoscopy there is mucosal edema and ulceration in the ascending colon, but the transverse and descending colon are not affected. On laboratory investigations serum anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies is present. All of the finding are present except:

18154

55 year old man has difficulty in breathing and swelling of legs for the past 1 month. There is bilateral basal crepts present in lungs. On chest X-ray there is markedly enlarged heart with pulmonary edema. He develops abdominal pain and stool is positive for occult blood. Most likely cause of this finding in bowel is:

18155

35 year old female has substernal pain following meals for the last 5 years. On upper GI endoscopy biopsy was done. On microscopic examination there is presence of gastric cardiac type mucosa and intestinal mucosa in the lower 1/3rd of esophagus. Most likely cause of this finding is:

18156

In helicobacter pylori gastritis which of the following can be associated:

18157

55 year old male has malaise with weight loss for 6 months. On examination there is palpable liver. On examination there is positive serology for hepatitis B surface antigen. The serum alphafetoprotein is increased. most likely neoplasm is:

18158

50 year old female has had transient ischemic attacks. Now there is sudden onset of left hemiparesis. On MR there is a cystic area in the right frontal parietal region. She is most likely having:

18159

50 year old man was diagnosed as having a mass in the brain. On MR imaging there is left frontal lobe mass with areas of calcification. Most likely diagnosis is:

18160

45 year old female has had headaches for the past 3 months. There is loss of cranial nerve 1 function on the right side. On CT scan there is a solid mass in the right anterior fossa. Most likely cell of origin for this mass is:

18161

70 year old male was operated for prostate adenocarcinoma. During the surgery there was drop in blood pressure with hypotension that persisted for 30 minutes despite intervention with vasopressor agents. Due to prolonged hypotension which of the following pathological lesion is most likely to occur:

18162

60 year old female has increasing dyspnea for 2 years. On chest X-ray there is increased lung volumes. Which of the following inhaled substances, which releases neutrophil elastase, most likely cause her pulmonary disease:

18163

70 year old female has been bedridden for 4 weeks following a ischemic stroke. She has sudden onset of dyspnea. On X-ray there is wedge shaped area in the left lower lobe. It is due to the following pathological change in pulmonary vessel:

18164

A patient presents with focal neurological deficits with increased intracranial pressure, headaches and hyperostosis of overlying bone. The tumor has raised from meningothelial cells of the arachnoid matter. What are common features of the disease?

18165

A 30 year old man with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis develops intermittent cholestatic jaundice. Ultrasonographic examination fails to reveal gallstones. Liver biopsy demonstrates a large bile duct obstruction. Which of the following would most likely be seen on endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)?

18166

A patient has had years of intermittent diarrhea and abdominal pain, but has never consulted a physician. Eventually he begins to pass fecal material in his urine and he seeks medical attention. Which one of the following diseases is most likely to cause this complication?

18167

A 30 year old male presents with dementia, Hemiballism and de-arranged liver enzymes. On further evaluation his abdominal Ultrasound shows cirrhosis of the liver. His Viral serology is negative. What is the most likely next finding in this patient?

18168

A 3 year old boy is brought to emergency room in a comatose condition. He had an episode of viral infection for which he was given aspirin by his mother to relieve fever. But his condition deteriorated and later he was brought to emergency room. His blood samples are taken and deranged liver enzymes are found. Most probably his diagnosis is:

18169

A 57 year old woman with anaemia is found to have a decreased Vitamin B12 level. Antibodies to intrinsic factor are identified. Levels of all other vitamins are within normal limits. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

18170

A 50 year old man with a history of alcohol abuse is found to have elevated liver enzymes. A liver biopsy shows the microscopic features of fatty change (steatosis). If the patient abstains from further drinking, this condition will most likely evolve into which of the following?

18171

A 40 year old woman with polycythemia vera develops progressive severe ascites and tender hepatomegaly over a period of several months. Liver function tests are near normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

18172

A 3 year old boy in Japan presents with fever and rash that is desquamating. On examination he has enlarged cervical lymph nodes conjunctival and oral erythema and erosion. He also has edema of the hands and feet. The physician says the disease is classically self-limited however if left untreated the important sequelae will be:

18173

A 60 year old man died secondary to coronary artery disease. At the time of autopsy marked atherosclerotic changes were present within his coronary arteries. Section from these abnormal areas revealed complicated atherosclerotic plaques with calcification and hemorrhage. Within these plaques were cellular zones composed of smooth muscle cells and macrophages and a central core with foam cells and cholesterol clefts. Which one the following substances promotes atherosclerosis by stimulating smooth muscles cells to proliferate, phagocytize lipids and excrete extracellular matrix material

18174

During a routine physical examination a 67 year old man is found to have a 5 cm pulsatile mass in his abdomen. Angiography reveals a marked dilatation of his aorta distal to his renal arteries. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his aneurysm:

18175

A 30 years old heroin drug addict starts having fever with chills, weight loss and fatigue. On investigations he is diagnosed to be suffering from infective endocarditis. The most likely cause for his infection is:

18176

A 35 year old male presents to the emergency room in confusional state. He is diaphoretic and having palpititions. Lab shows serum glucose of 35mg/dl. On further evaluation pro-insulin and C-reactive peptide is also raised. What is the most likely diagnosis:

18177

On blood test patient has very low levels of sodium. He is a chronic smoker and is diagnosed to have small cell tumour of the lung. This due to increased hormone secretion of lung of following:

18178

Patient presents with neck swelling. On taking tissue sample, there is presence of parafollicular cells. This tumour is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia 2. Which of the following is useful for diagnosis?

18179

In a person there is growth present in adrenal gland. Which of the following immunohistochemical stains will be negative in adrenal cortical carcinomas?

18180

30 year old female had no menstrual periods for the past 6 months and she is not pregnant and no taking any medication. She is having headache for the past 3 months and has difficulty in vision. Which of the following findings is likely to be present:

18181

30 year old female complains that she has difficulty in concentrating at work and the work area is too hot. She seems nervous and spills her coffee. She has lost 5 kg weight in the past 2 months. Pulse rate is 110/min and blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be present in this female:

18182

60 year old male, known diabetic has the presence of bone pain. There is no swelling or redness hands, no joint deformity. Serum creatinine is 5mg/dL, calcium 7.8mg/dL and phosphorous 5.9mg/dL. Most likely she is having:

18183

45 year old female has constant back pain for the last 1 month. There is weakness for the last 3 months. The BP-165/95mhHg and body mass index 30mg/m2. Serum glucose level 145mg/dL. Most likely pathological lesion is:

18184

5 year old girl has fever along with dyspnea. Child is febrile, WBC count 15000/cumm. On chest X-ray there is patchy consolidation involving lower lobes present. Most likely causative organism:

18185

42 year old HIV positive with suspected of Pulmonary Koch. First line test would be:

18186

Syringe after BCG vaccination is disposed in:

18187

33 year old with fever and rash after Aedes mosquito bite. All are possible except:

18188

Munnabhai MBBS was advised a vaccine from hospital administration on day 1 of joining duty. All vaccines are recommended for healthcare personnel except:

18189

99 year old with sepsis was being given a drug acting on the following. Identify?

18190

An LGBTQ+ couple visited a clinic of doctor for suspected STI. All of the following should be under consideration except:

18191

After a bioterrorism attack, the Army of the great Egyptian pharaoh Tutankhamun got descending flaccid paralysis. Most likely etiology?

18192

All pathogens can grow on blood agar except:

18193

An HIV positive couple was planning a baby. All of the following can prevent parent to child transmission except?

18194

68 year old patient with necrotizing fasciitis. Culture revealed non lactose fermenting bacteria. Which method can be used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing?

18195

12 year old presented with step ladder fever and rose spots. All are possible except:

18196

5 year old presented with gluteal abscess having green coloured pus. What is your clinical suspicion?

18197

3 year old with rice water stools, vomiting and severe dehydration. Which is the first line of intervention?

18198

27 year old girl presented with tripod sign clinically and thumb sign on x-ray. Clinical examination revealed this picture. Diagnosis and most common cause:

18199

6 year old with myocarditis after sore throat. All are possible except?

18200

21 year old female got scratches on left lower limb after road accident in India in a remote mountain area. All roads were closed due to heavy snowfall. Hospital access would require air evacuation. First line of intervention would be:

18201

22 year old with CSF picture of raised pressure, raised proteins, numerous neutrophils and reduced glucose. Most likely etiology:

18202

37 year old patient with chronic cough and hemoptysis. Which is the most likely app to be used for registration:

18203

62 year old Indian citizen with sensorimotor bacterial infection leading to this condition. Most common type in India is:

18204

39 year old with history of multiple sexual partners presented with pupil od Argyll Robertson. Likely etiology?

18205

45 year old with high fever, breathlessness, dyspnoea on exertion and left upper zone consolidation. Most common cause?

18206

30 year old patient with rheumatic valvulitis underwent mitral valve replacement. She developed post-operative endocarditis in the replaced valve. Most common cause and diagnostic criteria:

18207

39 year old lactating female presented with this condition. Diagnosis and most probable etiology:

18208

33 year old firefighter forgot to remove her vaginal tampons and had to be admitted in ICU for a toxin mediated disease. Most likely cause:

18209

45 year old with cold abscess. Most likely diagnosis?

18210

25 year old with soft painful ulcer and painful lymphadenopathy after unprotected sexual contact. Etiology, diagnosis?

18211

39 year old with Oslers painful fingertip nodes, Janeways painless palmoplantar lesions, and hemorrhage in nailbed, conjunctival and retina. Diagnosis?

18212

8 MBBS FMGE students went for a picnic on a frozen river in Russia. They enjoyed canned Tuna following which they developed vomiting within 5 hours. Diagnosis?

18213

9 months old with diarrhea. Etiology, toxin and antibiotic treatment?

18214

35 year old policeman sustained a gunshot wound in left leg during a criminal encounter. He was brought after 3 days during your hospital duty with anaerobic bacterial myonecrosis. Etiology, treatment?

18215

22 year old MBBS couple ate fresh live baby oysters on their first date. They had to be admitted in the hospital for 2 days. Most likely etiology?

18216

28 year old terrorist was found to have a Gram positive infection at the site of gunshot wound, sustained during a police encounter. All are possible clinical features except:

18217

A 32 year old pregnant lady in her 3rd trimester recently got infected with GBBHS. All of the following outcomes are possible except?

18218

34 year old patient with pus in the urethral meatus. He never got himself treated. Which condition can occur in his newborn baby?

18219

An NRI couple was planning to spend delivery and post delivery period in India. They were advised regarding high prevalence of childhood respiratory infections in India by a European doctor. They wanted to follow cocooning strategy. Where is it used?

18220

Chandrayan-4 mission 2026 with 3 astronauts on board found a packet containing bacterial spores on Tiranga point of the moon. It was suspected as an agent of bioterrorism from previous unknown lunar mission. Most probable bacteria?

18221

24 year old patient was prescribed a blood spectrum antibiotic post-surgery. Now he developed massive diarrhea due to Cl Difficle infection. What is not true about Cl. Difficle?

18222

A student of JNU suddenly develops rice watery stools on 3rd day of her admission. The causative agents acts via which receptors:

18223

52 years old milkman with undulant fever due to a zoonotic disease acquired from handling of cows and buffaloes. Diagnosis?

18224

42 years old rice farmer from Andaman with fever, icterus, hypotension due to a spirochaetal infection. Diagnosis, etiology?

18225

A 12 years old girl presented with acute glomerulonephritis of immunogenic etiology. Likely etiology?

18226

FMGE aspirants in Gautam Nagar celebrated a birthday bash enjoying a chocolate fountain. They developed food poisoning after 16 hours. Most likely etiology?

18227

22 year old with genital Chlamydiasis. Etiology, treatment?

18228

Microfiloria are sheated with 2 Nuclei at tail tip. Identify the parasite:

18229

45 year old farmer with corneal opacity due to Chlamydial infection. All are possible except?

18230

Stool of a truck driver suffering from diarrhea revealed falling leaf motility. Etiological diagnosis?

18231

37 years old with protozoal STI. All are correct except?

18232

12 years old child with anchovy sauce pus. Diagnosis and treatment?

18233

43 year old pregnant female, mom to 12 kittens, delivered FTND baby with congenital hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis. Diagnosis?

18234

Peripheral blood smear of a 40 year old female presenting with fever, chills and rigors showed the following. The picture depicts:

18235

12 years old with megaloblastic anaemia after helminthic infection. Diagnosis?

18236

Peripheral blood from 34 years old found to have banana shaped gametocytes. Diagnosis?

18237

44 years HIV positive male with protozoal diarrhoea. Diagnosis, treatment?

18238

9 years old bitten by sand-fly developed abdominal distension and fever. All are correct except

18239

All are correct about malaria treatment except

18240

16 years old citizen of Congo with seizures for the first time in life. Most common cause?

18241

9 years old girl showed the following in USG liver. Diagnosis, etiology?

18242

58 years old HIV positive on cotrimoxazole prophylaxis. Protection will be conferred to all except:

18243

17 years primigravida with 17 weeks POG diagnosed with cholangiocarcinoma. Most likely etiology?

18244

Octogenarian farmer with iron deficiency anaemia. Diagnosis?

18245

7 year old child with acute flaccid paralysis with tripod sign. Diagnosis, treatment?

18246

47 year old with this viral infection. Diagnosis, etiology?

18247

13 year old got bitten from her immunized pet dog on the neck. Class of bite, number of vaccine doses and post exposure prophylaxis?

18248

New influenza strain was detected in 2024 in Gautam Nagar due to major drastic change, which leads to pandemic within next 6 months. Most likely etiology?

18249

32 year female with saddleback fever, centrifugal rash, and retro-orbital pain after Aedes bite. Diagnosis, treatment?

18250

Which of the following is neutralizing test?

18251

Chances of transmission of HIV, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C by needle stick injury:

18252

33 year old with Swine influenza. All are correct except:

18253

33 year old Covid RTPCR positive with respiratory rate <24/min, SpO2 >97% in room air. Treatment:

18254

3 year old child with spots of Koplik. Diagnosis?

18255

32 year female detected for a cancer using this instrument. Identify the virus?

18256

46 year old with Crueutzfeldt Jacob disease. Etiology, treatment and mortality rate?

18257

3 months old child brought with this condition. All are likely viral etiology except?

18258

77 year old detected to have lymphoma of Hodgkin. Etiology?

18259

A 37 year old drug addicted female presented with CD4 count 200. Identify the line depicting CD4 in the graph?

18260

14 homosexual men reported to a STD clinic after a homosexual party. All are possible except:

18261

Lysogenic cycle is related to?

18262

65 year female with antibody dependent enhancement. Identify the virus?

18263

9 months old infant given ibuprofen to manage a congenital viral infection. Diagnosis?

18264

This was being discussed in a vaccination program. Identify:

18265

46 year old sexually promiscuous rock star with history of unprotected sexual contacts found seropositive at VCCTC. The counsellor should inform results to?

18266

A viral outbreak occurred in Kerala attributable to fruit bat. Identify:

18267

22 year old MBBS student with fever and lymphadenopathy after kissing a Covid-19 negative stranger on a one night stand. Diagnosis, screening test, treatment?

18268

A viral outbreak of hemorrhagic fever occurred in Africa. Identify?

18269

46 year old with Creutzfeldt Jacob disease. Etiology, treatment and mortality rate?

18270

New influenza pandemic started in 2030 on earth due to varicella zoster virus. Indian settlement on Shiv Shakti point on moon were expecting Chandrayan-8 manned mission. Period of quarantine for Chandrayan astronauts on moon would be?

18271

Hypersensitive reaction in Hyper Acute Graft Rejection?

18272

Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores is done by?

18273

25 year old athlete uses antifungal powder in socks before wearing shoes. Which of the following is expected in fungal stain?

18274

8 year old Covid-19 patient in ICU since 15 days presented with black discoloration of face. Diagnosis, etiology and feature:

18275

45 year old MBBS student in Russia had to be hospitalized after eating red coloured mushrooms harvested from a forest. Diagnosis?

18276

Which of the following virus gives both intranuclear as well as intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies?

18277

All are correct viral vaccines except:

18278

All are correct vaccines for mosquito borne infections except:

18279

All are correct viral vaccines except:

18280

Ectothrix is caused by which of the following?

18281

Which toxin is a superantigen?

18282

10 week child was given pentavalent vaccine. All are included except:

18283

Antibod(ies) always having valency of 2?

18284

Prompt, powerful and prolonged would be:

18285

A women with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her identical twin sister. Identify the type of transplant:

18286

Which portion binds to antigen?

18287

48 year old renal transplant recipient reported to your OPD. All to be advised except?

18288

Serodiscordant couple to be advised for HIV prevention. Which of the following is safe?

18289

You are the medical officer for examining an outbreak of a respiratory infection in Delhi MCD School. You will wear N95 in all the following diseases except:

18290

An urban slum area had an outbreak of louse borne infection. Likely etiology?

18291

Match the following:

18292

108 year old was brought with loss of power, muscular hypotonia, fasciculations and diminished deep tendon jerks. All are possible except:

18293

Match the following:

18294

2 year old child with centripetal rash. All are possible except:

18295

Match the following:

18296

Most common cause of pyelonephritis and cystitis:

18297

34 year old Canadian travelling for first time to India with fever and loose motions. Diagnosis, most common etiology and treatment?

18298

6 month old child developed acute watery diarrhea when shifted from exclusive breastfeed to formula feeds. Most likely etiology?

18299

68 year old patient with eye flu in Delhi 2023. Most likely etiology:

18300

43 year multigravida suspected of syphilis. Which are the likely tests for screening, confirmation after treatment?

18301

6 year old was infected with Pirola. Gold standard for testing?

18302

Match the following most common causes of keratitis:

18303

Ag-Ab interaction on surface of mast cell leads to degranulation and anaphylaxis. Mast cell degranulation produce anaphylaxis due to release of?

18304

Match the following Streptococci:

18305

First-hand knowledge rule is applicable to?

18306

Inquest of dowry death is done by?

18307

Dying declaration comes under section?

18308

Before dying declaration the role of doctor is?

18309

Which of the following doctrine of consent is invalid?

18310

In all of the following condition consent is not required except?

18311

All of the following are infamous conduct except?

18312

Lucid interval is seen in?

18313

A government hospital doctor said NO to treat a Rape victim, doctor can be punished under IPC?

18314

A drunken person caught misbehaving in public, he will be charged under?

18315

IPC for Frotteurism?

18316

According to POCSO act, touching of private parts of child by a known relative is

18317

Identify the paraphilia by the person in long hair

18318

Blue colour of stomach mucosa in autopsy is seen with?

18319

Which of the following poisons can be detected from cremains?

18320

Following appearance is seen in which poisoning?

18321

Bitten by krait, manifestations would be

18322

All of the following is correct about the poisonous plant shown in image except

18323

Which poisoning can lead to this condition?

18324

Saturnine gout is seen with?

18325

Gastric lavage can be done in which poisoning?

18326

A person ingested sulphuric acid which of the following is not expected?

18327

Which of the following hallucination can be seen with the product obtained from the following plant?

18328

Teichman test converts Hb in blood into?

18329

Police goes to crime scene and finds some white color stains. After examination of samples under microscope, crystals of dark brown color and rhombic shaped was seen. These crystals are formed inn which of the following test

18330

Which of the following is not used to identify race?

18331

Fusion of xiphoid process occurs at?

18332

False regarding medico legal autopsy?

18333

You observe a forensic surgeon doing en bloc removal of organ during autopsy identify the technique?

18334

What is the smell of following dead born child?

18335

Identify the type of hanging?

18336

Identify the method of strangulation?

18337

The phenomenon of suspended animation may be seen in

18338

On crime scene you found a body, you saw the following finding, IDENTIFY the reason/manner of death?

18339

Identify the type of torture?

18340

Identify the fracture shown in which divides base of skull into 2 equal halves antero-posteriorly?

18341

True about counter coup injury?

18342

A case of RTA present to ER, on NCCT you found following finding, which blood vessel is most commonly involved in this situation?

18343

Most conclusive sign of ante mortem death due to burns

18344

In a rainy day a person comes to burns department with following appearance what can be the cause?

18345

Paradoxical undressing is seen in?

18346

A girl came to your OPD and you found the following wound in her arm, Identify the following image?

18347

Lacerated looking incised wounds are seen at?

18348

Railway line bruise is seen due to

18349

Tache noire refers to

18350

Earliest External sign of autolysis is

18351

What is the cause of discoloration as shown in image?

18352

Two bodies were found outside the car following an accident. The autopsy was able to decide who the driver was based on all of the following features except:

18353

Mark the incorrect colour change in PM lividity:

18354

Punishment of imprisonment upto 3years and fine upto Rs. 5000 can be awarded by:

18355

Sites notorious for incised looking wound are all except:

18356

Sec 312 to 316 IPC deal with

18357

The most frequently damaged abdominal organ in blunt force injury is:

18358

Pugilistic attitude is due to:

18359

Mental ability to make valid will?

18360

Quad hoc means?

18361

Diatoms found in AM drowning are:

18362

Which of the following is related to legal responsibility of insane person?

18363

Conditions like run amok and koro is seen with people abusing?

18364

Which of the following is not seen in black gun powder?

18365

The graph is representing which kind of inhibition:

18366

Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

18367

A 35-year-old woman has had weight loss for the past 6 months. She is diagnosed with cancer, and methotraxate is prescribed. During treatment, what is the most likely effect of pyridostigmine on the reaction catalyzed by folate redcutase?

18368

Selenium is an essential component of:

18369

Which of the following enzyme typically elevated in alcoholism:

18370

The chemotherapy drug fluorouracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in vivo that result in a covalent complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate synthase and methylenetetrahydrofolate. The inhibition of deoxythymidylate formation and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to which of the following?

18371

The following graph shows a linear relationship between reaction rate and

18372

A 65-year-old obese male presents with severe indigestion and chest pain after a spicy meal. A lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level obtained to evaluate possible myocardial infarction is normal, but the laboratory recommends that LDH isozymes be performed. The managing physician knows that lactate dehydrogenase is composed of two different polypeptide chains arranged in the form of a tetramer. Assuming that all possible combinations of the different polypeptide chains occur, how many isozyme forms of lactate dehydrogenase must be measured?

18373

The activity of amylase in the urine is increased in:

18374

Liver and skeletal muscle disorder are characterised by a disproportionate increase in which of the LDH isoenzyme fraction?

18375

The reaction inhibited in thiamine deficiency is

18376

A 16-month-old girl was found to have ingested approximately 30 mL of an acetonitrile-based cosmetic nail remover when she vomited 15 minutes post ingestion. The poison control centre was contacted, but no treatment was recommended because it was confused with an acetone-based nail polish remover. The child was put to bed at her normal time, which was 2 hours post ingestion. Respiratory distress developed sometime after the child was put to bed, and she was found dead the next morning. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes was the most likely cause of this death of child?

18377

Which one of the following is a property of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

18378

A liver biopsy from an infant with hepatomegaly, stunted growth, hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, hyperlipidaemia revealed accumulation of glycogen having normal structure. A possible diagnosis would be:

18379

Which one of the following statement is correct regarding the well fed state?

18380

Which one of the following components of the electron transport chain only accepts electrons, and does not donate them?

18381

A fire-fighter is brought to the emergency room (ER) from the scene of a fire complaining of headaches, weakness, confusion, and difficulty in breathing. His skin and mucous membranes appear very pink/red. The causative agent of these symptoms inhibits electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation by which one of the following mechanisms?

18382

After digestion of a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as its primary ingredients, the major carbohydrate products entering the blood are which one of the following?

18383

Glycogenolysis in muscle does not contribute directly to blood glucose concentration because muscle lacks the enzyme

18384

In an embryo with a complete deficiency of pyruvate kinase, how many net moles of ATP are generated in the conversion of 1 mole of glucose to 1 mole of pyruvate?

18385

Which of the following is helpful in transport of fructose in Sperm?

18386

The pentose phosphate pathway generates which one of the following?

18387

Which one of the following metabolites is used by all cells for glycolysis, glycogen synthesis, andthe hexose monophosphate shunt pathway?

18388

A patient is in septic shock and his tissues are poorly perfused and oxygenated. The major end product of glucose metabolism in these tissues will be an accumulation of which one of the following?

18389

The Primaquin sensitivity type of haemolytic anaemia has been found to be related to reduce RB cells activity of which enzyme?

18390

In a 55- year-old man, who has been diagnosed with cirrhosis of liver, Ammonia is not getting detoxified and can damage brain. Which of the following amino acids can covalently bind ammonia, transport and store in a non- toxic form?

18391

Which of the following is most likely in an untreated child with PKU?

18392

Which of the following is not inborn error of aromatic amino acid metabolism

18393

Newborn with severe acidosis and vomiting has elevated serum levels of lactate and alanine.This suggests a deficiency in which enzyme?

18394

Which of the following amino acids is most responsible for the buffering capacity of haemoglobin and other proteins?

18395

A 56-year-old man with a history of genetic disease undergoes hip replacement surgery for arthritis. During the operation the surgeon notes a dark pigmentation (ochronosis) in the man’s cartilage. His ochronotic arthritis is most likely caused by oxidation and polymerization of excess tissue:

18396

Which of the following is elevated in the plasma of a patient having maple syrup urine disease?

18397

All the following are true about phenylketonuria except:

18398

Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a proteinsequence?

18399

The amino acids involved in the synthesis of creatin are

18400

A young adult with albinism is found to be at increased risk for skin cancer. Which of the following is the precursor of melanin?

18401

An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be expected to be deficient in which of the following nonessential amino acids, assuming that it is not obtained from dietary sources?

18402

Richner-Hanhart syndrome is due to defect in

18403

The extremely potent vasodilator nitric oxide (NO) is produced naturally by the body from which of the following amino acids?

18404

Albinism is a disorder involving what substance?

18405

Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:

18406

Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophoresis?

18407

Rothera test used for detection of

18408

The anticholesterolemic action of simvastatin is based on its effectiveness as a competitive inhibitor of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis. The reaction product normally produced by this enzyme is

18409

Tay-Sachs disease involves the metabolism of gangliosides. Gangliosides are composed of a ceramide backbone with at least which one of the following?

18410

During starvation, which of the following shows the most marked increase in plasma concentration?

18411

A 40-year-old woman with a history of bleeding and pancytopenia now presents with leg pain. She describes a deep, dull pain of increasing severity that required pain medication. Computed tomography examination reveals erosion and thinning of the femoral head. A bone marrow biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of Gaucher disease. What material would be found abnormally accumulating in the lysosomes of her cells?

18412

A 30-year-old man has been fasting for several days. His blood glucose level is now about 60 percent of its normal value, but he does not feel lightheaded because his brain has reduced its need for serum glucose by using which of the following substances as an alternate energy source?

18413

A lipoprotein inversely related to the incidence of coronary artherosclerosis is:

18414

An inhibitor of the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis would most likely reduce blood cholesterol by what mechanism?

18415

A double-stranded RNA genome isolated from a virus in the stool of a child with gastroenteritis was found to contain 15 percent uracil. What is the percentage of guanine in this genome?

18416

What is the structure indicated below?

18417

Which of the following statements regarding a double-helical molecule of DNA is true?

18418

A sample of human DNA is subjected to increasing temperature until the major fraction exhibits optical density changes due to disruption of its helix (melting or denaturation). A smaller fraction is atypical in that it requires a much higher temperature for melting. This smaller, atypical fraction of DNA must contain a higher content of:

18419

The hydrolytic step leading to the release of a polypeptide chain from a ribosome is catalyzed by which of the following?

18420

A segment of a eukaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature messenger RNA is knownas:

18421

Shine Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

18422

During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki fragments?

18423

Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?

18424

The enzyme DNA ligase:

18425

Folate trap is because if the deficiency of:

18426

Both Vitamin K and C are involved in:

18427

Vitamin B12 acts as co-enzyme to which one of the following enzymes?

18428

An early effect of vitamin a deficiency is

18429

A chronic alcoholic develops severe memory loss with marked confabulation. Deficiency ofwhich of the following vitamins would be most likely to contribute to the neurologic damage underlying these symptoms?

18430

Long term broad spectrum antibiotics with reduced clotting time in localized areas is an indication of a deficiency in what?

18431

Thiamine level is best monitored by:

18432

Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to:

18433

Which of the following vitamins has antioxidant properties, reduces the incidence of heart attacks and deficiency of which can lead to hemolysis and neurological problems

18434

Vitamin K plays an essential role in:

18435

Which of the following factors delay wound healing?

18436

Nowadays it is thought that this vitamin is very much necessary to withstand stressful conditions

18437

Increased carbohydrate consumption increases the dietary requirement for:

18438

The xanthurenic index can be used to measure pyridoxine deficiency, it involves themetabolism of:

18439

A complete blood count with differential for a pregnant woman reveals a hematocrit of 30 percent, with hypersegmented neutrophils and large, hypochromic red cells. Deficiency of which of the following would be most likely to produce these findings?

18440

Neurapraxia is a type of:

18441

The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of smooth muscle contraction:

18442

An 83-year-old woman with constipation is prescribed a high-fiber diet, which leads to an increased production of short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs). SCFA absorption occurs almost exclusively from which of the following segments of the GI tract?

18443

Which of the following items is the type of neuron whose axon forms synaptic junctions with the skeletal muscle cells (extrafusal fibers) that comprise the major part of a muscle?

18444

A 22-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 25U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?

18445

During heavy exercise the cardiac output increases up to five-fold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by:

18446

False about the O2 dissociation curve:

18447

Golgi tendon apparatus conveys message to CNS, depends upon:

18448

The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as:

18449

What are the EEG waves recorded for parieto-occipital region with subject awake and eye closed?

18450

Any spectral color can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colors for matching than a normal person, then he has a color anomaly. More red color is needed in the case of:

18451

Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15% of the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism?

18452

An 85-year-old man is brought to his doctor by his daughter. She reports that he has memory loss, is often confused, and has been having increasing difficulty with routine activities that he used to do on his own. She wonders if this is just because of old age or a more serious problem. Which of the following would provide the definite diagnosis of Alzheimer disease?

18453

The morning after a rock concert, a 20-year-old college student notices difficulty hearing his professor during lecture. The physician at the student health center suspects possible damage to his hair cells by the loud music. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of which of the following?

18454

A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because:

18455

The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is:

18456

Test for detecting field of vision is:

18457

Percentage change in the concentration of a substance of a substance necessary before an intensity difference in taste can be detected:

18458

Which of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in tubules is true?

18459

In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contraction in this situation is:

18460

Out of the various phases of the action potential (recorded with one electrode inside the cell), which one has the longest duration?

18461

The correct sequence regarding the tonicity of tubular fluid from PCT - Descending limb of Henle loop - Ascending limb of Henle loop is:

18462

The physiological response to the heat as shown in the picture is due to the release of which neurotransmitter:

18463

Identify the type of blood cell shown by arrow in the picture

18464

The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle:

18465

Cutting which structure on the left side causes total blindness in the left eye?

18466

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his:

18467

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

18468

Vibratory sensation is dependent on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high-frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which of the following?

18469

At a first-grade parent teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones?

18470

Visual contrast is enhanced due to lateral inhibition by which retinal cells:

18471

Stimulation of stretch receptors present in the left ventricle causes hypotension and bradycardia. This phenomenon is known as:

18472

A cerebrovascular accident that effects forced expirations during rest and exercise most likely damaged which neural area:

18473

In a normal healthy person, which of the following blood components has the shortest life span:

18474

Salivation by dog seen when food is given along with ringing of bell is:

18475

The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of all the following except:

18476

Several hormones regulate the tubular reabsorption of water and electrolytes at different sites in the nephron. Which of the following combination is correct?

18477

The method given in the picture is used to do which of the following test:

18478

A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58 percent, WBC 13,300/μl, and platelets 600,000/μl. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97 percent on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?

18479

During a nerve action potential, a stimulus is delivered as indicated by the arrow shown in the following figure. In response to the stimulus, a second action potential:

18480

A 66-year-old man, who has had a sympathectomy, experiences a greater than-normal fall in arterial pressure upon standing up. The explanation for this occurrence is

18481

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the end diastolic volume of patient?

18482

In which vascular bed does hypoxia cause vasoconstriction?

18483

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (VT) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

18484

A 42-year-old woman with severe pulmonary fibrosis is evaluated by her physician and has the following arterial blood gases: pH = 7.48, PaO2 = 55 mm Hg, and PaCO2 = 32 mmHg. Which statement best explains the observed value of PaCO2?

18485

A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the

18486

Which of the following substances is released from neurons in the GI tract and produces smooth muscle relaxation

18487

A key difference in the mechanism of excitation–contraction coupling between the muscle of the pharynx and the muscle of the wall of the small intestine is that

18488

A 65-year-old man is suffering from congestive heart failure. He has a cardiac output of 4 L/min, arterial pressure of 115/85 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. Further tests by a cardiologist reveal that the patient has a right atrial pressure of 10 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected in this patient?

18489

A 20-year-old man enters a local emergency room and has been hemorrhaging due to a gunshot wound. He has pale skin, tachycardia, and arterial pressure of 80/50, and has trouble walking. Unfortunately, the blood bank is out of whole blood. Which of the following therapies would the physician recommend to prevent shock?

18490

If the average hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 50 mm Hg, the hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s space is 12 mm Hg, the average colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 30 mm Hg, and there is no protein in the glomerular ultrafiltrate, what is the net pressure driving glomerular filtration?

18491

Light entering the eye passes through which retinal layer first?

18492

Which of the following molecules moves from the endolymph into the stereocilia and depolarizes the hair cell?

18493

Which of the following retinal cells have action potentials?

18494

A tsunami tidal wave hits the coast of India and the people living there are forced to drink unclean water. Within the next several days, large numbers of people develop severe diarrhea and about half of these people expire. Samples of drinking water are positive for Vibrio cholerae. Which of the following types of ion channels is most likely to be irreversibly opened in the epithelial cells of the crypts of Lieberkühn in these people with severe diarrhea?

18495

A newborn boy has a distended abdomen, fails to pass meconium within the first 48 hour of life, and vomits repeatedly. Analysis of a rectal biopsy provides a definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. The absence of which type of cell is diagnostic for Hirschsprung disease?

18496

A 65-year-old man has a 25-year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician because of swelling in his legs. A decrease in which of the following is likely to contribute to the development of edema in his legs?

18497

A man eats a low carbohydrate meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids that stimulate insulin secretion. Which of the following responses accounts for the absence of hypoglycemia?

18498

A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected?

18499

Neurological disease associated with the cerebellum produces which of the following types of symptoms?

18500

Which of the following is filtered most readily by the glomerular capillaries?

18501

A 48-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. She is not undergoing chemo-therapy currently. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum-ionized calcium. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are undetectable, but there is an increase in PTH-related peptide PTHrP. The increased flow of calcium into the cell is an important component of the upstroke phase of the action potential in which of the following:

18502

A 19-year-old man severs an artery in a motorcycle accident. A bystander applies a tourniquet to stop the bleeding. When the paramedics arrive, the blood pressure of the injured man was only slightly hypotensive and his pupils were reactive. The greatest percentage of the redistributed blood volume came from which of the following

18503

Identify the Blood Cell type shown in the Photograph

18504

Formula shown in Photograph is R=8ηL/πr4

18505

Identify the type of cutaneous receptor

18506

A 32-year-old female experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. Visceral pain:

18507

A young boy was diagnosed with congenital anosmia, a rare disorder in which an individual is born without the ability to smell. Odorant receptors are:

18508

While exercising, a 42-year-old female developed sudden onset of tingling in her right leg and an inability to control movement in that limb. A neurological exam showed a hyperactive knee jerk reflex and a positive Babinski sign. Which of the following is not characteristic of a reflex?

18509

Which of the following statements best describes the basilar membrane of the organ of Corti?

18510

A cross-sectional view of a skeletal muscle fiber through the H zone would reveal the presence of what?

18511

A 20-year-old man presents with increasing daytime somnolence. A 24-hour sleep study showing a sudden onset of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep without previous slow-wave sleep confirms a diagnosis of narcolepsy. REM sleep decreases the secretion of growth hormone. The physiological secretion of growth hormone is increased by which of the following?

18512

Gastric pressures seldom rise above the levels that breach the lower esophageal sphincter, even when the stomach is filled with a meal, due to which of the following processes?

18513

In the presence of vasopressin, the greatest fraction of filtered water is absorbed in the

18514

In the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs, which of the following occurs in venous blood?

18515

A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with Stokes-Adams syndrome. Two minutes after the syndrome starts to cause active blockade of the cardiac impulse, which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart?

18516

What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway?

18517

Mass movements constitute an important intestinal event that lead to bowel movements. Mass movements cause which of the following?

18518

An 80-year-old man reports increasing dyspnea, which worsens with exertion. The cardiologist orders an echocardiogram, brain natriuretic peptide, and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to evaluate possible congestive heart failure. Which of the following is most likely with ANP

18519

A couple presents at the fertility center with concerns that they have not been able to conceive a child. The reproductive endocrinologist evaluates the wife to be certain that she is ovulating. Which of the following is an indication that ovulation has taken place

18520

In the following picture, the arrow A indicates:

18521

Identify the type of action potential in the picture:

18522

Identify the device shown in the picture:

18523

A 45-year-old man with a history of heavy smoking is admitted to the hospital. His arterial blood gas analysis shows the following result: PaO2 = 62 mm Hg; PaCO2 = 58 mm Hg; pH = 7.33; [HCO3] = 34 mEq/L. The patient has a partially compensated:

18524

When oxygen moves through the thin side of the blood-gas barrier from the alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell, it passes the following layers in order:

18525

A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovascular adjustments. Which of the following is false?

18526

A 16-year-old girl is bitten by a black spider and brought to the emergency. The doctor immediately injected gamma globulin to the girl. This type of immunization is known as:

18527

Taste receptors:

18528

A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe diarrhea. When she is supine (lying down), her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg (decreased) and her heart rate is 100 beats/min (increased). When she is moved to a standing position, her heart rate further increases to 120 beats/min. Which of the following accounts for the further increase in heart rate upon standing?

18529

A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a diuretic targeted to act on the sodium reabsorption site from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the following transport processes is the drug affecting?

18530

A 31 year old female with history of recent divorce, presents to emergency with complaints of palpitation, sweating, heaviness and pain in chest. She has multiple similar episodes in the fast few weeks. The blood investigation and ECG are normal, in the past too investigation revealed no abnormality. What is the next best step:

18531

Excessive Fear of getting contaminated, repeated washing, repetitive checking behavior and excessive doubts are features of:

18532

A 37-year-old man reports that after a sudden financial loss, he developed certain symptoms, he started feeling fearful that someone is about to harm him, he could not sleep or eat properly. He also began to hear voices of a female and that voice would abuse him and say that he was useless and should kill himself. His symptoms stopped after approximately one week. There was no relevant past history of drug abuse or medical history. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:

18533

Patient with grandiose character. Does not care about others. Feels himself to be unique:

18534

Morbid jealousy, associated with:

18535

Exposure to stimuli and response prevention is the treatment of:

18536

A 36 year old engineer is reluctant to give a speech to people. He realizes there is no reason to act this way, lately he has been avoiding to go to the canteen with his mates and takes alcohol to cope with the situation. What he is suffering from?

18537

A middle-aged lady present to you with nausea, dyspepsia and abdominal distention. She had a past history of going to many doctors and being treated for many disorders. She has been treated by a rheumatologist for aches and pains, cardiologist for her palpitations and gave her Propranolol without improvement, a neurologist for her epilepsy. On examination you find a tense anxious woman in spite of her daily dose of benzodiazepine. There are scars from appendectomy and hysterectomy operations. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

18538

A female of lower socioeconomic status believes that film actor SALMAN KHAN is in love with her. Whenever she watches his movie, she feels that he is inclined towards her and keeps sending love messages. The diagnosis is:

18539

Person getting a irrestible repeatitive thoughts to cut his wrist or open a gas knob for last 1 week, he is not depressed and there is no other obsessive symptom. These symptom improve by onset of seizure. It is?

18540

A 70 year old man presents with a h/o prosopagnosia, loss of memory, 3rd person hallucinations since 1 month. O/E deep tendon reflexes are increased, mini mental state examination score is 20/30. What is the most likely diagnosis?

18541

All are stages of death, except

18542

Male started alcohol at 20 years, presently taking 3 quarters daily over 30 years, now complains that he gets the kick in 1 quarter, diagnosis is?

18543

Two months after knowing that his son was suffering from leukemia, a 45-year-old father presents with sleep deprivation, lethargy, headache, and low mood. He interacts reasonably well with others, but has absented himself from work. The most probable diagnosis is

18544

A 18 year old boy came to psychiatry OPD with a complaint of feeling that everyone around him has changed. He feels as if the world around him was made  up of mechanical people. He felt himself detached from other. He was tense and anxious but could point out the precise change the probable phenomena is

18545

A 29 year old man living in delhi had a fight with the wife, 10 days late found in lucknow. The man claims that he cannot remember who he is. He says that he found himself in Lucknow but he cannot remember where he comes from, the circumstance of his trip, or any other information about his trip. He has neither identification nor money but he has a bus ticket from Delhi. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?

18546

A 19 year old woman is hospitalized for dehydration caused by laxative use. She admits that she is using laxative because she has been binge-eating frequently and is worried about gaining weight. Although the woman is very thin, she believes that she is overweight. She has never had menses. Which of the following disturbance is the most likely diagnosis?

18547

Best therapy suited to teach daily life skill to a mentally challenged child

18548

All are features of atypical depression except?

18549

A non-diabetic non-hypertensive patient has some extra beat in pulse. Doctor informed it is benign. But patient is still going for investigations from doctor to doctor. This is a type of

18550

Disulfiram is a type of

18551

A 6-year-old child who does not interact with other children of his age group and prefers playing alone in the same manner, is likely to be suffering from

18552

Not a fundamental symptom of Schizophrenia

18553

A girl normal language milestone spends her time seeing her own hands and does not interact with others. Likely diagnosis is

18554

Double depression is

18555

Most commonly psychiatric illness seen in medico-surgical patient

18556

A 24-year-old lady presented with sudden onset chest pain, palpitations lasting for about 20 minutes. She says there were 3 similar episodes in the past. All the investigations were normal. What is the likely diagnosis

18557

A woman has mild depressive symptoms after few days of delivery which disappears within 2 weeks of the postpartum period. The most likely cause is ______

18558

A patient with chronic alcohol use (around 1 bottle of whiskey daily) stopped consuming alcohol for 2 days. He was brought to emergency with symptoms of anxiety, hypertension, and palpitations. He says that he is seeing snakes and lizards on the floor. There is no history of any seizures. Which of the following should be given to control the symptoms immediately?

18559

Most common acute organic mental disorder

18560

A patient came with history of visual hallucinations and disorientation. He was a chronic user of alcohol and last intake was 2 days back. What is the likely diagnosis?

18561

What is the commonest emotional state?

18562

A 24-year-old patient presents with history of excessive cheerfulness, increased activity levels, excessive talking, and lack of sleep for last 10 days. What is the treatment of choice in this case:

18563

A 21-year-old girl suspects that the college principal is making some conspiracy against her and is planning to fail her in the upcoming exam. She feels that other teachers have also joined the conspiracy and students are helping them too. What is the diagnosis:

18564

A 13 year old boy was brought to the child psychiatrist by the parents. The parents reported that child lies frequently at home and in school, misbehaves with the teachers, often bullies younger kids and has been caught stealing money on multiple occasions. What is the most likely diagnosis:

18565

Squeeze technique is used for:

18566

Confabulation means:

18567

The wife of a man in a hilly area has died 7 days back. He has since seen his dead wife twice and she asked him to die, the diagnosis is:

18568

Physical withdrawal symptoms are absent in patients

18569

To become unfamiliar of familiar situation is called:

18570

Drug used for treatment of nocturnal enuresis is?

18571

Most common cause of premature death in schizophrenia is?

18572

The drug of choice in alcohol withdrawal is:

18573

Sexual infidelity is commonly associated with:

18574

Amotivational syndrome is seen in:

18575

A 40-year-old man is bothered by slowly progressive loss of mobility of his spine at the hips since the age of 25. He has a brother who is similarly affected. On physical examination there is loss of lumbar lordosis with decreased range of motion at his hips. Earliest changes in this disease are seen in which region?

18576

A 55-year-old man has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On physical examination he has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have

18577

All of the following features are characteristic of osteopetrosis except:

18578

A 38-year-old construction worker sustained a crush injury to his right thigh after a crane fell on his leg at the work site. He is brought to the emergency department for evaluation. He has significant right leg pain and pain with passive stretch. The leg is tense to palpation. What is the most likely intra-compartmental pressure measurement of this patient’s right leg?

18579

Regarding examination of the hand and wrist, which of the following statements are false?

18580

Regarding tendon injuries and repair, which of the following statements are true?

18581

Regarding bursae, which of the following statements are true?

18582

A 21-year-old man presents acutely with pain and tenderness over volar aspect of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIPJ) of the ring finger. On examination the ring finger has no active flexion of the DIPJ. Radiographs of the finger are normal. Treatment includes

18583

A patient presents to orthoapedics with complaints of bone pains and repeat fractures. He was diagnosed to be suffering from a rare genetic condition. X-ray was done with following findings. identify the condition

18584

A 34-year-old female working in a firecracker industry, presents to orthopaedics OPD with complaints of polyarthralgia and persistent back ache. Physical examination was unremarkable. On blood examination she was found to have lower than normal calcium and phosphate levels. Parathyroid hormone levels were elevated. Which of the following drug should be prescribed to patient?

18585

A 62-year-old patient complains of recent onset hip pain for which he visits a general practitioner. A detailed general physical examination is carried out whereby he also is diagnosed to be suffering from hearing loss. He is advised blood investigations which reveal threefold rise of serum alkaline phosphatase and a normal serum calcium and serum phosphorus. Most probable diagnosis in this case would be:

18586

A 40-year-old carpenter is brought to emergency after a 6-foot fall off a ladder. Clinical examination shows a slightly deformed left lower limb with a 0.5-cm soft tissue defect over the anterolateral aspect of his leg. The wound appears relatively clean with no gross contaminants present. Radiographs depict a short oblique proximal one-third diaphyseal tibia fracture. What is his Gustilo open fracture classification grade?

18587

A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department having fallen off a ladder. He complains of pain in the right hip. He is normally fit and well. Hip X-rays show a displaced intracapsular fracture. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

18588

A 15-year-old boy attends the emergency department with a 2-week history of pain in the left lower leg and fever. On examination, there is a tender, irregular swelling of the tibia. X-ray of the leg shows a lytic lesion with a laminated periosteal reaction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

18589

A 70-year-old farmer presents to OPD with complaints of back ache, which worsened after a fall. Clinical investigations revealed evidence of Anaemia. Serum calcium levels were found to be elevated. His S. PSA (prostate specific antigen) was 6ng/ml. skull x-ray shows diffuse osteopenia. Likely diagnosis is

18590

A child presents to OPD with history of fever, and diffuse enlargement of leg. X-ray was done which shows the following picture. Preferred treatment would include

18591

A 16-year-old boy finds a prominent hard lump on the back of his knee, which restricts flexion but has not changed significantly in size over the past 6 to 12 months. Radiographs reveal a pedunculated projection from the bone

18592

A college student presents to clinic of orthopedician with complaints of dull, aching pain in his right thigh after jogging during the past nine months. He visited college dispensary where he was advised diclofenac, which relieves the pain but it reoccurs after a while. Any history suggestive of direct trauma could not be elicited. Physical examination too did not show any abnormalities of the right lower extremity. X-ray were ordered, which showed cortical thickening of the distal one-third of the shaft of femur with a central nidus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

18593

A 12-year-old boy complains of persistent pain in his right leg. Further, the pain is noticed to be worse at night. He has been experiencing fevers and weight loss. X-ray demonstrates an aggressive lesion with a permeative pattern of bone lysis and a periosteal reaction. A large soft tissue mass was also noticed. Pathology specimen was taken, which is likely to show

18594

A 34-year-old male presented to orthopedics OPD with complaint of pain in the right leg. No history of trauma could be elicited. On examination, a swelling was noticed. X-ray was advised. Which shows areas of trabeculated appearance in the diaphysis of tibia? Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

18595

A 54-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of a painful right shoulder. The pain is present on almost all movements and movements in the joint are restricted because of the pain. Both active and passive movements result in pain. Plain radiographs of the shoulder are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

18596

Regarding examination of the shoulder and elbow, which of the following statements are true?

18597

A 55-year-old postman presented to surgery emergency with alleged history of fall from a wet pavement. Preferred management of the condition is

18598

An 18-year-old boy is brought into the emergency department following an epileptic seizure. On recovery he complains of pain in the right shoulder. Examination reveals the arm to be held adducted and internally rotated with fullness at the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Which of the following motion would be most problematic for the patient

18599

A young man presents to the emergency department after injuring his shoulder in a fall. His X-ray is shown in the following photograph. He is more likely to experience performing which one of the following actions?

18600

A 6-year-old boy who had a fracture above the left elbow and was treated in a plaster cast is brought into the GP practice by his mother a few days after plaster removal. She is worried due to the abnormal positioning of his forearm. On examination, his left forearm appears to be shortened and held in flexion at the wrist and the fingers. Which of the following complications has led to this appearance?

18601

A 78-year-old retired bank clerk presents to the emergency department after she sustained a fall on her outstretched hand. The X-rays were obtained, which show the following injury. Which one of the following should be the position of the wrist in cast

18602

The patient in above mentioned question was indeed managed by casting. Most preferred combination is

18603

A 7-year-old child presented with intermittent limp and pain in the right hip and knee. On examination, flexion and extension movements were free and there was no tenderness and no muscle wasting. X-ray examination confirmed the diagnosis of:

18604

A 13-year-old boy is referred to your office with a right-sided SCFE after workup over several weeks by his pediatrician for insidious right knee pain. On exam, he has obligatory external rotation with hip flexion and is refusing to bear weight. His TSH is 8.5 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

18605

A 12-year-old African American male with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with severe left upper extremity pain particularly near the elbow joint and fevers. Blood cultures are obtained, and broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and fluid resuscitation are initiated. What is the most likely causative organism in this patient?

18606

A 22-year-old male basketball player presents with a swollen, painful left knee. He was on a fast break and as he began to jump for an alley-oop, he felt his knee give out and he collapsed to the floor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

18607

A 24-year-old man sustains a twisting injury to his knee, with his body turning outwards (the tibia rotates inwards) as he falls while climbing a mountain. His binding fails to release and he feels a crack in his knee. Nothing seems to be out of place, but it swells immediately and he has to be brought down off the mountain on a stretcher. Which of the following investigations would be positive in this patient

18608

An 18-year-old driver is involved in a high-energy motor vehicle accident. He sustains facial injuries from the windscreen and a fractured sternum from the steering wheel, and his right knee is painful and swollen. Radiographs are unremarkable. Which of the following structures may have been damaged

18609

A motor mechanic develops pain in his right elbow. The pain gets worst as day progresses. On palpation there is a point of maximal tenderness just distal to the lateral epicondyle. His pain is reproduced on extension/flexion of his affected wrist. Optimum treatment:

18610

Following investigation is performed to test the presence of

18611

Identify the clinical condition

18612

Identify the likely injury/condition

18613

Which one of the following could the most likely finding in a patient with mid-shaft humerus fractures?

18614

A college student presents with a swollen and painful right knee. He cannot recall any history of injury, but suffers from malaise and burning micturition. On examination he is pyrexial, and the knee has a large effusion, local temperature is raised. The knee is very painful to move

18615

A kindergarten school child, presents with a limp and no prior history of trauma. On clinical assessment there is a mild decreased range of movement, with pain in the right hip. She is found to be febrile. However temperature is mildly raised at 37.8. CRP is 15 and ESR is 10. Ultrasound was done, which reveals a moderate hip effusion, with microbiological analysis of the aspirate revealing no organisms

18616

A 17 year old rickshaw puller presented in orthopaedics OPD with complaint of persistent back ache. Patient also reports history of loss of weight over last one year. His general physical examination revealed asthenic built and anaemia. Local examination revealed the spine being held in rigid posture and coin test was found to be positive. Investigations were performed and a probable diagnosis was reached at. Most appropriate management offered by the attending clinicians would be:

18617

A 38-year-old man has had problems with sciatica for many years. He lifts a heavy object and subsequently develops severe back pain, bilateral leg pain and perineal numbness. Likely diagnosis

18618

A 52-year-old woman complains of discomfort over the lateral aspect of her right wrist and thumb. There is a positive Finkelstein’s test. Likely diagnosis

18619

A 48-year-old man complains of being intermittently unable to extend his right ring finger, with a clicking sensation sometimes felt. There is a tender swollen nodule over the palmar aspect of the affected finger. Likely diagnosis

18620

A 58-year-old man with a history of chronic liver disease attends with a bilateral fixed flexion deformity of the ring and little fingers, left worse than right. Likely diagnosis?

18621

A 32-year-old diabetic woman working as a cashier in bank complains of a 6-month history of progressive numbness and pain in her right hand. She states the pain occurs commonly at night time and is affecting her thumb. She states that she is beginning to drop objects she carries in her right hand. Tinel test was found to be positive. Next line of management is

18622

A 76-year-old man presents with severe right groin pain, regular night and rest pain and limiting his day-to-day activities. Radiographs of the hip demonstrate moderate to severe osteoarthritis of the right hip. Preferred treatment?

18623

The extreme motion which would cause such fracture (in the circle) would be

18624

The extreme motion which would cause such fracture would be

18625

Identify the fracture

18626

Identify the fracture

18627

 A 44-year-old male, presented with insidious onset back pain which has worsened over last few days. Patient also has marked weight loss. Likely diagnosis

18628

The following sign presents due to pathology affecting

18629

After a several kilometer long hiking trip, 26 year old patient presents with complaint of continuous pain near right ankle and foot which worsens with activity. Examination shows severe point tenderness. X-rays were done which were unremarkable. Preferred treatment is

18630

A kindergarten school child, presents with a limp and no prior history of trauma. On clinical assessment there is a mild decreased range of movement, with pain in the right hip. She is found to be febrile. However temperature is mildly raised at 37.8. CRP is 15 and ESR is 10. Ultrasound was done, which reveals a moderate hip effusion, with microbiological analysis of the aspirate revealing no organisms

18631

Identify the surgery being performed

18632

The terrible triad of elbow involves all of the following except

18633

Identify the amputation

18634

Identify the disease

18635

Line of Shenton is broken in

18636

Montegia fracture dislocation involves all except:

18637

What is true about Salter-Harris type IV epiphyseal injury:

18638

Commonest cause and commonest site in case of pathological fracture is:

18639

A middle aged male was given steroids after renal transplant. After 2 years he had difficulty in walking and pain in both hips. Which one of the following is most likely cause?

18640

42-year-old female has history of menorrhagia and pallor. On peripheral blood film there is mean corpuscular volume -65fL and mean corpuscular haemoglobin -22 picogram. Most likely finding on peripheral blood smear is

18641

Life span of Red blood cell is 120 days. Out of the following features responsible for limiting the life span of RBC is

18642

In case of Iron deficiency, earliest recognizable change in Red blood cell morphology is

18643

Out of the following first stage of iron deficiency is

18644

Out of the following which is not true about serum iron concentration is

18645

Child had fever 2 weeks before. Now there is presence of sudden onset of skin rash and there is no other physical finding. On laboratory investigation there is thrombocytopenia, and diagnosis of acute immune thrombocytopenia is made. All of the following can be used as first line therapy except

18646

15-years-old girl comes in emergency department with altered sensorium and high grade fever. On peripheral blood film there is fragmented red cells, anemia and thrombocytopenia. Renal function tests are deranged. Prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time is normal. Most effective treatment is

18647

In all of the following there is risk of disseminated intravascular coagulation except

18648

60-year-old male develops purpura all over the body 5 days after surgery. He is having platelet count of 30,000/mm3 with normal WBC and Hb. Coagulation tests are normal. He was on low molecular weight heparin prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis and was given 3 units of packed RBCs during surgery. Most likely diagnosis is

18649

In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura there is presence of fever. This fever is due to the following pathological lesion

18650

Out of the following which finding can be seen in chronic extravascular haemolytic anemia

18651

12-years-old male has recurrent episodes of jaundice. On physical examination there is pallor, splenomegaly and icterus present. Liver function tests are normal. On incubating red blood cells in hypotonic solution, there is increase in the haemoglobin levels in the sample. Most likely diagnosis is

18652

1-year-old boy has come with history of pallor. Child is being given cow’s milk since the age of 6 months. Height is 70th percentile and weight is 80th percentile. No other complaints and physical finding. Most likely cause of pallor is

18653

10-year-old girl diagnosed juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is having history of breathlessness since 6 months. On examination there is pallor and haemoglobin is 8.5 gm/dL. Most likely cause for pallor is

18654

12 years old boy is admitted for elective cholecystectomy. He is having pallor, mild icterus and splenomegaly. On complete blood count Hb 9gm/dL, MCV – 85 fL, MCHC – 37. Most likely cause of pallor is

18655

Which of the following enzyme deficiency in the hexose monophosphate shunt pathway causes nonsherocytic haemolytic anemia

18656

12-year-old boy presented with weakness and shortness of breath. On genetic analysis diagnosis of G6PD deficiency is made. Which of the following inclusion body is likely to be present in RBC

18657

Most severe form of sickle cell disease is

18658

Voxelotor is a drug which is used in Sickle cell disease. It acts by the mechanism

18659

In sickle cell anaemia, all of the following are true except

18660

20-year-old male was treated for urinary tract infection by an antibiotic. After two weeks, there is no urinary symptoms but has dark appearing urine. On examination urine sample is positive for Prussian blue and there no findings in urine sediment. Most likely diagnosis is

18661

30-year-old male, alcoholic has a history of alcohol abuse. He is now feeling tired for the past 3 months. On examination pallor is present. On CBC, MCV is 105fL, MCH 31 pg and haemoglobin is 7gm/dL. Most likely cause of the patient anaemia is

18662

35-year-old female was diagnosed to have macrocytic anemia and hyper segmented neutrophils on peripheral blood smear. All of the following are the causes except

18663

To make the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia, which of the following is not part of initial screen

18664

In iron deficiency anemia, total iron binding capacity increases. It is due to

18665

6 months old child was started on complementary feeds. After starting wheat porridge the child developed bulky and greasy stools. On examination Hb-9gm/dL at 11 months of age. Most likely cause of the anemia is

18666

Serum ferritin is an acute phase reactant that increases in many acute or chronic inflammatory conditions independent of iron status. Which of the following measurement should be done to identify false negative serum ferritin results

18667

Childhood diagnosed as iron deficiency anemia and started on oral iron therapy. After 1 month of oral iron therapy there is no improvement which of the following should be ruled out

18668

Earliest response to iron therapy in iron deficiency anemia, out of the following is

18669

35-year-old female is evaluated for the cause of anemia. On peripheral blood film there is fragmented red blood cells and Schistocytes is present. On further examination direct coomb’s test is negative. It can be seen in all of the following

18670

2-year-old comes with pallor and breathlessness. There is jaundice also present and in neonatal period jaundice was present. On laboratory investigation there is increased lactate dehydrogenase level. It can be due to all of the following except

18671

25-year-old female, diagnosed as systemic lupus erythematosus has history of breathlessness. On examination haemoglobin is 6.5 gm/dL, reticulocytosis and increased lactate dehydrogenase level. Next step to diagnose her cause of anemia is

18672

8-year-old boy is diagnosed to have pallor, icterus and spleen is palpable. CBC shows Hb 9gm/dL, MCV –70 fL and serum ferritin is increased. On bone marrow examination there is 4+ stainable iron. Most likely diagnosis is

18673

All are true regarding Beta-thalassemia major except

18674

Hemolytic anemias can be due to intrinsic or extrinsic RBC defect. All of the following are the causes of extrinsic RBC defect except

18675

Diagnosis test of choice in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is

18676

5-years old child has febrile illness associated with skin lesions, joint pain and swelling. There is severe anemia and reticulocytopenia. On bone marrow examination there is giant pronormoblast. Most likely cause is

18677

50-year-old male has low grade fever; night sweats and generalized malaise for the past 6 months. On examination there is cervical and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. On cervical biopsy there is CD15 positive and CD30 positive Reed Sternberg cells along with bands of fibrosis. Most likely diagnosis is Hodgkins lymphoma type

18678

35-year-old adult had blunt force abdominal trauma and splenectomy was done. Following findings will be seen after splenectomy

18679

60-year-old male has breathlessness for the past 4 months. On physical examination there is nontender cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly present. Direct coomb test is positive. Most likely diagnosis is

18680

Polycythemia vera is an acquired clonal myeloproliferative disorder. All of the following statement are true except

18681

In which of the following bleeding disorders there is normal screening coagulation profile

18682

Wnt signalling pathway is associated with

18683

Out of the following disease which of the following does not have an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern

18684

In the iron cycle, the transferrin receptor carriers

18685

All of the following are seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura except:

18686

On peripheral blood smear spherocytes are present and direct Coomb test is negative. Most likely diagnosis is:

18687

24 years old female had spherocytes in the peripheral blood and direct coomb test is positive, next line of management is:

18688

All are the biochemical findings seen in folate deficiency except:

18689

Tear drop shaped red cells, dacrocytes is seen in:

18690

Central nervous system involvement is seen in all of the following except

18691

Most common type Hodgkins lymphoma seen in HIV infection is

18692

Eculizumab, C5 convertase inhibitor is used as a treatment in

18693

Good prognosis of Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is 

18694

In hairy cell leukemia there is increased incidence of the following infection

18695

Usual volume of fresh frozen plasma required for management of bleeding is

18696

BRAF V 600 E mutation is seen in the following leukemia

18697

In chronic myeloid leukemia, t(9; 22) results from translocation of:

18698

A child underwent a tonsillectomy at 6 years of age with no complications. He underwent a preoperative screening for bleeding at the age of 12 years before an elective laparotomy, and was found to have a prolonged partial thromboplastin time but normal prothrombin time. There was no family history of bleeding. The patient is likely to have:

18699

A patient presents with thrombocytopenia, eczema and recurrent infection. The most probable diagnosis is:

18700

Which of the following was the first agent to be used for giving successful anesthesia to a patient?

18701

The cardinal features of general anesthetics are all of the following, except

18702

Which of the following is not related to difficult airway assessment?

18703

A 28 year old is planned for arthroscopy under general anaesthesia. During pre-anesthetic checkup, the following image is seen on opening the mouth and extension of the tongue. What does this indicate?

18704

A 27 year old female, primigravida, comes to the obstetric emergency with decreased foetal movements. The patient is examined and planned for emergency LSCS. For this patient, LSCS can be carried out under all the following techniques of anaesthesia except?

18705

Which of the following is a true statement regarding pediatric anaesthesia?

18706

A 40 year old female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She complains of awareness in a previous surgery. Which of the following monitoring techniques is best used to decrease awareness?

18707

Which of the following is wrong regarding the colour coding of anaesthetic gas cylinders?

18708

Diametric index safety system is for

18709

Which one of the following breathing circuit has re-breathing as its property?

18710

Which amongst the following is an anaesthetic gas

18711

Minimum alveolar concentration is associated with

18712

Which of the following is the most significant factor that determines the speed of onset or the rate of induction of general anaesthesia?

18713

Second gas effect is

18714

A 56 year old, 75 kg man is undergoing general anaesthesia for a right colectomy. After induction, the patient develops a junctional arrhythmia. Which inhalational anaesthetic would most likely be associated with this arrhythmia in this patient?

18715

After surgery in the post-operative recovery, a patient complains of uncontrollable shivering. Which of the following agents might be responsible for the same?

18716

Isoflurane is chosen for maintenance of general anaesthesia in a patient with heart disease. Which of the following is most responsible for maintenance of cardiac output during isoflurane administration?

18717

Compound A is one of the by-products of degradation of which volatile anaesthetic?

18718

Which one of the following is a barbiturate?

18719

A patient with increased intracranial pressure is admitted in the intensive

18720

A patient was operated and laproscopic cholecystectomy was done under general anaesthesia. Patient was intubated and extubated comfortably. Post operatively in the recovery, thrombophlebitis was observed in the vein which was cannulated by the IV cannula. This was attributed to the high pH of the drug used. Which of the following drugs most likely responsible?

18721

Which of the following is best used for the procedure being done

18722

A patient was operated for hernia repair under general anaesthesia in emergency. Patient was intubated and extubated comfortably. On being asked about his experience, the patient specifically pointed out about a particular intravenous injection which was highly painful when it was injected. Which of the following is the one that the patient was most likely referring to?

18723

A 40 year old patient was operated for squint surgery under general anaesthesia. Patient was extubated comfortably and shifted to post-operative recovery room. Post operatively patient started to have nausea and vomiting. All of the following can be used for the treatment except?

18724

A 40 year old patient is to being undergoing laproscopic hernia repair surgery under general anaesthesia. Suddenly, intra-operatively the blood pressure increased from 120/80 mm Hg to 170/106 mm Hg. Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension or delibrate hypotension?

18725

Maximum myoclonus and hiccoughs are known to be produced by

18726

Ketamine produces which type of anaesthesia?

18727

A patient was given 20 mg midazolam instead of 1 mg dose. Which of the following agents may be helpful in this condition to reverse the side effects?

18728

Vecuronium acts at which receptors?

18729

Succinylcholine is contraindicated in

18730

Rocuronium is known to cause

18731

Atracurium gets metabolized by

18732

Most common nerve used to check adequacy of muscle relaxation effect of pancuronium is

18733

Identify the following instrument

18734

Local anesthesia has its effect by action at

18735

Importance of addition of adrenaline to local anaesthetics?

18736

A young male was given brachial plexus block with 0.5 percent bupivacaine. The patient became unresponsive and the pulse became un-recordable. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?

18737

A 36 year old farmer, a known patient of cirrhosis of liver working in the fields was bitten by a scorpion on the left thumb. The patient was rushed to the casualty. It was decided to give a digital nerve block to the patient. Which of the following is best suited for use in this patient?

18738

Which of the following is the last layer breached before reaching the epidural space?

18739

A 22 year old patient collapsed 10 mins after giving spinal anaesthesia. Which of the following would be the most likely cause?

18740

For prevention of post spinal headache

18741

A patient posted for inguinal hernia repair under spinal anesthesia was asked by the anesthesiologist to undergo the procedure under GA rather than spinal anesthesia. Which of the following conditions of the patient might have made the anesthesiologist to take the call of not giving spinal anesthesia?

18742

In biers block, local anesthetic is given by which route?

18743

A patient during pre-anesthetic checkup gives a family history of sudden hyperthermia and muscle rigidity that happened to his father 20 years back during a surgery. Which of the following can be used in this patient?

18744

A 43 year old patient was undergoing laproscopic removal of gall bladder. Intra-operatively the adjacent image was observed on the capnography monitor. Which of the following is the best probable diagnosis?

18745

Which of the following information can be obtained from a pulse oximeter attached to the patient?

18746

Best site for core temperature monitoring

18747

A 36 year old patient is to be operated for perforation peritonitis under general anaesthesia. The patient gives a history of food intake 2 hours prior. Which of the following technique is preferred to be used in this patient?

18748

The marked point is

18749

Kindly identify the laryngoscope blade

18750
18751

All of the following are advantages of the adjoining device except

18752

A central line can be inserted from all of the following sites, except

18753

A patient presents to the casualty with the following reading on pulse oximeter. Which of the following will give the maximum fiO2 to this patient?

18754

This device works on which of the following principle?

18755

You find a patient lying unconscious while jogging in the morning. What would you do?

18756

During CPR, after attaching the defibrillator, the rhythm shows aystole. What should be the next step?

18757

ECG during CPR shows the following rhythm pattern. Next appropriate step is

18758

A 50 year old man is posted for sigmoidoscopy. On giving a quick opioid dose the anesthetist realizes that there is chest stiffness and difficulty in ventilation. Which of the following is the questionable drug?

18759

Suggamadex is related to which of the following

18760

A patient during surgery has lost 2 litres of blood. Which of the following fluids is best indicated in this patient till blood arrives for transfusion?

18761

A 70 year old female has to undergo incisional hernia surgery under general anaesthesia. She is a hypertensive patient and has past history of seizures and is on various medications for her condition. Which one of the following drugs is essentially stopped before anaesthesia in this patient?

18762

A 3 month old child is to undergo circumcision under general anaesthesia. For how long should the child be kept fasting before giving anaesthesia for this procedure?

18763

The ear ossicles articulate with each other through which type of joints?

18764

All the muscles are ectodermal in origin except:

18765

The collagen fiber in basal lamina of epithelium is:

18766

Which one of the following gland is holocirne?

18767

The osteoid is composed of all except:

18768

The branch of first part of axillary artery is:

18769

After radical mastectomy there was injury to the long thoracic nerve. The integrity of the nerve can be tested at the bedside by asking the patient to:

18770

The suprascapular nerve is a branch from which part of brachial plexus:

18771

Lymphatics from medial zone of the breast drain into the:

18772

The nerve supply of trapezius muscle is:

18773

The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except?

18774

Triangle of auscultation is associated with all of the following except:

18775

A lesion of the lateral cord of brachial plexus most likely leads to paresis of which of the following muscles?

18776

The cubital fossa contains all of the following except:

18777

Damage to which pair of following nerves lead to complete loss of supination of foramen?

18778

The dermatome of little finger is:

18779

Which of the following muscles of upper arm receives nerve supply from two different nerves?

18780

A patient exhibits weakness of Pinch grip; other thumb movements are normal. There is no sensory loss in the hand. The probable cause is damage to:

18781

A man is unable to hold a postcard between his index and thumb because of an injury to which of the following nerves?

18782

Which of the following nerve is involved in fracture neck humerus:

18783

All of the following muscles are attached at marked area EXCEPT:

18784

The action of indicated muscle A in the given figure is all EXCEPT:

18785

Ulnar nerve injury at wrist involves following except:

18786

All of the following are true for lumbricals EXCEPT:

18787

The intercostals nerve is a branch of:

18788

The opening in central tendon of diaphragm transmits:

18789

The sensory supply of the peripheral part of diaphragm is:

18790

The right costo-phrenic line of reflection extends upto the level of which rib in mid clavicular line?

18791

The upper part of crista terminalis contains:

18792

True about coronary sinus:

18793

Oesophagus is present in all except:

18794

Select the correct statement about the sinus venosus:

18795

The foramen ovale closes because of fusion of:

18796

All are true about atrioventricular groove except:

18797

All are true about vertebral column curvature except:

18798

All the following statements about the visceral pleurae are true EXCEPT:

18799

Select the correctly labeled sequence with reference to the following image:

18800

Anterior intercostal arteries for 7th-9th intercostal spaces arise from ONE of the following arteries:

18801

All of the following statements about the mechanism of respiration are true EXCEPT:

18802

All of the following marked structures in the image below are correctly matched EXCEPT:

18803

All the following statements regarding the left principal bronchus are TRUE EXCEPT that it:

18804

All the following are correctly labelled in the given image of the right atrium EXCEPT:

18805

The hilum of right lung is arched by:

18806

Which bronchopulmonary segment is absent in left lung?

18807

The floor of femoral triangle is formed by all except

18808

Which fascia form the anterior wall of femoral sheath:

18809

The structure lies midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic symphysis:

18810

The pes anserinus includes following three muscle except:

18811

Oblique popliteal ligament is an expansion from:

18812

The sensory innervation of the cleft between first and second toes of foot is:

18813

Altered sensation over the area of great saphenous vein in the leg seen due to an injury of which of the following nerves:

18814

Morphologically tibial collateral ligament represents degenerated tendon of which one of the following muscles?

18815

In walking hip bone of suspended leg is raised by which of the following muscle acting on the supported side of the body:

18816

Superior gluteal nerve supplies all of the following muscle except:

18817

The muscle inserted on iliotibial tract is:

18818

A 58-year-old female employee of a housecleaning business visits the outpatient clinic with a complaint of constant, burning pain in her knees. Clinical examinations reveal a knee of housemaid condition (Figure). Which of the following structures is most likely affected?

18819

Upon removal of a leg cast, a 15-year-old boy complains of numbness of the dorsum of his right foot and inability to dorsiflex and evert his foot. Which is the most probable site of the nerve compression that resulted in these symptoms?

18820

A 45-year-old male is treated at the hospital after he fell from his bicycle. Radiographic examination reveals fractures both of the tibia and the fibula. On physical examination the patient has a foot drop, but normal eversion (Figure). Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?

18821

The blastocyst comes out of zona pellucida on which day of after fertilization?

18822

The outer layer of blastocyst forms:

18823

All of the following structures are present at transpyloric plane Except:

18824

The median umbilical fold of peritoneum is produced by which structure

18825

The four layer fold of peritoneum is:

18826

All of the following are the lateral visceral branches of abdominal aorta except:

18827

All are the branch of posterior division of internal iliac artery except:

18828

A 67-year-old man has severe cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has enlarged anastomoses between which of the following pairs of veins?

18829

A 65-year-old woman had been scheduled for a cholecystectomy. During the operation the scissors of the surgical resident accidentally entered the tissues immediately posterior to the epiploic (omental) foramen (its posterior boundary). The surgical field was filled immediately by profuse bleeding. Which of the following vessels was the most likely source of bleeding?

18830

All of the following structures are present in the porta hepatis except

18831

The pericentral zone of liver acinus is more prone to:

18832

According to the Couinaud’s classification, the 4th segment of the liver is:

18833

The secondary retro-peritoneal organ is:

18834

True statement about lower half of anal canal is:

18835

The Brunner glands are seen in which of the following:

18836

All are the branches of inferior mesenteric artery except:

18837

A 47-year-old woman was operated on for the treatment of a chronic gastric ulcer that had not responded to medical treatment. At operation for partial gastrectomy, it was found that the posterior wall of the stomach was stuck down to the posterior abdominal wall. The surgeon had to proceed with great care to avoid damaging important structures lying on the posterior abdominal wall. The following structures located on the posterior abdominal wall were possibly involved in the disease process except which?

18838

The chief cells of are present in which part of gastric glands:

18839

The pouch of Douglas is situated between

18840

The submucosal folds in small intestine are known as:

18841

Spleen develops in which of the embryonic peritoneal fold:

18842

A 60-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with severe pain radiating from her lower back toward her pubic symphysis. Ultrasound examination reveals that a renal calculus (kidney stone) is partially obstructing her right ureter. At which of the following locations is the calculus most likely to lodge?

18843

The dural venous sinus present in the arrow marked area in the given figure is:

18844

The marked foramen A in the given figure of the base of skull transmit:

18845

All of the following structures pass through tendinous ring of the superior orbital fissure except

18846

The ansa cervicalis supply all of the following infra-hyoid muscles except:

18847

The general sensation from posterior 1/3rd of tongue is mediated by:

18848

A 35-year-old woman had a partial thyroidectomy for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis. During the operation a ligature slipped off the right superior thyroid artery. To stop the hemorrhage, the surgeon blindly grabbed for the artery with artery forceps. The operation was completed without further incident. The following morning the patient spoke with a husky voice. The following statements about this patient would explain the husky voice except which?

18849

A 22-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department and intubated. An endotracheal tube is passed through an opening between the vocal folds. What is the name of this opening?

18850

A 40-year-old man came to the outpatient clinic after stumbling and hitting his head on a table in a restaurant. During the neurologic examination photographs were taken of the eyes of patient as shown in Figure. Which of the following nerves to the left eye was most likely injured?

18851

The articular disc of TMJ is predominantly:

18852

A 34-year-old male complains of hyperacusis (sensitivity to loud sounds). Injury to which of the following cranial nerves is responsible?

18853

Select the INCORRECT option among the following that name the structures marked A, B, C and D:

18854

All of the following structures are seen in orophynx except:

18855

The skin at angle of jaw is supplied by

18856

The anterior jujular vein drain into:

18857

The artery palpable anterior to tragus of external ear is:

18858

All are supplied by the anterior division of mandibular nerve except:

18859

The suture present between two halfs of frontal bone of neonatal skull is:

18860

Facial nerve supplies, all of the following gland except

18861

The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland pass through all except:

18862

A 3-day-old male has a noticeably small mandible. A CT scan and physical examinations reveal hypoplasia of the mandible, cleft palate, and defects of the eye and ear. Abnormal development of which of the following pharyngeal arches will most likely produce such symptoms?

18863

The neural tube begin to close from which region:

18864

During CNS development the cephalic flexure presents in:

18865

The cranial nerve attached dorsolateral to olive are all except

18866

The general visceral efferent fibers are present in allmof the following cranial nerves except:

18867

The proprioceptive sensation from lower limb is carried out by which tract:

18868

Neurilema is the part of

18869

Identify the central sulcus of Rolando:

18870

What type of fibres are present in the cingulate gyrus

18871

The corticospinal fibers arise predominantly from which layer of cerebral cortex

18872

Which nerve nucleus underlies the facial colliculus

18873

One of the deep nuclei of cerebellum is:

18874

The visual association area corresponds to which number of Brodmann:

18875

Betz cells are present in one of the following areas

18876

The submandibular ganglion is related to:

18877

Efferent fibers from basal ganglia arises from:

18878

The CSF from 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle moves via?

18879

In spinal anesthesia the needle is often inserted between the spinous processes of the L4 and L5 vertebrae to ensure that the spinal cord is not injured. This level is safe because in the adult the spinal cord usually terminates at the disk between which of the following vertebral levels?

18880

Identify the anomaly:

18881

Reichert cartilage is the embryonic cartilage of which pharyngeal arch

18882

A 2-day-old infant male has a noticeable gap in his upper lip. The diagnosis is a cleft lip (figure). Failure of fusion of which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this anomaly?

18883

A newly developed local anesthetic blocks Na + channels in nerves. Which of the following effects on the action potential would it is expected to produce?

18884

Patients are enrolled in trials of a new atropine analogue. Which of the following would be expected?

18885

A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the enddiastolic volume of patient?

18886

A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (VT) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

18887

Which of the following substances is released from neurons in the GI tract and produces smooth muscle relaxation

18888

A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type 1 is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his

18889

A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior vena cava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure?

18890

A 20-year-old man enters a local emergency room and has been hemorrhaging due to a gunshot wound. He has pale skin, tachycardia, and arterial pressure of 80/50, and has trouble walking. Unfortunately, the blood bank is out of whole blood. Which of the following therapies would the physician recommend to prevent shock?

18891

If the average hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 50 mm Hg, the hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman’s space is 12 mm Hg, the average colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 30 mm Hg, and there is no protein in the glomerular ultrafiltrate, what is the net pressure driving glomerular filtration?

18892

During an inflammatory response, which is the correct order for cellular events?

18893

When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, a special set of respiratory neurons that are inactive during normal quiet breathing then becomes active, contributing to the respiratory drive. These neurons are located in which of the following structures?

18894

Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?

18895

Which of the following retinal cells have action potentials?

18896

A brain use of energy is among the highest of any organ in the body, but unfortunately the storage of glycogen in the brain is minimal and thus anaerobic glycolysis is not a significant source of energy. Considering this information about brain metabolism, which of the following statements is correct?

18897

A newborn boy has a distended abdomen, fails to pass meconium within the first 48 hour of life, and vomits repeatedly. Analysis of a rectal biopsy provides a definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. The absence of which type of cell is diagnostic for Hirschsprung disease?

18898

A 57-year-old obese woman on hormone replacement therapy develops gallstones. Her gallstones are most likely composed of which of the following substances?

18899

A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected?

18900

A sustained program of lifting heavy weights will increase bone mass. What is the mechanism of this effect of weightlifting?

18901

A 48-year-old woman complains of severe polyuria (producing about 0.5 L of urine each hour) and polydipsia (drinking two to three glasses of water every hour). Her urine contains no glucose, and she is placed on overnight water restriction for further evaluation. The next morning, she is weak and confused, her sodium concentration is 160 mEq/L, and her urine osmolarity is 80 mOsm/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

18902

Which of the following is filtered most readily by the glomerular capillaries?

18903

When a molecule binds to an area of an enzyme that is not the active site, and changes the shape of the enzyme so that it no longer can work, this is called:

18904

Which of the following enzymes is stimulated by glucagon?

18905

Glycogen while being acted upon by active phosphorylase is converted first to:

18906

Absence of which of the following enzymes would impair the rate-limiting step of glycogenolysis?

18907

The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for

18908

McArdle disease is due to the deficiency of

18909

All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct except

18910

Which of the following contributes only nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?

18911

An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following?

18912

Which of the following are non-polar uncharged non-essential amino acids?

18913

In starvation, the major nutritional supply of the brain comes from

18914

Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver is found in

18915

The enzyme acyl-CoA synthetase catalyses the conversion of a fatty acid of an active fatty acid result in

18916

An important finding in Neimann-Pick disease is

18917

A digestive secretion that does not contain any digestive enzyme is

18918

Shine Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:

18919

5-Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped with

18920

Deficiency of Vitamin A causes

18921

Vitamin K deficiency is indicated by:

18922

A eats a very poor diet and consumes two bottles of vodka a day. He is admitted to a hospital in coma. He is hyperventilating and has low blood pressure and high cardiac output. A chest x-ray shows that his heart is enlarged. Laboratory tests show that he is suffering from thiamin (vitamin B1) deficiency. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be affected?

18923

Most common form of lipid accumulation in cell is:

18924

Annexin V is a marker of:

18925

Major basic protein is cytotoxic to parasite. It is present in cell:

18926

Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract is an example of:

18927

In filarasis cause of edema is:

18928

Embolism which can be seen after fracture of long bones is:

18929

Hallmark of malignant transformation is:

18930

Ultraviolet rays are carcinogenic due to formation of:

18931

In a chronic alcoholic with elevated serum fetoprotein level, most likely neoplasm is:

18932

Lupus anticoagulant is the name given to antibody seen in systemic lupus erythematosis:

18933

In liver amyloid first deposits in:

18934

Mechanism of genomic imprinting is:

18935

Microarray is:

18936

Most common manifestation of asbestosis is:

18937

Onion skin appearance is seen in blood vessels in:

18938

Hallmark of right sided heart failure is:

18939

Earliest finding in myocardial infarction under electron microscope is:

18940

Vegetations present on mitral valve usually do not embolises to:

18941

Hallmark of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is:

18942

Least common site of involvement in Crohn disease is:

18943

Most susceptible to ischemic damage in Liver lobule is:

18944

True about Hashimoto thyroiditis is:

18945

Most common cause of primary acute adrenocortical insufficiency is:

18946

Glioblastoma most commonly arises from lobe of brain:

18947

Increased vascularity and glomeruloid body formation is seen in astrocytoma:

18948

True about competitive inhibition is:

18949

Neostigmine used in all these conditions except:

18950

Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular blocking agent used in day care surgeries:

18951

Steady state concentration of a drug is achieved after how many hours if half-life of the drug is 2 hours and following first order kinetic elimination:

18952

Belladona poisoning, all are seen except:

18953

Which of the following agent is DOC for NSAID induced gastric ulcer

18954

A 41-year-old woman complained to her physician of increasing frequency and urgency of bowel movements that she attributed to increased stress at work. The woman was diagnosed with spastic colon 4 years ago but was able to tolerate the symptoms until recently, when she noted the increasing frequency of bowel movements. A drug from which of the following classes could be appropriate to treat the patient disorder?

18955

A 47-year-old man presented to the clinic complaining of a recent onset of repeating episodes of vertigo associated with nausea and vomiting. The patient was otherwise healthy and denied use of alcohol or illicit drugs. Physical examination was unremarkable, but a provocative test elicited severe vertigo. A diagnosis was made, and a pharmacotherapy was prescribed. Which of the following drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

18956

A 53-year-old woman recently diagnosed with gouty arthritis started a treatment with a drug that inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis secondary to inhibition of tubulin polymerization. Which of the following drugs did the patient most likely take?

18957

A 62-year-old woman had no bowel movements 4 days after surgery to remove a colon cancer. A diagnosis of adynamic ileus was made, and an intramuscular injection of neostigmine was given. The activation of which of the following pairs of receptors most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the patient disorder?

18958

A 14-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by his mother, who tells you that her son has been losing control of his bladder several times during the day over the past couple of weeks. Upon speaking with the boy, he tells you that he has been feeling depressed since he is being bullied at school. After a lengthy workup rules out an organic cause for his enuresis, you decide to treat the boy for depression. Which drug is this?

18959

A 47-year-old woman presents to neurology clinic, complaining of several neurological symptoms. The patient reports episodes of inexplicable fear and sadness as well as a concurrent feeling of an altered sense of smell and a sense of spatial distortion. She denies any loss of consciousness during these episodes. You diagnose her with simple partial seizures and prescribed a medication. You explain that the exact mechanism of the medication is unknown; however, it likely interrupts nerve conduction across the synapse by binding to synaptic vesicle proteins. Which drug is this?

18960

A 36 year man came with reddening of the conjunctiva suspected of taking drug. On examination having increased pulse rate and decreases in blood pressure and in psychomotor performance but pupil is normal. His signs and symptoms are likely to be due to:

18961

CB-NAAT is done to detect resistance due to mutation in:

18962

Which of the following is best to be used for induction of ovulation in polycystic ovarian disease patients:

18963

A bed ridden female patient with catheter related UTI by klebsiellapneumoniae; which of the following drug you choose if carbapenems are resistant:

18964

Which antiviral drug is use in both HIV and hepatitis B:

18965

Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a predominant peripheral vasodilator action and tocolytic effect:

18966

Drug of choice for nasal carriers of MRSA is

18967

A 13-year-old boy suffering from acute lymphoblastic leukemia was admitted to the hospital for the third cycle of anti-cancer therapy, which included high-dose methotrexate. Which of the following drugs should be given to the patient to counteract methotrexate toxicity?

18968

A 43-year-old man was admitted unconscious to the emergency department. The man had been suffering from bronchogenic carcinoma for 8 months. Vital signs on admission were blood pressure 90/50 mmHg, pulse 95 bpm, respirations 10/min. Physical examination revealed signs of increased intracranial pressure, and a computed tomography scan disclosed diffuse cerebral edema due to brain metastases. The appropriate emergency treatment of this patient should include which of the following drugs?

18969

A 24-year-old obese woman in her 26th week of pregnancy was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus after a positive glucose tolerance test. She was otherwise healthy, and her past medical history was unremarkable. Dietary management failed to control the blood glucose, and her physician decided to prescribe antidiabetic therapy. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate for the patient at this time?

18970

A 48-year-old woman presented to the clinic because of chest pain on exertion for the past 2 days. Physical examination showed a woman in no apparent distress. Physical signs were blood pressure 105/60mmHg, pulse 85 bpm, respirations 15 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation revealed a regular rhythm with no abnormal cardiac sounds or murmurs. An electrocardiogram after exercise stress testing confirmed the diagnosis of exertional angina, and therapy with sublingual nitroglycerin and isosorbidemononitrate was started. Which of the following adverse effects would be most likely to occur in this patient?

18971

A 30-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of eye pain over the last week. Besides eye pain, he also reports to you that he has noticed transient spots in the center of his visual fields and that he feels as if he is unable to see as well as he used to. His medical history is significant for active tuberculosis, for which he has been taking several medications for the past 3 weeks. You tell the patient that you believe his symptoms are related to one of the medications that he is taking to treat his tuberculosis?

18972

While on a rural health mission, you come across a group of villagers camped by a river, all of whom are suffering from the same ailment. Some of these children have infections in the areas of their eyes and they tell you that they feel extremely itchy. You note that all of these children exhibit disfiguring skin nodules over the surfaces of their body. You immediately give this medication to these children in hopes of preventing blindness that acts via influx of chloride ions, thereby leading to worm paralysis?

18973

All are non-suppurative complications of Streptococcus pyogenes except

18974

Black fever and black water fever are seen in

18975

Flesh eating bacteria is

18976

Milk ring test and Whey agglutination tests are done for

18977

All are correct diagnostic stages except

18978

Reason for cut off titres in Widal test is

18979

Fecal transplant is indicated in

18980

A 51 year old patient had a history of foul smelling non sticky stools, for which no treatment was taken. Later he had pain in the right hypochondrium. Liver aspirate showed Anchovy sauce pus. Diagnosis?

18981

A 44 year old patient came with an old piece of paper on which the intern doctor could read Duke criteria. Most common cause is

18982

Botulinum toxin is used for all except

18983

A 34 year old with crush injury pelvis had a full bladder on presentation. Catheterization was not possible. What is this procedure for urine sample collection?

18984

A 19 year old male was brought in a paralyzed state 96 hours after road traffic accident in a rural area. Toxin and mechanism of action?

18985

Haemagglutinin and neuraminidase are found in

18986

All are correct intestinal ulcers except

18987

All are infectious except

18988

Varicella zoster virus becomes latent in

18989
18990

Primary receptor and co-receptors are:

18991

Fluid resuscitation in septic shock in Covid-19 is monitored by target _______ except

18992

Parents of a newborn came for counseling for diseases transmitted by breast feeding All diseases can be transmitted by breast feeding except

18993

Interleukine therapy is given in all except

18994

A newborn baby kept in isolation and not given any vaccine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

18995

A 35 year old male presented with pus from urethra which was culture negative and did not respond to beta lactam antibiotics. Most common cause of would be

18996

A 34 year oldorthopaedic surgeon suffered an inoculation exposure while doing joint replacement surgery of a Hepatitis Bpositive patient. He had no prior immunity to Hepatitis B. What is appropriate action?

18997

Smears from three patients presenting with tinea infections revealed the following. Identify macroconidia from left to right:

18998

A 24 year old patient, who is 35 weeks pregnant, presents to the hospital complaining of heavy painless bleeding. She is pale, has a pulse rate of 140 bmp and a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft and non- tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

18999

A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examination uterus is contracted with increased tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. Most likely diagnosis is:

19000

A 32 year old nulliparous woman has heavy bleeding at 8 weeks gestation. An early pregnancy scan is suggestive of a molar pregnancy, and no fetus is observed. What is the typical genotype of a complete molar pregnancy?

19001

A 22 year old pregnant female presented at 20 weeks of gestation, with C/O-Vaginal spotting. On examination she was found to have an enlarged uterus up to 26 weeks size. No FHS was audible. The fetal Doppler also failed to reveal the presence of any heart sound. Serum HCG levels were raised, and were found to be 100,000 mIU/ml. Which of the following test is most appropriate?

19002

A 35 year old female mother of two presents to gynaecology emergency with vaginal bleeding, at 12 weeks of gestation. She also C/O excessive nausea and vomiting. On examination the fundal height corresponds to 22 weeks. An ultrasound was done, which shows snow storm appearance and bilateral enlarged cystic ovaries. Optimum management would include

19003

A 32 weeks pregnant female presents with labour pains and minimal vaginal discharge. On analysis of the cervical vaginal discharge, Fibronectin was found. What is the probable diagnosis?

19004

A 24 year old woman with a past h/o - Chlamydia attends the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. She has mild vaginal bleeding. Her pulse rate is 124 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 60/40 mmHg and she has a distended tender abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19005

Regarding serum Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (Beta-hCG)

19006

A 26 year old female G4P0A3 presents at 22 weeks with previous history of 3 mid trimester abortions. Her USG for cervical length is 2 cm. What could be the most probable cause of her recurrent pregnancy loss?

19007

A 32 weeks pregnant with a cervical cerclage inserted at 14 weeks, presents to the labour room with a confirmed diagnosis of PPROM. She is clinically well with no uterine activity. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her?

19008

A patient calls your clinic complaining of continued heavy vaginal bleeding. She had an uncomplicated vaginal birth 2 weeks ago of her second child. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following differentials?

19009

A 24 year old woman with no prenatal care at 29 weeks gestation presents with painful contractions and pressure. Her cervix is 3 cm, 60% effaced, and breech at –2 station. There is no evidence of ruptured membranes. Her contractions are every 3 minutes. FHT is normal. Maternal vital signs are stable. What should you do?

19010

A 32 year old woman suffers a 1200 mL postpartum haemorrhage 15 minutes after delivery. She is given several drugs to contract the uterus and the bleeding stops. One hour later, she is found to have blood pressure of 178/110 mmHg. Which drug is most likely to be responsible for this clinical finding?

19011

In GDM, maternal hyperglycaemia is independently and significantly linked to all of the following adverse outcomes except:

19012

A primigravida came in spontaneous preterm labour at 32 weeks of pregnancy. There is no other medical risk factor. No history of fever. Blood pressure is normal. There is no leakage or bleeding per vagina. She is 4 centimeter dilated. 80 percent effaced cervix and a bag of membranes is present. What is the management?

19013

The most worrisome sign or symptom of potentially serious pathology in late pregnancy is which of the following?

19014

A 34 year old multigravida had a normal delivery. After delivery there is difficulty in delivering the placenta, traction is applied on the umbilical cord. Immediately after which the woman develops sudden severe abdominal pain and copious vaginal bleeding. Her BP is 70/40 mmHg and PR-62/min. The placenta has separated but, the uterine fundus is no longer palpable at the umbilicus. What is the likely diagnosis?

19015

True about diabetes in pregnancy are all except:

19016

A 23 year old woman (gravida 1, para 0), approximately 6 weeks pregnant, comes to your clinic for treatment. A home pregnancy test was positive. She has developed bleeding over the past 2 days. What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?

19017

A 26 year old woman whose last menstrual period (LMP) was 2 months ago develops bleeding, uterine cramps, and passes tissue per vagina. Two hours later, she is still bleeding heavily. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19018

A 20 year old, who is at 12 weeks gestation, has a 2 day history of vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. Ultrasound shows a 25 mm fetal pole with absent fetal heart rate. Pelvic examination reveals her cervix to be 4 cm dilated with bulging intact membranes. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19019

A pregnant lady with a history of recurrent abortions is now diagnosed to have Antiphospholipid syndrome. What would be the best mood of treatment for her?

19020

The following maneuver is used for:

19021

After a normal labor and delivery of monozygotic twins at 35 weeks of gestation, one is found to be polycythemic, and the other small and markedly anemic. What is the most likely etiology of this phenomenon?

19022

A 19 year old primigravida with unsure LMP presents to initiate prenatal care. You attempt to estimate gestational age. The uterine fundus is palpable at the level of the pubic symphysis, and fetal heart tones are audible by electronic Doppler. On the basis of this information, what is the approximate gestational age?

19023

Most common degenerative changes in fibroids during pregnancy is red degeneration. It is an aseptic condition where patient makes complained of acute pain abdomen, vomiting and slight fever. How do you manage this condition?

19024

A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts less than 2 minutes and is usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called:

19025

The plane from the sacral promontory to the inner posterior surface of the pubic symphysis is an important dimension of the pelvis for normal delivery. What is the name of this plane?

19026

Identify the maneuver shown in figure:

19027

A patient is the measuring size larger than dates at her initial obstetric visit at 24 weeks. She is worried about twins since they run in the family. The best method to safely and reliably diagnose twins is by which of the following?

19028

All of the following statements are true regarding the parameter being shown on the USG except:

19029

A 20 year old primigravida has undergone ultrasound. There is a single intrauterine gestation sac of 20 mm, yolk sac 3 mm but cardiac activity is not visualized. The diagnosis is:

19030

A woman is seen in the OPD with c/o off and on dull aching pain in the lower abdomen. Her LMP was 5 weeks ago. Clinical pelvic examination is normal. UPT is positive. TVS shows the following finding. This is suggestive of:

19031

Identify the lie of the fetus in the following image:

19032

A pregnant client is making her first visit at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She has previous history of stillbirth at 39 weeks, 2 years back, twin daughters 3 years ago born at 36 weeks and history of ectopic 5 years back. Her obstetrical score is:

19033

A 38 year old G2P1 at 38 weeks is in labor. One week ago, the estimated fetal weight was 3.2 kg by ultrasound. Over the past 3 hours for cervical examination remains unchanged at 6 cm. FHR tracing is reactive. An intrauterine pressure catheter reveals 2 contractions in 10 minutes with amplitude of 40 mmHg each. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?

19034

You are examining a 34 year old woman G3P2 at 38 weeks gestation. She is in labor with. 5 cm dilatation. There is no feral part in the pelvis. Ultrasound report shows transverse lie with the fetal back towards the maternal legs. Which of the following is the procedure of choice?

19035

A 25 year old G1 is newly pregnant. She is found to be rubella non-immune. She asks you about the implication of this. You should inform her about which of the following?

19036

All are true about Schultz method of placental separation except:

19037

A 25 year old primi gravida presents to obstetric OPD at 28 weeks of pregnancy. Blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. Her 24 hours urine albumin levels are 220 mg. She has family history of hypertension in mother. Her previous records show normal blood pressure at 12 weeks and normal investigation. She has developed headache, blurring of vision since one day. What is the likely diagnosis?

19038

Physiological anemia in pregnancy–all are true except:

19039

A 28 year old female comes for antenatal visit at 6 weeks POG. Her TSH levels are low and free T4 levels are elevated. Initial treatment is started with:

19040

A 27-year-old G3P2 with B negative blood group, her husband A+, presents at 32 weeks of gestation. Her ICT is positive with titre 1.32. What is the next line of management?

19041

A primigravida at term is in second stage of labour. After delivery of the fatal head, shoulder dystocia was diagnosed and the McRoberts manoeuvre has nor effected the delivery of the shoulders, which is the next method to be used?

19042

A pregnant lady acquires chickenpox 3 days prior to delivery. She delivers by normal. Which of the following statement is true:

19043

28 year old G3P1A1 at 33 weeks of gestation came to clinic for a regular antenatal checkup. She is known case of pre-eclampsia diagnosed at 26 weeks. Now her BP is 130/90 and NST reactive. What is the plan of management in this patient?

19044

What is the implantation of a placenta in which there is a defect in the fibrinoid layer at the implantation site, allowing the placental villi to invade and penetrate into but not through the myometrium called?

19045

A 38 weeks pregnant woman has developed confirmed primary genital herpes. She is presently being treated with acyclovir. She has confirmed SROM since 2 h. Which of the following treatment options are best suited to her?

19046

Placenta show the given below is:

19047

With reference to fetal heart rate, a non- stress test is considered reactive when:

19048

A 22 year old primi gravida visit for antenatal check up in the obstetrics OPD, with a 22 weeks pregnancy. On examination uterine height was found to be corresponding to the 16 week size. USG shows an AFI of 4 cms. What is the likely diagnosis?

19049

A 29-year-old G4P3003 with three prior C-sections is diagnosed with a placenta accreta at 28 weeks during follow-up ultrasound of a low anterior placental location. When is placenta accreta most likely to cause bleeding?

19050

A 24 year old G1 now P1 has had a vaginal delivery of a 2.7 kg infant. Her labor was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia. Bimanual massage of the uterus and intravenous oxytocin do not control her postpartum hemorrhage. What is the next best intervention?

19051

In the normal labor, the pressure produced by uterine contractions is greatest at which of the following times?

19052

A 37 year old primiparous woman is 14 weeks pregnant. Following serum screening, the pregnancy is found to have an increased risk of trisomy 21. She wishes to have further testing to confirm whether the fetus is affected. In view of her current gestation what is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

19053

A 26 year old female admitted in the labor room. On examination head has not reached to the ischial spines with 3 cm cervical dilatation in 3 hours will be considered at which stage of labour?

19054

A pregnant woman with a prosthetic valve on warfarin tests positive for pregnancy. What is the advice to be given?

19055

A lady suffering from gestational diabetes mellitus delivered at term. The neonate was having macrosomia and got admitted to NICU and was being evaluated by the pediatrician, which among the following will be the most consistent finding?

19056

A primigravida at full term pregnancy with no high factors has delivered the child. All of the following are mandatory in AMTSL except?

19057

A 28 year old female primigravida, presented at 38 weeks of gestation for regular antenatal checkup. On examination uterus corresponds to 36 weeks of gestation with normal FHR. Transvaginal USG was done which reveals AFI of 26. Which of the following condition is most likely to be associated with this patient?

19058

A 28 year old woman during work-up of primary infertility is found to have bilateral ovarian mass. Her CA-125 levels are 90IU/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19059

A 27 year old female presents with infertility. There is history of dyspareunia and dysmenorrhea. On examination, uterus retroverted with restricted motility. Best investigation to be done is:

19060

A multiparous woman presents with complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and pain during mensuration. Pain starts 3-4 days prior to menses and does not subside after menses. On P/A examination uniformly enlarged uterus with the tenderness present. USG shows myometrial cyst. What could be the most probable cause of the heavy menstrual bleeding in this patient?

19061

A 30 year old woman with two children presented with complaint of dysmenorrhea. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a thin walled left sided ovarian cyst of 3 centimeter with echogenic fluid. She does not wish to conceive.  What is the first line of management?

19062

Which ONE of the following clinical scenarios is considered diagnostic of polycystic ovarian syndrome?

19063

A 21-year old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face and irregular periods. Serum LH level is 36 mIU/mL and FSH is 9 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of her condition?

19064

A 16 year old girl presents to the gynecology OPD with primary amenorrhea. She has well developed breast, absence of axillary and pubic hair is noticed. Most likely ultrasound findings would be:

19065

A mother brings her 18 year child with complaints of not attained menarche. General physical examination shows normally developed breast and pubic hair. On examination vaginal ending is blind and uterus not palpable. What is the next line of investigation?

19066

A 14 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea and lower abdominal pain which is cyclical. She has good sec. sexual characters. Vaginal orifice is normal. P/A examination reveals abdominal pelvic lump. On per rectal examination, mass can be felt anterior to the rectum. What is the best investigation to help the diagnosis?

19067

A 16-year old girl is brought to clinic by her mother with concerns regarding the lack of any signs of puberty. The appearance of external genitalia is of a normal prepubertal female. Laboratory studies show markedly elevated FSH and LH levels. Which of the following causes of delayed puberty accompanies elevated circulating gonadotropin levels?

19068

A 20 year old woman who has never been pregnant presents for the evaluation of 3 months of Amenorrhea. She complaints of fatigue, nausea and breast tenderness. Her menstrual cycle started at 13 years of age and had been regular since then. Which of the following test would be the most appropriate first step in the evaluation of this patient?

19069

All of the following are amongst the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea except:

19070

Women perceive the menstrual flow as an indication that the reproductive system is functioning well. In fact the actual menstrual flow is associated with which of the following?

19071

A woman with amenorrhea was given progesterone withdrawal test and bleeding occurred. This signifies all of the following except:

19072

A 22-year-old woman experiences amenorrhea of 6 months duration. Physical examination demonstrates normal breast development and normal pelvic organs. There is no hirsutism or galactorrhea. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin levels are normal. A serum pregnancy test is negative. What would be the next course of action?

19073

A 35 year old woman with amenorrhea for 6 months presented to gynecology OPD with H/O-Surgical MTP. Pelvic examination is normal, no withdrawal bleeding on progesterone challenge test. Serum FSH normal/serum TSH normal/serum prolactin 20 mg/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19074

Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication for hormone replacement therapy in a post-menopausal woman?

19075

A woman presents with complaints of greenish frothy vaginal discharge for one month. On examination, vulvovaginal erythema is noticed. On saline microscopic, motile organisms are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19076

A 64-year-old woman undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometrial carcinoma. The staging of the specimen is described as stage Ib. What is the definition of stage Ib endometrial cancer?

19077

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but x-ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

19078

A 58-year-old woman consults you for vulvar pruritus. On pelvic examination, you note thin, atrophic skin with whitish coloration over the entire vulva. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely in this patient?

19079

A 44 year-old multiparous obese woman complains of abnormal vaginal bleeding of 5 months duration. Pelvic examination demonstrates a small, anteverted uterus and a normal-appearing cervix. No adnexal masses are present. A serum pregnancy test is negative and PAP smear is normal. Prolactin and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are normal. Which of the following is the most efficient next step in the evaluation of this patient?

19080

A 52-year-old menopausal (Menopause: 3 years back) presents with single episode of postmenopausal bleeding. TVS shows endometrial thickness of 3 mm. What is the most appropriate step in management:

19081

A 57-year-old, post-menopausal woman complains of something coming out of her vagina and difficulty in opening her bowels. She had four children uneventfully with vaginal births. Her last child birth was 18 years back. The most likely diagnosis is:

19082

A 52-year-old female has a 2cm soft swelling in the valva, just outside the vaginal introitus. While walking she has discomfort and local pain. The treatment of choice is?

19083

A 24 year old woman visits the infertility clinic with complaints of recurrent abortions. On investigation, she is found to have a septate uterus. Which of the following corrective procedures has the best obstetric outcome?

19084

A 69-year-old woman presents with a 2-cm firm nodule in the right labium majus without signs of inflammation. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

19085

A 47-year-old woman complains of postcoital bleeding, nearly as heavy as menses. Which of the following is the most likely origin of her bleeding?

19086

A patient wishes you to explain the concept of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) III, which has been diagnosed from her cervical biopsy after a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LGSIL), was found on a Pap smear. What can you correctly tell her about CIN III?

19087

A 28 year old lady having 1 year old child presented with C/O - failure to resume menses after delivery. She had a history of blood transfusion after delivery. She also gives history of failure of lactation and complains cold intolerance. What is the likely diagnosis?

19088

Risk of endometrial cancer is least in:

19089

A 26-year-old woman presents for her Pap smear. She has been sexually active with only one partner. Her physical examination is completely normal. However, 2 weeks later her pap smears results return showing HSIL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

19090

All of the following about adenocarcinomas of the cervix are true except:

19091

A 36-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. She has on child of 7 years. USG shows a single 3 x 3 cm sub mucosal fibroid. Hemoglobin is 10.5 gm/dL. What is the best treatment option for her?

19092

Which of the following postmenopausal women is most protected from ovarian epithelial carcinoma?

19093

Laparotomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascites positive for malignant cells and positive pelvic lymph nodes as well. All other structures were free of the disease .what is the stage of the disease?

19094

A young couple is being evaluated for infertility. The woman has regular menstrual cycles. What test would you recommend to the couple?

19095

A 30 year old woman with H/O-PCOD presents for evaluation of infertility after one year of unprotected intercourse. What is the initial step in her evaluation?

19096

A patient with infertility and PID was investigated and was found in hysterosalpingogram to have beaded fallopian tubes with clubbing of the ampullary end. The diagnosis is most likely to be?

19097

A 30-year-old woman has been trying to conceive for 3 years. She has infrequent menstrual cycles. Ultrasound confirms a normal uterus and polycystic ovaries. HSG has confirmed bilateral patent fallopian tubes. Her partner semen analysis is reported as within normal limits. Her BMI is 25 kg/m2. Her serum Prolactin, FSH, oestradiol and testosterone - normal. Of the options listed, which one of the following therapies is considered the most appropriate initial therapy?

19098

A 26-year-old with married life of 2 years visits the infertility clinic. She was put on HSG. On treatment, she developed dyspnea and abdominal pain. Her USG report shows the following image. What is the condition called?

19099

A 38 year old medical representative in a pharmaceutical company presents with complaint of primary infertility. On examination the size of testis was found to be normal. As a part of the workup, semen analysis was ordered, which shows azoospermia. Further, FSH and testosterone levels were found to be normal. The most likely cause of his infertility is:

19100

A patient with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism desires ovulation. What is the initial treatment of choice?

19101

A 34-yearold woman attends emergency gynaecology clinic because of vaginal bleeding and a positive pregnancy test. She has been using a Cu-IUCD for contraception. Ultrasound scan identifies a 6 weeks viable intrauterine pregnancy. The IUCD thread is visible on speculum examination:

19102

A woman was being evaluated for primary infertility. Her menstrual cycles are regular, with normal flow and dysmenorrhea. Thy physical examination is normal. HSG was done for tubal patency and the result is shown in this figure. What is the best step in management?

19103

A 22-year-old woman presents to take advice regarding the most appropriate postnatal contraception. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 40 weeks gestation 3 weeks prior. She is bottle feeding her baby. She and her partner are keen to space out child bearing by 1–2 years and wishing a reliable form of contraception. She has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and polycystic ovarian syndrome. Select the SINGLE most appropriate contraceptive option:

19104

The contraceptive injection, which lasts for 3 months, contains which one of the following:

19105

A 40-year-old woman complains of heavy regular periods for 5 years. Ultrasound scan has revealed no abnormality. Her family is complete. What is the most appropriate first line treatment for this patient?

19106

Which one of the following is appropriate when counseling a woman who is requesting postnatal contraception?

19107

A 27 year old P1L1 wants contraception for 6 months. She has dysmenorrhea and is a known case of complicated migraine. On USG, uterus has multiple fibroids and distorted uterine cavity. She also smokes around 10 cigarettes per day. Contraception of choice is

19108

A woman with an IUCD came to OPD for removal but the gynaecologist could not remove the IUCD as there was no thread visible to pull out. To locate the IUCD an USG was done, The IUCD seen besides ovary. How would you remove this IUCD?

19109

A 33-year-old woman cannot feel the string of her intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). Her last menstrual period (LMP) was 1 week ago. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best immediate action?

19110

Formation of the external genitalia in the fetus is influenced by multiple factors. Which of the following factors is the most important?

19111

During the menstrual cycle, the histologic appearance of the endometrium will change significantly. During the first half of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium becomes thicker and rebuilds largely in response to which of the following?

19112

The cells in the layers surrounding each oocyte produce ovarian hormones. Which of the following is the correct order of cell layers surrounding an ovarian follicle from the oocyte outward?

19113

During early embryonic development the germ cells must migrate. If germ cells fail to enter the developing genital ridge, which of the following is most likely to occur?

19114

A 48 year old female presented to gynaecology OPD with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. As a part of the work up, Endometrial biopsy was taken which shows the evidence of simple hyperplasia of endometrium without atypia. Treatment to be offered to the patient is?

19115

In the patient with hypothalamic pituitary dysfunction. What is the typical pattern of FSH and LH?

19116

Among the following, select the strongest prognostic factor associated with recurrent miscarriages:

19117

An intrauterine device is a stress free method of reversible contraception requiring single time application followed by followed by relatively long period of contraception. All of the following is a mechanism of action of IUCD except:

19118

A 12-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother having noticed a painless swelling on the left side of her neck following a recent cold. On examination, there is a smooth, fluctuant, non-tender swelling anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19119

What carcinogen is associated with thyroid cancer?

19120

What carcinogen is associated with cancer of the nasal cavity?

19121

What carcinogen is associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary tract?

19122

A 34-year-old man presents with a firm lump in the right side of his neck just below the mandible. The lump measures 3 cm. The skin appears attached to the lump and there is a small punctum visible. Diagnosis?

19123

A 14-year-old girl presents with a 2 cm soft, fluctuant lump on the right side of her neck adjacent to the angle of the mandible. The lump transilluminates and is cystic on ultrasound. Diagnosis?

19124

A 6 year old boy is brought to surgery OPD by his parents with 5 months history of a painless slow growing mass in the neck, left of the midline. An ultrasound was done which returned the following picture. Preferred treatment is:

19125

A 13 year old boy is brought to surgery OPD by his parents after they noticed a swellings in his neck. Cervical lymph nodes were also found enlarged. FNAC was done which shows multinucleated cells in the background of bubble-gum colloid. Likely diagnosis:

19126

A 55 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaints of a neck swelling. On clinical examination, the swelling was confirmed to be arising from thyroid gland. Further the serum calcitonin levels were also found to be raised. Pick incorrect:

19127

Treatment method to be avoided?

19128

What carcinogen is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

19129

A 6-year-old boy with abdominal pain is admitted to the paediatric surgical ward for investigation and treatment. He is known from a previous admission to have a Meckel diverticulum and his attending doctors wonder if it is the cause of his current symptoms. Which of the following is not a recognised presentation of a Meckel diverticulum?

19130

A 21-year-old previously healthy male arts student presents with a 2-day history of lower abdominal pain and loss of appetite. He is pyrexial and has a tender palpable mass in his right iliac fossa. Haematology reveals a pyogenic leukocytosis and a CT demonstrates a 13 × 15 cm walled-off abscess adjacent to a large complex inflammatory mass involving an inflamed appendix. What is the most appropriate management plan?

19131

A 63-year-old male patient presents with diarrhoea and fresh rectal bleeding for 1 month. He experiences occasional abdominal pain and loss of appetite. Select the single best diagnosis?

19132

A 69-year-old woman is awaiting surgery for a total hip replacement. She reports severe abdominal pain and nausea. She is currently taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication for pain relief. Select the single best diagnosis?

19133

A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and fever since yesterday, which now has localized in the pelvis. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 110/85mmHg, pulse rate of 98 bpm, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and fever of 38.2°C. Palpation of the abdomen elicits no tenderness, rebound or guarding, but there is mild tenderness on rectal exam. Which one of the following would be the next best step in management of this patient?

19134

A newborn presents with profuse bilious vomiting at birth with fullness in the epigastric region. Which of the following pathologies is this associated with?

19135

Within a few hours of being born a baby presents with bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. Which one of the following is the likely cause?

19136

A 4-week-old baby presents with his mother with a 3-day history of absolute constipation. Examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen with absent bowel sounds. Plain abdominal X-ray (AXR) shows a distended colon. A rectal biopsy is performed and demonstrates a lack of mural ganglionic cells. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19137

A 52-year-old patient with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes was admitted to the ICU after having an emergency Hartmann procedure for an obstructing colorectal carcinoma. He is currently ventilated on ICU as he, unfortunately, suffered a cardiac arrest postoperatively and needed ventilatory support. Five days postoperatively he has a temperature spike and his inflammatory markers have risen. Blood cultures are sent that are positive for Gram-negative bacilli. Based on this Gram stain, which of the following is the most likely causal organism that will be found/ looked for?

19138

A 37-year-old male was admitted with a perforated duodenal ulcer. At laparotomy he was found to have a perforation at the posterior part of the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following anatomical structures lies just posterior to this?

19139

A 48-year-old man presents to your practice several months after gastrectomy with complaint of dyspepsia. This problem occurs mostly 30 minutes after meals. Dyspepsia is worse when he takes toast and cereal for his breakfast. Which one of the following will be the most important advice to give?

19140

A 70-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with progressive abdominal distention for the past 3 days. She has not passed any stool or flatus. She has vomited several times since this morning. She relates that symptoms started developing 3 days ago after she fell off her bed. On examination she, has a blood pressure of 100/75mmHg, pulse of 90bpm, respiratory rate of 21 breaths per minute and temperature of 37.6 deg C. There is no tenderness, rebound or guarding on abdominal examination. Which one of the following is most likely to be the cause of this presentation?

19141

A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset severe pain on righ lower quadrant and and back pain. She has the history of deep vein thrombosis 2 months ago, for which she was started on warfarin. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 110/75mmHg, pulse rate of 140 bpm and temperature of 37.2 deg C. There is a tender mass in right iliac fossa (RIF). Plain X-ray of her abdomen is obtained and is shown in the following photograph. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19142

A 55-year-old writer presents to A and E with abdominal pain and haematemesis. On examination, he is ethanolic with hepatomegaly. He is also noted to have spider naevi and palmar erythema. Select the appropriate diagnosis:

19143

A 2-year-old boy presents with dark-red rectal bleeding and general pallor. There has been no vomiting and abdominal examination is unremarkable. Select the likely diagnosis

19144

A 73-year-old homeless man has a history of recurrent sore throats for which he has completed a course of antibiotics, but there has been no improvement. He presents to A&E with a lump on the left side of his neck. Select the likely diagnosis:

19145

A 25-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with anorexia, abdominal pain, and diarrhea over the previous 24 hours. She has vomited and has a low-grade pyrexia. She is tender in the lower abdomen and on rectal examination. Select the likely diagnosis:

19146

A 69-year-old woman is diagnosed with the carcinoma of the cecum. Which one of the following is more likely to have been her initial presenting symptoms?

19147

A 65-year-old woman presents to your practice becauseshe has noted streaks of blood on her stool on different occasions during the past week. This occasions were preceded by a period of constipation. The only medication she is currently on is panadeine for a back pain that started 3 weeks ago. She is otherwise healthy. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

19148

A patient is having an emergency upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for a bleeding gastric ulcer. The ulcer is found to be in the lower greater curvature of the stomach. Which of the following arteries supplies this area?

19149

An 8-month-old boy presents with vomiting and rectal bleeding. There is a mass palpable in the left side of the abdomen. Select the appropriate diagnosis:

19150

A newborn baby boy is found to have visible intestine emerging from his abdomen. There is no covering to the contents. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19151

A 63-year-old man underwent a total gastrectomy for cancer stomach. While in the ICU, 12 hours postoperatively, his blood pressure has fallen to 80 mm Hg systolic, he is peripherally cold and his capillary refill time is 5 seconds. Further, he has been oliguric for the last 3 hours. Likely diagnosis:

19152

Which of the following statements regarding hypovolaemic shock are true?

19153

What features would you expect to find in a patient with haemorrhagic shock?

19154

In which of the following cases might tachycardia accompany shock?

19155

A 22-year-old man is brought into the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He sustained an open fracture of the right tibia and fibula. His HR is 110 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 108/85, respiratory rate (RR) 28, urine output is 30 mL in the last hour. Which class of haemorrhagic shock does he fall into?

19156

A 86-year-old man is admitted with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 5.6 g/dL. The attending doctor prescribes 4 units of blood. These 4 units are transfused over a period of 6 h. Four hours later the patient is found to be having difficulty in breathing. Chest examination reveals fine crepitations bilaterally. Chest X-ray confirms pulmonary oedema. Likely diagnosis:

19157

A 26-year-old man is admitted following a sudden onset of severe headache coupled with photophobia and neck stiffness. Select the most appropriate investigation

19158

A 65-year-old man with severe pancreatitis is intubated and ventilated in the intensive care unit. His intra-abdominal pressure is measured using a catheter in his bladder connected to manometry. Which one of the following describes the pressure effect seen in abdominal compartment syndrome?

19159

A 27-year-old woman sustains multiple rib fractures in a road traffic accident. When is an urgent thoracotomy not indicated?

19160

A 39-year-old woman was a pedestrian hit by a car while crossing the road. She complains of chest and abdominal pains. On examination, her GCS score is 14/15 (E4, V4, M6). Her vital observations are as follows: BP 86/32 mmHg; pulse 145/min. She has bruising and tenderness over her lower left 9th and 10th ribs. She has rebound tenderness and guarding over the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her chest X-ray demonstrates left rib fractures affecting ribs 8–10. Select the likely diagnosis:

19161

A 44-year-old man is involved in a road traffic accident. He was the driver of a delivery truck, travelling at 50 miles/h, and was hit from the side. On arrival at A&E he is unstable. His vital observations are as follows: BP 90/32 mmHg; pulse 160/min; respirator rate 45 breaths/min. On examination, his neck veins are engorged and distended. His trachea is central with quiet heart sounds. Select the likely diagnosis:

19162

A 78-year-old woman is admitted with a dense right-sided weakness. She has reduced consciousness but is moving her left arm and both legs normally. She is confused and disorientated but opens her eyes in response to vocal stimuli and follows commands. What is this score of patient on the Glasgow coma scale?

19163

A 35-year-old woman fell from the roof of her house. Paramedics on arrival report that she is opening her eyes to speech, moves in response to painful stimuli by withdrawing her arms and is using inappropriate words. Her vital signs are stable. What is her current Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

19164

A 24-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident where she sustains acsplenic injury.cWhich of the following statements describes the classification of splenic injury?

19165

An otherwise healthy, 28-year-old motorcyclist rider got involved in a road traffic accident and was admitted with a femoral fracture and a fracture-dislocation of his elbow treated by internal fixation. On the second postoperative day he is hypoxic, confused, and agitated and has developed a petechial rash. A chest x ray was obtained, which may show:

19166

A 40-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain, dyspnea and a fever of 39 edeg C. She has arrived from Canada to Sydney 2 days ago by air. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in management?

19167

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department after sudden onset of the right calf pain and paralysis. The right dorsal pedis pulse is not perceptible. The limb feels cold and is pale. The patient is given analgesics. After starting the patient on heparin, which one of the following would be the most appropriate step in management?

19168

A 67-year-old man is admitted as an emergency with back pain. He is found to be shocked with a blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An epigastric mass is palpable and tender. Select the most appropriate investigation:

19169

An 80-year-old retired cook has noticed that the edge of an ulcer situated above the medial malleolus for 17 years has recently become heaped up and bleeds easily on contact. Select the likely diagnosis:

19170

An 8-week-old infant is diagnosed with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH). What is the most common cause of a CDH?

19171

A 48-year-old-woman presents with a long-standing, painless swelling on her right thigh which disappears on lying flat. She is otherwise well. On examination, the swelling is bluish and non-pulsatile. It lies below and lateral to the pubic tubercle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19172

A 28-year-old man presents with abdominal and groin pain following a rugby match. Likely diagnosis

19173

A 40-year-old woman presents with a painful groin. There is a small palpable mass, which is located in her right upper thigh. Likely diagnosis:

19174

Gastrointestinal consequences of major burns include which of the following?

19175

According to Wallace rules, select the single best answer:

19176

Select best pairing of wound classification with the description:

19177

Which is a feature of a keloid scar?

19178

A 62-year-old asymptomatic man is noted to have a prostate that is normal in shape and size on digital rectal examination. His PSA level is 30 ng/mL. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?

19179

A 72-year-old man comes to see you in the GP practice complaining of a 6-month history of urinary hesitancy, poor stream and occasional incontinence. He is increasingly troubled by his symptoms. Blood test results show a prostate specific antigen of 30 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

19180

A 60-year-old man complains of haematuria and painful micturition, and he occasionally finds that his micturition stream suddenly stops. He has learned to restart his stream by changing position. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality:

19181

A 70-year-old male, a heavy smoker for more than 50 years, complains of painless, profuse and periodic haematuria for 6 weeks. The blood is uniformly mixed with the urine. He has frequency of micturition and some retropubic discomfort. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Preferred treatment:

19182

A 75-year-old male complains of general malaise, lethargy, abdominal distension and urinary incontinence. On examination he has a large painless mass in his suprapubic region arising from the pelvis and has continuous urinary dribbling. The mass is dull on percussion. He is a type 2 diabetic on oral medication. Management is:

19183

A 60-year-old man complains of haematuria associated with pain in his left loin radiating to the lower abdomen for about 2 months. He passes clots that are worm-like. On examination he has an enlarged left kidney, and scrotal examination reveals a varicocele of which he was unaware?

19184

A 63-year-old man presents to the GP practice following two episodes of passing blood in his urine. These episodes were not associated with pain. He has no past medical history of note but is a lifelong smoker. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

19185

A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent attacks of urinary tract infection. On every occasion this was successfully treated with antibiotics. In view of several such episodes in the past, she underwent an IVU, which settled the diagnosis. Likely cause:

19186

A 60-year-old female patient was seen as an emergency with high temperature, rigors, and pain in her right loin. She had a blood pressure of 160/70 mmHg, bounding pulse of 90/minute, and extreme tenderness in her right loin:

19187

A 45-year-old female patient complains of nagging pain in her right loin and urinary frequency for several months. On examination she has tenderness in her loin over the kidney. Urine examination shows red blood cells and a growth of a gram negative bacteria:

19188

A 40-year-old man has come to A and E complaining of a sudden onset of very severe pain in his left loin of 4 hours duration, radiating to the front of the lumbar area and groin and the left testis. He has vomited a couple of times and has urinary frequency. On examination he is writhing in pain and cannot find a comfortable position:

19189

A male child of 3 years has been brought by his mother, who noticed while bathing him that the right side of his abdomen felt larger than the left and was asymmetrical; she thought that there was probably a lump in his abdomen:

19190

A 70-year-old male complains of poor micturition stream, post-micturition dribbling and a feeling of insufficient emptying of his bladder. He has some dysuria. On occasions he has found that shortly after micturition he again passes a large amount of urine. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Likely diagnosis:

19191

A 35-year-old female patient, complains of frequency of micturition and bilateral loin discomfort. She has low grade pyrexia, general malaise and weight loss. Clinical examination reveals no abnormality. Urine examination carried out by her doctor shows sterile pyuria. Likely organism involved:

19192

Which of the following statements is/are false?

19193

A 34-year-old man with a history of renal stones presents with a 3-hour history of right-sided loin pain. On examination, he looks unwell and his right kidney is palpable. The presence of a large stone is confirmed on X-ray. Blood results show a urea of 25 mmol/L and a creatinine of 400 μmol/L. On his previous admission last month, his urea and electrolytes were normal. Which of the following would be indicated in the first instance?

19194

A 52-year-old man complains of thickening of his foreskin over a period of 2 years. During this period he has had difficulty in retracting his foreskin, as a result of which he has been having difficulty in maintaining good hygiene. He finds that his urinary stream tends to spray around. Likely diagnosis:

19195

Identify the suture

19196

A 71-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful, enlarging lump just in front of his right ear, which has been present for 2 months. He woke this morning to find that the right side of his face was drooping. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

19197

Most common pathogen incriminated in necrotizing fasciitis is:

19198

A motorcyclist sustained blunt trauma abdomen in a road side accident and was brought to causality by passer byes. FAST was done and splenic injury was confirmed, followed by immediate laparotomy. The surgeon however decides to put in a drain. Best place to place the drain in such cases would be:

19199

A 35-year-old man is admitted with systolic blood pressure (BP) of 60 mm Hg and a heart rate (HR) of 150 bpm following a gunshot wound to the liver. What is the effect on the kidneys?

19200

An elderly male has been rescued from a burning building. He was lying unconscious when spotted by the rescue team. His face is blistered and eyelids are swollen. His BP is 114/76, HR is 90/min and RR is 30 minute. Next step in management should be:

19201

An industrial worker sustained severe burns with hydrofluoric acid, even before the gravity of his ailment could be identified correctly, the patient died. Most common cause of death could be:

19202

Identify the vascular structure:

19203

A 15-year-old female presents with RUQ abdominal pain. Workup reveals a choledochal cyst. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

19204

Which of the following statements is false?

19205

Which of the following statements is false?

19206

TC99 labeled sulphur colloid can detect:

19207

A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent attacks of fever with rigors, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice with itching. Biochemistry shows a jaundice of obstructive nature. CT scan shows intrahepatic ductal dilatation with stones. Definitive treatment of the patient is:

19208

A 45-year-old woman underwent an US for suspected biliary pain. The US of the biliary tract was normal but showed a solid lesion in the liver. Therefore, she had a CECT scan that showed a vascular lesion surrounding a solid mass with central scarring. Recommended treatment is:

19209

A 32 year old female presented to surgery emergency with complaints of pain right hypochondrium. A diagnosis of acute calculous choleycystitis was established. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon noticed that the under-surface of the liver has several lesions that are blue in colour. Ideal treatment is:

19210

A 35-year-old woman who is on the contraceptive pill presents with right upper quadrant aching pain. She is fit without any physical findings. Her LFTs and other blood tests are normal. US of the liver shows a single well-demarcated hyperechoic mass and CT scan demonstrates a well-circumscribed vascular solid tumour about 1.5 cm in size. Recommended treatment is:

19211

A 40-year-old man presents with dull, persistent upper abdominal pain, weakness, weight loss and occasional fever. He had one episode of hematemesis. Abdominal examination shows an enlarged liver with a mass in the right lobe. Liver function tests show elevation of the transaminases and much-raised alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Likely diagnosis:

19212

A 35-year-old man presents with general ill health, weight loss, anorexia and malaise for several weeks. He has developed jaundice for the last 2 weeks; he has no pruritus. Abdominal examination shows a tender hepatomegaly. Liver function tests show raised bilirubin and transaminases. Likely diagnosis:

19213

Which of these statements is false?

19214

A 13-year-old female presenting with RUQ abdominal pain is suspected of having a choledochal cyst. Which of the following studies would be least helpful in confirming the diagnosis in this case?

19215

A 25-year-old man complains of generally feeling unwell with fever and weight loss. He has had bloodstained motions on and off for the last 6 weeks after he returned from the Pradhan Mantri rural road project where he was working for 6 months. On examination he has a tender right upper quadrant with hepatomegaly. US shows a hypoechoic cavity in the right lobe with ill-defined borders. Ideal treatment of the patient would be:

19216

 An intraoperative cholangiogram is performed during an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy on a 30-year-old woman. She has no previous surgical history. There is a 0.8-cm filling defect in the distal common bile duct (CBD). The surgeon should:

19217

An 85-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting. He has not passed gas or moved his bowels for the last 5 days. Abdominal films show dilated small bowel, no air in the rectum and air in the biliary tree. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

19218

A 40-year-old woman, on the waiting list for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, complains of recurrent right upper quadrant discomfort which is not too bad for hospital admission but bad enough to see her general practitioner (GP). The GP found that the patient has a smooth globular mass in the right upper quadrant moving with respiration and slightly tender:

19219

A 52-year-old woman, on the waiting list for laparoscopic cholecystectomy, has been admitted as an emergency with increasing right upper quadrant pain, swinging pyrexia and extreme tenderness over the gall bladder. She is toxic and has leucocytosis with raised inflammatory markers; ultrasound of the gall bladder shows thickened gall bladder enveloped by omentum with peri-cholecystic fluid:

19220

A 74-year-old woman complains of intermittent generalized abdominal pain, distension and vomiting for almost 1 week. Over the past couple of days she has become much worse and has been admitted as a surgical emergency. On examination she is grossly dehydrated. Abdominal examination shows generalized distension and tenderness without any lumps or scars:

19221

A 50-year-old woman complains of a 4 months history of right-sided abdominal pain and nausea. Her vital signs are stable, and she is afebrile. Her physical examination is unremarkable except for hepatomegaly. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows an 8-cm well-circumscribed cyst with rosette appearance. What is the preferred treatment of this patient?

19222

A 35-year-old woman who underwent a sleeve gastrectomy 3 years ago, presents with regain of weight and relapse of diabetes. She presently has a BMI of 52 and is otherwise fit and healthy. Which procedure is likely to benefit her most with this history?

19223

A 45-year-old man presents with a BMI of 45. He has been obese for the past 10 years without any medical comorbidity except snoring during sleep for the past 1 year. Which bariatric procedure is best suited for his ailment?

19224

A 20-year-old man, a college student, presents with a history of weight gain over the past 5 years. He has a BMI of 40 and is particularly worried about his physique. He has tried dieting and exercise and appears well motivated and wants a safe procedure and agrees for regular follow up. Which bariatric procedure should be recommended for him?

19225

A 42-year-old woman undergoes right total mastectomy with axillary lymph node clearance for breast cancer. Two days postoperatively it was noted that she had winging of her right scapula. This is most likely caused by damage to which of the following nerves?

19226

As part of her triple assessment, a 55-year-old woman undergoes a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of a breast lump. The cytology comes back as C3. Which one of the following best describes C3?

19227

Locally advanced breast carcinoma includes:

19228

A 49-year-old woman undergoes a triple assessment for a left upper outer quadrant breast lump. The results of the clinical assessment show the lump to be 4 cm in diameter, with mobile ipsilateral axillary lymph nodes and no evidence of distant metastases. Which of the following is her TNM classification?

19229

Carcinoma breast management: Hormone therapy is avoided during:

19230

A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed to be having a 2.5 cm breast cyst. It was aspirated. 3 months later she develops a swelling at the same site. Examination reveals a palpable, tender 2 cm mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Breast ultrasound shows a smooth outline and no internal echoes or posterior enhancement. What is the most appropriate management in this patient?

19231

Trastuzumab (Herceptin) treatment in breast cancer. Pick correct:

19232

A 32 year old female complains chest pain and mastalgia. The pain does not show any relation with menstrual cycle. She also does not report any history of thoracic trauma. On examination a nonsuppurative, tender swelling of the anterior chest wall is noticed. Management of the condition would include:

19233

Railroad track calcifications seen on mammography are related to:

19234

A 34 year old female underwent breast augmentation surgery. About a year later she presents to surgery OPD with complaints of change in her breast shape and size, and increasing pain, firmness, and swelling over a period of weeks. USG was done which shows snow storm appearance. The likely condition is:

19235

The sentimag technique of Sentinel lymph node biopsy involves use of:

19236

A 39-year-old patient presents to your office with a left 3.5-cm breast tumor, which on core needle biopsy, is shown to be an invasive ductal cancer. On left axillary examination, she has a hard non fixed lymph node. A biopsy of a left supraclavicular node is positive for malignancy. Her stage is currently classified as?

19237

A 65-year-old woman presents with a large (5-cm) mass in her right breast. On physical exam, there is overlying ulceration of the skin and concern for fixation to the underlying pectoralis muscle. She is noted to have several enlarged, matted axillary lymph nodes on examination. Core biopsy reveals ER-negative, progesterone receptor (PR)-negative, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)-negative invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. After staging scans demonstrate no evidence of distant metastatic disease, her management should begin with:

19238

Which of these following statements are true?

19239

A 35-year-old office employee presents with breast pain and lumpiness in both breasts. She also complains that the breast pain is particularly worse before her periods. Likely diagnosis:

19240

A 28 year-old woman presents to surgery OPD. She has a strong family history of breast cancer. Two of her sisters, her mother and her maternal daughter of aunt had breast cancer at an early age. She wants to know her risk of getting breast cancer. Optimum intervention would be:

19241

A 48-year-old woman feels a hard lump that is painless and gradually increasing in size over the past 4 months. Her mammogram shows the following picture. BIRADS staging would be:

19242

A 24year old young woman presents with a painless mass in the left breast. She had to stop breastfeeding 2 weeks ago because she had to join her shift duties at a local call center. An USG was advised which shows fat fluid levels. Likely diagnosis is:

19243

A 45 year old female presented to surgery OPD with complaint of having a breast lump in left breast, outer upper quadrant. The lump was hard in consistency. Mammography findings were inconclusive, hence MRI was advised, which showed presence of 2 other masses too (one in the each breast) histopathology returned the following picture. Likely diagnosis is:

19244

ASHA is not a depot holder of

19245

Dietary modification to prevent cardiovascular diseases is

19246

The number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 live births is

19247

The couple has given birth to their first child, family is entering in which phase?

19248

As an intern you are advised by orthopedic specialist to remove the plaster of paris cast of a patient. The right bin to dispose the cast is

19249

A female worker aged 25–45 years, educated till 10th standard, married working in same village with good communication skills is

19250

The following logo is of

19251

A cohort study was conducted between 2 populations one taking green tea and other group not taking green tea. The study was to check association intake of green tea with development of diabetes and Risk ratio was found to be 0.8. What is the correct interpretation?

19252

Magnesium ions are found in

19253

Hand washing to prevent nosocomial infection is an example of

19254

Bed side teaching by eliciting palpation, percussion is _____ domain of learning

19255

In WHO Road to Health chart, upper and lower limit represents

19256

Primary prevention includes

19257

Yellow colored biomedical waste bag is treated by

19258

The correct sequence of phases after an earthquake is

19259

Vaccine can be stored at sub center for

19260

Selection error while conducting randomized controlled trial can be best reduced by

19261

Which of the following is true about female health worker?

19262

A researcher found some correlation between fatty food intake and obesity. He did this by collecting data from food manufacturers and hospitals respectively. This study is

19263

Application of incubation period is all, except

19264

Which among the following is not a ratio

19265

Human Development Index includes which of the following?

19266

DALY includes

19267

A patient with 32 weeks of gestation presents to gynec OPD with complaints of watery discharge and pain in abdomen. On examination there is rupture of membranes present. You have posted the patient for early delivery and have asked the intern to continuously monitor the fetal cardiac activity. This is _____ level of prevention

19268

As a medical officer, you have been notified by your health worker that people of a village are affected with diarrhea cases. On investigation, you have found that the members of the village have attended a fair. Identify the type of epidemic

19269

Which among the following is not a criterion for acute severe malnutrition

19270

Newborn stabilization Unit is established at the level of

19271

A student has applied for visa for higher education in Africa. The vaccine which needs to be mandatorily given before two weeks of departure as per International Health Regulations is

19272

As a medical officer, you are advised to establish a nodal center during floods. The nodal center for action ideally should be at

19273

Birth rate is high and death rate is reduced. Population is in _________ stage

19274

Choose the incorrect statement

19275

Which of the following is a socioeconomic scale for urban areas?

19276

Vaccines given at 6th week under National Immunization Schedule are

19277

The policy makers want to know whether introduction of a new rotavirus vaccine in the national immunization programme is resulting in reduction of morbidity and mortality from rotavirus disease. Which of the following studies will they have to conduct to find an answer?

19278

When screening test is used in series mode then

19279

Number of beds in UCHC are

19280

Triage has how many colors

19281

Sensitivity determines

19282

Disposal mechanism of mercury is

19283

Today is

19284

Incorrect statement about Sustainable Development Goal is

19285

The entire population of a given community is screened and all those judged as being free of Colon cancer are questioned extensively about their diet. These people are then followed-up for several years to see whether their eating habits will predict their risk of developing Colon cancer. This is an example of

19286

Disease not included under Mission Indradhanush is

19287

INSPIRE is

19288

Net reproduction rate is defined as

19289

Which among the following is an incorrect match

19290

Incorrect statement among the following is

19291

Which among the following is a killed vaccine?

19292

The extra calories during pregnancy and lactation respectively are

19293

Which among the following is not a high-risk pregnancy

19294

Identify the given statistical diagram

19295

Most efficient route of transmission of HIV

19296

Nikshay is used for tracking

19297

Population covered under +/- 1 SD of mean is

19298

A 40-year-old male working in glass industry presents with cough and breathlessness. The possible pneumoconiosis is

19299

A child presents with fever, swelling in the neck region. The child complains of pain in the groin region and on examination tenderness is present. The most probable diagnosis is

19300

The best indicator of level of air pollution is

19301

The following insect transmits

19302

Repeated exposure to ______ can cause permanent deafness

19303

Which among the following disease is not included under National Vector borne Disease control Programme?

19304

Safety officers need to be appointed for every

19305

Economic benefits of any programme are compared with costs incurred in

19306

The programme of following logo categorizes anemic pregnant women in which color

19307

Under ESI scheme, beneficiaries get 70 percent wages for 3 months as a part of

19308

True about vector is

19309

The incorrect statement about the given image is

19310

Recommended protein intake for Indian adults is

19311

Epidemic dropsy is caused by this toxin

19312

Drug of choice for treatment of Kala azar is

19313

Expert opinions can be derived in

19314

The life cycle is shown in figure is of

19315

CARE supports

19316

During COVID–19 pandemic, vaccination scheduling was done with the help of

19317

A 4-year-old child presents with history of difficulty in reading during night times and dryness of eye. The most common cause for this condition is

19318

The following logo depicts

19319

Saathiya is

19320

Daily fluorine intake levels associated with development of crippling fluorosis

19321

The drug of choice for a patient presenting with fever, chills and rigors residing in Slums of Delhi is

19322

Kit for lower abdominal pain is

19323

Which among the following is a measure of dispersion

19324

A study was conducted, and 200 diabetics were enrolled. Of which, 100 diabetics were asked to follow a keto diet and other 100 diabetics were given metformin. After 6 months of therapy blood sugar levels were compared in both the groups. The test of significance appropriate for this study is

19325

Identify the incorrect statement

19326

A 60-year-old male patient presents to Ophthalmology OPD with complaints of diminished vision and blurring of vision. On examination Visual acuity was found to be 1/60. This condition is called as _______ and most common cause for same is _________

19327

Mark the correct statement

19328

Surveillance used to identify missed cases

19329

Which of the following is socratic method

19330

POSHAN Shakti Nirman is

19331

A population is divided into relevant subgroups and random sample selection is done from each of the subgroups. The type of sampling method is

19332

Functions of WHO includes all except

19333

The most dangerous strain of Dengue virus is

19334

In, Acute flaccid paralysis surveillance, residual paralysis is checked on

19335

Most common opportunistic infection among HIV patients in India is

19336

An animal handler reports to OPD with complaints of dog bite. He gives a history of completing pre-exposure prophylaxis schedule 33 days ago. The best course of action for this patient now is

19337

Most satisfactory/best method of solid waste disposal is

19338

Important vector for Japanese Encephalitis in North India is

19339

Fecal contamination of drinking water is evaluated by

19340

Laqshya focusses on improving ______ quality

19341

The following figure depicts

19342

Under Home based Newborn care, payment is made to ASHA for all of the following except

19343

Ortho toludine test is used to detect

19344

Dysphagia lusoria is most commonly caused by _______ :

19345

Ring of Waldeyer system consists of all except:

19346

Which of the following syndrome is associated with anosmia?

19347

Mid tracheostomy is done over:

19348

Surgical markings for facial nerve are all except:

19349

Most important waveform morphology in BERA is wave:

19350

A patient hears better in noisy surroundings. It is called:

19351

Lesion at which level leads to loss of taste and lacrimation in facial nerve insult:

19352

Which is not true for Angiofibroma?

19353

HIV affects immune system. Primary change brought about is:

19354

Galles test is used for:

19355

Which of the following is not a premalignant lesion?

19356

Focal length of lens used in microscope for tympanoplasty and MLS is _____mm:

19357

Hemlich maeuvre is done for:

19358

A 45 year female singer is diagnosed with nodule of Singer. She wants to undergo laser surgery. Which of the following lasers is commonly used for laryngeal surgery:

19359

Semicircular canal perceives:

19360

Impact of force in Jarjaway septal fracture is from:

19361

Hypoglossal nerve supplies all of the following except:

19362

All of the following can be seen in Superior Laryngeal Nerve palsy except:

19363

In right CSOM (tubotympanic disease), test of weber will be:

19364

Facial nerve palsy can be seen in all except:

19365

At birth, all of the following are of adult size except:

19366

Which of the following joint is seen between Malleus and Incus?

19367

Length of cartilaginous EAC is:

19368

Frontal recess is bounded posteriorly by:

19369

Perception of sound of one by another person is called __________:

19370

Mikulicz cells on histopathology are diagnostic of:

19371

Lever ratio of middle ear is due to axis between:

19372

Dehiscence in bony EAC causing spread of infection to parotid space is ___________:

19373

Internal nasal valve angle measures _________ degrees:

19374

Most common cause of stridor in infants is:

19375

Vidian Neurectomy is surgical treatment of:

19376

Oro antral fistula is common complication of ___________________surgery:

19377

All the muscles of Pharyngeal wall except stylopharygeus are supplied by ______ nerve:

19378

Sinusitis, anemia, neuropathy and rash are diagnostic of:

19379

Drug of choice for early Otosclerosis is:

19380

Junction of Upper lateral cartilage and nasal bone is called:

19381

The only unpaired elastic cartilage of Larynx is:

19382

The plexus of Superior Laryngeal and Recurrent Laryngeal nerves is called:

19383

A 66 year male underwent Total Laryngectomy. For voice rehabilitation, doctor has advised esophageal speech. The source of voice in Esophageal speech after Total Laryngectomy is:

19384

A 10 year old boy presents with right conductive hearing loss. On Impedance audiometry, there is B type curve and child is posted for myringotomy. Myringotomy for OME is performed in __________________part of Tympanic membrane:

19385

Sign of Phelp is pathognomic radiological sign of:

19386

A 62 year male presents to ENT OPD with a non-healing ulcer on right buccal mucosa 4x2 cm, extending to RMT and lower alveolus with loosening of molars. Neck examination reveals single enlarged lymph node approximately 2x2 cm, hard and fixed in level IB. No evidence of metastasis. Biopsy is suggestive of Invasive SCC. Staging of the patient will be:

19387

Variable cell present adjacent to axilla of Middle turbinate is:

19388

Travelling wave theory of Cochlear sensitivity was proposed by:

19389

A 35 year old female is diagnosed with disease of Meniere. She gives history of similar disease is her mother. Inheritance pattern of disease of Meniere is:

19390

A 3rd year resident is planning to operate a case of Pleomorphic Adenoma of left parotid gland. His guide warns him about facial nerve. Most constant landmark for identifying facial nerve during parotid surgery is:

19391

A 47 year male presented with left LMN Facial Palsy. On examination, there was loss of stapedial reflex but normal test of Schirmer. Likely site (segment) of lesion is:

19392

Name the surgery in which following prosthesis is used:

19393

Identify the instrument:

19394

Identify drug of choice:

19395

Omega shaped epiglottis is diagnostic of:

19396

Most common tumour of cerebello-pontine angle is:

19397

Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis is caused by _____________ virus:

19398

Incision given for external maxillectomy is:

19399

A 68 year male with pain, fever, unilateral ear discharge and ipsilateral facial palsy is most likely suffering from:

19400

Prosthesis commonly used in post laryngectomy patient is:

19401

Permanent perforation is characterized by absence of ________________ layer:

19402

Classical radiological sign in fracture floor of orbit is:

19403

All of the following are types of Radiation therapy except:

19404

Most common organism causing Squamosal CSOM:

19405

Radioactive scan for identifying parathyroid nodule:

19406

In ear of Lempert incision, the approach is:

19407

Diverticulum resulting from dehiscence in inferior constrictor muscle is:

19408

Most common histological variant of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is:

19409

All of the following are direct or indirect branches if external carotid artery except:

19410

Double density sign on CT PNS is characteristic of:

19411

Sign of Auspitz is seen in:

19412

Malar rash is found in:

19413

A patient presented with recurrent oral aphthous ulcers with genital ulcers, Ophthalmologic examination show uveitis. History of fever is present. Most likely diagnosis:

19414

A 30 years old male presented with pruritic, flat topped polygonal, shiny violaceous papules with flexural distribution. The most likely diagnosis is:

19415

A 30 years old sexually active male presented with painful, grouped vesicular eruption on penile shaft for 4 days. He gave past history of similar lesions four times in the past one year. Such lesions are associated with:

19416

A six years old boy presents with generalized seizure disorder and hypo pigmented skin lesions. On examination he has tiny red nodules over the nose and cheeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

19417

Tense blisters on flexor surfaces and anti-BPAG1 & anti-BPAG2 antibodies suggest the diagnosis of:

19418

A lady has family history of asthma. She presented with itching in cubital fossa and popliteal fossa. Most likely diagnosis:

19419

A 50 years old patient presented with erythematous scaly plaques over trunk and extremities for last 10 years. Lesions are occasionally itchy. There is history of remission and relapse with exacerbation during winters. Most likely diagnosis:

19420

Koebner phenomenon is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

19421

A 23 years old lady presents with vesicular lesions in the buccal mucosa & flaccid blisters on the skin. The possible diagnosis is:

19422

A lady was found to have active genital warts. Her lesions are recurrent. But her husband does not have any lesion. What will be your advice to prevent the transmission from wife to husband:

19423

A 7 years old child with history of asthma has developed itching and rashes in the axilla, groin and popliteal region. Most likely diagnosis:

19424

Spaghetti and meatball appearance is seen in:

19425

A 5 months old pregnant lady developed hyperpigmentation over the skin of forehead. Most likely diagnosis:

19426

A 50 years old man has a 2 years old history of facial bullae and oral ulcers. Microscopic smear from skin lesions is most likely to disclose:

19427

A female of reproductive age group has been started on 13-cis-retinoic acid. Which of the following side-effect should be kept in mind?

19428

A young student had eaten seafood and now presented with urticaria. He requests a non-sedating drug as he has to appear in an exam next day. Which of the following anti-histamine drug is preferred:

19429

24 years old male complains of mild urethral discharge after sexual contact with a sex-worker. Drug used to treat such a patient:

19430

A 34-years old maize farmer attended the Skin OPD with the complaints of diarrhea, dermatitis and mental retardation. Most likely diagnosis:

19431

A young female presented with severe sunburn after few minutes of exposure to sunlight, freckling in sun-exposed areas, dry skin and skin pigmentation. Most likely diagnosis:

19432

First-line drug for acne comedones is:

19433

Wickham striae is classically seen in:

19434

Condyloma acuminata is caused by:

19435

Slapped cheek appearance is caused by:

19436

Most common form of cutaneous TB in India is:

19437

Most potent antileprotic drug is:

19438

Koebner phenomenon is characteristic of:

19439

Gottron papule is seen in:

19440

Incubation period of scabies is:

19441

A patient presents with the following lesions. The diagnosis is:

19442

A patient presented with recurrent raw lesions on the genitals as shown in the image. These lesions healed without hyperpigmentation. Most likely diagnosis:

19443

A child presented with dome shaped, pearly lesions on forehead. Mother also had similar lesions. Most likely diagnosis:

19444

A patient presents with lesions as shown. The likely pathogen is:

19445

Identify the organism:

19446

A patient comes with oval to circular hypopigmented macules on trunk. He reports long standing fever a few years back. His nerves are normal. Which investigation is needed:

19447

A young male developed arthritis after the skin lesion appeared as shown in the image. Which drug will be beneficial in this case:

19448

Identify the clinical condition shown below:

19449

Identify the condition shown in the image below:

19450

A 65 years old patient presented to the OPD with the lesion shown in the image below. The lesion is present for the past 2 years. Most likely diagnosis:

19451

A 25-years old female presented lesions in the oral cavity as shown below. Her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed and there is a family history of dental amalgam. Most likely diagnosis:

19452

Identify the condition shown below:

19453

Identify the condition shown below:

19454

A young male presented with non-pruritic lesions all over the body including his hands as shown below. There is a past history of taking medications. Most likely diagnosis:

19455

Identify the condition shown below:

19456

Which of the following condition is associated with the lesion shown in the image:

19457

Which of the following organism is associated with the skin condition shown in the image:

19458

A patient presented with sores in the mouth and rashes on the hands and soles of feet. Causative agent for the given clinical condition is:

19459

A patient presented with pitting of nails, subungual hyperkeratosis and oil drop changes. Clinical image is shown below. Most likely diagnosis:

19460

A known case of borderline tuberculoid leprosy was undergoing treatment. Which of the following nerve is commonly affected in such a case:

19461

Such a presentation is seen in:

19462

Such a presentation is seen in:

19463

Drug of choice for this condition:

19464

Such lesions are suggestive of:

19465

A female presented to the Dermatology OPD with the complaints of hair loss for 3 weeks. She had a history of COVID-19 infection 3 months back. Most likely diagnosis:

19466

An obese lady presented to the Skin OPD with the complains of dark patches over neck as shown in the figure. It is associated with:

19467

Management of such a condition:

19468

Treatment of such a condition:

19469

Spot diagnosis:

19470

Site of injury developed this kind of lesion. This is known as:

19471

Removal of psoriatic scales leads to this kind of presentation. This is known as:

19472

Management of such a condition:

19473

What is the angle subtended by top most letter of Snellen chart at distance of 6 meter:

19474

Corneal endothelium is embryo logically derived from:

19475

Cause of decreased vision due to defect shown in visual?

19476

False about Bitot spots is?

19477

All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except:

19478

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

19479

Changes seen in the conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency:

19480

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of the of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas on the palpebral conjunctiva is:

19481

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

19482

Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

19483

A 28 years old male complains of glare in both eyes. The cornea shows whorl-like opacities in the epithelium. He gives history of long term treatment with Amiodarone. The most likely diagnosis is:

19484

A patient presents with history of Chuna particles falling in the eye. Which of the following should not be done?

19485

Herbert pits are seen in:

19486

Cataract in diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is:

19487

Which is the most important factor in the prevention of postoperative endophthalmitis?

19488

A 56 year old man presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with history of pain and decrease in vision after an initial improvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

19489

A 55-year-old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

19490

The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens:

19491

Which of the following is not  needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery:

19492

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

19493

Which of the following is the only reversible cataract?

19494

Rider cataract is seen in

19495

Fluctuating refractive errors with cataract are seen in

19496

A 30-day-old neonate was presented with a history of photophobia and excessive acrimation. On examination, both the lacrimal duct systems are normal, but there was a large cornea with haziness. The diagnosis is:

19497

100 day glaucoma is seen in which of the following:

19498

The most reliable provocative test for angle closure glaucoma

19499

Treatment of choice for open angle glaucoma in the other eye is:

19500

Which of the following anti- glaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?

19501

Earliest manifestation of chronic simple glaucoma

19502

Typical coloboma of the iris is situated:

19503

A 25 years old man has pain, redness and mild diminution of vision in one eye for the past 3 days. There is also history of low backache for the past one year. On examination there is circumcorneal congestion, few keratic precipitates on the corneal endothelium, 2+ cells in the anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure is within normal limits. The patient is likely to be suffering from:

19504

The uveitis associated with vitiligo and auditory defects occurs in:

19505

Recurrent mobile hypopyon seen in acute anterior Uveitis indicates?

19506

A young patient presents to the ophthalmic outpatient department with gradual blurring of vision in the left eye. Slit lamp examination reveals fine stellate keratatic precipitates and aqueous flare and a typical complicated posterior subcapsular cataract. No posterior synechiae were observed. The most likely diagnosis is:

19507

The normal ratio of light peak and dark trough on an EOG is

19508

Confirmatory investigation in retinitis pigmentosa is:

19509

Maximum contribution to the refractive power of the eye is by:

19510

Chemotherapy agents for retinoblastoma:

19511

Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

19512

Most common primary malignant tumour of orbit in children:

19513

A 25-year-old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

19514

Weigert ligament is:

19515

Asteroid hyalosis are composed of:

19516

The risk of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is increased in all of the following except:

19517

A young patient presents to the ophthalmology clinic with loss of central vision. ERG is normal but EOG is abnormal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

19518

Most common clinical presentation of retinoblastoma is:

19519

This is defect in:

19520

A person has defective blue colour appreciation. His condition is

19521

Not a feature of Horner syndrome:

19522

All of the following can cause Optic Neuritis, except:

19523

Pie in sky appearance is seen in:

19524

Visual defect shown in the photograph below occur in lesion of:

19525

What is the most likely site of lesion for the visual field defect?

19526

A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:

19527

The given image is related to following:

19528

Lamina cribrosa is absent in:

19529

Roth spots are seen in:

19530

Which of the following is not true about inferior oblique muscle?

19531

Esotropia is commonly seen in which type of refractive error?

19532

Identify the test shown in the  image:

19533

Identify the instrument:

19534

Which action of extra-ocular muscle is spared in involvement of Occulomotor nerve?

19535

Retinal layer relatively resistant to radiation is:

19536

Which of the following is not a feature of paralytic squint:

19537

The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:

19538

Aniseikonia means:

19539

On performing retinoscopy using a plane mirror in a patient who has a refractive error of -3D sphere with -2 cylinder at 90 degree from a distance of 1 m, the reflex would move:

19540

Most common cause of ocular morbidity in India:

19541

A patient Mohan, aged 60 yrs, needs an eye examination. He needs a drug which will dilate his eyes but not paralyse his ciliary muscles. Choose the drug:

19542

Which of the following is an example of compound myopic, against the rule astigmatism?

19543

A 55-year-old male with a limbal scar presents to the ophthalmology clinic with markedly defective vision for near and far. Clinical examination reveals a wide and deep anterior chamber, irido-donesis and a dark pupillary reflex. A vision of 6/6 is achieved with correcting lens of +11D. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19544

A 30 year old man has 6/5 vision each eye, unaided. His cycloplegic retinoscopy is +1.0 D sph. At 1 metre distance. His complaints are blurring of newsprint at 30 cm that clears up in about 2 minutes. The most probable diagnosis is:

19545

What should not be done in this patient?

19546

All of these diagnostic tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained magnetic intraocular foreign body except:

19547

In blunt injury to eye, following changes are seen EXCEPT

19548

There is a retained intraocular iron foreign body. What is the best investigation for monitoring vision?

19549

A 20 years old boy presents with history of tennis ball injury to the right eye. On examination a red spot is seen on the macula. The most likely diagnosis is:

19550

Cells affected in glaucomatous optic neuropathy are:

19551

A 19 year old young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of nasal decongestants presented with abrupt onset of fever and chills and rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, moderate proptosis and chemosis. On examination, optic disc is congested. Most likely diagnosis is:

19552

Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis in children:

19553

Most common malignant tumour of the eyelids:

19554

A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathological examination to rule out the possibility of:

19555

Which of the following is not included in the Global Vision 2020 Program?

19556

A patient presented with his head tilted towards right. On examination, he was having left Hypertropia which is increased on looking towards right or medially. The muscle which is most likely paralyzed is:

19557

An infant with intolerance to breast feed, vomiting and diarrhoea develops cataract. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19558

A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause?

19559

All of the following are true about the above instrument except:

19560

A patient having glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis after instilling some antiglaucoma drug. Which of the following drug can be responsible for it?

19561

Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in hypertensive patients?

19562

Candle wax dripping type of vasculitis is a feature of:

19563

A male patient with a history of hypermature cataract presents with a 2 day history of cilia congestion, photophobia, blurring of vision and on examination has a deep anterior chamber in the right eye. The left eye is normal. The diagnosis is:

19564

The commonest cause of visual loss in AIDS is which one of the following?

19565

Which of the following is not an indication for evisceration?

19566

Identify the pathology in the below histopathology picture of retinal pigment epithelium?

19567

A patient is taking drugs for rheumatoid arthritis and has a history of cataract surgery 1 year back, the Patent presented with sudden painless loss of vision, probable diagnosis is?

19568

The given image of a patient ophthalmological examination is suggestive of which of the given condition?

19569

A patient presented with pain, photophobia and watering from eye since last 36 hours. 0/E there is 1X 2 cm ulcer with minimal hypopyon with finger like projection into stroma. What is the most likely cause?

19570

Irido Corneal Endothelial syndrome is characterized by:

19571

A lesion in the left parietal lobe is most likely to affect which visual field quadrant in the left eye:

19572

Identify the marked layer in given histological section?

19573

Child at birth appeared short. Out of the following which child has best prognosis for growth after birth?

19574

Catch down growth involves a period of slow growth that follows a phase where baby experienced rapid or extreme growth above normal range. Out of the following example of catch down growth is:

19575

Child is being assesses for motor development. Out of the following which is a sign of abnormal gross motor development:

19576

Child is having weight for height less than -3 Z score and mid upper arm circumference 11.0 cm. according to WHO classification this child is called as:

19577

To prevent Down syndrome in child, screening test should be done in all pregnancy. Which of the following is true regarding screening in Down syndrome?

19578

Regarding the inheritance of autosomal dominant disorders which of the following is true:

19579

Term child was discharged 24 hours after birth. On day 3 parents notice yellowing of skin of face. Child is accepting feeds well. Next step in this child is:

19580

For assessing growth in a child, measurement of weight, height and head circumference should be done. Children should be measured lying down until which age?

19581

Most common gastrointestinal problem in preterm child is Necrotizing enterocolitis. Which of the following is true regarding NEC:

19582

APGAR score is taken in neonate to judge regarding the respiratory system, respiratory and cardiovascular system. Which one of the following is true regarding APGAR score?

19583

3 days old child had abnormal movement of upper limbs which abolished on holding the upper limbs. There is no abnormal movement of eye or tongue. There is no involvement of autonomic nervous system. Most likely diagnosis is:

19584

13 years old female with short stature, shield like chest and wide spaced nipples came with no signs of puberty till now. Child has been always shortest in class and there is increase in carrying angle. All of the following statements are true regarding this disorder except:

19585

Child is being evaluated for rickets. On examination there is bowing of legs present and enlarged costochondral junction are present. On biochemical examination serum parathormone is normal, alkaline phosphatase is increased and serum phosphorous is decreased. Most likely cause of rickets is:

19586

In which of the following condition breast feeding should be avoided or discontinued?

19587

While starting resuscitation in a new born in a term child, out of the following which is the first step to be done:

19588

27 weeks baby is delivered by spontaneous preterm labour. In the delivery room which of the following should be done first?

19589

Regarding the new born skull which of the following statement is true?

19590

While examination of child is done at birth hips are exanimated to rule out developmental dysplasia of the hip. All of the following are the risk factor for DDH in neonate except?

19591

In a new born at 12 hours of age, Moro reflex was checked. It is present on right side and absent on left side. All of the following can be the cause except:

19592

Baby is discharged on day 5 of life when a swelling is noticed to be present in the scalp region. The swelling is limited to the left parietal bone and is not crossing the suture line. The child was delivered by vacuum delivery. Most likely it is:

19593

In a dysmorphic child, genetic causes is suspected. Which one of the following investigation is most likely to identify the cause?

19594

As compared to milk of cow to breast milk contains all of the following more except:

19595

In a term baby, feeding well and does not appear dehydrated. What is the acceptable upper limit of weight loss?

19596

Microcephaly can be seen in all of the following intrauterine infection except:

19597

To reduce risk of hyaline membrane disease, necrotizing enterocolitis and intraventricular haemorrhage, antenatal steroids are given to the mother. Which of the following is the correct dosing regimen for dexamethasone?

19598

In the extreme premature child which one of the following is most important independent predictor survival:

19599

At 48 hours after birth, child is having, systolic murmur grade 3/6 at the lower left sternal edge. There is no cyanosis and the pulses are normal. Most likely diagnosis is:

19600

Normal amniotic fluid production and adequate renal function is not required in the fetus for which one of the following functions?

19601

At 12 hours after birth in neonate the total serum bilirubin is 5 mg/dL. All of the following are the cause of this increased bilirubin except:

19602

Out of the following physiological jaundice is mainly due to:

19603

Acrodermatitis enteropathica is an inherited from of zinc deficiency. There is defect in the:

19604

Regarding antenatal screening for Down syndrome which of the following is true?

19605

There is increased risk of deformation in all of the following except:

19606

Microcephaly, ventricular septal defect, cutis aplasia, mid facial hypoplasia and cleft lip and palate, all are suggestive of chromosomal abnormality:

19607

First neonatal reflex to disappear after birth is:

19608

APGAR score is done at 1 min after birth to judge respiratory, cardiovascular and central nervous system. Out of the following APGAR scored 1 is seen in:

19609

In a 10 months old child which one of the following reflex is present:

19610

Due to intrauterine infection all of the following can be seen except:

19611

In a full term child, 3 kgs birth weight at birth there is petechiae, jaundice, and skin rash and hepato splenomegaly. Which of the following test is sued for diagnosis?

19612

In children deafness can be seen in all of the following except:

19613

Early onset neonatal sepsis is acquired from maternal genital tract. Following are the risk factor for neonatal sepsis:

19614

Day 4 child has jaundice. Total serum bilirubin is 11mg/dL and there is presence of spherocytes on peripheral blood. Direct Coomb’s test is negative. Likely cause of jaundice is:

19615

Out of the following phototherapy should not be given in:

19616

In ABO incompatibility there is neonatal jaundice. Out of the following it will be seen in:

19617

Classical haemorrhagic disease of new born usually present in the:

19618

Which of the following is the most common cause of bloody stool in the preterm child?

19619

New born infant developed respiratory distress on 2nd day of life. There is scaphoid abdomen and no breath sounds on left side of chest. On intubation respiratory distress improved. This is most likely having:

19620

Out of the following true regarding surfactant production is:

19621

Out of the following, premature child is:

19622

Infant weighing 1500 gm is born at 34 weeks of gestation. HR-140/min, RR-70/min and temperature is 36 degree Celsius. Lungs are clear with equal breath sounds and there is no murmur. Most important next step is:

19623

Hypoplastic nails, clenched hand, overlapping of digits, rocker bottom foot-all are feature seen in:

19624

If both parents are affected, recurrence risk is 100 percent. Mode of inheritance is:

19625

In a child with Turner syndrome, therapy that is recommended when the height falls below the fifth percentile is:

19626

Fluid requirement in preterm and term child in first 24 hours after birth is respectively:

19627

In a child with severe acute malnutrition which of the following mineral is not given during complications:

19628

Out of the following all findings can be seen in zinc deficiency except:

19629

Child has not passed urine till 18 hours after birth. Next step in this child is:

19630

Out of the following fetal causes leading to oligohydraminos is:

19631

On day 3 of life, infants development rash with lesions present over his trunk and proximal extremities. Palms and soles are spared. Most likely diagnosis is:

19632

In X linked Vitamin D resistant rickets all of the following biochemical findings are seen except:

19633

Child is diagnosed as having celiac disease. He is HLA-DQ-2 positive and antiendomysial antibodies are present. Out of the following which of the following statement is true?

19634

7 year old child has history of recurrent family history of allergic rhinitis. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition in child

19635

At birth, in neonate screening for congenital heart disease is done. Which of the following statements is correct regarding congenital heart disease?

19636

Child is having vomiting with no signs of dehydration. There is no fever and no history of diarrhea. Which of the following states is true regarding vomiting in children?

19637

In child diagnosed as ventricular septal defect there is presence of pan systolic murmur at lower left sternal border. In this child there can be enlargement of all heart chambers except:

19638

While evaluating for neurological disorders in children which of the following is true?

19639

6 months old male child has history of increased sweating and is salty on kissing the child. All of the following findings can be seen in this child except:

19640

4 years old child has swelling all over the body, which is more in morning and decreases till evening. In this child on measurement serum complement C3 is normal. All of the following findings can be seen except:

19641

2 years old child, weighing 12 kgs has history of diarrhea since 2 days. There is no blood in stools. Child is irritable and is asking for water to drink continuously. Management in this child include:

19642

All are the pathological changes seen in brain in tuberous sclerosis except:

19643

3 years old male has difficulty in climbing stairs. On examination there is enlargement of calf muscles and deep tendon reflexes are present. There is no involvement of nervous system. This disorder is due to deficiency of protein:

19644

2 years old child has abnormal movement of all four limbs associated with fever. The abnormal movement lasts for 5 minutes and there is no neurological deficit. Which of the following statement is true?

19645

Delayed puberty can be seen in all of the following conditions except:

19646

18 month child was evaluated for pneumonia at primary health centre. All are considered to be danger signs for referral except:

19647

4 years old child presents with generalized swelling all over the body. There is not hematuria and blood pressure is normal for age. Serum C3 levels are normal. To diagnose nephrotic syndrome urinary protein: creatinine ratio is:

19648

All of the following features can be seen in gastrointestinal tract in neonate having cystic fibrosis except:

19649

On culture of the sputum presence of following pathogen is suggestive of cystic fibrosis:

19650

Enterotoxin produced by Rota virus is:

19651

In Tetralogy of Fallot there is presence of subvalvular pulmonic stenosis and ventricular septal defect. The murmur is present due to:

19652

All of the following are regarding transposition of great arteries except:

19653

Prophylaxis for infective endocarditis is required in all of the following except:

19654

18 months old girl comes with history of two episodes of respiratory tract infection. There is no cyanosis and pulses are equal volume in all 4 limbs. There is presence of pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. Most likely diagnosis is:

19655

Most common chronic glomerulopathy seen in children is IgA nephropathy. True regarding IgA nephropathy is:

19656

Child was diagnosed as nephrotic syndrome and started on steroids. After 6 weeks of steroids still proteinuria is persisting. Next step to be done is:

19657

In nephrotic syndrome there is increased incidence of infection due to loss of factor B in urine. Most common organism causing infection is streptococcus pnuemoniae. It usually causes:

19658

5 year old child is being evaluated for hypothyroidism. All of the following investigations are helpful in diagnosis except:

19659

Out of the following most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism is:

19660

Child has sudden onset of respiratory distress along with fever. He is not able to swallow and lie down in supine position. Which of the following organism is responsible for this:

19661

3 year old boy has history of recurrent wheezing. Out of the following symptoms suggestive of asthma is:

19662

5 years old child has history of hypopigmented lesions on face since birth, mental retardation and epilepsy. It can be suggestive of:

19663

Presence of neurodevelopmental regression and hypsarrthymic pattern on EEG is seen in the following:

19664

1 year old child has crossing of lower limb and Babinski sign is positive. Underlying pathological condition is:

19665

15 month old child has cough, fever and one episode of generalised seizure for 5 minutes. There is similar history of 3 months back. Which of the following statements is true:

19666

6 year old boy has complaints of making unusual sounds and drooling from his mouth during sleep. On awakening the child talks normally. School performance is normal and clinical examination is normal. Most likely diagnosis is:

19667

Febrile status epilepticus is febrile seizure lasting for more than:

19668

Child is having generalized tonic clonic seizure for 5 minutes. All of the following medication are useful except:

19669

16 years male is diagnosed with delayed puberty. On examination there is anosmia along with isolated gonadotropin deficiency. It is suggestive of:

19670

Regarding screening for congenital hypothyroidism following is true:

19671

3 year old child has been treated for urinary tract infection and received antibiotics. Which of the following radiological investigation needs to be done to know the underlying cause:

19672

Child is passing red colored urine after 4 weeks of skin infection. There is hypertension and serum C3 is decreased. Which of the following will be useful in diagnosis:

19673

In haemolytic uremic syndrome, antibiotics can be given in:

19674

Child complains of pain in both lower limbs on exercise. On echocardiography was diagnosed as coarctation of Aorta. All of the findings can be seen except:

19675

In management of hypoxic spell seen in tetralogy of Fallot all of the following are useful in management except:

19676

Most potent prostaglandin produced by ductus arterious in the fetal circulation is:

19677

In a 1 year old child with difficulty in breathing which of the following is considered as a danger sign:

19678

6 months old child presented with cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing. Respiratory rate is 52/min and there is presence of fine crepts at both lung bases. This illness is most likely due to:

19679

In an infant with untreated congenital hypothyroidism which of the following clinical finding is seen:

19680

In a child congenital hypothyroidism was diagnosed and started on levothyroxine. Most helpful approach to guide hormonal treatment in this infant is to:

19681

In congenital adrenal hyperplasia virilisation of female can be seen in all except:

19682

New born screening test to diagnose 21 hydroxylase deficiency is:

19683

Out of the following, preferred diagnostic procedure in a children suspected of having cystic renal disease is:

19684

In 21 hydroxylase deficiency all of the following features are seen except:

19685

10 months old child is lethargic, not accepting feeds and passed urine 6 hour back. There is history of loose stools since 2 days. The child needs to be started on intravenous fluid. In this child according to IMNCI which plan of management is required:

19686

In a child diagnosed to have gluten sensitive anteropathy all of the following can be seen except:

19687

In a 10 year old child with nephrotic syndrome all are the indications of renal biopsy except:

19688

All of the following suggest a pathological cause for short stature:

19689

3 year old child has fever for last 7 days not responding to antibiotics. There is conjunctival congestion, red tongue, red palms and soles. Which is the initial medication to be given?

19690

4 year old has proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema and normal blood pressure. There is no hematuria and serum complement C3 level is normal. Treatment to be started is:

19691

5 years old girl history of painful knees and abdominal pain. There is purpura present on extensor surfaces of legs present since one day. She is hemodynamically stable and there is no fever. Most likely diagnosis is:

19692

10 year old has history of passing red coloured urine since morning. There is history of upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks back. Blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg. There is also edema of face, feet and ankles. There is normal haemoglobin, albumin and platelets. On urine examination there is proteinuria and hematuria. Most likely diagnosis:

19693

Identify the diagnosis in this barium enema image:

19694

The Chest X Ray here shows evidence of

19695

The USG image given here denotes

19696

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well-defined parenchymal nodules implies which stage of sarcoidosis?

19697

A plain radiograph of the hand shows evidence of subperiosteal erosion along the radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the middle and index fingers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19698

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot?

19699

Which one of the following radiological findings would favour a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 2 over neurofibromatosis type 1?

19700

The most common extra-axial intracranial mass lesion showing intense post contrast enhancement is:

19701

Investigation of choice for studying renal scarring and renal structure is:

19702

Suprasellar calcification on skull X Ray is a feature of:

19703

Which of the following is the least likely radiological finding if an acute pulmonary embolus is present?

19704

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Transposition of Great Vessels?

19705

Which of these is the screening modality of choice for DCIS (Ductal carcinoma in-situ) of breast?

19706

Breast within a breast appearance on mammography is seen in:

19707

In a 40-year-old woman complaining of ankle pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of the navicular bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19708

Identify the diagnosis

19709

Identify the diagnosis on this image

19710

The X Ray here is suggestive of

19711

A barium swallow examination demonstrates oesophagus giving the appearance of a cork screw. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19712

Identify the diagnosis

19713

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, endocrine disturbance and café-au-lait spots form a classical triad of?

19714

What would be the expected imaging findings in diaphyseal aclasis?

19715

In a 40-year-old woman complaining of wrist pain, radiographs reveal sclerosis and collapse of the lunate bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19716

In which part of the prostate gland is BPH most likely to arise?

19717

A diagnosis of Tuberous sclerosis is being considered. The presence of which of the following intracranial tumours would be strongly supportive of this diagnosis?

19718

Minimum radiation exposure is seen in:

19719

Identify the image

19720

Identify the image

19721

Identify the image

19722

Identify the image

19723

The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is

19724

Sclerotic type osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of

19725

The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesion in

19726

The most common location of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is

19727

Which of the following causes inferior rib-notching on the chest radiography?

19728

The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tuberculosis is

19729

Which of these uses ionizing radiation?

19730

Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?

19731

Typically bilateral superolateral dislocation of the lens is seen in:

19732

The gold standard procedure for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:

19733

The most common cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage is:

19734

Spalding sign occurs after:

19735

Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?

19736

Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in:

19737

Brown tumours are seen in:

19738

IVP in a patient with Ureterocele will show

19739

Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass with calcification seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child

19740

Investigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is:

19741

Figure of 8 in Chest X-ray is seen in

19742

The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except:

19743

A patient who has suffered severe chest trauma in RTA is found to have fluid in the right pleural space. A thoracentesis reveals the presence of chylous fluid in the pleural space and suggesting a rupture of the thoracic duct. In which area of the thorax region the thoracic duct found?

19744

Which one of the following statement is NOT true concerning vertebral body and spina bifida defects except?

19745

A 65-year-old male patient presents with chronic cough, dyspnea and history of smoking. Chest X-ray reveals a lung nodule. A biopsy shows malignant cells with central cavitation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis?

19746

A 60-year-old female patient complains of difficulty swallowing solid foods, weight loss, and regurgitation of undigested food. On examination, you note the presence of a lower esophageal ring. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis?

19747

A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He is diagnosed with cancer involving the abdominal oesophagus and fundus of the stomach. Which one of the following neural structures is most likely associated with the pain fibers involved with this symptom?

19748

While doing surgery for meningioma on cerebral hemisphere, there occurred injury to left paracentral lobule. It will lead to paresis of?

19749

All of the following can cause aneurysm in abdominal aorta except:

19750

In a patient of Silicosis there is increased incidence of all of the following except:

19751

On light microscope examination there is diffuse thickening of the capillary wall of glomerulus. It is most likely:

19752

Most frequently affected tumor suppressor gene in pancreatic carcinoma is:

19753

Most common tumor of liver is secondary tumours. It most commonly arises from:

19754

A 17 year old girl came to OPD with complaint of swelling in middle of neck. FNAC was performed. It revealed cellular smears with nuclear grooving and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. The diagnosis on cytological findings is:

19755

A 45-year-old patient with crocodile tears syndrome has spontaneous lacrimation during eating due to misdirection of regenerating autonomic nerve fibers. Which nerves has been injured in this patient?

19756

Ante-verted position of uterus is maintained by which ligament:

19757

A 25-year-old male gets into a brawl outside a bar. During the altercation, someone pulls out a gun and shoots him in the head. The bullet enters the man temple and severs his right optic nerve completely. He is quickly transported to a nearby emergency room and an emergency physician tests his pupillary response by shining a light in the right eye. What will the physician most likely find?

19758

As a part of space research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight induced stress on BP. Accordingly, the BP of the cosmonauts were to be measured twice: once before the take-off and once after spacecraft entered the designated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the pre-flight BP should be recorded in:

19759

All the following are branches of cavernous part of Internal carotid artery except:

19760

A thyroid mass usually moves with swallowing because the thyroid gland is enclosed by which of the following fascia?

19761

Following image shows deposition of calcium on aortic valve in a patient of aortic stenosis. It is suggestive of:

19762

Flipping of LDH seen in myocardial infarction is:

19763

Which one of the following structures may be classified as a hydrophobic amino acid at pH 7.0?

19764

Which of the characteristics below apply to the amino acid glycine?

19765

Which enzymes are responsible for producing the direct donors of nitrogen into the pathway producing urea?

19766

The highest concentration of cystine can be found in

19767

Which clinical laboratory observation below is suggestive of Hartnup disease (neutral amino acid transport deficiency)?

19768

Spermatozoa in seminal fluid utilises the following sugar for its metabolism:

19769

Cellulose is the most abundant polysaccharide and is an important structural component of cell walls. Strict vegetarians consume a large amount of cellulose, but it is not a source of energy because it is indigestible by the human intestinal tract. Cellulose is indigestible because it contains which of the following glycosidic bonds?

19770

The entry point into the citric acid cycle for isoleucine, valine, and the product of odd-chain fatty acids is:

19771

Electrons from pyruvic acid enter the mitochondrial electron transport chain at:

19772

The Primaquin sensitivity type of haemolytic anaemia has been found to be related to reduce RB cells activity of which enzyme?

19773

When choline of lecithin is replaced by ethanolamine the product is

19774

Feeding of raw white of egg in the diet may result in deficiency of:

19775

Oral contraceptive pills containing combinations of synthetic estrogen and progesterone compounds given for the first 21 days of the menstrual cycle are effective in preventing pregnancy. What is the explanation for their efficacy?

19776

A 20-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 22 U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?

19777

Filtration of proteins across filtration barrier in the nephron depends mainly upon:

19778

The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is:

19779

During heavy exercise the cardiac output increases upto fivefold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by:

19780

If muscle strength is increased with resistive training, which of the following conditions will most likely to occur?

19781

A pulmonologist is testing a lung volumes of patient and capacities using simple spirometry. Which of the following lung volumes or capacities cannot be measured directly using this technique?

19782

A 48-yrs-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that radiates to his jaw and left shoulder. Angina pectoris is suspected, and he is sent for an angiogram. The test reveals an atherosclerotic coronary artery that is 50 percent occluded. The maximal blood flow through this artery is reduced by:

19783

A 25-years-old woman involved in an automobile accident is admitted as an emergency patient. A major artery severed in her leg caused an estimated 600 mL blood to be lost. Her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Which of the following would be expected to increase in response to haemorrhage?

19784

Identify the plant and its fruit shown in figure and choose the incorrect statement about it:

19785

A person abuses his wife sometimes even beats her asking for money from her parents. A police complaint (FIR) is filed against him. Which of the following sections of IPCs are relevant for the above?

19786

Which of the following is not correct about snakes?

19787

In a controlled experiment, radiolabeled ATP is injected into an isolated muscle. The muscle is stimulated and allowed to contract for 10 seconds. An autoradiogram from a biopsy of the muscle will show radiolabeled ATP bound to:

19788

A normal volunteer consents to an IV infusion of p-aminohippuric acid (PAH). After a short time, the plasma PAH is 0.02 mg/mL, the concentration of PAH in urine is 13 mg/ml, and the urine flow is 1.0 mL/min. what is the effective renal plasma flow (ERPF)?

19789

A researcher is examining the distribution of an ion channel protein in the kidney. She incubates slices of kidney tissue in a dilute solution of a specific antibody directed against the protein, then uses the immunoperoxidase method to localize the ion channel proteins. She notes the presence of brown pigment in a population of epithelial cells, which on closer examination, have a brush border. He concludes that the protein is probably present in cells of the:

19790

A 34-year-old asthmatic male presents for a check-up. He has been taking low dose oral prednisone for over 10 years and although his asthma is well controlled, he is concerned about steroid-induced osteoporosis, because his grandfather, a type 1 diabetic, recently fell and broke his hip. A comprehensive metabolic profile as well as a dual energy x-ray absorptiometry test (DEXA) of the spine and hip is ordered. Which of the following additional tests would be recommended?

19791

A teenaged boy suffered a foot laceration while swimming in a polluted water area in a river. He did not seek medical treatment, and the wound developed a foul smelling exudate. One of the bacteria isolated from the abscess exudate was missing superoxide dismutase, catalase, and a peroxidase. Which of the following statements best describes this microorganism?

19792

During prolonged fasting, the major control of rate of gluconeogenesis is the:

19793

A drug which prevents uric acid synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase is:

19794

All of the following statements characterise DNA replication except:

19795

Whole wheat is an excellent source of:

19796

Findings of HBsAg positive, HBeAg positive, and IgM core antibody positive in a hepatitis B patient reflect which of the following?

19797

A previously healthy woman became nauseated and vomits 12 hours after eating home-pickled eggs. Within 24 hours, she developed a diffuse flaccid paralysis and respiratory impairment, necessitating hospitalization and mechanical ventilation. Other symptoms included diplopia and dysarthria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19798

Five adults and seven children in a village in South Africa present over several days to a local clinic with voluminous watery diarrhea containing fl ecks of mucus. They show signs of severe dehydration and are treated with oral fl uids and electrolytes. Stool cultures grew yellow colonies on thiosulfate citrate bile salt (TCBS) media. What is the etiology of this outbreak?

19799

A 43-year-old man presents with fever of 104 degree F, progressively worsening headache, diffuse abdominal pain, constipation, anorexia, and malaise of 5 days duration. Physical exam revealed hepatosplenomegaly, but no icterus. A rash, described as rose spots, was seen on the trunk. His history is significant for having returned from a mission trip to Haiti 1 week ago. What is the most likely microbial cause of this man’s condition?

19800

A 45-year-old female presents with anorexia and some abdominal pain. Fecal smears reveal the presence of Taenia eggs, products of a parasitic tapeworm infection. Which one of the following cells would be most effective in defense against this parasite?

19801

A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the outpatient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside, the most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by:

19802

The following is characteristic feature of staphylococcus food poisoning except:

19803

Which of the following gene is present in HIV genome?

19804

The capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by:

19805

A patient resident of Himachal Pradesh presented with a series of ulcers in a row, on his right leg. The biopsy from affected area is taken and cultured on sabauraud dextrose agar What would be the most likely etiological agent:

19806

A patient presents with lower gastrointestinal bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers in the sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask-shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

19807

Regarding HSV-2 infection is true except:

19808

Which class of drugs primarily targets G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) for their pharmacological effects?

19809

Following image is suggestive of the pathological change:

19810

In wound injury sequence of appearance of cells is:

19811

It is observed that some neoplasms appear to develop from viral oncogenesis, Which of the following neoplasms is most likely to arise In this manner?

19812

Which antiepileptic drug is known for its GABA-enhancing mechanism of action and is commonly used in the treatment of absence seizures?

19813

What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for a patient with primary hypothyroidism

19814

Which DMARD is known for its unique mechanism of action by inhibiting Janus kinase (JAK) enzymes, which play a role in the signalling pathways of multiple pro-inflammatory cytokines?

19815

A 65-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnea, increased sputum production, and decreased oxygen saturation. A chest X-ray confirms acute exacerbation of COPD with acute respiratory failure. What is the initial pharmacological treatment of choice for acute respiratory failure in this patient with COPD exacerbation?

19816

According to the latest Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines, which of the following is a recommended controller medication for step 3 asthma treatment in adults and adolescents?

19817

Extradural haematoma occurs commonly due to the rupture of a vessel, which passes through?

19818

At the birth, an infant present with a stomach which has herniated into the diaphragm. Where is defect that resulted in the herniation?

19819

Cells of the adrenal medulla are derived from the same embryonic cells as those that form:

19820

A 55-year-old man is undergoing a cardiac operation. During the procedure, a ligature is passed into the transverse pericardial sinus. Which of the following vascular structures can now be easily secured by tying the ligature, thus stopping the blood flow?

19821

An infant presents with gastroschisis at birth. Which of the following applies to this condition?

19822

A missile hits the body just above the pubic ramus through the ant abdominal wall it will pierce which of the following structure?

19823

Which of the following pathway is involved in the ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand?

19824

A 72-year-old woman, presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of increasing shortness of breath and swelling in her ankles and legs over the past week. She has a known history of congestive heart failure (CHF) and has been previously managed with medications like diuretics and ACE inhibitors. She is currently experiencing an exacerbation of her heart failure symptoms, including orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. On physical examination, she has elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation, and peripheral edema. Her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. In the case of Mrs. Radhika, what medication can be considered as an appropriate adjunct to her existing heart failure therapy, given her presentation with atrial fibrillation and worsening heart failure symptoms?

19825

A 38-year-old man, presents with a history of recurrent, severe peptic ulcers and chronic diarrhea. His symptoms have not responded well to standard antacid therapy, and he has had multiple hospitalizations for gastrointestinal bleeding. During the evaluation, it is discovered that he has a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor (gastrinoma) in his pancreas that is secreting excessive amounts of gastrin. In the management of Mr. Thompson Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, what pharmacological intervention is most appropriate for reducing gastric acid secretion and controlling peptic ulcer disease?

19826

Which of the following conditions is characterized by nephritic syndrome, often seen in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN)?

19827

Which class of antibiotics is considered the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cases of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients without specific risk factors for drug-resistant pathogens?

19828

Which antiviral drug is commonly used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, including genital herpes and herpes labialis (cold sores)?

19829

Caspases are associated with:

19830

Following pathological change is seen in cigarette smoker. It is suggestive of:

19831

In the given figure there was no smell felt near the person. Identify the cause

19832

When any 2 objects come into contact, there is always transference of material from each object on to other. This rule is known as:

19833

Person greater than 18 years of age can give valid consent to suffer any harm which may result from an act done and not known to cause death/grievious hurt is stated under section:

19834

All of the following conditions are defence available for a doctor against allegation of negligence except:

19835

Identify the lesion/lesions:

19836

A 40-year-old male presents with hyperpigmentation as shown in Image. It occurs due to:

19837

Features which are suggestive of viability except?

19838

A patient with a history of recurrent seizures is administered diazepam intravenously to terminate a prolonged seizure episode. The seizure activity initially stops, but it resumes shortly afterward. What is the likely reason for the recurrence of seizures in this patient despite the initial response to diazepam inspite of the fact that half-life of diazepam is 48 hours?

19839

A 60-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease, presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain, shortness of breath, and confusion. He is hypotensive, tachycardic, and his urine output has significantly decreased over the past few hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST-segment elevation, indicating an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). Which drug would be most appropriate

19840

A 26-years-old man receives a concussion from a car accident. The brain edema that follows cause compression of the cerebral arteries to such an extent that he needs to be placed on mechanical ventilation to control his breathing. His respiratory drive is diminished mainly because of decreased

19841

A 78-years-old woman has a mean arterial pressure of 120 mm Hg and a heart rate of 60/min. She has a stroke volume of 50 mL, cardiac output of 3000 mL/min, and a right atrial pressure of 0 mm Hg. Total peripheral resistance (mm Hg/min) in this woman is?

19842

A 62 year old male has symptoms of syncope and gradually progressing dyspnea for last one year. On examination pulse shows late peaking and apex is sustained and heaving in nature ECG revealed signs of LVH with ST depression and T wave inversion in lateral leads. Which of the following auscultation finding will be present?

19843

Laqshya is for:

19844

Waste sharps are discarded in:

19845

National switch day:

19846

Strain present in Mosquirix vaccine is SDg:

19847

A 24 year old woman has severe wheezing and shortness of breath for 2 days after receiving oxygen and salbutamol in the emergency room, her breathing improves. She is still wheezing & now feels tremors and anxious with a pulse of 110/min and respirations 30/min. Arterial blood gases on oxygen reveal a pH of 7.40, PO2 340 mm Hg, PCO2 40 mm Hg, and bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L. Which of the following treatment or medications should be avoided in her?

19848

A 30 year old female presented with palpitations heat intolerance and neck pain. There was a preceding episode of upper respiratory infection few weeks back. Pulse rate is 130/min with tremors of hands. On lab tests-free T3 and T4 are high with low TSH. Technitium thyroid uptake is low. What will be next line management?

19849

A 24 year old female c/o pruritic rash over the trunk. On further evaluation she has history of increased stool frequency with sticky stools. She has lost 5 kg weight in 1 year. On examination there are ecchymosis patches on skin. Hb is 8.0 g%, microcytic RBCs with occasional macrocytes. Serum calcium is 8.0 mg/dl. Stool tests-no blood and ova/cysts are also negative. What will be next line investigation?

19850

Chest X-ray of an adult male presented with respiratory distress. What is the diagnosis?

19851

An adult female presented with headache which was not responding to conservative treatment. Contrast enhanced MRI done which was shows the following space occupying lesion in the brain. What is the most probable diagnosis:

19852

A 50 year old female with type 2 diabetes on metformin maximum for 2 years. Her BMI is 40and Hbalc- 8.2%. She c/o excessive hunger and ends up eating high calorie foods. Her urine for microalbumin and KFT are normal. She has previous episode of diabetes ketoacidosis 1 year back. What will be next suitable agent?

19853

Numerator for sensitivity is:

19854

Treatment for pauci bacillary leprosy is:

19855

Calcium requirement during pregnancy is:

19856

Most common cancer among males in India:

19857

A 45 year old patient presented with complaints of pain in abdomen and menorrhagia. Endometrial biopsy was normal and sonogram of uterus showed diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal mass. What is the diagnosis?

19858

A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:

19859

In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?

19860

A 22 years old woman comes for treatment of hirsutism. She is obese and has facial acne and hirsutism on her face. Serum LH level is 36 mIU/mL and FSH is 9 mIU/mL. Androstenedione and testosterone levels are mildly elevated, but serum DHEAS is normal. The patient does not wish to conceive at this time. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of her condition?

19861

For every 1000 population, the health personnel available is:

19862

SPARSH is an awareness campaign for:

19863

A 40 year-old woman presented with weight loss, palpitations and dyspnea. There is no history of hypertension, CAD, diabetes and valvular heart disease. She is not taking any medications. She does not smoke or takes alcohol. On examination pulse is 120/min and irregular with a pulse deficit of 20. Serum TSH is 0.04 mlU/ml. Which of the following cardiac finding will be seen?

19864

An elderly woman suffered a fall and landed on her shoulder. Immediately she complained of severe pain. She is being treated for hypertension and diabetes mellitus. On examination there is a large bruise,swelling and tenderness to palpation over the right shoulder girdle. There is no neurovascular deficit though. Appropriate management would be:

19865

An overcrowded lorry ferrying young boys to a milltary recruitment centre got toppled over. A 19 year old boy sustained injuries to his foot. At the time of his examination his foot was found to be planter flexed. X ray was done which returned the following picture. The injury sustained is:

19866

A 62 year old female sustained femur neck fracture after falling off the stair case. She was immediately rushed to emergency department. X ray was done and the injury was confirmed. According to a relevant classification system given below, she sustained type III fracture. Further the patient claims to have no complaints related to hip joint and has been maintaining an active lifestyle. Preferred treatment in this case would be:

19867

A 40 year old male c/o fever,chest pain, cough and loose stools. On examination: chest bilateral ronchi and crepts present. Lab test:Serum Na 128 mmol/L, chest x ray bilateral minimal infiltrates, sputum culture legionella is isolated. Urine legionella antigen is also positive. What will be next line of treatment?

19868

A 30 year old male presented with palpitations and dyspnea Past history of recurrent rheumatic fever is present. On examination bounding pulse is felt. Apex is shifted laterally. Auscultation reveals wide S2 split, LV S3, Pansytolic harsh murmur and mid diastolic murmur at apex. You made a clinical diagnosis of RHD with mitral regurgitation. All the clinical signs suggest this to be severe MR except:

19869

Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children and, when infecting mammalian cells in culture, will hemabsorb red blood cells?

19870

A 27-year-old man presents with hoarseness for 6 month. He has no other symptoms or complaints. He has no past medical history, takes no medications, and does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. He uses no illicit drugs. He has been employed as a telephone operator for the last 8 month. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19871

A 12 year-old patient presented with bleeding from ear, pain, tinnitus and increasing deafness. Examination revealed red swelling/mass behind the intact tympanic membrane that blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum. Treatments for her include all EXCEPT:

19872

A 16-year-old boy has a 1-day history of pain in the right ear. He swims every morning. The right ear canal is red and swollen. He has pain when the auricle is pulled or the tragus is pushed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19873

A 10 year old boy developed facial puffiness and decreased urine output5 days after an episode of dysentery. On examination BP-160/100 mmHg and pallor was present. Lab tests-Hb 6.0gldl, reticulocyte count 7.5, Peripheral smear revealed schistocytes, platelet count 50,000/mm3, serum creatinine 4.Omgldl and BUN 38 mgldl. What will be next line of treatment?

19874

A patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and started on ATT. He is regular with the medicines. At fifth month of ATT he started feeling weak and breathless on climbing one flight of stairs. On examination pallor is present. Hb is 8.0 g/di, TIBC is normal, peripheral smear microcytic RBCs seen. What will be next line treatment?

19875

Denominator of neo natal mortality rate is:

19876

Drug used in chemoprophylaxis of Tuberculosis is:

19877

Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis B is:

19878

Most sensitive test to detect presence of argemone oil in mustard oil is:

19879

A patient treated for infertility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites, the probable cause is:

19880

A 45 year old patient presented with complaints of pain in abdomen and menorrhagia. Endometrial biopsy was normal and sonogram of uterus showed diffusely enlarged uterus with no adnexal mass. What is the diagnosis?

19881

A 25-year old G2P1A0 with history of previous vaginal breech delivery of a term, live baby comes with full term pregnancy with breech presentation. What is the best option?

19882

A 25-year-old married nullipara undergoes laparoscopic cystectomy for ovarian cyst which onhistopathological examination reveals ovarian serous cystadenoma. What should be the next management?

19883

A 20 years female presents with an ovarian mass 6 × 6 × 6 cm in size. Ultrasonography reveals solid structures in the mass. Her serum biomarkers such as AFP, ƒ-hCG and CA 125 are normal, however, her serum alkaline phosphatase was found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

19884

What is the diagnosis of this asymptomatic lesion shown in the image below?

19885

This man was uncircumcised, and had itching/burning of the red papules. He had no lesions elsewhere. Gram stain showed few gram + cocci abd budding yeast and pseudohyphae. Choose disease and treatment:

19886

In a tribal area, a health worker female should be available for every ____ population:

19887

A 65 year old patient presented with syncope attacks for last 2 months. On examination pulse rate 40/minute with bounding pulse. JVP: prominent positive waves just after S1 seen intermittently. There is mid diastolic murmur at apex. ECHO shows no valvular defect. What will be expected finding in ECG?

19888

A patient presented with altered sensorium. On ABG analysis pH-7.30, paCO2- 30 mmHg, serum HC03-16 mmol/Lserum Na-140 mmol/L, serum chloride-104 mmol/L. Urine analysis revealed envelope shaped crystals. Which treatment will be helpful here?

19889

A 30 year old male presented with difficulty in walking, dysphagia and impotence. He has frontal baldness, myotonia on hand shaking, wasting of temporalis, swan neck due to thinning of neck muscles and ptosis. What is the S diagnosis?

19890

A 15 year old girl presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain, vomiting and cold extremities. She has tachycardia and hypotension. Lab investigations show blood glucose 400 mg/dl, blood pH 6.9, urine ketones 3+, Serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dl. She is given IV fluids and insulin. After 4 hours she c/o inability to lift her limbs. What is the next step to be considered in her management?

19891

A 46 year old female known diabetes for 10 years presented with frothy urine. On examination-BP is 120/78 mmHg and systemic examination is normal. Lab tests- urine for microalbumin is 260 mg/g (repeated thrice with almost same value), serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dl, eGFR is 80, Hba1c-7.4 She is not taking any medicines for diabetes. What will you advise besides lifestyle changes?

19892

A 30 year old female presented with palpitations. On examination apex is displaced outward, early diastolic murmur is heard at Erb's area which increases on expiration. There is also mid diastolic murmur at apex which decreases after amyl nitrate. What is the cause of apical murmur?

19893

A 30 year-old man presents with symptoms of fever, chills, malaise and dyspnea, OE temperature is 39 degree C and there is early diastolic murmur at Erb area. ECHO showed oscillating mass lesion on aortic valve. He has multiple puncture sites on his forearms from injection drug use. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

19894

A patient of acute kidney injury presented in emergency ECG shows. Best modality of treatment for such cardiac changes:

19895

A patient of bullous emphysema presented with difficulty in breathing. CXR-PA shows. First step in management is

19896

A 50 year old male c/o bone pains, increased urine output and vomiting off and on. On biochemical evaluation-HbA1c 5.6%, serum calcium 13 mg/di (high), serum phosphorus 2.0 mg/dI(low), alkaline phosphatase 300 IU/L(high), serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dl and blood urea 24 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?

19897

A 30-year-old woman develops acute onset of fever malaise, and cough. She has no past medical history. On examination uveitis, bilateral parotid enlargement and erythema nodosum findings are present. Chest is clear on auscultation. CVS-within normal limits. The chest x-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and a left paratracheal lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

19898

An 18-year-old man develops fever, headache confusion, and generalized seizures. On examination he is incoherent. A CT scan shows bilateral, small, low-density temporal lobe lesions. CSF: mononuclear cell, increased protein, and normal glucose. EEG; periodic discharges from the temporal leads and slow wave complexes at regular intervals of 2-3/sec. What will be appropriate next step in management?

19899

A diabetic patient presented with renal failure kidney biopsy shows Earliest finding in Spot: Albumin; creatinine ratio is:

19900

60 year old female has fever and cough with yellowish sputum. On chest X-ray there is infiltrate involving the left lower lobe. On sputum examination there is neutrophils and gram-positive diplococci. Out of the following most likely infectious agent is:

19901

A 35-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department suffering from multiple gunshot wounds to the abdomen. Surgery results in removal of all the jejunum. Several months later, the patient complains of being tired. A CBC indicates an increased MCV of 125, decreased Hb and Hematocrite. Which of the following cause is most likely to be present?

19902

Which is the commonest type of a tracheo-oesophageal fistula?

19903

A 40-year-old man presents to the neck lump clinic with a prominent solitary thyroid nodule. The fine-needle aspirate cytology performed shows features similar to benign adenomatous hyperplasia. He subsequently undergoes a thyroid lobectomy and the histology of the surgical specimen confirms a diagnosis of follicular carcinoma. Which of the following is a characteristic of follicular carcinoma?

19904

A 31-year-old teacher presents to her GP 7 weeks postpartum with a painful and swollen left breast. Examination reveals erythema, tenderness and fluctuance just above the left nipple–areolar complex. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

19905

Funeral expenses provided under ESI are:

19906

Identify the image:

19907

Average number of children a women can bear in her entire reproductive life is:

19908

Statistical test used to compare mean hemoglobin levels among adult males and females is:

19909

After appendicectomy, appendix and gauze pieces should be discarded respectively in:

19910

Odds ratio between oral contraceptive pills and thromboembolism can be:

19911

A 30-year-old lady with symptomatic varicose veins undergoes a right leg sapheno-popliteal ligation and stripping of the short saphenous vein. Which nerve is at risk of injury in this procedure?

19912

A woman has a pleomorphic adenoma. She is undergoing a total parotidectomy. Which important vascular structure should the surgeon be most aware of?

19913

Medullary thyroid cancer (MTC) associated with worst prognosis is:

19914

A 65-year-old patient with a past history of smoking and hypertension and a history of intermittent pain in the right leg for 6 months is referred by a general practitioner. The pain is worse after walking a short distance and on standing for prolonged periods. The pain is relieved by sitting down and lying down. The most likely cause of the pain is:

19915

The preferred treatment of choice in a patient with estrogen receptor negative metastatic breast cancer is:

19916

A pronounced increase in central venous pressure can be caused by all of the following conditions, except:

19917

A 15-year-old boy presents to A&E following a road traffic accident with left upper quadrant pain. On clinical examination, his pulse rate is 100/min, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg and tenderness over the left 9th and 10th ribs. Chest X-ray shows fractures of the 9th, 10th and 11th ribs. An urgent CT abdomen shows free fluid around the spleen and splenic laceration with no leakage of contrast. The most appropriate treatment is:

19918

A patient of SLE presented with hematuria, proteinuria and renal failure. Renal biopsy shows wire-loop lesions Best management is:

19919

A patient with heart disease presented with breathlessness. The features of the patient are shown in images given below. which of the following is the best drug for treatment of edema in this patient:

19920

The risk of wound infection in patients with clean contaminated wounds is:

19921

The head and face of 45-year-old man were assaulted with fists and feet. He arrives at the emergency department with incomprehensible responses to questions, eyes opening to pain only, and whole body goes to flexion to painful stimuli. What is this Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of patient?

19922

In the given NCCT head, which of the following is false

19923

Which of the following patients is considered an appropriate candidate for breast-preserving therapy with lumpectomy followed by radiation therapy?

19924

A patient with type 1 diabetes on insulin glargine 10 units at bed time and insulin lispro 8 units before each meal. Home blood glucose readings (mg/dl)are fasting 180-200, after breakfast 220-240, before lunch 140-150, after lunch 150-180, before dinner 100-110,after dinner 140-150,3 AM is 190. How will you adjust the insulin doses?

19925

A 16 year old girl diagnosed with anemia in view of symptoms of fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. Her weight is 40 kg. Lab tests revealed Hb as 8.0 g/dl and serum ferritin 3ng/ml. She was started on oral iron but developed severe gastritis and vomiting. What will you do next?

19926

Trauma and injury severity score (TRISS) includes

19927

Which of the following surgery is not done for the treatment of this condition

19928

Which of the following absorbable sutures takes longs time to get absorbed?

19929

A 16 year old boy develops sudden pain in his right scrotum, which woke him up from sleep and has been severe since then. He also complains of vomiting. There has been a similar episode about a year ago which resolved by itself rather quickly. On examination, he is clinically afebrile, His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 104 per minute. His abdomen is non distended and non-tender, but his Right hemiscrotum is acutely swollen and tender on palpation. Differential diagnosis in this case include all of the following except:

19930

A 45-year-old male patient is investigated by his general practitioner for non-specific upper abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan shows a 0.5 cm single, non-mobile lesion in the gallbladder highly suggestive of a gallbladder polyp. The treatment of choice is:

19931

Which one of the following statements regarding insulinoma is incorrect?

19932

With regard to the gall bladder:

19933

A 38 year old construction worker presented to surgery OPD with complaint of dull pain in right iliac fossa for last few weeks. He also complains of loss of weight and appetite amongst other symptoms. On examination a hard nodular, non-mobile, non-tender mass was noticed in right illiac fossa. Blood investigations were performed and his HB levels were found to be 9 gm/dl. Most likely diagnosis in the above patient would be:

19934

Identify the diagnosis in this barium enema image:

19935

Which of the following is not a necessary topic when obtaining informed consent from a patient before an invasive investigation or intervention?

19936

A 10-month-old baby boy is brought to the Paediatric Surgical Emergency unit by his parents with a 24-hour history of intermittent episodes of crying, vomiting, and refusal to feed. The parents say that they have noticed the stools baby to be mixed with blood. On examination, a sausage-shaped mass is palpable over the right side of abdomen. Per rectal examination reveals an empty rectum but blood is noticed in the glove of the examining finger. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

19937

A 35-year-old female with a BMI of 36 experiences persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms despite lifestyle and dietary modification, and maximum antisecretory therapy. Which of the following tests should first be performed before considering antirefl ux surgery in this patient?

19938

A 60-year-old man present with dysphagia and heartburn. He undergoes a gastroscopy, which shows evidence of Barrett oesophagus. Which of the following options best describes the pathological process in the development of Barrett’s oesophagus?

19939

A 69-year-old South-Asian man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of tiredness, evening pyrexia, night sweats, and abdominal discomfort. He also experiences nausea and vomiting, and states that he might have lost about 10 kg in weight during this period. On examination, his temperature is 37.8 degree C. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness over the right iliac fossa and a non-tender mass in this region. His haemoglobin is 9.4 g/dL, WCC 15 × 109/L, and the ESR 112 mm/hour. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen reveals thickening of the mesentery and mesenteric lymphadenopathy. Plain chest radiography demonstrates evidence of right apical fibrosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19940

What is pathology seen in the given chest X-ray?

19941

A 80 year old man comes to the physician because of a slowly growing ulcerated mass on the glans penis. A biopsy is positive for squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following conditions is usually present in association with his tumor?

19942

Which of the following statements are false?

19943

The Following is true about the tympanic membrane EXCEPT:

19944

All are correct about Meniere disease EXCEPT:

19945

The mechanism of nasal allergy is:

19946

In 40 years female patient with left hearing loss, rinne test is negative on the left side and tympanogram is type As, your diagnosis is:

19947

The tympanic membrane is divided into:

19948

All of the following are extrinsic laryngeal membranes/ligaments, except:

19949

A 2 months old child who was born by normal delivery to a primigravida lady presented with below hoarseness and below finding on Laryngoscopy. What could be possible diagnosis?

19950

The facial nerve of patient is transected in the cerebellopontine angle. Electric stimulation over the stylomastoid foramen will fail to elicit facial movement:

19951

Patient presents with severe hearing loss. For the amount of decibel loss he has, which of the following sound can be heard by him?

19952

Caloric test was done on right side with cold water. Eyes moved to the opposite side. Which of the following corresponds to correct interpretation of nystagmus in this test?

19953

Which of the following is true regarding nodule of Singer?

19954

Corneal endothelium is embryologically derived from:

19955

Cause of decreased vision due to defect shown in visual?

19956

False about Bitot spots is?

19957

All of the following organisms can invade an intact corneal epithelium except:

19958

The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

19959

Changes seen in the conjunctiva in Vitamin A deficiency:

19960

A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of the of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas on the palpebral conjunctiva is:

19961

Which of the following does not cause haemorrhagic conjunctivitis?

19962

Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

19963

Cataract in diabetic patients is because of accumulation of sorbital in lens. The enzyme responsible for this is:

19964

A 56 year old man presents after 3 days of cataract surgery with history of pain and decrease in vision after an initial improvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

19965

A 55 years old patient complains of decreased distance vision. However now he does not require his near glasses for near work. The most likely cause is:

19966

The best accounted function to MIP-26 in lens:

19967

Which of the following is not needed for IOL power calculation prior to cataract surgery:

19968

Which component of the eye has maximum refractive index?

19969

Identify the marked structure in the following image?

19970

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well-defined parenchymal nodules implies which stage of sarcoidosis?

19971

A plain radiograph of the hand shows evidence of subperiosteal erosion along the radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the middle and index fingers. What is the most likely diagnosis?

19972

Which one of the following features are you most likely to see in a 3-month-old infant with Tetralogy of Fallot?

19973

An 8-year-old child present with localized with non-scarring alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. What is the treatment of choice?

19974

A Child presents with sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet as shown in the image below. What is the causative organism for it?

19975

A 25 year old female presents with 2 year history of repetitive, irresistible thoughts of contamination with dirt associated with repetitive hand washing. She reports these thoughts to be her own and distressing; but is not able to overcome them along with medications. She is most likely to benefit from which of the following therapies?

19976

A patient came with complaints of having a deformed nose and also complained that nobody takes her seriously because of the deformity of his nose. She has visited several cosmetic surgeons but they sent her back saying that nothing is wrong with her nose. She is probably suffering from:

19977

A lady while driving a car meets an accident and admitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged she often gets up in night and feels terrified and has fear to sit in a car again. The diagnosis is:

19978

A 45 years, was brought to casualty with abnormal movements which included persistent deviation of neck to right side one day before she was prescribed Haloperidol 5 mgs three times daily from the psychiatry OPD. She also had an altercation with her husband recently. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms:

19979

A 23 years old woman arrives at the emergency room complaining that, out of the blue, she has been seized by an overwhelming fear, associated with shortness of breath and a pounding heart. These symptoms lasted for approximately 20 min, and while she was experiencing them, she feared that she was dying. The patient has had four similar episodes during the past month, and she has been worrying that they will continue recurring. Which of the follow diagnosis is most likely?

19980

A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and draining of abscess under general anesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anesthesia circuit is:

19981

A 27 year old female was brought to emergency for acute abdomen and laparotomy planned. A speedy intubation was performed out for the intubation, breath sounds was observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end tidal CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis is:

19982

This is best treated with:

19983

A patient presented with blunt trauma to the abdomen to emergency department. HR 150/min, BP = 80/50mmHg. He is scheduled to undergo an emergency laparotomy. Which of the following is anesthetic agent of choice?

19984

A 62 year old widower complains of left side’s loin pain for last 3 months. He has been a chronic smoker and alcoholic, but has been taking more of alcohol and cigarette ever since his wife passed away a few years back. His examination revealed him to be clinically afebrile, he has a blood pressure of 170/110, and a pulse rate of 96/min with normal heart sounds and clear chest. His past records don’t show any evidence of hypertension though. Abdominal examine is normal except for a left varicocoele. An USG was advised which revealed a larger mass in left renal area. This Patient may also experience the following:

19985

A 45-year-old male patient presents with chest pain after a few episodes of vomiting following binge drinking over the weekend. On examination he looks unwell. His pulse rate is 90/min, BP normal and temperature 38 degree C. Chest X-ray shows pneumomediastinum and left-sided pleural effusion. The most likely diagnosis is:

19986

A 65-year-old male patient presents with gallstones and a 7 cm liver abscess adjacent to the gallbladder. The most appropriate treatment is:

19987

A 6 year old child is posted for elective urology surgery under general anesthesia. He refuses to allow the anesthesiologist on I.V. access. The best inhalational agent of choice for induction of anesthesia is:

19988

A collapsed adult patient was brought to the casualty. CPR was started according to 2015 AHA CPR guidelines. The ratio of chest compressions to ventilation was maintained at 30:2. What should be the ideal rate of chest compression?

19989

A 42-year-old male has a history of 6 months of pain in the lower thoracic region. Recently, the patient developed weakness in the right lower extremity, bladder and bowel movement. Plain x-rays were normal, but a CT myelography was done which showed following picture. Which of the following is the best suggested treatment?

19990

While playing a lawn tennis match, a young girl fell down on a cemented court. She complained of pain and was given pain killer medicines. Further she could not complete the match and went on to take some rest .The pain did not abate next day too. She sought orthopaedics opinion. X ray was advised which returned the following picture. Next step in the management would be:

19991

A 49-year-old woman has noted increasing difficulty with movement of her left hand for the past 2 years. On examination she cannot completely extend the left middle finger. In the palm of her hand at the base of this finger there is an ill-defined mass that is very firm to palpation. What will microscopic examination of this excised mass most likely show?

19992

Most common cause of abortion:

19993

Young female H/o abortion and secondary amenorrhea since then. FSH 6 IU/L cause?

19994

Which of the statement is not true about cervical cancer screening guidelines according to WHO?

19995

Identify the image. What is the cut off for normal NT?

19996

A 35yr old G4P3L3 came at 32 weeks gestation with absent fetal movements and bleeding per vagina. USG done shows dead fetus with complete placenta previa, what is the management?

19997

Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma:

19998

A lady undergoes radical hysterectomy for stage Ibca cervix. It was found that cancer extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix, next step management will be:

19999

A lady presented with carcinoma endometrium involving >50 percent of myometrium extending to vagina and positive peritoneal cytology but no involvement of paraaortic and preaortic nodes. What is the stage of disease?

20000

A 19-year old patient complains of primary amenorrhea. She had developed breast and absent pubic hair and axillary hair but on examination there was absence of uterus and vagina. Likely diagnosis is:

20001

Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma:

20002

A 20 year average weight female presented with oligomenorrhea and abnormal facial hair growth along with high serum free testosterone level. On USG the ovaries are normal. The diagnosis:

20003

A G2 P1+0+0 diabetic mother present at 32 weeks pregnancy, there is history of full term fetal demise in last pregnancy. Her vitals are stable, sugar is controlled and fetus is stable. Which among the following will be the most appropriate management?

20004

A twenty years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

20005

A 48 years old female suffering from severe menorrhagia (DUB) underwent hysterectomy. She wishes to take hormone replacement therapy. Physical examination and breast are normal but X-ray shows osteoporosis. The treatment of choice is:

20006

A patient met with road traffic accident and had severe blood loss. He went into shock and was transfused whole blood. He was managed conservatively and was discharged after recovery from shock. He has no past medical history. Three months later he developed hepatitis. Which of the following is the next most common cause of blood transfusion-related hepatitis?

20007

A 45-year-old female presented with chest pain and breathless in the causality and below is the representative CT section. What is the most likely cause of her symptom?

20008

A 75 year old male patient presents with sudden weakness and spasticity in the right arm and leg. There is facial weakness on the same side sparing upper part of the face Clinical diagnosis of stroke is made. Which of the following structures is most likely affected?

20009

A 50-year lady, who is a known case-of rheumatoid arthritis, presents with obesity, moon facies and hypertension. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test shows serum cortisol is greater than 50 nmol/ L, serum ACTH is low. The adrenal imaging and brain CT/ MRI imaging studies are-unremarkable. The likely diagnosis is:

20010

A female of 36 weeks gestation presents with hypertension, blurring of vision and headache. Her blood pressure reading was 180/120 mm Hg and 174/110 mm Hg after 20 minutes. How will you manage the patient?

20011

A couple complains of primary infertility inspite of staying together for 4 years and having unprotected intercourse, all tests in wife are normal. Semen analysis shows a volume of 0.8mL/sperm count is 0, fructose is absent what is done next:

20012

A lady with abdominal mass was investigated. On surgery, she was found to have bilateral ovarian masses with smooth surface. On microscopy the revealed mucin secretin cells with signet ring shapes. Diagnosis?

20013

A 20 years old female presents with an ovarian mass 6x6x6 cm in size. Ultrasonography reveals solid structures in the mass. Her serum biomarkers such as AFP. hCG and CA 125 are normal, however her serum alkaline phosphatase was found to be elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

20014

A 26 years old female presented with mild pain in lower abdomen. She has had 2 full term normal delivery earlier. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks back. On pelvic examination, you find a palpable mass in the ednexa. On USG pelvis, you find a 5 cm ovarian cyst. What should be your next step?

20015

A 36 year old female, with two alive children complains of dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia. TVS shows a thin walled cyst 4cm x 5cm with ecogenic fluid and no solid areas in right ovary. She doesn’t wish to conceive. Which is first line management?

20016

All of the following affect the efficiency of phototherapy except:

20017

38 weeks child was born to a diabetic mother by normal vaginal delivery. Screening for hypoglycemia should be done upto the age of:

20018

3 months old infant, born at term reports in OPD. There is continuous murmur at the upper left sternal border. Peripheral pulses in all 4 limbs are full and there is widened pulse pressure. Congenital infection causing this is:

20019

Following picture is of child born to mother with history of headache, fever, joint pain, skin rash and conjunctivitis during third month of pregnancy. Most likely the infection is due to

20020

4 weeks old child is seen in emergency room with episode of cyanosis. Mother complains of similar episodes when the child is crying. On examination there is an ejection systolic border. Which of the following finding you expect in heart?

20021

In which of the following there can be normal four chamber along with normal atrioventricular valves:

20022

All of the following are the cause of transient primary hypothyroidism in neonate except:

20023

4 year old child is admitted in hospital with complaints of intractable epilepsy, lesion on the face and skin and mental retardation. Likely chromosome to be affected is:

20024

6-year-old male presents with history of headache, fever and vomiting for the past 24 hours. On examination child is toxic looking with low blood pressure. Capillary fill time is 4 seconds. There is petechial rash over abdomen & limbs. Antibiotic you would like to give to this child is:

20025

5 year old male child presents with fever for past 10 days. There is high grade fever, continuous without chills and rigor. On examination there is conjunctival congestion but not discharge. Two cervical lymph nodes are palpable, 2 cm each. There is no hepatosplenomeglay and no other significant history. Which of the following is expected to be seen to be present on peripheral blood film:

20026

According to WHO antibiotic coverage given to severe acute malnourished child free of any complication is:

20027

7 year old child is having feature of rickets. On biochemical investigation the serum PTH is normal, serum phosphorus is normal and serum calcium is decreased. Child was given cholecalciferol twice and same findings are present. Most likely cause is:

20028

Child can speak 2-3 words and walk 1-2 steps. Age of the child is:

20029

Child was short at birth but achieved normal mid parental height. Most likely due to:

20030

Vaccines given at 9 months of age:

20031

For effective group discussion, the group members should not exceed:

20032

Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disease?

20033

Faecal contamination of drinking water is evaluated by:

20034

Identify the type of twin pregnancy as seen in the USG-plate:

20035

A 48 years old lady underwent hysterectomy. On the 7th day, she developed fever, burning micturation and continuous urinary dribbling. She can also pass urine voluntarily. The diagnosis is:

20036

30-weeks-old neonate is diagnosed to have sepsis. He also has history of bleeding from the base of umbilical stump. All of the following investigations are useful in the child except:

20037

Recommended dietary allowance of vitamin A for adults is:

20038

In a community of 3000 people, if crude birth rate is 30 per 1000 population, then the number of pregnant females would be:

20039

Triple drug regimen for prevention of filariasis is:

20040

Sullivan index is:

20041

Father of Epidemiology:

20042

TNM staging of cancer is __________ data and can be measured on _________ scale:

20043

42 year old HIV positive with suspected Pulmonary Koch. First line test would be

20044

Syringe after BCG vaccination is disposed in

20045

33 year old with fever and rash after Aedes mosquito bite. All are possible except

20046

Munnabhai MBBS was advised a vaccine from hospital administration on day 1 of joining duty. All vaccines are recommended for healthcare personnel except

20047

99 year old with sepsis was being given a drug acting on the following. Identify?

20048

An LGBTQ+ couple visited a doctors clinic for suspected STI. All of the following should be under consideration except

20049

After a bioterrorism attack, the Army of the great Egyptian pharaoh Tutankhamun got descending flaccid paralysis. Most likely etiology?

20050

All pathogens can grow on blood agar except

20051

An HIV positive couple was planning a baby. All of the following can prevent parent to child transmission except?

20052

68 year old patient with necrotizing fasciitis. Culture revealed non lactose fermenting bacteria. Which method can be used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing

20053

A 12 year old presented with step ladder fever and rose spots. All are possible except

20054

5 year old presented with gluteal abscess having green coloured pus. Whats your clinical suspicion?

20055

3 year old with rice water stools, vomiting and severe dehydration. Which is the first line of intervention?

20056

27 year old girl presented with tripod sign clinically and thumb sign on X ray. Clinical examination revealed this picture. Diagnosis and most common cause

20057

6 year old with myocarditis after sore throat. All are possible except?

20058

21 year old female got scratches on left lower limb after road accident in India in a remote mountain area. All roads were closed due to heavy snowfall. Hospital access would require air evacuation. First line of intervention would be

20059

22 year old with CSF picture of raised pressure, raised proteins, numerous neutrophils and reduced glucose. Most likely etiology

20060

37 year old patient with chronic cough and hemoptysis. Which is the most likely app to be used for registration

20061

62 year old Indian citizen with sensorimotor bacterial infection leading to this condition. Most common type in India is

20062

39 year old with history of multiple sexual partners presented with Argyll Robertson pupil. Likely etiology?

20063

45 year old with high fever, breathlessness, dyspnoea on exertion and left upper zone consolidation. Most common cause?

20064

30 year old patient with rheumatic valvulitis underwent mitral valve replacement. She developed post operative endocarditis in the replaced valve. Most common cause and diagnostic criteria

20065

39 year old lactating female presented with this condition. Diagnosis and most probable etiology

20066

33 year old firefighter forgot to remove her vaginal tampons and had to be admitted in ICU for a toxin mediated disease. Most likely cause

20067

45 year old with cold abscess. Most likely diagnosis?

20068

25 year old with soft painful ulcer and painful lymphadenopathy after unprotected sexual contact. Etiology, diagnosis?

20069

39 year old with Oslers painful fingertip nodes, Janeways painless palmoplantar lesions, and hemorrhage in nailbed, conjunctival and retina. Diagnosis?

20070

8 MBBS FMGE students went for a picnic on a frozen river in Russia. They enjoyed canned Tuna following which they developed vomiting within 5 hours. Diagnosis?

20071

9 month old with diarrhea. Etiology, toxin and antibiotic treatment?

20072

35 year old policeman sustained a gunshot wound in left leg during a criminal encounter. He was brought after 3 days during your hospital duty with anaerobic bacterial myonecrosis. Etiology, treatment?

20073

22 year old first MBBS couple ate fresh live baby oysters on their first date. They had to be admitted in the hospital for 2 days. Most likely etiology?

20074

28 year old terrorist was found to have a Gram positive infection at the site of gun shot wound, sustained during a police encounter. All are possible clinical features except

20075

82 year old with GBBHS infection. All are possible except?

20076

34 year old patient with pus in the urethral meatus. He never got himself treated. Which condition can occur in his newborn baby?

20077

An NRI couple were planning to spend delivery and post delivery period in India. They were advised regarding high prevalence of childhood respiratory infections in India by a European doctor. They wanted to follow cocooning strategy. Where is it used?

20078

Chandrayan-4 mission 2026 with 3 astronauts on board found a packet containing bacterial spores on Tiranga point of the moon. It was suspected as an agent of bioterrorism from previous unknown lunar mission. Most probable bacteria?

20079

78 year old chronic alcoholic presented with the following. Diagnosis?

20080

38 year old female from lower socioeconomic group underwent Modified Youngs operation. All are related except

20081

52 year old milkman with undulant fever due to a zoonotic disease acquired from handling of cows and buffaloes. Diagnosis?

20082

42 year old rice farmer from Andaman with fever, icterus, hypotension due to a spirochaetal infection. Diagnosis, etiology?

20083

A 12 year old girl presented with acute glomerulonephritis of immunogenic etiology. Likely etiology?

20084

FMGE aspirants in Gautam Nagar celebrated a birthday bash enjoying a chocolate fountain. They developed food poisoning after 16 hours. Most likely etiology?

20085

22 year old with genital Chlamydiasis. Etiology, treatment?

20086

77 year old TB patient on regular treatment. Which drug acts best on rapidly growing bacteria and most common side effect of that drug?

20087

A 45 year old farmer with corneal opacity due to Chlamydial infection. All are possible except?

20088

Stool of a truck driver suffering from diarrhea revealed falling leaf motility. Etiological diagnosis?

20089

A 37 year old with protozoal STI. All are correct except?

20090

A 12 year old child with anchovy sauce pus. Diagnosis and treatment?

20091

A 43 year old pregnant female, mom to 12 kitten, delivered FTND baby with congenital hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis. Diagnosis?

20092

Peripheral blood smear of a 40 year old female presenting with fever, chills and rigors showed the following. The picture depicts

20093

A 12 year old with megaloblastic anaemia after helminthic infection. Diagnosis?

20094

Peripheral blood from 34 year old found to have banana shaped gametocytes. Diagnosis?

20095

44 year HIV positive male with protozoal diarrhoea. Diagnosis, treatment?

20096

9 year old bitten by sandfly developed abdominal distension and fever. All are correct except

20097

All are correct about malaria treatment except

20098

16 year old citizen of Congo with seizures for the first time in life. Most common cause?

20099

9 year old girl showed the following in USG liver. Diagnosis, etiology?

20100

A 58 year old HIV positive on cotrimoxazole prophylaxis. Protection will be conferred to all except

20101

A 17 year primigravida with 17 weeks POG diagnosed with cholangiocarcinoma. Most likely etiology?

20102

Octogenarian farmer with iron deficiency anaemia. Diagnosis?

20103 Enzymes increase the rates of reaction by:
20104 Malonate is an inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase, a key enzyme in the Krebs tricarboxylic acid cycle. The presence of malonate will affect the kinetic parameters of succinate dehydrogenase in which one of the following ways?
20105 In the gut, the generic class of enzymes that convert macromolecules to monomeric units area:
20106 Enzymes of lyase class catalyze:
20107 The higher is Michaelis constant, the affinity of the enzyme for the substrate:
20108 Coenzymes are:
20109 When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate concentration, which of the following is obtained?
20110 In which of the following conditions the level of creatinine kinase 1 increases?
20111 _____ occurs when the inhibitory chemical, which does not have to resemble the substrate, binds to the enzyme other than at the active site:
20112 Estimation of the gamma glutamyltransferase is useful to detect one of the following conditions
20113 Table sugar which is used in making tea is:
20114 Spermatozoa in seminal fluid utilizes the following sugar for its metabolism:
20115 Cellulose cannot be digested by the humans because of the inability to hydrolyse:
20116 Patients with diabetes frequently report changing visual acuities when their glucose levels are chronically high. Which of the following could explain the fluctuating acuity with high blood glucose levels?
20117 After digestion of a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as ts primary ingredients, the major carbohydrate products entering the blood are which one of the following? Choose the one best answer:
20118 Which of the following is a substrate for aldolase activity in glycolytic pathway?
20119 A patient is in septic shock and his tissues are poorly perfused and oxygenated. The major end product of glucose metabolism in these tissues will be an accumulation of which one of the following?
20120 Which one of the following is a property of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
20121 Respiratory distress is induced on rotenone exposure because it inhibits the complex that catalyzes which of the following?
20122 In conversion of lactic acid to glucose, three reactions of glycolytic pathway are circumvented, which of the following enzymes do not participate?
20123 A student, worried about exams, has not eaten more than 48 hours; however, her blood glucose levels are still at normal fasting levels. At this point in time, the blood glucose is being produced by which one of the following pathways?
20124 A liver biopsy from an infant with hepatomegaly, stunted growth, hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, hyperlipidaemia revealed accumulation of glycogen having normal structure. A possible diagnosis would be:
20125 The Primaquin sensitivity type of haemolytic anaemia has been found to be related to reduce RB cells activity of which enzyme?
20126 A chronic alcoholic has recently had trouble with their ability to balance, becomes easily confused, and displays nystagmus. An assay of which of the following enzymes can determine a biochemical reason for these symptoms?
20127 The pentose phosphate pathway generates which one of the following?
20128 A patient presented with a bacterial infection that produced an endotoxin that was found, after extensive laboratory analysis, to inhibit phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. The patient would have very little glucose produced from which one of the following gluconeogenic precursors?
20129 In starvation, in the beginning, the activities of the following enzymes are increased except:
20130 Which of the following metabolites is involved in glycogenolysis, glycolysis, and gluconeogenesis?
20131 A 44-year-old man receiving antibiotic therapy for a urinary tract infection has a self-limiting episode of hemolysis, back pain, and jaundice. The peripheral blood smear reveals a nonspherocytic, normocytic anemia, and Heinz bodies are seen in some of his erythrocytes. Which of the following genetic deficiencies is most likely related to his hemolytic episode?
20132 Which out of the following has the highest redox potential?
20133 Glycogenolysis in muscle does not contribute directly to blood glucose concentration because muscle lacks the enzyme:
20134 Hydrolysis of lactose yields
20135 Gluconeogenesis involves conversion of
20136 Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive?
20137 Glutathione is a:
20138 Some amino acids are termed non-essential as they:
20139 Which enzymes are responsible for producing the direct donors of nitrogen into the pathway producing urea?
20140 In the biosynthetic pathways for the Synthesis of heme, creatine, and guanine, which one of the following amino acids directly provides carbon atoms that appear in the final product?
20141 As part of a standard neonatal screen, an infant is diagnosed with a loss of function genetic defect in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase. Defects in this enzyme can result in a condition known as phenylketonuria (PKU), which results from the toxic effects of phenylalanine derived phenylketones. Fortunately, this condition can be managed by regulating the amount of phenylalanine provided in the diet. Which of the following nonessential amino acids will need to be supplied in the diet of this infant?
20142 A young adult with albinism is found to be at increased risk for skin cancer. Which of the following is the precursor of melanin?
20143 Ochronosis is an important finding of
20144 Histamine, a chemical mediator of allergies and anaphylaxis, is synthesized from amino acid Histidine by which of the following processes?
20145 A child was brought to paediatric OPD with complaint of passage of black colored urine. A disorder of Phenylalanine metabolism was diagnosed. A low phenylalanine diet and a supplementation of vitamin C were recommended. Which enzyme defect is expected in this child?
20146 Dopamine is synthesized from which of the following amino acids?
20147 Amino acids excreted -in the urine in cystinosis:
20148 The amino acid which synthesizes many hormones:
20149 In a 55- year-old man, who has been diagnosed with cirrhosis of liver, Ammonia is not getting detoxified and can damage brain. Which of the following amino acids can covalently bind ammonia, transport and store in a non- toxic form?
20150 The extremely potent vasodilator nitric oxide (NO) is produced naturally by the body from which of the following amino acids?
20151 Which of the following amino acids is not a precursor for protein synthesis?
20152 Folatetrap: it means?
20153 Kynurenine is formed from
20154 A 56-year-old man with a history of genetic disease undergoes hip replacement surgery for arthritis. During the operation the surgeon notes a dark pigmentation (ochronosis) in the man’s cartilage. His ochronotic arthritis is most likely caused by oxidation and polymerization of excess tissue:
20155 The highest concentration of cystine can be found in
20156 The peptide bond in proteins is
20157 Which hemoglobin chain replaces the beta chain in embryonic hemoglobin?
20158 An amino acid that does not form an alpha-helix is:
20159 Micelles formed in the intestine have which of the following properties?
20160 Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories per gram?
20161 When choline of lecithin is replaced by ethanolamine the product is
20162 The smell of the fat turned rancid is due to:
20163 Tay-Sachs disease involves the metabolism of gangliosides. Gangliosides are composed of a ceramide backbone with at least which one of the following?
20164 A newborn infant has severe respiratory problems. Over the next few days, it is observed that the baby has severe muscle problems, demonstrates little development, and has neurological problems. A liver biopsy reveals a very low level of acetyl CoA carboxylase, but normal levels of the enzymes of glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, the citric acid cycle, and the pentose phosphate pathway. What is the most likely cause of the infant’s respiratory problems?
20165 First step in fatty acid synthesis involve
20166 Which of the following not participate in the synthesis of fatty acids?
20167 A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation
20168 Which statement best describes the oxidation of odd chain fatty acids?
20169 Increased citric acid levels in the blood will stimulate which of the enzyme?
20170 A patient is taking a statin primarily to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis. A potential problem of statin treatment is which one of the following?
20171 Which of the following compounds directly inhibits the expression of the HMG-CoA reductase?
20172 Which of the following enzymes participate in degradation of chylomicrons?
20173 LDL are formed as a result of degradation of:
20174 Which are the major factors facilitating development of atherosclerosis?
20175 Which of the following is a sphingophospholipid?
20176 Which of the following phospholipids is a component of inner mitochondrial membrane?
20177 Iodine number denotes
20178 All the following statements about ketone bodies are true except
20179 A patient has been on a self-imposed starvation diet for four months, and has lost 60 pounds while consuming only water and vitamin pills. If extensive blood studies were performed, which of the following would be expected to be elevated?
20180 A lipoprotein inversely related to the incidence of coronary artherosclerosis is:
20181 The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic mobility and the lowest triglyceride content is:
20182 Gangliosides are complex glycosphingolipids found in
20183 Dipalmitoyl lecithin acts as
20184 Glycine contributes to the following C and N of purine nucleus:
20185 A double-stranded RNA genome isolated from a virus in the stool of a child with gastroenteritis was found to contain 15 percent uracil. What is the percentage of guanine in this genome?
20186 All are true about Lesch-Nyhan syndrome except:
20187 Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively
20188 A palindrome is a sequence of nucleotide in DNA that
20189 Okazaki fragment are synthesized in
20190 Following enzymes are used in DNA synthesis are all except
20191 Starting from 3’ end (acceptor arm) the correct sequence (towards 5’ end) of the arm in the tRNA is
20192 Introns are excised by
20193 Which of the following blot techniques is used for identification of protein?
20194 All of the following statements characterize DNA replication except:
20195 Translocase is an enzyme required in the process of:
20196 An increased melting temperature of duplex DNA results from a high content of
20197 Shine Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
20198 The enzyme DNA ligase
20199 Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
20200 A patient has Lesch-Nyhan syndrome caused by an absence of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase. The patient's condition is caused by an enzyme deficiency in which of the following biochemical pathways?
20201 A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32 percent adenine, 18 percent guanine, 17 percent cytosine and 33 percent thymine. The nucleic acid must be:
20202 The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA
20203 The active transport of Ca is regulated by ________, which is synthesized in kidneys:
20204 The biological activity of vitamin E has been attributed, in part, to its action as:
20205 Increased carbohydrate consumption increases the dietary requirement for:
20206 All of the following are antioxidant except:
20207 Vitamin K plays an essential role in
20208 A chronic alcoholic develops severe memory loss with marked confabulation. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins would be most likely to contribute to the neurologic damage underlying these symptoms?
20209 Long term broad spectrum antibiotics with reduced clotting time in localized areas is an indication of a deficiency in what?
20210 Whole wheat is an excellent source of:
20211 A deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1) would most likely lead to which of the following clinical manifestations?
20212 Which of the following coenzyme is involved in the formation of hydorxy-proline during collagen synthesis?
20213 To prevent rickets in case of chronic renal disorders, which of the following substances should be administered?
20214 Most susceptible nerve fiber to local anesthesia is:
20215 Formulation of ideas which is to be expressed in speech, are planned in;
20216 Hyperinflation of lungs is prevented by:
20217 Neuron stem cells are example of
20218 In a patient, Rinne test is positive in both ears, Weber lateralizes to the right. What does this signify?
20219 A patient is unable to solve mathematics calculations. Which part of his brain is affected?
20220 All are the features of corticospinal tract involvement except;
20221 Which of the following is the immediate source of energy during muscle contraction?
20222 What is the upper limit of noise which people can tolerate without damage to their hearing is
20223 Red reaction in Lewis triple response is due to
20224 Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is due to
20225 Unconscious proprioception is carried out by
20226 Which of the following is not seen in disease of Alzheimer?
20227 A young adult male is lifting weights in the gym. He starts with 5 kg dumbbells as a warm-up for his biceps exercise and then gradually increases the weight. With increasing weight, what changes would occur in motor unit (MU) recruitment and motor nerve action potential (AP) frequency?
20228 A mutation in laboratory rat caused the loss of function of sarcoendoplasmic calcium ATPase in skeletal muscle cells. This abnormality is most likely to be associated with this mutation is:
20229 An elderly man has been experiencing tiredness and weight gain despite decreased appetite over the past year. The significant findings of his examination were an enlarged thyroid gland without pain, dry and coarse skin, hoarse voice, excessive feeling of cold, and low levels of iodine. Which of the following statements best reflects the diagnosis and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level in the blood of patient?
20230 A middle-aged woman had persistent headaches and blurred vision. She had gradually developed coarse facial features, broadening of eyebrows, and jaw protrusion over the last year. Her physician attempts to treat the endocrinal disorder using the pharmacological agent octreotide, a somatostatin analogue. What is the probable diagnosis and metabolic abnormality present in this patient?
20231 A middle-aged corporate employee used to have regular meals. However, he had to skip breakfast today due to a busy work schedule. He began to feel dizzy and extremely hungry by mid-afternoon. Which pair of hormones are most important to counteract hypoglycaemia during this period?
20232 A middle-aged man reports sleep difficulties due to his demanding role as a business executive involving frequent international travel. Following these trips, he faces daytime sleepiness for a brief period, after which his sleep quality normalizes. Which hypothalamic nucleus could be accountable for this delayed improvement of his symptoms?
20233 A young boy aspiring to be a bodybuilder visits his physician complaining that his biceps muscle unexpectedly failed to lift a very heavy dumbbell during training. Further inquiry reveals that he encountered no additional neuromuscular issues following this incident. What is the probable primary mechanism behind the sudden relaxation of skeletal muscle in this case?
20234 A young adult female was successfully resuscitated after being admitted to emergency due to a head injury. On regaining consciousness, she could not correctly follow the commands and repeat the words spoken to her. She is responding to sound, and her audition seems normal. Her speech is fluent, but her sentences do not make sense as they contain agrammatical or made-up words. She has most likely suffered the lesion in:
20235 Utilizing the functional magnetic resonance imaging technique, a researcher was investigating the responsiveness of neurons within the thalamus to diverse sensory stimuli. During his research, the researcher encounters an individual with a thalamic lesion. Which sensation would be least impaired in this individual?
20236 A 50-year-old patient was diagnosed with a medial temporal lobe lesion following an accident. The patient experienced difficulty in forming new memories while their long-term memories and general cognitive abilities remained intact. Further evaluation revealed that the ability of patient to recall events before the accident was unaffected. Which physiological process will most likely be disrupted due to this medial of patient temporal lobe lesion?
20237 Identify the type of cutaneous receptor
20238 The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is
20239 During a nerve action potential, a stimulus is delivered as indicated by the arrow shown in the following figure. In response to the stimulus, a second action potential
20240 Which of the following temporal sequences is correct for excitation– contraction coupling in skeletal muscle?
20241 A 39-year-old man with untreated diabetes mellitus type I is brought to the emergency room. An injection of insulin would be expected to cause an increase in his
20242 Which of the following statements concerning the transmission of pain signals into the central nervous system is correct?
20243 Within the primary somatosensory cortex, the various parts of the contralateral body surface are represented in areas of varying size that reflect which of the following?
20244 Cells of the adrenal medulla receive synaptic input from which of the following types of neurons?
20245 A man eats a low carbohydrate meal rich in proteins containing the amino acids that stimulate insulin secretion. Which of the following responses accounts for the absence of hypoglycemia?
20246 A 32-year-old female experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. Visceral pain
20247 A 48-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and dehydration. She is not undergoing chemo-therapy currently. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum-ionized calcium. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are undetectable, but there is an increase in PTH-related peptide PTHrP. The increased flow of calcium into the cell is an important component of the upstroke phase of the action potential in which of the following
20248 At a first-grade parent–teacher conference, the teacher of a 6-year-old boy indicates that the boy seems to have difficulty hearing. His parents take him to the pediatrician, who refers the boy to an otolaryngologist. The boy is found to have a significant hearing deficit accompanying a middle ear infection that also involves the middle ear bones. Which of the following is the primary function of the middle ear bones
20249 A 45-year-old male had a meal containing wild mushrooms that he picked in a field earlier in the day. Within a few hours after eating, he developed nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, vasodilation, sweating, and salivation. Which of the following statements about the parasympathetic nervous system is correct?
20250 Identify the type of neuron shown in the picture
20251 Under normal physiological conditions, blood flow to the skeletal muscles is determined mainly by which of the following?
20252 Which of the following statements regarding the basilar membrane is correct?
20253 Under awake, resting conditions, brain metabolism accounts for about 15 % of the total metabolism of the body, and this is among the highest metabolic rates of all tissues in the body. Which of the following cellular populations of the nervous system contributes most substantially to this high rate of metabolism
20254 Taste receptors
20255 The following given instrument is used to measure
20256 The method given in the picture is used to do which of the following test
20257 The following picture shows which of the type of potential
20258 The morning after a rock concert, a 20-year-old college student notices difficulty hearing his professor during lecture. The physician at the student health center suspects possible damage to his hair cells by the loud music. Depolarization of the hair cells in the cochlea is caused primarily by the flow of which of the following
20259 Which of the following physiological processes is not correctly paired with a structure?
20260 The rod receptor potential differs from other sensory receptors in that it shows
20261 Area of Broca is a specialized portion of motor cortex. Which of the following conditions best describes the deficit resulting from damage to area of Broca?
20262 A 20-year-old man presents with increasing daytime somnolence. A 24-hour sleep study showing a sudden onset of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep without previous slow-wave sleep confirms a diagnosis of narcolepsy. REM sleep decreases the secretion of growth hormone. The physiological secretion of growth hormone is increased by which of the following:
20263 A 22-year-old woman presents with a recurrent vaginal candidiasis that is refractory to nystatin treatment. Diabetes screening shows elevated fasting blood glucose, and the patient is started on 25 U of insulin per day. Which aspect of glucose transport is enhanced by insulin?
20264 Which of the following contributes to sodium escape in syndrome of Conn?
20265 A 5-year-old boy presents with abnormal running, jumping, and hopping. His parents have observed that he uses his arms to climb up his legs when rising from the floor. The pediatrician suspects Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and electromyography confirms a myopathy. The amount of force produced by a skeletal muscle can be increased by which of the following:
20266 A 52-year-old woman with a chief complaint of snoring is referred for a sleep study. As shown in the graph below, the concentration of a hormone varied over the 24-hour period of study. This diurnal variation in plasma level results from the secretion of which of the following hormones
20267 Identify the cell shown by the arrow A in the picture:
20268 A 45-year-old female office worker had been experiencing tingling in her index and middle fingers and thumb of her right hand. Recently, her wrist and hand had become weak. Her physician ordered a nerve conduction test to evaluate her for carpal tunnel syndrome. Which one of the following nerves has the slowest conduction velocity?
20269 Any spectral colour can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic lights (red, green, blue) in different proportions. If a person needs more of one of the colour for matching than a normal person, then he has a colour anomaly. More red colour is needed in case of:
20270 Out of the various phases of the action potential (recorded with one electrode inside the cell), which one has the longest duration:
20271 Which of the following is responsible for carrying the polio virus from the terminal part of the neuron to the cell body?
20272 Sensory receptor potentials:
20273 The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as:
20274 What are the EEG waves recorded for parieto-occipital region with subject awake and eye closed?
20275 Percentage change in the concentration of a substance of a substance necessary before an intensity difference in taste can be detected:
20276 Cutting which structure on the left side causes total blindness in the left eye?
20277 Salivation by dog seen when food is given along with ringing of bell is:
20278 A 55-year-old man has developed the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion due to carcinoma of the lung. Which of the following physiological responses would be expected?
20279 Neurological disease associated with the cerebellum produces which of the following types of symptoms?
20280 A young boy was diagnosed with congenital anosmia, a rare disorder in which an individual is born without the ability to smell. Odorant receptors are:
20281 While exercising, a 42-year-old female developed sudden onset of tingling in her right leg and an inability to control movement in that limb. A neurological exam showed a hyperactive knee jerk reflex and a positive Babinski sign. Which of the following is not characteristic of a reflex?
20282 A cross-sectional view of a skeletal muscle fiber through the H zone would reveal the presence of what?
20283 In the picture, the arrow A indicates
20284 Mechanism by which water is reabsorbed from PCT is:
20285 All of the following take place during acclimatization to high altitude except:
20286 With increased flow to loop of henle, decreased in GFR is by:
20287 A 38-year-old woman has a bout of “intestinal flu,” with vomiting and diarrhea for several days. Although she is feeling better, when she stands up quickly, she feels faint and light-headed. Which of the following explains why she is light-headed?
20288 In which vascular bed does hypoxia cause vasoconstriction:
20289 A 35-year-old man has a vital capacity (VC) of 5 L, a tidal volume (VT) of 0.5 L, an inspiratory capacity of 3.5 L, and a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 L. What is his expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?
20290 A 58-year-old man is given a glucose tolerance test. In the test, the plasma glucose concentration is increased and glucose reabsorption and excretion are measured. When the plasma glucose concentration is higher than occurs at transport maximum (Tm), the?
20291 A 49-year-old male patient with severe Crohn disease has been unresponsive to drug therapy and undergoes ileal resection. After the surgery, he will have steatorrhea because
20292 A balloon catheter is advanced from the superior vena cava into the heart and inflated to increase atrial pressure by 5 mm Hg. An increase in which of the following would be expected to occur in response to the elevated atrial pressure?
20293 A 60-year-old man had a heart attack 2 days ago, and his blood pressure has continued to decrease. He is now in cardiogenic shock. Which of the following therapies is most beneficial?
20294 A 65-year-old man has a heart attack and experiences cardiopulmonary arrest while being transported to the emergency room. The following laboratory values are obtained from arterial blood: plasma pH = 7.12, plasma PCO2 = 60mm Hg, and plasma HCO3 − concentration = 19 mEq/L. Which of the following best describes his acid-base disorder?
20295 If the average hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 50 mm Hg, the hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman space is 12 mm Hg, the average colloid osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is 30 mm Hg, and there is no protein in the glomerular ultrafiltrate, what is the net pressure driving glomerular filtration?
20296 Which of the following is true of the tubular fluid that passes through the lumen of the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa?
20297 A 62-year-old man complains of headaches, visual difficulties, and chest pains. His examination shows a red complexion and a large spleen. His complete blood count follows: hematocrit, 58%, WBC 13,300/μl, and platelets 600,000/μl. His arterial oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Which of the following would you recommend as a treatment?
20298 In a normal healthy person, which of the following blood components has the shortest life span?
20299 What is the proper pathway for the extrinsic clotting pathway?
20300 When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, a special set of respiratory neurons that are inactive during normal quiet breathing then becomes active, contributing to the respiratory drive. These neurons are located in which of the following structures?
20301 A tsunami tidal wave hits the coast of India and the people living there are forced to drink unclean water. Within the next several days, a large number of people develop severe diarrhea and about half of these people expire. Samples of drinking water are positive for Vibrio cholerae. Which of the following types of ion channels is most likely to be irreversibly opened in the epithelial cells of the crypts of Lieberkühn in these people with severe diarrhea?
20302 A newborn boy has a distended abdomen, fails to pass meconium within the first 48 hour of life, and vomits repeatedly. Analysis of a rectal biopsy provides a definitive diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. The absence of which type of cell is diagnostic for Hirschsprung disease?
20303 The transport of glucose through the membranes of most tissue cells occurs by which of the following processes?
20304 Which of the following is filtered most readily by the glomerular capillaries?
20305 A 19-year-old man severs an artery in a motorcycle accident. A bystander applies a tourniquet to stop the bleeding. When the paramedics arrive, the blood pressure of the injured man was only slightly hypotensive and his pupils were reactive. The greatest percentage of the redistributed blood volume came from which of the following:
20306 During heavy exercise, the cardiac output of the person increases upto five folds, while the pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by:
20307 Identify the Blood Cell type shown in the image
20308 Formula shown in Photograph is R = 8ηL/ πr4
20309 What is the complication can occur after the partial gastric section as shown in the picture below?
20310 Liver damage may result in decreased synthesis of plasma proteins such as albumin. What is the most significant effect of low plasma albumin on osmosis or fluid transport?
20311 A 95-year-old man with widely metastatic cancer is receiving morphine to help alleviate pain. Brainstem respiratory center function has been depressed as a result, causing hypoventilation. Which of the following might be expected to result from reducing ventilation?
20312 A 35-year-old woman with a recent breast cancer diagnosis reports gastrointestinal (GI) distress following chemotherapy treatments targeting fast- replicating cells. Which GI layer or signalling molecule is most likely affected by the treatment?
20313 Which of the following is not a manifestation of oxygen toxicity?
20314 Gibbs-Donnan effect states that the presence of non-diffusible ions on one side of semipermeable membrane
20315 A patient with uncontrolled hypertension is placed on a diuretic targeted to act on the sodium reabsorption site from the basolateral surface of the renal epithelial cells. Which of the following transport processes is the drug affecting
20316 When recording lead III on an EKG, the negative electrode is the?
20317 A female athlete who took testosterone-like steroids for several months stopped having normal menstrual cycles. What is the best explanation for this observation?
20318 Match the following
20319 In the diagram shown below, the swan ganz catheter is used to measure which of the pressure indirectly:
20320 In the image given below, which type of transport process is shown
20321 Following a sympathectomy, a 63 years old man experiences orthostatic hypotension. This is due to
20322 When oxygen moves through the thin side of the blood-gas barrier from the alveolar gas to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell, it passes the following layers in order
20323 Identify the cell shown by the arrow
20324 An 83-year old woman with constipation is prescribed a high-fiber diet, which leads to an increased production of short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs). SCFA absorption occurs almost exclusively from which of the following segments of the GI tract
20325 Migrating motility complexes occur about every 90 min between meals and are thought to be stimulated by the gastrointestinal hormone, motilin. An absence of MMCs causes an increase in which of the following:
20326 Increased intracranial pressure reflex increases blood pressure acting through vasomotor center. This reflex is
20327 Regarding the counter current mechanism all the following are true EXCEPT
20328 The work performed by the left ventricle is substantially greater than that performed by the right ventricle, because in the left ventricle
20329 Which of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in tubules is true
20330 A hospitalized patient has an ejection fraction of 0.4, a heart rate of 95 beats/min, and a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min. What is the end-diastolic volume of patient?
20331 The basis of Korotkoff sounds is due to:
20332 A 65-year-old man has a 25-year history of alcoholism and liver disease. He visits his physician because of swelling in his legs. A decrease in which of the following is likely to contribute to the development of edema in his legs?
20333 A healthy, 45-year-old man is reading the newspaper. Which of the following muscles are used for quiet breathing?
20334 Identify the sugar molecule attached shown by the green colour in the A blood group
20335 Gastric pressures seldom rise above the levels that breach the lower esophageal sphincter, even when the stomach is filled with a meal, due to which of the following processes:
20336 Identify the cell shown by the arrow A in the given image
20337 Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing luteininzing hormone surge is associated with which of the following steroid hormone ratios in peripheral circulation:
20338 Water is absorbed in the jejunum, ileum, and colon and excreted in the feces. Arrange these in order of the amount of water absorbed or excreted from greatest to smallest:
20339 In the transport of CO2 from the tissues to the lungs, which of the following occurs in venous blood?
20340 In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic contraction in this situation is:
20341 Stimulation of stretch receptors present in the left ventricle causes hypotension and bradycardia. This phenomenon is known as:
20342 A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with Stokes-Adams syndrome. Two minutes after the syndrome starts to cause active blockade of the cardiac impulse, which of the following is the pacemaker of the heart?
20343 Mass movements constitute an important intestinal event that lead to bowel movements. Mass movements cause which of the following?
20344 An 80-year-old man reports increasing dyspnea, which worsens with exertion. The cardiologist orders an echocardiogram, brain natriuretic peptide, and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to evaluate possible congestive heart failure. Which of the following is most likely with ANP
20345 A couple presents at the fertility center with concerns that they have not been able to conceive a child. The reproductive endocrinologist evaluates the wife to be certain that she is ovulating. Which of the following is an indication that ovulation has taken place
20346 Identify the device shown in the picture
20347 A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovascular adjustments. Which of the following is false?
20348 A 16 year old girl is bitten by a black spider and brought to the emergency. The doctor immediately injected gamma globulin to the girl. This type of immunization is known as:
20349 Hematocrit is a measure of
20350 Normally RBCs are hemolyzed when suspended in
20351 The sigmoid nature of Hb-O2 dissociation curve is because of:
20352 A person goes to the mountains. When he reaches about 5000ft. He develops dyspnea. Which of following correctly explains for the symptoms:
20353 A healthy 30-year-old woman is referred for a life insurance physical exam. History reveals that she has never smoked and vesicular breath sounds are heard at the periphery of the lung with auscultation. In the patient spirometry tracing below, the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) equals which of the following?
20354 A 44-year-old woman is diagnosed with Zollinger–Ellison syndrome. Which of the following findings is consistent with the diagnosis?
20355 A 92-year-old man presents with dehydration following 4 days of persistent diarrhea. Under this circumstance, hypotonic fluid would be expected in which of the following
20356 42 year old HIV positive with suspected Pulmonary Koch. First line test would be:
20357 Disposal of syringe after BCG vaccination and removed implant:
20358 All are correct sterilization controls except:
20359 Munnabhai MBBS was advised a vaccine from hospital administration on day 1 of joining duty. All vaccines are recommended for healthcare personnel except:
20360 99 year old with sepsis was being given a drug acting on the following. Identify?
20361 Suprapubic aspirate is indicated in:
20362 After a bioterrorism attack, the Army of the great Egyptian pharaoh Tutankhamen got descending flaccid paralysis. Most likely etiology?
20363 All pathogens can grow on blood agar except:
20364 A bacterium transferred resistance to another through plasmid. What is the process known as? Another bacteria was attacked by bacteriophage. What is the process known as?
20365 68 year old patient with necrotizing fasciitis. Culture revealed non lactose fermenting bacteria. Which method can be used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing:
20366 12 year old presented with step ladder fever and rose spots. All are possible except:
20367 5 year old presented with gluteal abscess having green coloured pus. What is your clinical suspicion?
20368 3 year old with rice water stools, vomiting and severe dehydration. Which is the first line of intervention?
20369 27 year old girl presented with tripod sign clinically and thumb sign on X-ray. Clinical examination revealed this picture. Diagnosis and most common cause:
20370 6 year old with myocarditis after sore throat. All are possible except?
20371 21 year old female got scratches on left lower limb after road accident in India in a remote mountain area. All roads were closed due to heavy snowfall. Hospital access would require air evacuation. First line of intervention would be:
20372 22 year old with CSF picture of raised pressure, raised proteins, numerous neutrophils and reduced glucose. Most likely etiology:
20373 37 year old patient with chronic cough and hemoptysis underwent CBNAAT. What would be the analysis?
20374 62 year old Indian citizen with sensorimotor bacterial infection leading to this condition. Most common type in India is:
20375 39 year old with history of multiple sexual partners presented with Argyll Robertson pupil. Likely etiology?
20376 45 year old patient with bulla due to gram positive diplococcic:
20377 30 year old patient with rheumatic valvulitis underwent mitral valve replacement. She developed post-operative endocarditis in the replaced valve. Most common cause and diagnostic criteria:
20378 39 year old lactating female presented with this condition. Diagnosis and most probable etiology:
20379 33 year old firefighter forgot to remove her vaginal tampons and had to be admitted in ICU for a toxin mediated disease. Most likely cause:
20380 45 year old with cold abscess. Most likely diagnosis?
20381 25 year old with soft painful ulcer and painful lymphadenopathy after unprotected sexual contact. Etiology, diagnosis?
20382 39 year old with Oslers painful fingertip nodes, Janeways painless palmoplantar lesions, and hemorrhage in nailbed, conjunctival and retina. Diagnosis?
20383 8 MBBS FMGE students went for a picnic on a frozen river in Russia. They enjoyed canned Tuna following which they developed vomiting within 5 hours. Diagnosis?
20384 23 year old primigravida with repeated episodes of unconsciousness after infection with Gram positive cocci in chains. Likely etiology and cardiac lesion?
20385 35 year old sustained an RTA and brought after 3 days during your hospital duty with anaerobic bacterial myonecrosis, and crepitus. Etiology, treatment?
20386 22 year old first MBBS couple ate fresh live baby oysters on their first date. They had to be admitted in the hospital for 2 days. Most likely etiology?
20387 9 month old with diarrhea. Etiology, toxin and antibiotic treatment?
20388 82 year old with GBBHS infection. All are possible except?
20389 34 year old patient with pus in the urethral meatus. He never got himself treated. Which condition can occur in his newborn baby?
20390 All side effects match except?
20391 Chandrayan-4 mission 2026 with 3 astronauts on board found a packet containing bacterial spores on Tiranga point of the moon. It was suspected as an agent of bioterrorism from previous unknown lunar mission. Most probable bacteria?
20392 78 year old chronic alcoholic presented with the following. Diagnosis?
20393 38 year old female from lower socioeconomic group underwent Modified Youngs operation. All are related except:
20394 52 year old milkman with undulant fever due to a zoonotic disease acquired from handling of cows and buffaloes. Diagnosis?
20395 42 year old rice farmer from Andaman with fever, icterus, hypotension due to a spirochaetal infection. Diagnosis, etiology?
20396 A 12 year old girl presented with acute glomerulonephritis of immunogenic etiology. Likely etiology?
20397 FMGE aspirants in Gautam Nagar celebrated a birthday bash enjoying a chocolate fountain. They developed food poisoning after 16 hours. Most likely etiology?
20398 22 year old with genital Chlamydiasis. Etiology, treatment?
20399 Inguinal bubo seen in?
20400 45 year old chronic diabetic with the following condition. Diagnosis and most common cause?
20401 Stool of a truck driver suffering from diarrhea revealed falling leaf motility. Etiological diagnosis?
20402 37 year old with protozoal STI. All are correct except?
20403 12 year old child with anchovy sauce pus. Identify 1-2-3:
20404 43 year old pregnant female, mom to 12 kitten, delivered FTND baby with congenital hydrocephalus and chorioretinitis. Diagnosis?
20405 Peripheral blood smear of a 40 year old female presenting with fever, chills and rigors showed the following. The picture depicts:
20406 12 year old with megaloblastic anaemia after helminthic infection. Diagnosis?
20407 Peripheral blood from 34 year old found to have banana shaped gametocytes. Diagnosis?
20408 44 year HIV positive male with protozoal diarrhoea. Diagnosis, treatment?
20409 9 year old bitten by sand-fly developed abdominal distension and fever. All are correct except
20410 All are correct about malaria treatment except:
20411 16 year old with multiple reddish streaks. Diagnosis?
20412 9 year old girl, having a pet dog at home, showed the following in USG liver. Diagnosis, etiology, and treatment?
20413 58 year old HIV positive on cotrimoxazole prophylaxis. Protection will be conferred to all except:
20414 33 year old with fever and rash after Aedes mosquito bite. All are possible except
20415 ____ can kill mosquito larva and Cyclops:
20416 7 year old child with acute flaccid paralysis with tripod sign. Diagnosis, treatment?
20417 47 year old with this viral infection. Diagnosis, etiology?
20418 13 year old got bitten from her immunized pet dog on the neck. Class of bite, number of vaccine doses and post exposure prophylaxis?
20419 New influenza strain was detected in 2024 in Gautam Nagar due to point mutation. Most likely etiology?
20420 32 year female with saddleback fever, centrifugal rash, and retro-orbital pain after Aedes bite. Diagnosis, treatment?
20421 65 year female with chronic hepatitis negative for HBsAg, HBeAg, Anti HBc. Treatment, vaccine?
20422 Chances of transmission of HIV, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C by needle stick injury:
20423 An HIV positive couple was planning a baby. All of the following can prevent parent to child transmission except?
20424 13 year old with fever, headache and drowsiness after eating palm fruit. Based on geographic location and exposure history, which viral infection is likely:
20425 3 year old child with Koplik’s spots. Diagnosis?
20426 32 year female detected for a cancer using this instrument. Identify the virus?
20427 46 year old with Crueutzfeldt Jacob disease. Etiology, treatment and mortality rate?
20428 3 months old child with TORCHeS infection. Identify?
20429 77 year old detected to have Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Etiology?
20430 A 37 year old drug addicted female presented with CD4 count 200. Identify the line depicting CD4 in the graph?
20431 14 homosexual men reported to a STD clinic after a homosexual party. All are possible except
20432 Lysogenic cycle is related to?
20433 65 year female with antibody dependent enhancement. Identify the virus?
20434 9 months old infant given ibuprofen to manage a congenital viral infection. Diagnosis?
20435 This was being discussed in a vaccination program. Identify
20436 46 year old sexually promiscuous rock star with history of unprotected sexual contacts found seropositive at VCCTC. The counsellor should inform results to?
20437 Treatment of condyloma acuminata
20438 22 year old MBBS student with fever and lymphadenopathy after kissing a Covid-19 negative stranger on a one night stand. Diagnosis, screening test, treatment?
20439 A viral outbreak of hemorrhagic fever occurred in Africa. Identify?
20440 Markers of vaccination and high infectivity of Hepatitis B are?
20441 New influenza pandemic started in 2030 on earth due to varicella zoster virus. Indian settlement on Shiv Shakti point on moon were expecting Chandrayan -8 manned mission. Period of quarantine for Chandrayan astronauts on moon would be?
20442 Aditya L1 spacecraft landed on Venus where Venusians attached another spacecraft to travel to Mercury. At the time there was an an outbreak of Meningococcal infection on Venus. Mercury citizens demanded all passengers to be vaccinated. Which vaccine is appropriate?
20443 Serodiscordant couple to be advised for HIV prevention. Which of the following is safe?
20444 25 year old athlete uses antifungal powder in socks before wearing shoes. Which of the following is expected in fungal stain?
20445 8 year old Covid-19 patient in ICU since 15 days presented with black discoloration of face. Diagnosis, etiology and feature:
20446 45 year old HIV patient with persistent headache, confusion and fever. CSF was positive for India Ink stain. Diagnosis and treatment?
20447 33 year old G2P2 with curdy white vaginal discharge with Gram positive budding yeast cells. Diagnosis?
20448 All are correct viral vaccines except
20449 All are correct vaccines for mosquito borne infections except
20450 Six year old child with recurrent bacterial and fungal infections of skin, respiratory tract, multiple abscesses and lymphadenitis. Abnormal dihydrorhodamine test. Diagnosed as chronic granulomatous disease. Etiology?
20451 44 year old patient sustained head injury and facial injury due to bike accident. Which condition can occur due to sequestered antigen?
20452 Which toxin is a superantigen?
20453 ABO incompatibility occurs due to:
20454 Antibodies always having valency of 2?
20455 Prompt, powerful and prolonged would be
20456 All are correct about Bence Jones proteins except?
20457 Which portion binds to antigen?
20458 Male partner to be treated in?
20459 18 year old doing MBBS from Mars in 2080 came back on vacation in Mangalyan after 4 years. She ate crispy fried momos and developed travellers diarrhoea. Most common toxin and treatment?
20460 You are the medical officer for examining an outbreak of a respiratory infection in Delhi MCD School. You will wear N95 in all the following diseases except
20461 A child with swelling of the face and scrotum brought with complaints of difficult mouth opening. Diagnosis?
20462 Match the following
20463 58 year old was brought with loss of power, muscular hypotonia, fasciculations and diminished deep tendon jerks. All are possible except:
20464 Match the following
20465 All are correct except
20466 Match the following
20467 Amsel criteria and Nugents score are related to
20468 34 year old Canadian travelling for first time to India with fever and loose motions. Diagnosis, most common etiology and treatment?
20469 6 month old child developed acute watery diarrhea when shifted from exclusive breastfeed to formula feeds. Most likely etiology?
20470 68 year old patient with eye flu in Delhi 2023. Most likely etiology
20471 43 year multigravida suspected of syphilis. Which are the likely tests for screening, confirmation and prognosis after treatment?
20472 25 year old with fever, eschar and lymphadenopathy following mite bite. Diagnosis?
20473 Match the following most common causes of keratitis
20474 6 year old with this tube. Identify
20475 Match the following Streptococci